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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a 3-month history of a non-productive cough,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a 3-month history of a non-productive cough, dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain, especially when climbing stairs. She reports intermittent fevers of up to 39°C and a 3.5-kg weight loss. She complains of wrist and ankle pain that has interfered with her work. She smokes two packets of cigarettes per day. Her full blood count is normal and serum ANA is negative. On examination there are red nodules over her lower legs.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is a condition where non-caseating granulomata develop in at least two organs, causing systemic inflammation. It is most common in African-Caribbean women and often affects the lungs, causing symptoms such as dry cough, dyspnea, and weight loss. Erythema nodosum is also frequently seen in patients with sarcoidosis. Histoplasmosis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, adenocarcinoma of the lung, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all possible differential diagnoses, but the absence of specific features makes sarcoidosis more likely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers. Her doctor has agreed to prescribe medication for migraine prevention. She is in good health and does not take any regular medications. Her blood pressure measures 130/83 mmHg.
      Which medication would be the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For migraine treatment, the recommended acute options are a combination of triptan with NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the recommended options are topiramate or propranolol. In a woman of childbearing age with no asthma history and requiring migraine prophylaxis, propranolol is the most appropriate option. Although it should be avoided during pregnancy, it does not carry the high risk of birth defects associated with topiramate. Carbamazepine is not recommended for migraine treatment but is licensed for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is not effective for migraine prophylaxis and is not recommended by NICE guidelines. Topiramate is an option for migraine prophylaxis, but it is not the most appropriate first-line option for a woman of childbearing age due to its teratogenic effects. Highly effective contraception is required if topiramate is used. The recommended safe options for contraception are the copper intrauterine device, levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena), or Depo-Provera injections plus condoms, as per guidelines from the Faculty of Reproductive and Sexual Health (FSRH).

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for several months....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for several months. Her mother and brother had similar issues. Ear examination reveals no abnormalities. An audiometry test indicates bilateral conductive hearing loss.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss and Their Characteristics

      Hearing loss can be caused by various factors, including genetic factors, abnormal bone formation, and tumors. Here are some common causes of hearing loss and their characteristics:

      1. Otosclerosis: This condition affects young adults and causes conductive deafness. It is caused by abnormal bone formation around the base of the stapes, which eventually fuses with the bone of the cochlea, reducing normal sound transmission.

      2. Glue ear: This is a type of conductive hearing loss that is more common in children. There is no evidence of ear examination, but it can cause hearing difficulties.

      3. Meniere’s disease: This is a sensorineural type of hearing loss that is usually accompanied by vertigo and a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear.

      4. Presbycusis: This is a sensorineural hearing loss that is associated with aging. Audiometry should show a bilateral high-frequency hearing loss.

      5. Vestibular schwannomas: This is a benign primary intracranial tumor that affects the vestibulocochlear nerve. It commonly presents with unilateral hearing loss and can affect the facial nerve causing facial palsy as well.

      Understanding the characteristics of these common causes of hearing loss can help in early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old man with a medical history of sickle cell disease presents with...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man with a medical history of sickle cell disease presents with intense pain in his left hip. He mentions having received antibiotics from his general practitioner for a chest infection. How would you categorize this sickle cell crisis?

      Your Answer: Thrombotic crises

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell patients may experience thrombotic crises due to factors such as infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation. In this case, the patient’s severe pain and recent infection suggest a thrombotic crisis. Other types of crises, such as sequestration crises that present with acute chest syndrome, aplastic crises caused by parvovirus infection, or haemolytic crises with increased haemolysis, may have different symptoms. A thyrotoxic crisis would not be related to sickle cell disease.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman has recently undergone blood monitoring for hypothyroidism. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has recently undergone blood monitoring for hypothyroidism. She is currently on a 100 micrograms dose of levothyroxine and her last blood tests showed normal levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (ft4). However, her TSH has now risen to 8mU/L with ft4 slightly below the reference range. The patient confirms that she has been taking her levothyroxine as prescribed. You decide to review her recent medications to identify any potential causes for the suboptimal hypothyroidism treatment. What new medication could be responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Ferrous sulphate

      Explanation:

      To avoid reducing the absorption of levothyroxine, it is important to give iron/calcium carbonate tablets at least four hours apart from the medication. Ferrous sulphate is the medication that can affect the absorption of levothyroxine and should also be given four hours apart. Patients should be advised to separate doses of calcium carbonate or antacids containing aluminium and magnesium from levothyroxine by at least four hours. It is recommended to review potential drug interactions before increasing treatment doses and refer to The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) clinical knowledge summaries for a detailed list of potential drug interactions. The other medications listed do not have a known effect on the absorption of levothyroxine.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      74.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found unresponsive in his home. His medical records show that he had recently been prescribed doxycycline for an unknown reason. Upon assessment, he is breathing rapidly with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min and has bibasal crackles. His heart rate is 96 beats/min and his blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. His blood glucose is 4.1mmol/L, his temperature 38.9ºC and his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 9 (E3M4V2). He is given a fluid bolus and an arterial blood gas (ABG) on 4L/min of oxygen is taken, revealing an abnormal pH. What is the most likely cause of the abnormal pH?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Metabolic Acidosis and Anion Gap

      Metabolic acidosis is a condition that occurs when the body produces too much acid or when the kidneys are not able to remove enough acid from the body. It is commonly classified according to the anion gap, which can be calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate levels from the sum of sodium and potassium levels. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question supplies the chloride level, it may be a clue that the anion gap should be calculated.

      There are two types of metabolic acidosis based on anion gap levels. Normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.

      Metabolic acidosis secondary to high lactate levels may be subdivided into two types: lactic acidosis type A and lactic acidosis type B. Lactic acidosis type A is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, while lactic acidosis type B is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types of metabolic acidosis and anion gap levels can help in diagnosing and treating the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three months ago and commenced on ramipril. Despite titrating up to 10mg od, his blood pressure remains at 156/92 mmHg. What is the next best course of action in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.

      She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.

      On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.

      Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
      Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
      Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sepsis secondary to forearm wound

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.

      A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.

      In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      120.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 17-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-year history...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-year history of restricting food intake weight loss and excessive exercise. She attends her GP for the first time with her sibling reporting a recent worsening of her symptoms. The GP suspects anorexia nervosa.
      Which is the most appropriate investigation to determine whether the patient requires urgent hospital admission?

      Your Answer: Transthoracic echocardiography

      Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      Medical Investigations for Anorexia Nervosa: Which Ones Are Necessary?

      When assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, certain medical investigations may be necessary to evaluate their overall health and identify any potential complications. However, not all investigations are routinely required. Here is a breakdown of some common investigations and when they may be necessary:

      Electrocardiogram (ECG): A baseline ECG is important to assess for any cardiovascular instability, including heart rate and QT interval. Electrolyte abnormalities from eating disorders can impact cardiac stability.

      24-hour Holter monitor: This investigation may be considered if there is a problem with the baseline ECG or a history of cardiac symptoms such as palpitations.

      Chest X-ray (CXR): A CXR is not routinely required unless there is clinical concern of other respiratory symptoms.

      Serum prolactin: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a history of galactorrhoea or amenorrhoea.

      Transthoracic echocardiography: This investigation is not routinely required unless there is a clinical history or examination findings to suggest imaging of the heart is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old woman, who is known to have rheumatoid arthritis, complains that she...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman, who is known to have rheumatoid arthritis, complains that she has had recurrent haemoptysis for over five years. She has never smoked and only takes a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent. According to her, she coughs up phlegm every day and at times this contains streaks of fresh blood. She has no known respiratory disease, but tends to get frequent chest infections that are relieved by a course of antibiotics.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bronchiectasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by permanent and irreversible dilatations of the bronchial walls. It can be caused by various factors, including cystic fibrosis, immune system deficiencies, lung infections, foreign body aspiration, and smoking. Common symptoms of bronchiectasis include high sputum production, recurrent chest infections, and haemoptysis. A high-resolution computed tomography (HR-CT) scan of the lungs is usually used to diagnose bronchiectasis. Treatment involves a multidisciplinary approach, including chest physiotherapy, patient education, antibiotic treatment, and bronchodilators. While treatment of the underlying cause may be necessary, it does not provide reversal of the existing bronchiectasis. Other conditions, such as atypical pneumonia, lung cancer, tuberculosis, and pulmonary embolism, may have similar symptoms but require different diagnoses and treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      169.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the most crucial measure to take in order to prevent the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most crucial measure to take in order to prevent the advancement of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis in a 52-year-old woman who has been diagnosed through a liver biopsy?

      Your Answer: Eat more omega-3 fatty acids

      Correct Answer: Weight loss

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old man presents to clinic with increasing breathlessness, weight loss and peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to clinic with increasing breathlessness, weight loss and peripheral oedema over the past 2 months. His family are concerned that he has also become a bit more confused over the past week.

      His past history includes hypertension and a 35 pack-year smoking history. An echocardiogram from last year showed good biventricular contraction.

      His blood tests show the following:

      Haemoglobin (Hb) 150 g/L
      Platelets 230 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      White cell count (WCC) 4.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 124 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 2.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 62 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      C reactive protein (CRP) 6 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Right-sided heart failure

      Correct Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Investigation for lung cancer should be considered in a long-term smoker with a history of weight loss and breathlessness, as SIADH is a common endocrine complication of small cell lung cancer. If the patient has not had a normal echo recently, right-sided heart failure may be a more likely explanation for their symptoms. While COPD and pulmonary fibrosis can also cause breathlessness, they would not account for the peripheral oedema and hyponatraemia.

      SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections such as tuberculosis or pneumonia, and certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs. Other causes may include positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment for SIADH involves slowly correcting the sodium levels to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis. This can be done through fluid restriction, the use of demeclocycline to reduce responsiveness to ADH, or the use of ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as glimepiride and glipizide, have been reported to cause SIADH according to the BNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      166.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old young woman is completing a summer internship at a daycare center...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old young woman is completing a summer internship at a daycare center before applying to study medicine. She has received a full schedule of childhood vaccinations. Her primary complaints are difficulty swallowing, a sore throat, malaise, and a fever. Upon examination, she has 5-10 gray ulcers on her buccal mucosa. Additionally, she has a vesicular rash on her hands and feet.
      What is the most probable cause of this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie virus infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease

      Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is a viral illness caused by Coxsackie virus A type 16. It presents as a vesicular eruption in the mouth and can also involve the hands, feet, buttocks, and/or genitalia. Macular lesions on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and/or hard palate rapidly progress to vesicles that erode and become surrounded by an erythematous halo. Skin lesions, which present as tender macules or vesicles on an erythematous base, develop in approximately 75% of patients. Treatment is supportive, and there is no antiviral agent specific for the aetiological agents. Adequate fluid intake, preferably with cold drinks, is essential to prevent dehydration.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema multiforme, herpes simplex infection, gonorrhoea, and pemphigus erythematosus. However, the clinical presentation and causative agent of hand-foot-and-mouth disease distinguish it from these other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Legionnaires' disease has several statements associated with it, but which one is true?...

    Correct

    • Legionnaires' disease has several statements associated with it, but which one is true?

      Your Answer: Hyponatremia occurs significantly more often in Legionnaires’ disease than in other pneumonias

      Explanation:

      Understanding Legionnaires’ Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Legionnaires’ disease is a type of pneumonia that is caused by the Legionella bacteria. This disease is often overlooked as a possible cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but it is consistently ranked among the top three or four most common causes. The bacteria are found in water sources, and most patients contract the disease through aspiration.

      One of the key symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease is hyponatremia, which is a low level of sodium in the blood. This symptom is more commonly associated with Legionnaires’ disease than with other types of pneumonia. The disease is also more likely to occur in patients who are immunocompromised, as cell-mediated immunity appears to be the primary host defense mechanism against Legionella infection.

      The urinary antigen test is the preferred initial test for Legionnaires’ disease, but it has low sensitivity and is not particularly specific. The test detects only L. pneumophila serogroup 1, which causes most cases of the disease. Specific therapy includes antibiotics that can achieve high intracellular concentrations, such as macrolides, quinolones, or ketolides.

      Predisposing factors for Legionnaires’ disease include age over 50, cigarette smoking, excessive alcohol intake, chronic lung disease, and immunosuppression. High fever and gastrointestinal symptoms are clinical clues to this disease. It is important for healthcare providers to consider Legionnaires’ disease as a possible cause of pneumonia, especially in patients with these risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.6
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  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old man from Burkina Faso visits his GP with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man from Burkina Faso visits his GP with a complaint of a persistent cough and unintentional weight loss of 2kg over the last 8 weeks. He denies experiencing night sweats and has never smoked or consumed alcohol. He works as a baker. During the examination, the doctor observes sensitive, erythematous pretibial nodules. The Mantoux test results are negative. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sarcoidosis: A Multisystem Disorder

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Although the exact cause of sarcoidosis is unknown, it is more commonly seen in young adults and people of African descent.

      The symptoms of sarcoidosis can vary depending on the severity of the condition. Acute symptoms may include erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever, and polyarthralgia. On the other hand, insidious symptoms may include dyspnea, non-productive cough, malaise, and weight loss. In some cases, sarcoidosis can also cause skin lesions such as lupus pernio and hypercalcemia due to increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form.

      Sarcoidosis can also present as different syndromes. Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of the disease characterized by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, fever, and polyarthralgia. It usually has a good prognosis. Mikulicz syndrome, which is now considered outdated and unhelpful by many, is characterized by enlargement of the parotid and lacrimal glands due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or lymphoma. Heerfordt’s syndrome, also known as uveoparotid fever, is characterized by parotid enlargement, fever, and uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis.

      In conclusion, sarcoidosis is a complex condition that affects multiple systems in the body. Understanding the different symptoms and syndromes associated with sarcoidosis can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old male visits the clinic with watery diarrhoea. He was recently treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male visits the clinic with watery diarrhoea. He was recently treated with triple therapy for a duodenal ulcer and has a medical history of GORD, bipolar syndrome, and a previous heart attack. What factor in his medical history increases his susceptibility to a Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)?

      Your Answer: Longstanding GORD

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole use

      Explanation:

      C. difficile infection (CDI) is caused by disruptions in the normal gut flora, which leads to increased colonization of C. difficile and the release of toxins that cause inflammation. Established risk factors for CDI include the use of antibiotics, protein pump inhibitors, antidepressants, and conditions that affect the immune system or decrease gastric acid secretion. Bowel and early emergency surgery have also been associated with higher rates of CDI, while there is no established link between CDI and extraintestinal surgery. GORD, T2DM, and lithium are not specifically linked to higher rates of CDI, but obesity, which can be linked to many conditions and medications, is a known risk factor. Interestingly, studies have shown that statins may have a protective effect against CDI, possibly through alterations in the microbiota or reduction of inflammation in endothelial cells.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. His symptoms have come on quickly over the last three weeks. A full blood count is ordered and is suggestive of acute lymphoblastic myeloid leukaemia (AML).
      What Is the next most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow. To diagnose AML, several diagnostic tests may be performed. The most common tests include a bone marrow biopsy, ultrasound scan of the abdomen, chest X-ray, computerised tomography (CT) scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis, and lumbar puncture.

      Bone Marrow Biopsy: This is the most important test for diagnosing AML. It involves extracting cells from the bone marrow and examining them under a microscope. AML is characterised by the presence of primitive myeloblasts and Auer rods in the bone marrow.

      Ultrasound Scan of the Abdomen: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the abdomen or spleen. If any enlarged lymph nodes are found, they may be biopsied to determine the extent of the leukaemia.

      Chest X-ray: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the mediastinum.

      CT Scan of Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis: This test is not usually used as a first-line investigation for AML. However, once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan may be used to assess for the presence of enlarged lymph nodes or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.

      Lumbar Puncture: This test is not usually used in the diagnosis of AML unless it is suspected that the leukaemia cells are also present in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      In conclusion, a bone marrow biopsy is the most important test for diagnosing AML. Other tests may be used to determine the extent of the leukaemia or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      31.1
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  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. The patient had an episode of retinal artery occlusion (RAO) and had to go to the Eye Hospital as an emergency.
      After many investigations, the Ophthalmologist stated that the cause of her RAO is atherosclerosis of her central retinal artery (CRA). The patient is worried about her eyesight becoming worse and asks about long-term management plans for RAO.
      Which of the following is considered part of the long-term management plan for RAO?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer: Prophylaxis with an antiplatelet agent

      Explanation:

      Retinal artery occlusion is a condition that increases the risk of ischemic end-organ damage, such as stroke. Long-term management involves identifying and addressing underlying causes, reducing risk factors for atherosclerosis, and considering carotid endarterectomy if necessary. Ophthalmic follow-up and referral to low-vision-aid clinics may also be necessary. Acute treatment options include ocular massage, intra-arterial fibrinolysis, and lowering intraocular pressure with anterior chamber paracentesis. Atherosclerosis and embolism are the main causes of RAO, and prophylaxis with an antiplatelet or anticoagulation agent may be necessary for long-term management. However, even with early treatment, the prognosis is generally poor, and only about one-third of patients show any improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dizziness when she changes...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dizziness when she changes position in bed for the past two weeks. She describes the sensation of the room spinning around her. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found in her ears and cranial nerves. Assuming that she has benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, what is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Perform Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      BPPV can be diagnosed using the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, while the Epley manoeuvre is used for treatment.

      Understanding Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms include vertigo triggered by movements such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, and may be accompanied by nausea. Each episode usually lasts between 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which involves the patient experiencing vertigo and rotatory nystagmus.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and often resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited value. However, it is important to note that around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

      Overall, understanding BPPV and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to...

    Correct

    • You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to the coast of Kenya. The patient is a 60-year-old with fair skin and a history of psychiatric illness. The area is known for malaria with widespread chloroquine resistance, and the species of malaria found in the area include P. falciparum, P. Vivix, and P. Ovale. Based on this information, which anti-malarial medication would you suggest for this patient?

      Your Answer: Atovaquone/Proguanil

      Explanation:

      Malaria Chemoprophylaxis: Choosing the Right Medication

      Malaria is a potentially fatal disease that requires chemoprophylaxis for individuals entering known malaria areas. Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone) is a well-tolerated, once-daily medication that is effective in both preventing and treating malaria. It should be taken 24 hours before entering a malaria zone and continued for seven days after leaving. However, advice on bite avoidance is also crucial in preventing malaria.

      Doxycycline is a cheaper alternative to atovaquone/proguanil, but it may cause nausea and photosensitivity, which can be problematic for fair-skinned individuals. Chloroquine is an inferior choice due to widespread resistance, while mefloquine (Larium) may cause psychosis, making it unsuitable for patients with a psychiatric history.

      It is important to note that advising against chemoprophylaxis is not appropriate, as malaria poses a serious risk to all individuals, regardless of their previous exposure to malaria areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      121.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 1-month-old infant presents with low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-month-old infant presents with low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fragile X

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Edward’s syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers, which are present at birth.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.3
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old man visits his doctor for a follow-up on his depression. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits his doctor for a follow-up on his depression. He was given fluoxetine 4 months ago for a case of moderate depression. He reports that his mood has been great lately, that he no longer feels despair about the future, and that he has resumed his hobbies of playing basketball and writing.
      The patient indicates that he would like to discontinue taking fluoxetine since he believes his depression has been resolved.
      What advice should be given?

      Your Answer: Continue fluoxetine for at least a year

      Correct Answer: Continue fluoxetine for at least 6 months

      Explanation:

      To decrease the risk of relapse, it is recommended to continue antidepressant treatment for at least 6 months after remission of symptoms. Therefore, the correct response is to continue fluoxetine for at least 6 months at the same dose. It should be noted that in elderly patients, treatment should be continued for 12 months, and in those with a history of recurrent depression, treatment should be continued for 2 years. Stopping fluoxetine or tapering the dose over 2 weeks is not appropriate, as treatment should be continued for at least 6 months before considering stopping or tapering. When fluoxetine is stopped, it is recommended to taper the dose over 6-12 weeks to minimize the risk of withdrawal symptoms.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      87.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology by her General Practitioner with general...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology by her General Practitioner with general ill-health. She has been complaining of general muscle weakness, a feeling of fatigue and a persistent cough. An autoimmune screen reveals high titres of anti-smooth muscle antibodies.
      Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this autoantibody profile?

      Your Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anti-Smooth Muscle Antibodies and Their Association with Various Conditions

      Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) are often present in autoimmune hepatitis type 1, primary biliary cholangitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and overlap syndromes. In contrast, low titres are seen with Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) infections and hepatitis A. Negative titres for ASMA are expected in healthy individuals.

      It is important to note that ASMA are not found in hypothyroidism or fibrosing alveolitis. Additionally, only low titres of ASMA can be seen with hepatitis A and EBV infections.

      Overall, the presence of ASMA can indicate the presence of underlying conditions and should be further investigated by a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      32.9
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  • Question 24 - A 75-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with a complaint of itchy white...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with a complaint of itchy white plaques on her vulva and inner thigh. She denies experiencing any vaginal discharge or bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosus is a condition characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly observed on the vulva of older women. While candida can also cause itching and white patches, it would not result in lesions appearing on the inner thigh as well.

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. This condition leads to the atrophy of the epidermis, resulting in the formation of white plaques. The most prominent feature of lichen sclerosus is the presence of white patches that may scar. Patients may also experience itching and pain during intercourse or urination.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually made based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be performed if atypical features are present. Management of this condition involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. Patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, and routine follow-up is necessary to monitor for any changes.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists advise against performing a skin biopsy if a diagnosis can be made on clinical examination. However, a biopsy may be necessary if the patient fails to respond to treatment or if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change. The British Association of Dermatologists also recommends a biopsy if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital lichen sclerosus, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

      Understanding lichen sclerosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms or changes in their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 2...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of worsening flank pain. He has felt hot, feverish and been unable to keep fluids down. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, tachycardia 120 beats per minute and left flank pain to palpation. Urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes +++ and nitrites +++. A diagnosis of pyelonephritis is made and intravenous gentamicin is prescribed.
      What is the most common complication associated with gentamicin?

      Your Answer: Nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Nephrotoxicity is a known side effect of aminoglycosides.

      Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is highly effective against gram negative bacteria and is often used to treat severe infections, particularly those affecting the urinary tract and abdomen. However, one of the common complications associated with gentamicin use is nephrotoxicity, which occurs due to the narrow therapeutic window required to achieve a therapeutic dose. Exceeding this index can lead to kidney damage. Ototoxicity is another potential complication that is often tested in final exams.

      Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.

      It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department in December because, for...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department in December because, for the past three days, he has had a high fever (up to 40 °C), vomiting and night sweats. For the last four weeks, he has been lethargic and has sweated through his pyjamas almost every night. He has had several nosebleeds in this time period, which his parents attributed to dry air from the heater. He has also been complaining that his back hurts.
      On examination, his temperature is 39.5 °C, his heart rate 140 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and his respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute. He appears acutely ill, and you notice small petechiae on his abdomen.
      Which one of the following would an examination of peripheral lymphocytes most likely show?

      Your Answer: A chromosomal translocation that leads to a constitutively active tyrosine kinase

      Correct Answer: A clonal population of immature cells expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a common pediatric cancer that occurs due to the clonal expansion of immature T lymphocytes expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT). This protein is involved in gene rearrangements during T-cell receptor and immunoglobulin development and is no longer expressed after maturation. Symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, bruising, fatigue, joint and bone pain, bleeding, and infections. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow aspirate and biopsy, and treatment involves pegaspargase, which interferes with malignant cell growth. Hairy cell leukemia is characterized by lymphocytes with thin cytoplasmic projections and is mostly seen in middle-aged men. Chronic myeloid leukemia is caused by a chromosomal translocation leading to a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, treated with imatinib. Promyelocytic leukemia is an aggressive form of acute myeloid leukemia with a clonal population of immature cells containing Auer rods. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is characterized by a clonal population of mature B cells, often seen in the elderly population and referred to as smudge cells on peripheral smear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      143.1
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches. Her blood pressure...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches. Her blood pressure is 170/96 mmHg. Routine investigations reveal the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium 148 mmol/l 137–144 mmol/l
      Potassium 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–4.9 mmol/l
      Chloride 103 mmol/l 95–107 mmol/l
      The renin level is undetectable and aldosterone levels are raised. The urea and creatinine are normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Conn syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between causes of hypertension: A brief overview

      One possible cause of hypertension is Conn syndrome, which is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism due to a benign adrenal adenoma that secretes aldosterone. This leads to hypokalaemia, hypertension, and elevated sodium levels. Renin levels are reduced due to negative feedback from high aldosterone levels. Treatment options include surgical excision of the adenoma or potassium-sparing diuretics.

      Acromegaly, on the other hand, is caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. While hypertension may be present, other clinical features such as visual field defects, abnormal increase in size of hands and feet, frontal bossing, and hyperhidrosis are expected. Abnormal electrolytes, renin, and aldosterone levels are not typically seen in acromegaly.

      Cushing syndrome is characterized by hypercortisolism and may present with central obesity, skin and muscle atrophy, osteoporosis, and gonadal dysfunction. While hypertension may also be present, low renin levels and elevated aldosterone are not expected.

      Phaeochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor that presents with episodic headaches, sweating, and tachycardia. While hypertension is also present, a low renin and elevated aldosterone are not expected.

      Finally, renal artery stenosis is caused by renal hypoperfusion, leading to a compensatory increase in renin secretion, secondary hyperaldosteronism, and hypertension. This may result in hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia, but both renin and aldosterone levels would be raised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      52.2
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  • Question 28 - A 62-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of unpleasant breath and gurgling sounds...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of unpleasant breath and gurgling sounds while swallowing. She reports no other symptoms or changes in her health.
      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      Pharyngeal Pouch and Hiatus Hernia: Two Common Causes of Oesophageal Symptoms

      Pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are two common conditions that can cause symptoms related to the oesophagus. A pharyngeal pouch is a diverticulum that forms in the posterior aspect of the oesophagus due to herniation between two muscles that constrict the inferior part of the pharynx. This pouch can trap food and cause halitosis, regurgitation of food or gurgling noises, and sometimes a palpable lump on the side of the neck. Treatment involves surgery to correct the herniation or sometimes to close the diverticulum.

      Hiatus hernia, on the other hand, occurs when part of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity, leading to a retrosternal burning sensation, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and dysphagia. This condition is more common in older people and those with obesity or a history of smoking. Treatment may involve lifestyle changes, such as weight loss and avoiding trigger foods, as well as medications to reduce acid production or strengthen the lower oesophageal sphincter.

      Other possible causes of oesophageal symptoms include gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), oesophageal candidiasis, and oesophageal carcinoma. GORD is a chronic condition that involves reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus, causing symptoms of heartburn and acid regurgitation. Oesophageal candidiasis is a fungal infection that usually affects people with weakened immune systems. Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that can develop in the lining of the oesophagus, often with symptoms such as weight loss, dysphagia, abdominal pain, and dyspepsia. However, based on the history provided, pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are more likely causes of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      44.2
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  • Question 29 - You assess a 28-year-old female patient in the ED who has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 28-year-old female patient in the ED who has been admitted due to an acute exacerbation of her asthma. What is the most indicative feature of a life-threatening attack in this case?

      Your Answer: Cannot complete sentences

      Correct Answer: Peak flow of 30% best or predicted

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      72.9
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman presents complaining of severe itching, which is mainly affecting her...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents complaining of severe itching, which is mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past two to three weeks and is now unbearable. She mentions having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem.
      You notice an erythematous, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.1 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 80 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      You draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip. Rubbing off the excess reveals several burrows.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Itching and Skin Lesions: Scabies, Atopic Dermatitis, Erythema Infectiosum, Folliculitis, and Keratosis Pilaris

      A patient presents with itching between the web spaces and in the groin, which has been ongoing for three to four weeks. The patient reports sexual intercourse as a possible mode of transmission. The differential diagnosis includes scabies, atopic dermatitis, erythema infectiosum, folliculitis, and keratosis pilaris.

      Scabies is the most likely diagnosis, as it presents with itching after a delay of three to four weeks following skin-to-skin contact. A washable felt-tip can be used to identify the burrows of the scabies mites, and treatment involves a typical topical agent such as permethrin cream.

      Atopic dermatitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents with a rash/itch on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.

      Erythema infectiosum is a doubtful diagnosis, as it primarily affects children and presents with a slapped cheek appearance and other symptoms such as fever and headache.

      Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it presents with pinpoint erythematous lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.

      Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It is also unrelated to sexual activity.

      In conclusion, scabies is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms, and treatment with a topical agent such as permethrin cream is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12874.1
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  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is commonly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.

      The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of feeling unwell. He has...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of feeling unwell. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and has been taking over-the-counter ibuprofen. Additionally, he has bipolar disorder and takes lithium and sodium valproate orally. He reports experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhoea, and blurred vision. On examination, his vital signs are normal, but he exhibits a coarse tremor and muscle twitching. Neurological examination reveals hyperreflexia, and his abdomen is mildly tender without signs of peritonitis. He mentions that he is fasting for religious reasons but continues to take all of his medication. What is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, coarse tremor, weakness, seizures, muscle twitches, and blurred vision. This patient is likely experiencing lithium toxicity due to dehydration from fasting, resulting in high serum lithium levels. The normal range is 0.4-1.0, and toxicity symptoms occur when levels exceed 1.5. It is important to avoid non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications like ibuprofen, as they can decrease lithium excretion. Common side effects of lithium include a fine tremor, metallic taste in the mouth, thirst, polyuria, and weight gain. Sodium valproate can cause hair loss, nausea, diarrhoea, weight gain, drowsiness, and a small increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Symptoms of sodium valproate toxicity include central nervous system depression, ataxia, tachycardia, and electrolyte disturbances. Although ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal upset, it is not responsible for most of this patient’s symptoms and is therefore an incorrect answer.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      146.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 70-year-old man is seen on a home visit by his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is seen on a home visit by his General Practitioner as his wife is concerned about an ulcer on his lower leg, which has been present for a couple of weeks. It is starting to leak clear fluid. He has a history of chronic congestive cardiac failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A diagnosis of a venous ulcer is suspected.
      Which of the following examination findings would best support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) of 0.4

      Correct Answer: Atrophie blanche

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Leg Ulcers: Differentiating Arterial, Venous, and Inflammatory Causes

      Leg ulcers can have various causes, including arterial, venous, and inflammatory conditions. Here are some signs and symptoms that can help differentiate between these causes:

      Atrophie Blanche: This is a white atrophic scar surrounded by areas of hyperpigmentation, which is a sign of severe venous insufficiency.

      Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) of 0.4: ABPI is the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the ankle compared with the arm. An ABPI < 0.5 indicates severe arterial disease, suggesting that the ulcer is most likely arterial, rather than venous, in nature. Hairless and Pale Skin on the Lower Legs: Pallor of the skin and a lack of hair growth on the lower legs is a sign of arterial disease, pointing towards a diagnosis of an arterial ulcer rather than a venous ulcer. Necrobiosis Lipoidica: This is a rare granulomatous condition that usually affects people with insulin-dependent diabetes. Plaques are present on the shins, often with telangiectasia in the center and may ulcerate. The cause for the leg ulcer is, therefore, inflammatory rather than venous in origin. Reduced Light-Touch Sensation in Both Feet: Reduced sensation in the feet could be neuropathic in nature (diabetes, multiple sclerosis) or the result of severe arterial disease. Venous insufficiency does not usually affect sensation, so this finding on examination would support a diagnosis of arterial or neuropathic ulcer. By recognizing these signs and symptoms, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat leg ulcers based on their underlying causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      105.2
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial stages of Lyme disease?

      Your Answer: Erythema chronicum migrans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.1
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  • Question 35 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of pale skin on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in the loss of melanocytes and causing depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 20-30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the peripheries being the most affected. Trauma can also trigger new lesions, known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. Management of the condition includes the use of sunblock for affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up, and topical corticosteroids, which may reverse the changes if applied early. There may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients.

      In summary, vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that can be managed with various treatments, including sunblock, make-up, and topical corticosteroids. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, and caution should be exercised when using certain treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      102.4
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  • Question 36 - You are a foundation year 2 Doctor on your GP placement. Your first...

    Correct

    • You are a foundation year 2 Doctor on your GP placement. Your first appointment is 6-year-old Jack. His mother has brought him to see you as he has had a cold over the past 6 days and now has developed a productive cough with green sputum. On examination you hear bilateral crackles at the base of his lungs and there is dullness to percussion at the left base. All basic observations are within normal limits. You diagnose a lower respiratory tract infection and decide to prescribe some antibiotics. Jack has no allergies.
      What is the first line antibiotic you would prescribe for Jack?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      For children without a penicillin allergy, amoxicillin is the primary treatment for pneumonia according to the 2011 guidelines from the British Thoracic Society. If the initial treatment is ineffective, macrolides may be added. Macrolides are recommended if Mycoplasma or Chlamydia is suspected. Co-amoxiclav is suggested for pneumonia associated with influenza.

      Pneumonia is a common illness in children, with S. pneumoniae being the most likely cause of bacterial pneumonia. The British Thoracic Society has published guidelines for the management of community acquired pneumonia in children. According to these guidelines, amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for all children with pneumonia. Macrolides may be added if there is no response to first-line therapy, or if mycoplasma or chlamydia is suspected. In cases of pneumonia associated with influenza, co-amoxiclav is recommended. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective treatment and management of pneumonia in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      308
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal...

    Correct

    • You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Side-effects of IUD

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      252.9
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  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with rapid onset abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with rapid onset abdominal pain, which is worse on lying. He feels nauseous and is vomiting.
      On examination, he is tachycardic and pyrexial at 38.1°C. His abdomen is tender with marked guarding. There is bruising around his umbilicus.
      The patient reports drinking six cans of strong lager per day. He also smokes two packets of cigarettes a day. He says he was last in hospital two years ago when he was vomiting blood. He cannot remember what treatment he was given. He has no other medical history of note. He does not take any medications regularly.
      What is the most likely cause for the man’s presentation and signs?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a man with abdominal pain and retroperitoneal haemorrhage

      The man in question presents with classic symptoms of pancreatitis, including abdominal pain that radiates to the back and worsens on lying down, as well as nausea. However, his periumbilical bruising suggests retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which can also manifest as flank bruising. This condition may be related to his alcohol consumption, which increases the risk of both pancreatitis and coagulopathy.

      While bleeding oesophageal varices are another potential consequence of alcohol abuse, they would not explain the absence of haematemesis or malanea on this admission, nor the retroperitoneal haemorrhage. Similarly, hepatic cirrhosis and consequent coagulopathy could contribute to bleeding but would not account for the sudden onset of abdominal pain or the lack of ecchymosis elsewhere. A pancreatic abscess, which can develop as a complication of pancreatitis, would typically present with a swinging fever and a longer history of symptoms.

      Finally, a ruptured duodenal ulcer could cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding, but there is no evidence of this in the current case. The absence of reflux also makes this diagnosis less likely. Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which may be related to alcohol use, and other conditions that do not fully fit the clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which ethnic group has a higher occurrence of prostate cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which ethnic group has a higher occurrence of prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: Afro-Caribbean

      Explanation:

      The Afro-Caribbean population is more prone to developing prostate cancer.

      Prostate cancer is currently the most prevalent cancer among adult males in the UK, and the second most common cause of cancer-related deaths in men, following lung cancer. The risk factors for prostate cancer include increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Localized prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, as the cancer tends to develop in the outer part of the prostate gland, causing no obstructive symptoms in the early stages. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, haematuria or haematospermia, and pain in the back, perineal or testicular area. A digital rectal examination may reveal asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus. In addition, an isotope bone scan can be used to detect metastatic prostate cancer, which appears as multiple, irregular, randomly distributed foci of high-grade activity involving the spine, ribs, sternum, pelvic and femoral bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You are assessing a 10-month-old infant with a viral upper respiratory tract infection....

    Correct

    • You are assessing a 10-month-old infant with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Despite being clinically stable, the mother inquires about the child's development towards the end of the consultation. The infant is observed to point and babble 'mama' and 'dada', but has not yet developed any other words. She appears to be timid and cries when being examined. The infant has an early pincer grip and can roll from front to back, but is unable to sit without support. How would you evaluate her developmental progress?

      Your Answer: Isolated delay in gross motor skills

      Explanation:

      A delay in gross motor skills is likely as most babies are able to sit without support by 7-8 months, but the other developmental features are normal for her age. If the delay persists at 12 months, referral to a paediatrician should be considered.

      Gross Motor Developmental Milestones

      Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.

      At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.

      It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - As the GPST1 in the emergency department, you are requested to assess a...

    Correct

    • As the GPST1 in the emergency department, you are requested to assess a 34-year-old woman who fell and struck her head while drinking three hours ago. Your consultant instructs you to confirm the absence of any clinical indications of a base of skull fracture. Which of the following is not linked to a base of skull injury?

      Your Answer: Stellwag's sign

      Explanation:

      The base of the skull is made up of three bony fossae: the anterior, middle, and posterior. These structures provide support for various internal structures within the cranium. If these bones are fractured, it can result in damage to associated neurovascular structures, which can have external manifestations in areas such as the nasal cavity or auditory canal. Bleeding from ruptured vessels can lead to haemotympanum or Battle’s sign in the mastoid area, while ruptured CSF spaces can cause CSF rhinorrhoea and otorrhoea. Stellwag’s sign, on the other hand, is not related to base of skull trauma and refers to reduced blinking.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/frusemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Left bundle branch block is associated with which one of the following conditions?
    ...

    Correct

    • Left bundle branch block is associated with which one of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      ECG Findings in Various Cardiovascular Conditions

      New-onset left bundle branch block may indicate ischaemic heart disease and could be a sign of STEMI if the patient’s symptoms match the diagnosis. Pericarditis typically causes widespread ST elevation on an ECG. Mitral stenosis can lead to left atrial enlargement and potentially atrial fibrillation. Pulmonary embolism often results in a right bundle branch block or a right ventricular strain pattern of S1Q3T3. Tricuspid stenosis can also cause right ventricular strain. It’s worth noting that mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis, and secondary pulmonary hypertension due to PE are associated with right ventricular strain and hypertrophy with partial or complete right bundle branch block, while pericarditis is not typically associated with bundle branch block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 12-month-old boy is brought into morning surgery by a concerned first-time mother....

    Correct

    • A 12-month-old boy is brought into morning surgery by a concerned first-time mother. She reports several episodes of her baby crying inconsolably and drawing his legs towards his chest since last night. Today he passed some bright red jelly-like blood in his nappy without any stool.
      Which of the following is the likely cause?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intussusception: A Common Cause of Abdominal Pain in Children

      Intussusception is a medical condition where one segment of the bowel invaginates into another, causing obstruction and compromise to the blood supply of that part of the bowel. This can lead to symptoms such as colicky abdominal pains, vomiting, and passing of redcurrant stools. It is a common cause of abdominal pain in children and requires immediate medical attention.

      Gastroenteritis, appendicitis, constipation, and volvulus are all conditions that can cause abdominal pain in children, but they are not likely to present with the specific symptoms of intussusception. Any child with suspected intussusception should be admitted to the hospital immediately for further investigation and observation.

      Understanding the symptoms and causes of intussusception can help parents and caregivers recognize the condition and seek prompt medical attention for their child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.6
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  • Question 44 - A 3 day old infant who was delivered via ventouse presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 day old infant who was delivered via ventouse presents with a swelling on the left parietal region of the head. The swelling was not present immediately after birth and the baby is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the swelling does not cross suture lines and the fontanelles and sutures appear normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Caput succedeneum

      Correct Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Explanation:

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, typically seen in the parietal region of newborns delivered with instruments. It usually appears 2-3 days after birth and does not cross suture lines, resolving over several weeks.

      Caput succadeneum is a common condition in newborns immediately after birth, caused by generalised scalp oedema that crosses suture lines. It is associated with prolonged labour and resolves quickly within a few days.

      Subaponeurotic haematoma is a rare and potentially life-threatening condition where bleeding occurs outside the periosteum, causing a fluctuant scalp swelling that is not limited by suture lines.

      Craniosynostosis is a rare condition where cranial sutures close prematurely, leading to skull deformities that may be evident at birth and associated with genetic syndromes. The shape of the skull depends on which sutures are involved, and other clinical features include early closure of the anterior fontanelle and a raised ridge along the fused suture.

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - You are urgently requested to assess a 62-year-old female patient admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • You are urgently requested to assess a 62-year-old female patient admitted to the cardiology ward with complaints of breathing difficulty. During the examination, you observe a raised JVP and bilateral fine crackles to the mid zones. The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, and the pulse is irregular and ranges between 140-150. An ECG confirms atrial fibrillation, and there is no prior history of the condition in the patient's notes or previous ECGs. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: IV amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Urgent synchronised DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Urgent synchronised DC cardioversion is necessary when heart failure is observed as an adverse sign.

      Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.

      The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

      For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of a lesion on his shin. During the examination, the dermatologist observes shiny, painless areas of yellow skin with numerous telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum

      Explanation:

      Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a condition characterized by waxy yellow shin lesions that often occur in individuals with diabetes.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      73.6
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  • Question 47 - A 35-year-old woman is recommended varenicline to aid in her smoking cessation. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is recommended varenicline to aid in her smoking cessation. What is the mechanism of action of varenicline?

      Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic receptor partial agonist

      Explanation:

      NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of red, itchy, and sore eyelids with crusts...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of red, itchy, and sore eyelids with crusts on the eyelashes and a gritty feeling in both eyes. What is the primary treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Eyelid hygiene with warm compresses, lid massage and lid margin cleaning

      Explanation:

      The initial step in treating blepharitis is to apply hot compresses to the affected area. This is followed by eyelid hygiene, which involves cleaning the lid margins and massaging them. If this does not work, chloramphenicol eye drops and oral antibiotics may be prescribed. Oily tear eye drops can be used to prevent rapid evaporation of tears caused by blepharitis. While an omega-3 rich diet may help improve the condition, it is not considered a first-line treatment.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 49 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic for review. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic for review. She has a past medical history of depression and gout. The patient was initiated on lisinopril for hypertension two months ago, with gradual titration of the dose and monitoring of her urea and electrolytes. During today's visit, she reports a dry cough that has been progressively worsening over the past four weeks. The cough is described as really annoying and is causing sleep disturbance. The patient is a non-smoker, and a chest x-ray performed six weeks ago during an Emergency Department visit was normal. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding her antihypertensive medications?

      Your Answer: Switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      A dry cough is a common side effect experienced by patients who begin taking an ACE inhibitor. However, in this case, the patient has been suffering from this symptom for four weeks and it is affecting her sleep. Therefore, it is advisable to switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.

      Angiotensin II receptor blockers are a type of medication that is commonly used when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the development of a cough. Examples of these blockers include candesartan, losartan, and irbesartan. However, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with renovascular disease. Side-effects may include hypotension and hyperkalaemia.

      The mechanism of action for angiotensin II receptor blockers is to block the effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor. These blockers have been shown to reduce the progression of renal disease in patients with diabetic nephropathy. Additionally, there is evidence to suggest that losartan can reduce the mortality rates associated with CVA and IHD in hypertensive patients.

      Overall, angiotensin II receptor blockers are a viable alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients who cannot tolerate the latter. They have a proven track record of reducing the progression of renal disease and improving mortality rates in hypertensive patients. However, as with any medication, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 50 - A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease is in his seventh year of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease is in his seventh year of haemodialysis (HD). He visits his general practitioner with symptoms of pain, numbness and tingling in both hands during the early hours of the morning. He also complains of stiffness in his shoulders, hips and knees.
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Dialysis amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between potential causes of joint pain: A brief overview

      Joint pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between potential causes in order to provide appropriate treatment. Here, we will briefly discuss some of the conditions that may cause joint pain and their distinguishing features.

      Dialysis amyloidosis, also known as beta-2-microglobulin (β-2m) amyloidosis, is a rare condition that affects patients undergoing long-term hemodialysis or continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. It is characterized by the accumulation of β-2m, a major constituent of amyloid fibrils, which can invade synovial membranes and osteoarticular sites, causing destructive osteoarthropathies. Symptomatic relief can be provided with medication, therapy, and surgical procedures, but renal transplantation is the treatment of choice.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic systemic inflammatory disease that is generally accepted to be triggered by an external factor, leading to synovial hypertrophy and chronic joint inflammation. Persistent symmetrical polyarthritis of the hands and feet is the hallmark feature of the disease.

      Diabetic neuropathy is the most common complication of diabetes mellitus, affecting up to 50% of patients with type 1 and type 2 disease. It involves symptoms or signs of peripheral nerve dysfunction in people with diabetes, after other possible causes have been excluded.

      Seronegative arthritis is characterized by joint pain and inflammation in the absence of serum rheumatoid factor (RF), which is present in approximately 60-80% of patients with RA.

      Uraemic neuropathy is a distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy caused by uraemic toxins, which is strongly correlated with the severity of renal insufficiency. Typical symptoms include a tingling and pricking sensation in the lower extremities.

      By understanding the distinguishing features of these conditions, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat joint pain in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (5/7) 71%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
ENT (5/5) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/3) 33%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (3/5) 60%
Immunology/Allergy (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (5/6) 83%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/3) 67%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (2/2) 100%
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