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Question 1
Incorrect
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Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and alfa-fetoprotein (AFP)
Your Answer: Alagille syndrome
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a condition that usually manifests within the first few weeks of a newborn’s life, characterized by jaundice, poor appetite, and growth issues. It is a common cause of prolonged neonatal jaundice that appears after two weeks. Other symptoms include an enlarged liver and spleen, abnormal growth, and heart murmurs if there are associated cardiac abnormalities. Conjugated bilirubin levels are abnormally high, while bile acids and aminotransferases are also typically elevated, but cannot be used to distinguish between biliary atresia and other causes of neonatal cholestasis. Although bile duct stenosis may present similarly, it is less frequent.
Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children
Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.
To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.
Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes in with her 4-year-old son. The child has been crying excessively for the past 12 hours and has experienced bilious vomiting multiple times. Additionally, he passed a stool containing small amounts of blood about 2 hours ago. What initial investigation would you conduct to determine the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Intussusception is best diagnosed using ultrasound, which is the preferred method due to its non-invasive nature, patient comfort, and high sensitivity.
Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.
In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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As an FY1 on a paediatric ward, you are faced with a 13-year-old female patient who is suffering from anorexia and is refusing to be tube fed. After assessing her capacity, you have determined that she has the ability to refuse. However, her parents are in disagreement with her decision. What steps do you take in this situation?
Your Answer: As the patient and her parents cannot agree, seek advice from the courts
Correct Answer: Inform her that as she is under 16 she cannot refuse treatment
Explanation:According to the family law reform act of 1969, individuals who are 16 years or older have the right to provide consent for treatment. However, if they are under 18 years of age, they cannot refuse treatment unless one parent provides consent, even if the other parent disagrees. It would not be suitable to seek guidance from the courts at this point.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy visits his GP with a productive cough and wheeze. During the examination, a 1/6 intensity systolic murmur is detected in the second intercostal space lateral to the left sternal edge. The murmur is not audible when the child lies flat. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Innocent murmur
Explanation:The innocent murmur is the correct answer. It is characterized by being soft, systolic, short, symptomless, and varying with position when standing or sitting. In contrast, coarctation of the aorta produces an ejection systolic murmur that can be heard through to the back and does not change with position. This condition is also associated with hypertension in the upper extremities and a difference in blood pressure between the arms and legs. Ventricular septal defect presents as a pansystolic murmur, while atrial septal defect is an ejection systolic murmur that is often accompanied by fixed splitting of the 2nd heart sound.
Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.
An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.
Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old Caucasian baby girl is brought to her general practitioner, as her parents are concerned about a skin lump that has appeared on the left side of her neck. It is non-tender and does not seem to bother her, but it is growing in size. She is feeding well and is otherwise healthy. On examination, there is a 2 x 2 cm, firm and well-demarcated lesion in the left posterior triangle of the neck, with visible telangiectasia. There are no other skin lesions. The abdomen is soft, without masses.
What would be the next step in management?Your Answer: Oral Propranolol
Correct Answer: Medical photography and review again in 3 months
Explanation:This child has an infantile haemangioma, a benign lesion caused by abnormal vessel growth in the skin and deeper structures. These lesions usually appear shortly after birth and can grow rapidly in the first 3 months of life, peaking around the fifth month before regressing spontaneously. The haemangioma in this case is located in the posterior neck triangle and is asymptomatic, so medical photography will be taken and the child will be reassessed in 3 months. Treatment is only necessary if the haemangioma is troublesome, symptomatic, or affecting deeper structures. The first-line treatment is oral propranolol, but topical b blockers can be used if necessary. Surgery is reserved for rapidly evolving haemangiomas that are compressing vital structures or affecting essential functions. Topical timolol can also be used with caution if oral b blockers are not tolerated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl walks with a limp due to right hip pain, which is relieved by rest and made worse by walking or standing. Her vital signs are normal. The Trendelenburg sign presents when she stands on her right leg.
X-rays reveal periarticular right hip swelling in soft tissue. A bone scan reveals reduced activity in the anterolateral right capital femoral epiphysis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: A slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Correct Answer: Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Explanation:Understanding Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease and Differential Diagnoses
Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease is a condition that occurs due to vascular compromise of the capital epiphysis of the femur. The exact cause of this self-limiting disease is unclear, but it may be related to developmental changes in the hip’s blood supply. The compromised blood flow leads to ischaemic necrosis of the epiphysis. The retinacular arteries and their branches are the primary source of blood to the head of the femur, especially between the ages of 4 and 9 when the epiphyseal plate is forming. During this time, the incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is highest.
Differential diagnoses for this condition include a slipped capital femoral epiphysis, septic arthritis, and epiphyseal dysplasia. A slipped capital femoral epiphysis would be visible on hip radiography, which is not the case in this scenario. Septic arthritis would cause systemic inflammatory responses, which are not present in this case. Epiphyseal dysplasia is a congenital defect that would typically present when the child starts to walk.
In addition to Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, there is radiological evidence of synovitis and hip joint effusion in this scenario. However, synovitis is a non-specific sign and not a specific diagnosis. Understanding these differential diagnoses can help healthcare professionals provide accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment plans for patients with hip joint issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents protruding from the abdominal cavity. The contents are lined by the peritoneum. Her parents did not seek any prenatal scans during pregnancy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Omphalocele
Explanation:Common Congenital Abnormalities: An Overview
Congenital abnormalities are defects present at birth, which can affect various parts of the body. Here are some common congenital abnormalities and their characteristics:
Omphalocele: This condition occurs when a baby’s abdominal contents protrude outside the abdominal cavity, covered by the sac (amnion). It is associated with other anomalies and requires surgical closure.
Gastroschisis: In this condition, organs herniate in the abdominal wall, but they are not covered by the peritoneum. It is not associated with other anomalies and has a good prognosis.
Tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF): TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. It can cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, and is often accompanied by other congenital anomalies.
Myelomeningocele: This is a type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges herniate through a hole in the spinal vertebra. It can cause paralysis, incontinence, and other complications, and requires surgical closure and hydrocephalus drainage.
Meningocele: This is another type of spina bifida where the meninges and fluid herniate through an opening in the vertebral bodies with skin covering. It has a good prognosis and requires surgical closure.
Understanding these congenital abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and manage them early on, improving outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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As a doctor, you have been requested by a midwife to conduct a newborn examination on a 24-hour old infant. During the examination, the parents express concern about their baby's penis appearing abnormal and request your assistance. Upon inspection, you observe that the urethral meatus is situated on the ventral aspect of the glans and the prepuce is hooded. However, the baby has already passed urine with a strong stream, as noted by the midwife earlier in the day. What should be the doctor's next course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to a specialist for possible surgery around 12 months of life
Explanation:It is recommended to refer a child with hypospadias to a specialist for possible surgery around the age of 12 months. This timing is considered optimal, taking into account various factors such as developmental milestones, tolerance of surgery and anesthesia, and the size of the penis. It is important to refer the child to a specialist at the time of diagnosis. Referring a child for surgery within the first month of life or within four hours is not necessary, as this is not an urgent or life-threatening issue. Hypospadias always requires a specialist referral, even if it is mild, and it is the specialist’s responsibility, along with the parents, to decide whether surgery is necessary. It is crucial to advise parents not to circumcise their child with hypospadias, as the prepuce may be used during corrective surgery.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. The mother mentions that he had a recent bout of the flu. Upon examination, the boy appears alert with a heart rate of 80 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, temperature of 38.5ºC, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 98% on room air. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer for same-day assessment
Explanation:If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and also has a fever, it is crucial to refer them for immediate assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.
Transient synovitis is often the cause of hip pain in children following a previous illness, such as the flu. However, discharging the patient with oral antibiotics is not recommended as this condition is typically managed conservatively. Antibiotics may only be necessary if there are signs of a septic joint.
Similarly, discharging the patient with pain relief alone is not appropriate. Although a septic joint is unlikely, it cannot be ruled out without a formal assessment by orthopaedics.
Reassuring the patient and discharging them without assessment is also not an option. Given the child’s current fever and recent illness history, it is essential to conduct a thorough evaluation before considering discharge.
It is critical to refer a child with hip pain and a fever for same-day assessment to rule out the possibility of a septic joint. However, routine referral to orthopaedics is not necessary as this may cause unnecessary delays in urgent assessment.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 3-day-old neonate born at term is presenting with tachypnoea, grunting, and cyanosis. The baby is unable to feed and has an oxygen saturation of 70% on room air. On auscultation, a loud S2 and systolic murmur are heard, which is loudest at the left sternal border. The doctors suspect transposition of the great arteries and have started the baby on intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and scheduled surgery. What additional medication should be given in the meantime?
Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:To maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in cyanotic congenital heart diseases, prostaglandin E1 should be administered. It is helpful to recall the 5 T’s for cyanotic CHD, which include Tetralogy of Fallot, Transposition of Great Vessels (TGA), Tricuspid Atresia, Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return, and Truncus Arteriosus. Based on the timing of onset and heart murmur, the patient in this case likely has TGA with a concurrent VSD. TGA typically presents shortly after birth. Prostaglandin E1 is given in ductal dependent cyanotic heart diseases to prevent closure of the patent ductus arteriosus until surgical correction can be performed. This allows for mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to ensure adequate systemic circulation. Antibiotics should also be administered as prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis. It is important to note that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as indomethacin and ibuprofen will actually close the ductus arteriosus and should not be used in this situation.
Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.
If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.
Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is concerned about her growth. He reports that she is not keeping up with her peers in terms of height and weight. The girl has been experiencing smelly diarrhoea around 4-5 times per week and complains of stomach pain.
During the examination, the GP notes that the girl's abdomen is distended and her buttocks appear wasted. Her growth chart shows a drop of 2 centile lines, now placing her on the 10th centile.
Which investigation is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?Your Answer: IgA TTG antibodies
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by testing for IgA TTG antibodies. To determine the appropriate antibiotic, a stool sample would be necessary to diagnose gastroenteritis. The hydrogen breath test is typically used to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome or certain food intolerances. Endoscopy is more frequently used in adults who are suspected of having cancer. An abdominal X-ray may be beneficial in cases where obstruction is suspected. Coeliac disease is a digestive disorder that is becoming more prevalent and is characterized by an adverse reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.
Coeliac Disease in Children: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in cereals. This sensitivity leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Children usually present with symptoms before the age of 3, coinciding with the introduction of cereals into their diet. The incidence of coeliac disease is around 1 in 100 and is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Symptoms of coeliac disease include failure to thrive, diarrhoea, abdominal distension, and anaemia in older children. However, many cases are not diagnosed until adulthood.
Diagnosis of coeliac disease involves a jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy. Screening tests such as anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are also useful. Duodenal biopsies can show complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, as well as dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes and vacuolated superficial epithelial cells can also be observed.
In summary, coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and to seek medical attention if necessary. Diagnosis involves a biopsy and screening tests, and treatment involves a gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child is brought by her mother to the general practice surgery with a 3-day history of fever, irritability and right ear pain, which suddenly became more severe 12 hours ago and then resolved with the onset of a discharge from the right ear. On examination, you find a tympanic membrane with a central perforation.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Refer to the acute Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) clinic for assessment
Correct Answer: Commence oral antibiotics and review after 6 weeks to ensure the perforation is healing
Explanation:Acute otitis media with perforation is an inflammation of the middle ear that lasts less than 3 weeks and is commonly seen in children under 10 years old. It can be caused by viruses or bacteria, with Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and respiratory syncytial virus being the most common culprits. Symptoms include earache, fever, and irritability, and examination reveals a red, cloudy tympanic membrane that may be bulging or perforated. Complications can include temporary hearing loss, mastoiditis, and meningitis. Treatment involves pain relief and a course of oral antibiotics, with routine referral to ENT only necessary for recurrent symptoms or those that fail to resolve with antibiotics. Gentamicin is contraindicated in the presence of a tympanic perforation due to its ototoxicity, and amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is under your review for idiopathic constipation treatment with Movicol Paediatric Plain. Despite her mother increasing the dose, there has been no improvement. The child is in good health and abdominal examination is unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Add senna
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.
If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.
In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. Her temperature is 38.5ºC and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute.
During the examination, you observe that her left leg is warm and swollen with purple discoloration. On the back of her leg, her skin is peeling, and a deep, erythematosus, diffuse, grey soft wound is visible with white discharge.
When you ask her father about her medical history, he mentions that there was an outbreak of chickenpox at her school. He first noticed the wound on her leg three days ago.
Her Hb is 115 g/L (110-140), platelets are 140* 109/L (150 - 450), and WBC is 16 * 109/L (5-12 * 109).
What is the most likely complication?Your Answer: Necrotising fasciitis
Explanation:Chickenpox and its Complications
Chickenpox can lead to various complications, including invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections such as necrotizing fasciitis. This rare complication of the varicella-zoster virus causes painful lesions on the skin and underlying muscles, with systemic symptoms and open wounds. Diagnosis is made by passing a probe or gloved finger below the affected skin, causing it to separate from the underlying tissue.
Another complication caused by group A streptococcus is cellulitis, which affects the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It presents with erythema, pain, swelling, and warmth, without systemic symptoms. Erysipelas, on the other hand, is a bacterial infection that affects the superficial layer of the dermis and commonly affects superficial cutaneous lymphatics. It presents similarly to cellulitis but has well-defined borders and can be a rare complication of chickenpox.
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura is an IgA-mediated vasculitis of the small vessels of the skin. It can rarely present as a complication of chickenpox with a widespread rash on the buttocks and lower thigh, abdominal pain, and joint pain. Reyes syndrome is another complication that commonly presents after a recent viral infection such as chickenpox. It is also thought to be triggered by aspirin use, which is often used to treat the symptoms of chickenpox, such as headaches. It presents with tachypnea, tiredness, and in severe cases can cause behavioral changes and coma. However, in this case, the patient only presents with tachypnea, and there is no evidence to suggest the use of aspirin.
Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.
Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia
Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The parents of a 7-year-old boy seek your consultation regarding their son's lifelong bed wetting problem. They are worried that the issue is not improving despite his age. The boy has never had any daytime accidents and has regular bowel movements. He was potty-trained at the age of 3 and has no relevant family history except for hay fever. Physical examination shows no abnormalities, and urinalysis is normal. The parents are particularly concerned as their son is going on a camping trip with his friend's parents in 2 weeks, and they do not want him to wet the bed. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Refer to a paediatric urologist for investigation
Correct Answer: Give general advice on enuresis, reassure the parents that he is almost certain to grow out of the problem and prescribe desmopressin to be taken during the camping trip to prevent bedwetting
Explanation:Managing Primary Enuresis in Children: Advice and Treatment Options
Primary enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common condition affecting 15-20% of children. It is characterized by nocturnal enuresis without daytime symptoms and is thought to be caused by bladder dysfunction. However, parents can be reassured that most children will grow out of the problem by the age of 15, with only 1% continuing to have symptoms into adulthood.
The first-line treatment for primary enuresis without daytime symptoms is an enuresis alarm combined with a reward system. Fluid should not be restricted, and the child should be involved in the management plan. However, if short-term control is required, a prescription of desmopressin can be given to children over 5 years of age.
It is important to refer children to a pediatric urologist if they have primary enuresis with daytime symptoms or if two complete courses of either an enuresis alarm or desmopressin have failed to resolve the child’s symptoms.
Overall, while there may be little that can be done to cure the problem prior to a camping trip, there are still treatment options available to manage primary enuresis in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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You are asked to help with the resuscitation of a premature neonate who is displaying respiratory distress immediately after birth at 36 +4 weeks. During auscultation of the precordium, you observe the absence of heart sounds on the left side but can hear tinkling sounds. Additionally, the infant is exhibiting cyanosis.
What is the most appropriate initial course of action?Your Answer: Intubation and ventilation
Explanation:If you hear bowel sounds during a respiratory exam of a neonate experiencing respiratory distress, it may indicate the presence of a diaphragmatic hernia. This condition occurs when abdominal organs protrude through a hole in the diaphragm, typically on the left side, leading to underdeveloped lungs and breathing difficulties. The sound of bowel in the chest cavity causes the bowel sounds to be audible. The heart sounds may also be louder on the right side due to the displacement of the heart. The initial treatment involves inserting a nasogastric tube to prevent air from entering the gut, but for a cyanotic patient, intubation and ventilation are necessary. Surgical repair of the diaphragm is the definitive treatment. BIPAP and CPAP are not appropriate for this condition, as they are used to keep the airway open in conditions such as COPD or respiratory distress syndrome. Facemask ventilation and nasal cannulae should be avoided as they increase the risk of air entering the gut, and an artificial airway is necessary to ensure adequate oxygenation.
Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.
The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.
Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl has recently started primary school in the UK. Her father has been informed that she can undergo school entry health screening, which will involve a hearing test. She had undergone the full newborn screening program and is up to date on her vaccinations. Her father has no health concerns and agrees to her participation in the school entry health screening program.
What technique will be employed to test the child's hearing as part of the screening program?Your Answer: Pure tone audiometry
Explanation:The appropriate test for school entry hearing screening in most areas of the UK is pure tone audiometry. This test is suitable for individuals over the age of 3 and involves playing sounds at varying frequencies and volumes, with the patient indicating when they can no longer hear the sound. This test helps to identify the presence of hearing loss, the affected frequencies, and the severity of the condition.
The auditory brainstem response test, distraction test, and otoacoustic emission test are not suitable for school entry hearing screening. The auditory brainstem response test is typically performed on newborns and infants with abnormal otoacoustic emission test results. The distraction test is used for children aged 6-9 months to assess their ability to hear and locate sounds. The otoacoustic emission test is part of the newborn hearing screening program and is used to determine the health of the cochlea.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She has only had small amounts to drink and is becoming increasingly lethargic. She has had five bowel movements but has only urinated once today. She is typically healthy. Her 5-year-old sister had similar symptoms a few days ago but has since recovered. On examination, she appears restless with sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes, and a CRT of 2 seconds. She is also tachycardic with a heart rate of 150 bpm. What is your assessment of her clinical fluid status?
Your Answer: Clinical shock
Correct Answer: Clinical dehydration
Explanation:Understanding Dehydration in Children: Symptoms and Management
Dehydration is a common concern in children, especially when they are suffering from illnesses like gastroenteritis. Children have a higher percentage of body weight consisting of water, making them more susceptible to dehydration. It is important to understand the different levels of dehydration and their corresponding symptoms to manage it effectively.
Clinical dehydration is characterized by restlessness and decreased urine output. Signs of clinical dehydration include irritability, sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and normal capillary refill time (CRT). On the other hand, a euvolaemic child will have a normal general appearance, moist tongue, and tears, with a normal CRT and no tachycardia.
Children without clinically detectable dehydration do not show any signs or symptoms of dehydration and can be managed with oral fluids until the symptoms of gastroenteritis subside. However, children who are severely dehydrated may experience clinical shock, which is characterized by a decreased level of consciousness, pale or mottled skin, cold extremities, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, weak peripheral pulses, and a prolonged CRT. These children require immediate admission and rehydration with intravenous fluid and electrolyte supplementation to normalize the losses.
It is crucial to identify the level of dehydration in children and manage it accordingly to prevent complications. Parents and caregivers should monitor their child’s fluid intake and seek medical attention if they suspect dehydration. With proper management, most cases of dehydration in children can be resolved without any long-term effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A newborn's mother is attempting to nurse him, but he vomits uncurdled milk immediately after suckling avidly. The mother had polyhydramnios during her pregnancy. What is the most likely developmental defect in this child?
Your Answer: Tracheoesophageal fistula
Explanation:Congenital Anomalies and Vomiting in Newborns
Tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) occurs when the trachea and esophagus fail to separate properly during embryonic development. In about 90% of cases, a cul-de-sac forms in the upper esophagus, while the lower esophagus forms a fistula with the trachea. This leads to vomiting as soon as the upper esophagus fills with milk, which never reaches the stomach. TEF can be corrected with surgery.
Annular pancreas is caused by abnormal rotation and fusion of the pancreatic buds, leading to a ring of pancreatic tissue that can constrict and obstruct the duodenum. However, milk would be curdled in this case since it has already passed through the stomach.
Pyloric stenosis is characterized by hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter, leading to projectile vomiting. However, milk would also be curdled in this case since it has already passed through the stomach.
Omphalocele occurs when the midgut loop fails to return to the abdominal cavity during development, resulting in loops of bowel protruding through the umbilical cord. This anomaly would be evident upon physical examination.
Ileal diverticulum is a rare condition caused by a failure in the degeneration of the vitelline duct. It is usually asymptomatic, but in some cases, ectopic gastric mucosa or pancreatic tissue can cause peptic ulcers. However, this condition would not explain vomiting in a newborn.
Understanding Congenital Anomalies and Vomiting in Newborns
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents to her GP with concerns about not having started her periods. She has also not developed any other secondary sexual characteristics. Upon examination, she is found to be proportionate but notably short in stature. Additionally, she has wide-spaced nipples, low-set ears, and subtle neck webbing. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Aortic coarctation
Explanation:Individuals with Turner’s syndrome (XO) often exhibit physical characteristics such as a webbed neck, low set ears, and widely spaced nipples. Short stature and primary amenorrhea are common, along with a degree of puberty failure. Other physical features to look for include a wide carrying angle, down-sloping eyes with partial ptosis, and a low posterior hairline. Turner’s syndrome is frequently linked to aortic coarctation and bicuspid aortic valve, while other cardiac abnormalities may be associated with different genetic conditions.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing that started yesterday and has gotten worse. During the examination, he appears anxious and leans forward with his hands on his knees, drooling. His temperature is 38ºC, oxygen saturation is 96% on air, heart rate is 100 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg.
Despite receiving intravenous dexamethasone and inhaled budesonide, the child's condition continues to deteriorate. He now has audible stridor, and the on-call anaesthetist is paged. What intervention should be considered next?Your Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Correct Answer: Endotracheal intubation
Explanation:Oxygen that has been humidified
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding toddler spasms is incorrect?
Your Answer: Carries a good prognosis
Explanation:Understanding Infantile Spasms
Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with a serious underlying condition and has a poor prognosis. The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attacks, which involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times.
Infants with infantile spasms may also experience progressive mental handicap. To diagnose this condition, an EEG is typically performed, which shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. Additionally, a CT scan may be used to identify any diffuse or localized brain disease, which is present in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.
Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered the first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician with a 1 day history of limping on her left side. Her parents state that she has been healthy except for a recent cough and her daycare provider has not noticed any injuries. During the physical exam, the child appears uncomfortable and in pain, but has normal range of motion in her left hip. What is the best course of action for management at this point?
Your Answer: Urgent hospital assessment
Explanation:If a child under the age of 3 presents with an acute limp, it is crucial to arrange urgent assessment in secondary care. This is because they are at a higher risk of septic arthritis and child maltreatment, according to Nice Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Additionally, the diagnosis of transient synovitis should be made with extreme caution after ruling out serious causes of limp, as it is rare in this age group. Urgent referral for assessment is recommended due to the difficulty in examining and identifying subtle clinical signs.
Causes of Limping in Children
Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who reports that her daughter becomes breathless when climbing stairs at home. The mother is concerned as her daughter is unable to keep up with her peers. During the examination, multiple small bruises of varying ages are observed on both lower legs. The patient is afebrile and appears to be in good health. A soft systolic murmur is heard on the left sternal edge during cardiac examination. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a mass in both the left and right hypochondriac regions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoid leukaemia
Explanation:Children under the age of 6 are less likely to be affected by TTP, which typically occurs in individuals between the ages of 30 and 50 and is often accompanied by neurological and renal symptoms. ITP is characterized by bleeding and petechiae, with low platelet counts but normal levels of other blood cells. DIC is typically a result of an underlying condition such as trauma, burns, or sepsis, and is often accompanied by systemic symptoms and circulatory collapse.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A father brings his 15-month-old daughter into surgery. Since yesterday she seems to be straining whilst passing stools. He describes her screaming, appearing to be in pain and pulling her knees up towards her chest. These episodes are now occurring every 15-20 minutes. This morning he noted a small amount of blood in her nappy. She is taking around 60% of her normal feeds and vomiting 'green fluid' every hour. On examination, she appears irritable and lethargic but is well hydrated and apyrexial. On examination, her abdomen seems distended but no discrete mass is found.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.
In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 12-hour-old neonate is evaluated in the neonatal unit after a normal vaginal delivery at 35 weeks' gestation. The mother reports no issues thus far. During the examination, a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur is heard, and a left subclavicular thrill is observed. The neonate has a large-volume collapsing pulse. An echocardiogram is performed, revealing the suspected defect but no other anomalies. What is the most suitable course of action at this point?
Your Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis based on the examination findings is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). To close the PDA, indomethacin (or ibuprofen) should be given to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Giving prostaglandin E1 would have the opposite effect and maintain the patency of the duct, which is not necessary in this scenario. Simply observing the neonate over time is not appropriate, and routine or urgent surgical referrals are not needed at this stage. First-line management should be to try medical closure of the PDA using indomethacin, which is effective in most cases.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy, with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), is admitted to the Paediatric Ward due to a fever of 38.9 °C at home. He received his last treatment 1 week ago. His parents report that he has been feeling well, without cough, cold, rash, or vomiting.
Upon examination, his vital signs are stable except for a temperature of 38.4 °C. Physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and blood culture are taken from the portacath, revealing a haemoglobin (Hb) level of 11.5, a white cell count (WCC) of 1.1, neutrophils of 0.2, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 85.
What is the most crucial next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Start oral Augmentin®
Correct Answer: Start intravenous (iv) Tazocin®
Explanation:Management of Febrile Neutropenia in a Child with ALL Receiving Chemotherapy
Febrile neutropenia is a serious complication in cancer patients, particularly those receiving chemotherapy. It is defined as neutropenia with fever or symptoms of significant sepsis. In such cases, immediate initiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics is crucial to prevent mortality.
In this scenario, a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) presents with febrile neutropenia. The first step is to start intravenous Tazocin® monotherapy, pending blood cultures and a thorough physical examination. A urine sample should also be obtained, particularly for children under the age of 5. Chest radiography is only necessary for symptomatic children.
After 48 hours, if the child shows improvement and cultures are negative, empirical antibiotic treatment can be discontinued or switched to oral antibiotics such as Augmentin®. Intravenous fluids may be necessary if the child deteriorates or becomes haemodynamically unstable.
It is also important to send urine and stool samples for microbial culture and sensitivity (MC&S) to investigate sepsis. However, initiating antibiotics should be the first priority.
In summary, febrile neutropenia in cancer patients is a medical emergency that requires prompt initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Close monitoring and appropriate investigations are necessary to ensure timely and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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As the F2 in the paediatric clinic, a mother comes in with concerns about her 7-month-old daughter. She shows you a video on her phone of the baby crying, stopping abruptly, drawing her chin into her chest, throwing her arms out, relaxing, and then starting to cry again. This cycle is repeated around 10 times over the course of the minute-long video. The mother also mentions that the child has been referred to the community paediatric clinic due to a slight delay in reaching developmental milestones. What is the most appropriate test for you to order to help confirm your diagnosis?
Your Answer: EEG
Explanation:The child’s distress pattern can help differentiate between infantile spasms and colic. Additionally, the child’s history suggests developmental delay and infantile spasms, making an abdominal x-ray unnecessary. An EEG is necessary to check for hypsarrhythmia, commonly found in West’s syndrome, while genetic testing and MRI of the head and spine are not required.
Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, which is often worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, there is no known cure for infantile colic. However, there are some remedies that parents can try to alleviate the symptoms. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise against the use of simethicone or lactase drops, such as Infacol® and Colief®, respectively. These remedies have not been proven to be effective in treating infantile colic.
Parents can try other methods to soothe their baby, such as holding them close, rocking them gently, or using a pacifier. Some parents also find that white noise or music can help calm their baby. It is important to remember that infantile colic is a temporary condition that usually resolves on its own by the time the baby is three to four months old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother for an asthma review. She was diagnosed with asthma eight months ago. Since then, she has been using a low-dose clenil (beclomethasone 100 μg BD) inhaler and salbutamol inhaler as needed, both inhaled via a spacer. She has been experiencing a nocturnal cough and has been using her salbutamol inhaler 3–4 times per day due to the cold weather, with good results. On examination, there are no signs of respiratory distress, her oxygen saturation is 98%, and her chest is clear.
What would be the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Add montelukast
Explanation:Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old
When a child under five years old is suspected to have asthma, the diagnosis can be challenging as they cannot perform objective lung function tests. Therefore, a low threshold for referral is recommended if treatment fails to control symptoms.
The first step in treatment is a trial of a moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) for eight weeks. If symptoms persist, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. However, if the asthma is still poorly controlled, referral to a paediatrician is advised.
It is not appropriate to change the short-acting beta agonist (SABA) inhaler, but increasing the dose of the ICS should only be done under specialist advice. If the child needs to use a SABA inhaler regularly, the ICS should be stopped for four weeks, and if symptoms recur, the inhaler should be restarted at a low dose.
In summary, a stepwise approach is recommended for treating suspected asthma in children under five years old, with a low threshold for referral to a specialist if treatment fails to control symptoms.
Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the GP. The father reports that he has been struggling to manage his daughter's behaviour. He describes instances of her not following instructions, arguing frequently, and even getting into physical altercations. The GP refers the daughter to a paediatrician who may consider starting her on methylphenidate. What is a potential side effect of this medication?
Your Answer: Stunted growth
Explanation:Methylphenidate may cause stunted growth as a side effect.
A small percentage of patients taking methylphenidate may experience restricted growth, which is believed to be caused by a decrease in appetite. It is recommended that patients under the age of 10 have their weight and height monitored regularly. Other potential side effects of this medication include insomnia, weight loss, anxiety, nausea, and pain.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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