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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of mild left iliac...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of mild left iliac fossa pain that has been present for three days. She reports that she discontinued her oral contraceptives seven weeks ago due to side effects and has not had a menstrual period for approximately two months. During her visit, a pregnancy test is conducted, which returns positive. The possibility of an ectopic pregnancy is suspected, and she is referred to the early pregnancy assessment unit. What is the preferred initial imaging modality to confirm an ectopic pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      A transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation for ectopic pregnancy.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman who is P1 G2 is 30 minutes post-partum of an...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is P1 G2 is 30 minutes post-partum of an uncomplicated delivery. Suddenly, she starts gasping for breath and appears cyanosed with a blood pressure of 83/65 mmHg, heart rate of 120 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 33/min. She becomes unresponsive. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and time frame mentioned in the question strongly suggest an amniotic fluid embolism, which typically occurs during or within 30 minutes of labor and is characterized by respiratory distress, hypoxia, and hypotension. On the other hand, intracranial hemorrhage is usually preceded by a severe headache, while convulsions are indicative of eclampsia and drug toxicity. The symptoms experienced by the patient during normal labor would not be expected in cases of drug toxicity. Additionally, hypoxia is not a typical symptom of drug toxicity.

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy that can result in a high mortality rate. It occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a reaction that leads to various signs and symptoms. While several risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unclear. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases of amniotic fluid embolism occur during labor, but they can also occur during a cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of this condition include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs may include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. Diagnosis is primarily clinical and based on exclusion, as there are no definitive diagnostic tests available.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires a multidisciplinary team and critical care unit. Treatment is mainly supportive, focusing on addressing the patient’s symptoms and stabilizing their condition. Given the high mortality rate associated with this condition, prompt recognition and management are crucial for improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman is 38 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the hospital...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is 38 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the hospital due to experiencing contractions. She has expressed her desire for a vaginal birth. Despite being in good health, alert, and stable, her cardiotocography indicates that the baby's heart rate has increased from 164/min to 170/min after 10 minutes. As the woman is at full term, the obstetrician has decided to perform a caesarean section. What classification of caesarean section is this considered to be?

      Your Answer: Category 2

      Explanation:

      Category 2 caesarean sections are performed when there is a non-immediate life-threatening emergency concerning the mother or the baby. This may include an abnormality detected by cardiotocography that requires an emergency caesarean section within 75 minutes of the decision being made. It is not immediately life-threatening to either the mother or the baby.

      Category 1 caesarean sections are performed in immediately life-threatening situations, such as haemodynamic instability of the mother.

      Category 3 caesarean sections are not immediately life-threatening to the mother but are necessary for the non-immediate life-threatening condition of the baby, such as distress.

      Category 4 caesarean sections are elective and may be chosen by the mother or recommended based on past medical history.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the antenatal clinic at 14 weeks pregnant. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the antenatal clinic at 14 weeks pregnant. She was surprised to discover her pregnancy just last week, as it was unexpected. This is her fourth pregnancy, but she has had three miscarriages in the past. The midwife suggests a quadruple test due to the late discovery of her pregnancy, which reveals the following results:

      - Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is low
      - Unconjugated oestriol (uE3) is low
      - Total human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is low
      - Inhibin-A is normal

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The quadruple test result shows a decrease in AFP, oestriol, and hCG, without change in inhibin A, indicating Edward’s syndrome. This condition is caused by trisomy 18 and can present with physical features such as micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping fingers. The quadruple test is a screening test used to identify pregnancies with a higher risk of Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome, Patau’s syndrome, or neural tube defects. It is typically offered to patients who discover their pregnancy late and are no longer eligible for the combined test. ARPKD cannot be diagnosed with a quadruple test, but it can be detected prenatally with an ultrasound. Down’s syndrome would present with low AFP, low unconjugated oestriol, high hCG, and inhibin A, while neural tube defects would present with high AFP and normal oestriol, hCG, and inhibin A.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties breastfeeding. She has exclusively breastfed her other two children. She tells you her baby has problems latching, is feeding for a long time and is always hungry. She has sore nipples as a result of the poor latch.
      On examination, you notice that the baby cannot bring his tongue past the lower lip and there is restriction in movement. On lifting the tongue, it acquires a heart shape with a central notch, but you cannot visualise the frenulum.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior tongue tie

      Correct Answer: Posterior tongue tie

      Explanation:

      Common Oral Abnormalities in Infants: Tongue Tie, Upper Lip Tie, Cleft Lip, and Cleft Palate

      Tongue tie, also known as ankyloglossia, is a condition that affects up to 10% of live births, more commonly in boys than girls. It is characterized by a short, thickened frenulum attaching the tongue to the floor of the mouth, limiting tongue movements and causing difficulties with breastfeeding. Mothers may report that their infant takes a long time to feed, is irritable, and experiences nipple injury. Examination findings include limited tongue movements, inability to lift the tongue high or move it past the lower lip, and a characteristic heart-shaped notch when attempting to lift the tongue. Tongue tie can be anterior or posterior, with the latter being deeper in the mouth and more difficult to see.

      Upper lip tie is a similar condition, with a frenulum attaching the upper lip to the gum line. This can also cause difficulties with breastfeeding due to limited movement of the upper lip.

      Cleft lip and cleft palate are congenital malformations that occur when the facial structures fail to fuse properly during development. Cleft lip presents as a gap in the upper lip, while cleft palate is a gap in the roof of the mouth. Both can cause difficulties with feeding and require surgical intervention.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common oral abnormalities in infants and provide appropriate management and referrals to ensure optimal feeding and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman with hypertension is considering pregnancy and seeks pre-pregnancy planning. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with hypertension is considering pregnancy and seeks pre-pregnancy planning. She is currently taking losartan 50 mg daily and her BP measures 130/88 mmHg. What guidance should be provided to this patient in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should switch losartan to labetolol and ensure her BP is well controlled prior to attempting to get pregnant

      Explanation:

      Safe antihypertensive Medications for Pregnancy

      Explanation:
      When planning to get pregnant, it is important to ensure that any medications being taken are safe for the developing fetus. In the case of hypertension, switching to a safe medication prior to conception is recommended. Labetalol is the best-studied antihypertensive in pregnancy and is considered safe. Losartan, on the other hand, is contraindicated as it may affect renal development. Simply reducing the dosage of losartan is not enough to mitigate the risks of fetal maldevelopment. It is also important to maintain good blood pressure control prior to conception. Stopping antihypertensive medications abruptly is not recommended as it may lead to uncontrolled hypertension, which is associated with increased fetal loss. By taking these precautions, women can increase their chances of carrying a healthy fetus to term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A young girl requires an episiotomy during labour. The incision should be made:...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl requires an episiotomy during labour. The incision should be made:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the soft tissues of the perineum and the perineal skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risks of Different Episiotomy Incisions

      Episiotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the perineum to widen the vaginal opening during childbirth. However, the location and direction of the incision can have different risks and complications. Here are some important things to know about the risks of different episiotomy incisions:

      1. Posterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the soft tissues of the perineum and the perineal skin
      This is the most common type of episiotomy. However, cutting too close to the anus can cause damage to the anal sphincter, leading to fecal incontinence.

      2. Anterior to the vagina, straight up the mid-line so that the incision lies mid-way between the vagina and the external urethral orifice
      This type of incision can damage the external urethral orifice, leading to urinary incontinence.

      3. Posterior to the vagina, straight down the mid-line into the soft tissues of the perineum and the perineal skin
      Cutting down the midline posterior to the vagina can harm the perineal body, leading to both fecal and urinary incontinence, as well as pelvic organ prolapse.

      4. Anterior to the vagina, mediolaterally into the labium minus
      This type of incision can damage Bartholin’s glands, which can lead to pain and discomfort during sexual intercourse.

      5. One incision anterior to the vagina and one incision posterior to the vagina down the mid-line
      This type of incision can cause damage to both the urethral orifice and the perineal body, leading to both urinary and fecal incontinence.

      In conclusion, it is important to discuss the risks and benefits of episiotomy with your healthcare provider and to understand the potential complications of different types of incisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of severe abdominal pain that has worsened over the past few hours. She has vomited twice and feels lightheaded. Upon examination, she experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Her vital signs are stable, except for a mild tachycardia. A urine pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy. An ultrasound performed by the Obstetrics SHO reveals an empty uterus but shows a 40mm pregnancy in her left fallopian tube. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be taken to theatre for surgical management

      Explanation:

      If an ectopic pregnancy is larger than 35mm or has a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, surgical intervention is necessary. The patient in this scenario is experiencing symptoms such as pain and dizziness, and her tachycardia indicates a risk of instability. While she is currently stable, surgical management should be performed promptly. A laparotomy is not immediately necessary, but the procedure should be carried out as soon as possible. Waiting for a blood hCG is unnecessary, and medical management is not appropriate.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman, G1P0, presents with constant pelvic pain at 33 weeks’ gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, G1P0, presents with constant pelvic pain at 33 weeks’ gestation. The pain started in early morning and has an intensity of 9/10. There is frequent, intermittent uterine contraction, but no vaginal bleeding. Vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70 and heart rate of 90 bpm. Respiratory rate and body temperature are within normal limits. Investigations revealed a diminished platelet count. D-dimer is elevated. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are increased. Schistocytes are noted in the peripheral blood smear.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      This pregnant woman is experiencing painful uterine contractions and has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is characterized by thrombocytopenia, increased PT and PTT, elevated D-dimer, and the presence of schistocytes in a peripheral blood smear. Although she is not experiencing vaginal bleeding, the most likely cause of her DIC is placental abruption, which can occur without visible bleeding. Placental abruption presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, contractions, vaginal bleeding, and decreased fetal movement. If there is any fetal or maternal compromise, the fetus needs to be delivered by Caesarean section as soon as possible to prevent fetal or maternal demise. DIC can present with bleeding from multiple sites, extensive bruising, low blood pressure, reduced capillary refill time, or sudden onset of high temperature, general malaise, and purpura. Management includes removing the precipitant (e.g., retained placenta) and blood products such as fibrinogen and cryoprecipitate. Other potential causes of DIC, such as lower limb deep venous thrombosis, pelvic thrombophlebitis, urinary tract infection, and sepsis, are less likely in this pregnant woman in the third trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 28-week pregnant primiparous woman comes to your clinic for a routine check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-week pregnant primiparous woman comes to your clinic for a routine check-up. She has been diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis and is currently taking ursodeoxycholic acid while being closely monitored by her maternity unit. She asks you about the likely plan for her delivery.

      What is the most probable plan for delivery for a 28-week pregnant primiparous woman with intrahepatic cholestasis? Is normal vaginal delivery possible, or will an elective caesarian section be planned? Will induction of labour be offered at 37-38 weeks, or will it be delayed until 40 weeks if she has not delivered by then? Is an emergency caesarian section indicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induction of labour will be offered at 37-38 weeks

      Explanation:

      The risk of stillbirth is higher in cases of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis. As a result, it is recommended to induce labour at 37-38 weeks gestation. It is not advisable to wait for a normal vaginal delivery, especially in primiparous women who may go past their due date. Caesarean delivery is not typically necessary for intrahepatic cholestasis, and emergency caesarean section is not warranted in this situation.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old woman has given birth to her first child and was given...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has given birth to her first child and was given a dose of intramuscular syntocinon before the placenta was delivered. During the wait for the placenta, she experiences a blood loss of 400ml. Even after the placenta is delivered, the bleeding continues and she loses an additional 500ml of blood. The medical team initiates the necessary resuscitation measures and the major haemorrhage protocol. The cause of the bleeding is identified as uterine atony, and the patient is given boluses of syntocinon, ergometrine, and carboprost. However, the bleeding persists. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intra-uterine Bakri catheter

      Explanation:

      The correct first-line surgical intervention for postpartum haemorrhage is an intra-uterine Bakri catheter. This device is used to tamponade the bleeding caused by uterine atony, which is a failure of the uterine myometrium cells to contract. Hysterectomy is not the first option as it is a last resort and will make the patient infertile. Lying the patient on her left lateral side is not relevant for a woman who has already delivered her baby. Ligation of the internal iliac artery may be used, but it is not the next most appropriate step as it may lead to ischaemic complications. Intra-uterine balloon tamponade is the first-line surgical intervention if other measures fail.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section to deliver...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section to deliver her first child at 9 months’ gestation. What type of abdominal surgical incision is the obstetrician likely to use for the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suprapubic incision

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Incisions for Surgical Procedures

      When it comes to surgical procedures, there are various types of incisions that can be made depending on the specific operation being performed. Here are some common types of incisions and their uses:

      1. Suprapubic Incision: This is the most common incision site for Gynaecological and obstetric operations like Caesarean sections. It is made at the pubic hairline and is also known as the bikini (Pfannenstiel) incision.

      2. Transverse Incision just below the Umbilicus: This type of incision is usually too superior for a Caesarean section because the scar would be visible.

      3. Right Subcostal Incision: This incision is used to access the gallbladder and biliary tree. It is commonly used for operations such as an open cholecystectomy.

      4. Median Longitudinal Incision: This type of incision is not commonly used because of cosmetic scarring, as well as the fact that the linea alba is relatively avascular and can undergo necrosis if the edges are not aligned and stitched properly.

      5. McBurney’s Point Incision: This incision is made at the McBurney’s point, which is approximately one-third of the distance of a line starting at the right anterior superior iliac spine and ending at the umbilicus. It is used to access the vermiform appendix.

      In conclusion, the type of incision used in a surgical procedure depends on the specific operation being performed and the location of the area that needs to be accessed.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 16 weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 16 weeks. This is her first pregnancy and she is feeling fine, but is worried because her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes. She has no other complaints and her uterus is consistent with her gestational age. Blood pressure is within normal limits and urinalysis reveals negative nitrites, negative leukocytes, and negative protein. What is your next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange oral glucose tolerance test for the 24-28 weeks stage

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Oral Glucose Tolerance Test for Pregnant Women

      Pregnant women with risk factors for gestational diabetes should undergo an oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. Risk factors include a BMI over 30, previous macrosomia, high-risk ethnicity, and family history of diabetes. Women without risk factors do not require the test, while those with one risk factor should undergo the test. If a woman has previously had gestational diabetes, she can monitor her glucose levels or undergo an oral glucose tolerance test as soon as possible after her booking appointment and another test at 24-28 weeks if the first one is normal. HbA1c is not recommended for assessing the risk of gestational diabetes, and fasting blood glucose and random blood glucose tests are not indicated. While a healthy diet is important for all pregnant women, it is insufficient for preventing the development of gestational diabetes. A glucose tolerance test is necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to the clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to the clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy. She reports a decrease in fetal movement over the past few days and is concerned. She has no significant medical history or family history and has had two uncomplicated pregnancies in the past. Physical examination is normal, and vital signs are stable. A handheld Doppler scan reveals no fetal heartbeat.
      What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      If a woman reports reduced fetal movements and no heartbeat is detected with a handheld Doppler after 28 weeks of gestation, an immediate ultrasound should be offered according to RCOG guidelines. Repeating Doppler after an hour is not recommended. If a heartbeat is detected, cardiotocography should be used to monitor the heart rate for at least 20 minutes. Fetal blood sampling is not necessary in this situation.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of itching symptoms. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of itching symptoms. She is currently 29 weeks pregnant and has had no complications thus far. She reports that her palms and soles of her feet have been extremely itchy for the past few days, and the sensation has now spread to her abdomen. However, she feels otherwise healthy and denies experiencing nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be in good health, without signs of jaundice or rash. Her vital signs are normal, and her blood tests are generally unremarkable, except for a slightly elevated bilirubin level.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate topic to discuss with her regarding definitive management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induction of labour at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing intense pruritus and has elevated bilirubin levels, which are common symptoms of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Due to the heightened risk of stillbirth, induction of labor at 37 weeks is typically recommended. While a caesarian section at 37 weeks may be considered, there is insufficient evidence to support this approach over induction. Induction at 34 weeks is not advisable, and reassurance with a normal delivery at term is not appropriate. Therefore, a discussion regarding induction at 37 weeks is necessary.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman from Chad complains of continuous dribbling incontinence following the birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman from Chad complains of continuous dribbling incontinence following the birth of her second child. She reports no other issues related to her pregnancies and is generally healthy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vesicovaginal fistula

      Explanation:

      If a patient has continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labor and comes from an area with limited obstetric services, it is important to consider the possibility of vesicovaginal fistulae.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

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  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old primiparous woman is 33+6 weeks pregnant. At her last antenatal appointment,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primiparous woman is 33+6 weeks pregnant. At her last antenatal appointment, she had a blood pressure reading of 152/101 mmHg. She mentions experiencing some swelling in her hands and feet but denies any other symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no protein. She has a history of asthma, which she manages with a salbutamol inhaler as needed, and depression, for which she discontinued her medication upon becoming pregnant. What is the optimal course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Gestational hypertension is a condition where a woman develops high blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy, without significant protein in the urine. This woman has moderate gestational hypertension, with her systolic blood pressure ranging between 150-159 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure ranging between 100-109 mmHg.

      Typically, moderate gestational hypertension does not require hospitalization and can be treated with oral labetalol. However, as this woman has a history of asthma, labetalol is not recommended. Instead, NICE guidelines suggest nifedipine or methyldopa as alternatives. Methyldopa is not recommended for patients with depression, so the best option for this woman is oral nifedipine, which is a calcium channel blocker.

      In cases of eclampsia, IV magnesium sulphate is necessary. It’s important to note that lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is not safe for use during pregnancy.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after an uncomplicated, elective lower-segment caesarean section. This is her first child and she is eager to exclusively breastfeed. Her lochia is normal and she is able to move around independently. She is scheduled to be discharged later in the day and is interested in starting contraception right away. She has previously used both the combined oral contraceptive pill and an intrauterine device, both of which worked well for her. What options should be presented to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill to start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women who have recently given birth, whether they are breastfeeding or not, can begin taking the progesterone-only pill at any time. However, for this patient who is only 2 days postpartum, it is recommended to prescribe the progesterone-only pill as it does not contain estrogen and is less likely to affect milk production. Additionally, it does not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, which is a concern for postpartum women until 21-28 days after giving birth. The combined oral contraceptive pill should be avoided until 21 days postpartum due to the risk of thrombosis and reduced breast milk production. The patient cannot resume her previous contraceptives at this time. While an intrauterine device can be inserted during a caesarean section, it is advisable to wait 4-6 weeks postpartum before having it inserted vaginally. It is incorrect to tell the patient that she cannot use any contraception if she wishes to breastfeed, as the progesterone-only pill has been shown to have minimal effect on milk production in breastfeeding women.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 19 - You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone an anomaly scan and is undergoing a routine review. During the consultation, she expresses her concern about not feeling any fetal movement yet, despite experiencing it by 18 weeks gestation in her previous pregnancies.
      At what point in her gestation would it be appropriate to refer her to the maternal fetal medicine unit for further evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral to a maternal fetal medicine unit is recommended if fetal movements have not been felt by 24 weeks, as reduced movements can be a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia. While most women feel their babies move around 18-20 weeks, it can happen earlier in some cases. Although singular episodes of reduced movements may not be harmful, they can also indicate stillbirths and restricted growth. The absence of movements is particularly concerning and requires further investigation. The RCOG has set the 24 week cut off as a guideline.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

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  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of intense itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of intense itching that has developed over the past few weeks. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. The patient reports that the itch is particularly bothersome on her palms and soles. She denies any recent illness or fever and states that she otherwise feels well. On examination, there is no evidence of a rash. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of bilirubin, ALT, AST, and ALP. What should be discussed with the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induction of labour at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman presents with pruritus, the possibility of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy should be considered. This condition is characterized by elevated levels of bile acids and liver enzymes, and can increase the risk of stillbirth if the pregnancy continues. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is another potential diagnosis, but it typically presents with additional symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The recommended course of action is to induce labor at 37 weeks. Ursodeoxycholic acid is often used for symptom management, while dexamethasone should not be used as a first-line treatment due to concerns about its effects on the fetus. An MRCP is not necessary in this case, as the diagnosis is already supported by the patient’s history and blood test results. Elective caesarean is not an appropriate option for management.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old female presents to the Early Pregnancy Unit with vaginal bleeding and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the Early Pregnancy Unit with vaginal bleeding and an unknown gestational age. She reports no pain and is stable. This is her first pregnancy. An ultrasound reveals a tubal pregnancy with a visible fetal heartbeat and an unruptured adnexal mass measuring 40mm. Her beta-hCG level is 5,200 IU/L. What is the initial management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical - laparoscopic salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      Surgical management is recommended for all ectopic pregnancies that are larger than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level greater than 5,000 IU/L.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman who is 35 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 35 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department with fever, abdominal pain, and anxiety. She reports experiencing night sweats for the past few days and has a history of uterine fibroids. She has been sexually active throughout her pregnancy. During the examination, there is significant uterine tenderness and a foul-smelling brown vaginal discharge is observed. The patient's blood pressure is 134/93 mmHg, and her heart rate is 110 beats per minute. Her white blood cell count is 18.5 * 109/l. The fetal heart rate is 170 beats per minute. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chorioamnionitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest an infectious process, as evidenced by her fever, rapid heartbeat, and elevated levels of neutrophils (which are already higher than normal during pregnancy). Chorioamnionitis is a clinical diagnosis that may be indicated by uterine tenderness and a foul-smelling discharge, and the presence of a baseline fetal tachycardia supports this diagnosis. The likely cause of the infection is prolonged premature rupture of membranes. Although the patient has a history of uterine fibroids, this is not relevant to her current condition, as fibroids typically cause symptoms earlier in pregnancy. Acute placental abruption would cause sudden abdominal pain, which is not present in this case. While pyelonephritis is a possible differential diagnosis, the absence of dysuria makes it less likely.

      Understanding Chorioamnionitis

      Chorioamnionitis is a serious medical condition that can affect both the mother and the foetus during pregnancy. It is caused by a bacterial infection that affects the amniotic fluid, membranes, and placenta. This condition is considered a medical emergency and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It is more likely to occur when the membranes rupture prematurely, but it can also happen when the membranes are still intact.

      Prompt delivery of the foetus is crucial in treating chorioamnionitis, and a cesarean section may be necessary. Intravenous antibiotics are also administered to help fight the infection. This condition affects up to 5% of all pregnancies, and it is important for pregnant women to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may have chorioamnionitis.

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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old multiparous woman presents very anxious on day 10 postpartum. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old multiparous woman presents very anxious on day 10 postpartum. She is struggling with breastfeeding; her nipples are sore, and she feels her son is not feeding enough, as he is fussy and crying for most of the day. Breast examination reveals bilateral breast engorgement, but no evidence of infection. The patient tells you she felt embarrassed to ask the nurse for advice when she had her first postnatal visit, as she did not want her to think she was incompetent as a mother.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a one-to-one appointment with a health visitor

      Explanation:

      Management options for breastfeeding problems in new mothers

      Breastfeeding is a common challenge for new mothers, and it is important to provide them with effective management options. The first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines is a one-to-one visit from a health visitor or breastfeeding specialist nurse. This allows for observation and advice on optimal positioning, milk expressing techniques, and pain management during breastfeeding. Information leaflets and national breastfeeding support organisation websites can supplement this training, but they are not as effective as one-to-one observation. Prescribing formula milk may be an option if there is evidence of significant weight loss in the baby. It is important to reassure the mother that establishing a good breastfeeding technique can take time, but active support should be provided to maximise the chances of success.

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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at 28 weeks gestation for her third pregnancy. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at 28 weeks gestation for her third pregnancy. During an ultrasound at 12 weeks, it was discovered that she was carrying dichorionic diamniotic twins. She is admitted to the hospital due to painless, bright red bleeding per vaginum. She has undergone two previous caesarian sections. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placenta praevia

      Explanation:

      Placenta praevia is a pregnancy complication characterized by the attachment of the placenta to the lower part of the uterus. The main symptom is painless bleeding occurring after the 24th week of gestation. Risk factors include a history of placenta praevia, previous caesarean section, damage to the endometrium, and multiple pregnancies. Placenta praevia frequently results in a high presenting part or abnormal lie due to the placenta’s low position.

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old primigravida patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of light per-vaginal spotting. Based on her last menstrual period date, she is 8 weeks and 4 days gestation and has not yet undergone any scans. She reports no abdominal pain or flooding episodes and has no prior medical history. A transvaginal ultrasound scan reveals a closed cervical os with a single intrauterine gestational sac, a 2 mm yolk sac, and a crown-rump length measuring 7.8mm, without cardiac activity. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of miscarriage can be made when a transvaginal ultrasound shows a crown-rump length greater than 7mm without cardiac activity. In this case, the patient has experienced a missed miscarriage, as the ultrasound revealed an intrauterine foetus of a size consistent with around 6 weeks gestation, but without heartbeat. The closed cervical os and history of spotting further support this diagnosis. A complete miscarriage, inevitable miscarriage, and partial miscarriage are not applicable in this scenario.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 16 weeks gestation visits her doctor with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 16 weeks gestation visits her doctor with concerns about a new rash on her 6-year-old daughter's arm that appeared 2 days ago. The rash looks vesicular, and the mother reports that there is a chickenpox outbreak at school. The patient is unsure if she had chickenpox in her childhood.

      What should be the next step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check the patient's varicella-zoster antibodies

      Explanation:

      The first step in managing chickenpox exposure during pregnancy is to confirm the patient’s immunity by checking her varicella-zoster antibodies. If the woman is unsure about her past exposure to chickenpox, this test will determine if she has antibodies to the virus. If the test confirms her immunity, no further action is necessary. Administering the varicella-zoster vaccine or IV immunoglobulin is not appropriate in this situation. Neglecting to check the patient’s immunity status can put her and her unborn child at risk.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to undergo an oral glucose tolerance test. She has had four previous pregnancies, and her babies' birth weights have ranged from 3.4-4.6kg. She has no history of diabetes, but both her parents have hypertension, and her grandfather has diabetes. She is of white British ethnicity and has a BMI of 29.6kg/m². What is the reason for recommending an oral glucose tolerance test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Previous macrosomia

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that pregnant women with a family history of diabetes undergo an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, visits her midwife for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, visits her midwife for a check-up. She has a BMI of 33 kg/m² and no other medical conditions. The patient is anxious about gestational diabetes, which she believes is common in larger women. She has one child previously, a boy, who was born after a complicated and prolonged delivery. He weighed 4.6kg at birth and required no additional post-natal care. There is no family history of any pregnancy-related issues. What is the most appropriate test to address her concerns and medical history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      The preferred method for diagnosing gestational diabetes is still the oral glucose tolerance test.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old primigravida, at 39+3 weeks’ gestation, presented to the Labour Ward in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida, at 39+3 weeks’ gestation, presented to the Labour Ward in spontaneous labour. The midwife has asked you to review the patient, as the latter has only dilated 2 cm in the last six hours. She is now at 4 cm of cervical dilation at 10 hours since onset of labour. Cardiotocography shows no evidence of fetal distress; uterine contractions are palpable, but irregular and not very strong, and the patient’s observations are stable.
      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy and reassess by vaginal examination in two hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Prolonged First Stage of Labour: Interventions and Considerations

      When a patient experiences a prolonged first stage of labour, it is important to assess the three categories where problems could arise: Powers, Passage, and Passenger. In the case of a primigravida who is achieving less than 0.5 cm per hour over the past 6 hours, and with irregular, non-powerful contractions, the first step is to perform a vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation, fetal position and presentation, and membrane integrity. If the membranes are intact, an amniotomy or artificial rupture of membranes can be performed to accelerate the first stage of labour. Progress is then reassessed by vaginal examination after two hours. If progress remains suboptimal, an oxytocin infusion can be commenced, with analgesia taken into consideration. However, oxytocin infusion should be avoided in women with a previous Caesarean section due to the risk of uterine rupture.

      If there is no indication of fetal distress, uncontrolled haemorrhage, or other maternal complications, there is no need for a Caesarean section or instrumental delivery at present. However, if fetal distress or serious maternal complications arise, an emergency Caesarean section would be the preferred mode of delivery. In the absence of these indications, an intervention such as amniotomy should be offered early to increase the chances of a normal vaginal delivery before the patient tires. Therefore, reassessment should be done in one hour to ensure timely intervention.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old mother comes to see her GP. She had given birth to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old mother comes to see her GP. She had given birth to her child 8 weeks ago. She is feeling upset and tearful, explaining that motherhood is not what she expected. She is experiencing poor quality of sleep, loss of appetite, and feelings of guilt. She has not mentioned any thoughts of suicide. What screening tool should be used for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edinburgh Scale

      Explanation:

      To screen for postnatal depression, healthcare professionals can use the Edinburgh Scale questionnaire. Patients displaying symptoms of depression after giving birth should be assessed using either the Edinburgh Scale or the PHQ-9 form, according to NICE guidelines. The severity of anxiety can be measured using the GAD 7 questionnaire. The Bishop score is a scoring system used to determine if induction of labor is necessary.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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  • Question 31 - A 30-year-old G1P0 woman in her 12th week of pregnancy presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old G1P0 woman in her 12th week of pregnancy presents to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting that has been worsening over the past week. She reports difficulty keeping any food down over the past 24 hours and noticed a small amount of fresh blood in her vomit. She denies any abdominal pain or change in bowel habits. Despite using cyclizine tablets, her symptoms have not improved. The patient has no significant medical history.

      The following blood tests were taken and revealed abnormal results: Na+ 140 mmol/l (reference range 135-145 mmol/l), K+ 3.3 mmol/l (reference range 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), Cl- 100 mmol/l (reference range 95-105 mmol/l), HCO3- 23 mmol/l (reference range 22-28 mmol/l), urea 13 mmol/l (reference range 2.0-7.0 mmol/l), creatinine 80 mmol/l (reference range 55-120 umol/l), and blood glucose 6.0 mmol/l (reference range 4.0-7.8 mmol/l). A urine dipstick revealed 4+ ketonuria but no white or red cells.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for IV fluid and electrolyte replacement, anti-emetics and trial of bland diet

      Explanation:

      In cases where pregnant women experience severe nausea and vomiting leading to ketonuria and dehydration, admission to the hospital should be considered. This is especially true if they have already tried oral anti-emetics without success. Such symptoms are indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum, which can be confirmed by urine dipstick and increased blood urea levels. While pyridoxine is not recommended by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG), ondansetron is effective as a second-line option. However, inpatient treatment is necessary. Gastroscopy is unlikely to be helpful at this stage, even if there is a small amount of blood in the vomit, which is likely due to a Mallory-Weiss tear caused by constant retching. Low K+ levels due to vomiting need to be replaced, and anti-emetics are necessary. Therefore, admission to the hospital for IV fluids, anti-emetics, and a trial of a bland diet is the appropriate course of action.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 32 - A 32-year-old woman visits your clinic in the third trimester as her foetus...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits your clinic in the third trimester as her foetus is larger than expected for the gestational age. She has pre-existing type 2 diabetes and is taking medication to manage her blood glucose levels. She wants to know which medication is safe to take while breastfeeding.

      Which of the following medications can she continue taking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking sulfonylureas (such as gliclazide) as there is a potential risk of causing hypoglycemia in newborns. Similarly, exenatide, liraglutide, and sitagliptin should also be avoided during breastfeeding. However, it is safe to use metformin while breastfeeding.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 33 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start insulin only

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes with a fasting glucose level of >= 7 mmol/L at diagnosis is to commence insulin. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority according to NICE guidelines. Re-checking glucose in 2 weeks, starting exenatide, or relying on lifestyle changes alone would not be appropriate. Metformin alone may not be sufficient for glucose levels above 7 mmol/L, but it can be used in combination with insulin. If glucose levels are below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be trialed before considering metformin.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant is brought to the maternity...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant is brought to the maternity ward due to excessive vaginal bleeding. She has a negative Rhesus factor. What is the best course of action for preventing Rhesus sensitization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One dose of Anti-D immunoglobulin followed by a Kleihauer test

      Explanation:

      What is the recommended prophylaxis for Rhesus sensitisation in a Rhesus negative mother with antepartum haemorrhage?

      Antepartum haemorrhage increases the risk of Rhesus sensitisation and Rhesus disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies due to fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH). The correct approach is to administer one dose of anti-D immunoglobulin immediately, followed by a Kleihauer test. This test detects fetal cells in the maternal circulation and estimates the volume of FMH, allowing for the calculation of additional anti-D immunoglobulin. While routine prophylaxis at 28 weeks should still be given, there is no such thing as an anti-D immunoglobulin infusion. These recommendations are based on the British Committee for Standards in Haematology guidelines for the prevention of haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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  • Question 35 - As the junior doctor on the labour ward, you are summoned to attend...

    Incorrect

    • As the junior doctor on the labour ward, you are summoned to attend a first delivery of a 26-year-old patient. The patient experienced spontaneous preterm rupture of membranes at 34 weeks, and now the umbilical cord is palpable above the level of the introitus. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus

      Explanation:

      In the event of cord prolapse, which occurs when the umbilical cord descends below the presenting part of the fetus after membrane rupture, fetal hypoxia and death can occur due to cord compression or spasm. To prevent compression, tocolytics should be administered and a Caesarean delivery should be performed. The patient should be advised to assume an all-fours position. It is important not to push the cord back into the uterus. The preferred method of delivery is an immediate Caesarean section.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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  • Question 36 - A 34-year-old G3P2 woman comes to the antenatal clinic seeking advice on Down...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old G3P2 woman comes to the antenatal clinic seeking advice on Down syndrome screening. She is currently 12+6 weeks pregnant and has had 2 previous caesarean deliveries. Although her previous children did not have Down's syndrome, she is worried about the effect of her advancing age on the likelihood of her baby being born with the condition. What tests would you suggest for this patient to assess her risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nuchal translucency, β-hCG and PAPP-A

      Explanation:

      A woman at 12 weeks gestation is seeking Down syndrome screening. Although her age increases the likelihood of her fetus having Down’s syndrome, it will not affect the initial screening process. The standard screening method involves an ultrasound to evaluate nuchal translucency and serum testing to measure levels of β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). This combined screening can also detect Edward’s (trisomy 18) and Patau (trisomy 13) syndromes. The triple test, which includes α-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, and β-hCG, is conducted between 15-20 weeks gestation to assess for Down’s syndrome. The quadruple test is also an option for women who have missed the window for combined antenatal screening. A biophysical profile, which evaluates fetal wellbeing through ultrasound detection of heart rate, breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume, is used to determine the need for rapid induction of labor.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old primiparous patient is seen at home by the community midwife for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primiparous patient is seen at home by the community midwife for a routine antenatal visit. She is 34 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. On examination, she is well and has a symphysis fundal height of 33 cm. Her blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg and she has 2++ protein in the urine.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension in Pregnancy

      Hypertension in pregnancy can be a serious condition that requires urgent assessment and management. Pre-eclampsia, characterized by both hypertension and proteinuria, is a common diagnosis. Early detection and management can prevent complications.

      Normal blood pressure during pregnancy typically drops slightly in the first and second trimesters and rises back to pre-pregnancy levels in the third trimester. However, some patients may have chronic hypertension that was previously undiagnosed.

      White-coat hypertension, where blood pressure is elevated in a clinical setting but normal at home, should be ruled out before a diagnosis of pregnancy-induced hypertension is made. This type of hypertension occurs after week 20 of pregnancy but without proteinuria. Regular screening for proteinuria is necessary in these cases.

      In cases of mild to moderate hypertension, patients may be admitted to the hospital and monitored or started on oral labetalol. Severe hypertension requires immediate hospitalization and treatment. Overall, understanding hypertension in pregnancy is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and baby.

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  • Question 38 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic 8 weeks after her last menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic 8 weeks after her last menstrual period with complaints of severe nausea, vomiting, and vaginal spotting. Upon examination, she is found to be pregnant and a transvaginal ultrasound reveals an abnormally enlarged uterus. What would be the expected test results for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High beta hCG, low TSH, high thyroxine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in this question are indicative of a molar pregnancy. To answer this question correctly, a basic understanding of physiology is necessary. Molar pregnancies are characterized by abnormally high levels of beta hCG for the stage of pregnancy, which serves as a tumor marker for gestational trophoblastic disease. Beta hCG has a similar biochemical structure to luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Consequently, elevated levels of beta hCG can stimulate the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), leading to symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. High levels of T4 and T3 negatively impact the pituitary gland, reducing TSH levels overall.
      Sources:
      Best Practice- Molar Pregnancy
      Medscape- Hydatidiform Mole Workup

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a uterus that is large for dates, and very high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months, as around 2-3% of cases may develop choriocarcinoma.

      Partial hydatidiform mole, on the other hand, occurs when a normal haploid egg is fertilized by two sperms or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. As a result, the DNA is both maternal and paternal in origin, and the fetus may have triploid chromosomes, such as 69 XXX or 69 XXY. Fetal parts may also be visible. It is important to note that hCG can mimic thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which may lead to hyperthyroidism.

      In summary, gestational trophoblastic disorders are a group of conditions that arise from the placental trophoblast. Complete hydatidiform mole and partial hydatidiform mole are two types of these disorders. While complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, partial hydatidiform mole occurs when a normal haploid egg is fertilized by two sperms or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. It is important to seek urgent medical attention and effective contraception to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months.

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  • Question 39 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology department with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology department with a recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. Upon staging, it was found that she has a small malignant tumour that is only visible under a microscope and measures 6mm in width. The depth of the tumour is 2.5mm, and there is no evidence of nodal or distant metastases, classifying her disease as stage IA1. She expresses a desire to preserve her fertility as she has not yet started a family.

      What treatment option would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cone biopsy and close follow-up

      Explanation:

      If a woman with stage IA cervical cancer wants to maintain her fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins and close follow-up may be considered as the best option. Hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance would not preserve fertility. Radical trachelectomy, which involves removing the cervix, upper part of the vagina, and surrounding tissues, and checking for cancer spread in the pelvis, is an option for IA2 tumors that also preserves fertility.

      Management of Cervical Cancer Based on FIGO Staging

      Cervical cancer management is determined by the FIGO staging and the patient’s desire to maintain fertility. The FIGO staging system categorizes cervical cancer into four stages based on the extent of the tumor’s spread. Stage IA and IB tumors are confined to the cervix, with IA tumors only visible under a microscope and less than 7 mm wide. Stage II tumors have spread beyond the cervix but not to the pelvic wall, while stage III tumors have spread to the pelvic wall. Stage IV tumors have spread beyond the pelvis or involve the bladder or rectum.

      The management of stage IA tumors involves a hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance. For patients who want to maintain fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins can be performed, but close follow-up is necessary. Stage IB tumors are managed with radiotherapy and concurrent chemotherapy for B1 tumors and radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymph node dissection for B2 tumors.

      Stage II and III tumors are managed with radiation and concurrent chemotherapy, with consideration for nephrostomy if hydronephrosis is present. Stage IV tumors are treated with radiation and/or chemotherapy, with palliative chemotherapy being the best option for stage IVB. Recurrent disease is managed with either surgical treatment followed by chemoradiation or radiotherapy followed by surgical therapy.

      The prognosis of cervical cancer depends on the FIGO staging, with higher survival rates for earlier stages. Complications of treatments include standard surgical risks, increased risk of preterm birth with cone biopsies and radical trachelectomy, and ureteral fistula with radical hysterectomy. Complications of radiotherapy include short-term symptoms such as diarrhea and vaginal bleeding and long-term effects such as ovarian failure and fibrosis of various organs.

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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old G3P0 attends the practice for review, following a miscarriage at 16...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P0 attends the practice for review, following a miscarriage at 16 weeks’ gestation. She reports that in her other two pregnancies, she miscarried at 15 weeks’ and 18 weeks’ gestation, respectively. In all three pregnancies, she had ultrasound scans that were consistent with her dates.
      What could be a potential factor that contributed to her recurrent miscarriages?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incomplete fusion of paramesonephric ducts

      Explanation:

      Causes of Second-Trimester Miscarriage: Incomplete Fusion of Paramesonephric Ducts and Other Factors

      Second-trimester miscarriage can have various causes, including a septate or bicornuate uterus, cervical incompetence, and antiphospholipid syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus. One possible reason for a septate or bicornuate uterus is incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts. However, other factors such as low maternal serum progesterone or a failure of migration of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)-secreting neurones from the olfactory placode can also contribute to second-trimester miscarriage. It is important to consider all possible causes when investigating recurrent pregnancy loss.

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  • Question 41 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner four weeks after a positive...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner four weeks after a positive home pregnancy test. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, generalised tonic–clonic seizures and hyperlipidaemia. Her obstetric history includes an elective termination of pregnancy at 19 weeks due to trisomy 18. She is currently taking hydroxychloroquine, phenytoin, atorvastatin and a herbal supplement. She drinks socially, consuming an average of one drink per week, and does not smoke. On physical examination, no abnormalities are noted.
      Considering her medical history, which fetal complication is most likely to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoplastic fingernail defects

      Explanation:

      Teratogenic Effects of Medications on Fetal Development

      Certain medications can have harmful effects on fetal development, leading to birth defects and other medical conditions. Phenytoin and carbamazepine, commonly used to treat seizures, are known to cause fetal hydantoin syndrome, which can result in intrauterine growth restriction, microcephaly, cleft lip/palate, intellectual disability, hypoplastic fingernails, distal limb deformities, and developmental delay. Meningomyelocele, a neural tube defect, can be associated with valproic acid use and folate deficiency. Omphalocele, an abdominal wall defect, is linked to chromosomal abnormalities but not medication use. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia can lead to pulmonary hypoplasia and pulmonary hypertension, but it is not caused by phenytoin use. While phenytoin and carbamazepine are used to treat seizures, they do not typically cause seizures in infants exposed to the drugs in utero. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use during pregnancy to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 42 - A 29-year-old woman on day one postpartum who is breastfeeding is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman on day one postpartum who is breastfeeding is concerned about the safety of her pain medication. When you arrive, you find that the patient was prescribed acetaminophen for pain relief, but when she was offered this, she told the midwife it cannot be used as it can have detrimental effects for her baby. She wants to know if there are any other options. You explain that acetaminophen is safe to use while breastfeeding. Which of the following analgesics is another safe first line treatment to use in women who are breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Safe Pain Relief Options for Breastfeeding Mothers: A Guide to Medications

      Breastfeeding mothers often experience pain and discomfort, and it is important to know which pain relief options are safe to use while nursing. Paracetamol and ibuprofen are considered safe and can be used as first-line medication for analgesia. Codeine and other opiates can be used sparingly as third-line medication, but caution must be taken as some women may be slow metabolizers and it can cause drowsiness and respiratory depression in the infant. Aspirin is contraindicated due to the risk of Reye’s disease and other side-effects. Naproxen is generally safe, but paracetamol and ibuprofen should be the mainstay of analgesia. Tramadol can be used with caution and should be prescribed by a specialist. It is important to advise the woman on the safe use of medication and to monitor for any signs of toxicity in the infant.

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  • Question 43 - A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s birth weight was 2 100 g. She wanted to breastfeed but is wondering whether she should supplement feeds with formula to help the baby’s growth.
      Which of the following best applies to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for feeding in low-birthweight infants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-birthweight infants who cannot be fed their mother’s breast milk should be fed donor human milk

      Explanation:

      Recommendations for Feeding Low-Birthweight Infants

      Low-birthweight infants, those with a birthweight of less than 2,500 g, should be exclusively breastfed for the first six months of life, according to WHO recommendations. If the mother’s milk is not available, donor human milk should be sought. If that is not possible, standard formula milk can be used. There is no difference in the duration of exclusive breastfeeding between low-birthweight and normal-weight infants. Daily vitamin A supplementation is not currently recommended for low-birthweight infants, but very low-birthweight infants should receive daily supplementation of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus. Low-birthweight infants who are able to breastfeed should start as soon as possible after birth, once they are clinically stable.

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  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old, G2P1, presents to the obstetrics assessment unit with vaginal bleeding and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old, G2P1, presents to the obstetrics assessment unit with vaginal bleeding and mild abdominal pain at 15 weeks gestation. What aspect of her medical history would raise concern for a possible miscarriage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large cervical cone biopsy

      Explanation:

      There are several factors that can increase the risk of miscarriage, including age, previous miscarriages, chronic conditions, uterine or cervical problems (such as large cervical cone biopsies or Mullerian duct anomalies), smoking, alcohol and illicit drug use, and weight. Invasive prenatal tests like chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis also carry a slight risk of miscarriage. It’s important to note that other options are not considered risk factors for 2nd-trimester miscarriage.

      Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology

      Miscarriage, also known as abortion, refers to the expulsion of the products of conception before 24 weeks. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used. According to epidemiological studies, approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies will end in miscarriage during early pregnancy. In fact, up to 50% of conceptions may not develop into a blastocyst within 14 days.

      Recurrent spontaneous miscarriage, which is defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects approximately 1% of women. Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is important for healthcare providers and patients alike. It can help to identify risk factors and provide appropriate counseling and support for those who have experienced a miscarriage. By raising awareness and promoting education, we can work towards reducing the incidence of miscarriage and improving the overall health and well-being of women and their families.

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  • Question 45 - A 29-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and brown vaginal discharge....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with a positive pregnancy test and brown vaginal discharge. Four weeks ago, she was diagnosed with an incomplete miscarriage at eight weeks’ gestation, which was medically managed with misoprostol. She reports passing big clots the day after and lightly bleeding since. An ultrasound scan reports a ‘heterogeneous appearance of the endometrial cavity suspicious of retained products of conception’. Her heart rate is 100 bpm, blood pressure 100/80 mmHg and temperature 38.0 °C. Abdominal examination reveals a tender abdomen, with cervical excitation on vaginal examination.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical evacuation of products of conception

      Explanation:

      Options for Management of Miscarriage: Surgical Evacuation, Misoprostol, Expectant Management, and Mifepristone

      Miscarriage is a common complication of pregnancy, affecting up to 20% of all pregnancies. When a miscarriage occurs, there are several options for management, including surgical evacuation, misoprostol, expectant management, and mifepristone.

      Surgical evacuation of products of conception involves a general anaesthetic, dilation of the cervix, and removal of the products by curettage. Risks associated with this procedure include bleeding, infection, venous thromboembolism, retained products of conception, intrauterine adhesions, uterine perforation, and cervical damage.

      Misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 analogue that promotes uterine contraction, cervical ripening, and dilation. It can be used for medical management of a missed or incomplete miscarriage or for induction of labor. However, if medical management fails, as in the case of the patient in this scenario, misoprostol is not appropriate.

      Expectant management is the first-line management of women with a confirmed missed or incomplete miscarriage. However, if expectant management is unacceptable to the patient or in the presence of other factors, such as a previous pregnancy complication, medical or surgical management should be offered.

      Mifepristone is a competitive antagonist of progesterone that disrupts and degenerates the decidualized endometrium, causes ripening and dilation of the cervix, and increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the effect of prostaglandins. When used in combination with misoprostol, it is the recommended regimen for medical termination of pregnancy.

      In conclusion, the management of miscarriage depends on several factors, including the patient’s preference, medical history, and clinical presentation. The options for management include surgical evacuation, misoprostol, expectant management, and mifepristone. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each option with the patient to make an informed decision.

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  • Question 46 - A 25-year-old primigravida woman at 36 weeks gestation comes in with mild irregular...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primigravida woman at 36 weeks gestation comes in with mild irregular labor pains in the lower abdomen. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, posterior, and closed, and fetal heart tones are present. However, the pain subsides during the consultation. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and discharge

      Explanation:

      False labor typically happens during the final month of pregnancy. It is characterized by contractions felt in the lower abdomen that are irregular and spaced out every 20 minutes. However, there are no progressive changes in the cervix.

      Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.

      During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.

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  • Question 47 - A 28-year-old primigravid woman is rushed to the hospital due to preterm premature...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravid woman is rushed to the hospital due to preterm premature rupture of membranes. During assessment, it is observed that the cord is protruding below the level of the introitus. What is the most suitable immediate course of action to take while preparing for a caesarian section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insert a urinary catheter and fill the bladder with saline

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate action for managing umbilical cord prolapse is to insert a urinary catheter and fill the bladder with saline, which can help lift the presenting part off the cord. Alternatively, the presenting part can be manually lifted to prevent cord compression. Applying suprapubic pressure is not the correct management for cord prolapse, as it is used for shoulder dystocia. Administering IV oxytocin is not recommended, as it can induce contractions. Tocolytics such as terbutaline or nifedipine can be used to relax the uterus and delay delivery while transferring the patient to theatre for a caesarian section. Episiotomy may be used in the management of shoulder dystocia, but it is not appropriate for cord prolapse. Pushing the cord back inside the vagina is not recommended, as it can cause vasospasm and lead to foetal hypoxia.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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  • Question 48 - A 29-year-old woman presents with hypertension at 12 weeks into her pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with hypertension at 12 weeks into her pregnancy. She has no history of hypertension. She complains of headache and tenderness in the right lower quadrant. An ultrasound of her pelvis reveals multiple cysts in both ovaries. There are no signs of hirsutism or virilism. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hirsutism in Women: A Differential Diagnosis

      Hirsutism, the excessive growth of hair in women in a male pattern, can be caused by various underlying conditions. Here are some possible causes and their distinguishing features:

      Molar Pregnancy: This condition is characterized by hypertension in the first trimester of pregnancy. Excessive stimulation of ovarian follicles by high levels of gonadotrophins or human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) can lead to the formation of multiple theca lutein cysts bilaterally.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia: This disease, which is mostly found in women, can present with gradual onset of hirsutism without virilization. It is caused by a deficiency of 21-hydroxylase and is characterized by an elevated serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.

      Luteoma of Pregnancy: This benign, solid ovarian tumor develops during pregnancy and disappears after delivery. It may be associated with excess androgen production, leading to hirsutism and virilization.

      Adrenal Tumor: Androgen-secreting adrenal tumors can cause rapid onset of severe hirsutism, with or without virilization. Amenorrhea is found in almost half of the patients, and testosterone and dihydrotestosterone sulfate concentrations are elevated.

      Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: Women with this condition are at higher risk of developing pre-eclampsia. However, the development of hypertension in the first trimester of pregnancy makes it more likely that there is a molar pregnancy present, with theca lutein cysts seen on ultrasound.

      In summary, hirsutism in women can be caused by various conditions, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 49 - A 27-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation is experiencing prolonged labour....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation is experiencing prolonged labour. She has developed gestational diabetes during her pregnancy, but it is well-controlled with insulin. During an attempt to expedite labour, an artificial rupture of membranes was performed. However, shortly after this, the cardiotocograph showed foetal bradycardia and variable decelerations. Upon examination, the umbilical cord was found to be palpable vaginally. Assistance has been requested.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid handling the cord and keep it warm and moist

      Explanation:

      In the case of umbilical cord prolapse, it is important to avoid handling the cord and keep it warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. This is especially crucial if the cord has passed the introitus. The prolapse may have been caused by artificial rupture of membranes, which is a risk factor. If there are signs of foetal distress, such as foetal bradycardia and late decelerations, it is considered an obstetric emergency. Attempting to place the cord back into the uterus is not recommended as it can cause vasospasm and reduce blood supply to the foetus, leading to complications such as death or permanent disability. Administering an IV oxytocin infusion is also not recommended as it can increase uterine contractions and worsen cord compression. Applying external suprapubic pressure is not relevant to the management of umbilical cord prolapse and is only used in cases of shoulder dystocia.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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  • Question 50 - A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives birth to a healthy baby girl. What treatment should be provided to the newborn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hep B vaccine and 0.5 millilitres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth with a further hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months and a further vaccine at 6 months

      Explanation:

      When babies are born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen positive or are at high risk of developing hepatitis B, they should receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth. Additionally, babies born to surface antigen positive mothers should receive 0.5 millilitres of hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth. The second and third doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should be given at 1-2 months and 6 months, respectively.

      Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention

      During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a mother is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, it is important that her baby receives a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Currently, studies are being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.

      There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the risk of vertical transmission of hepatitis B. However, it is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. It is crucial for pregnant women to undergo screening for hepatitis B to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby. With proper prevention and treatment, the risk of transmission can be greatly reduced.

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  • Question 51 - A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of feeling sad and low since giving birth to her daughter 2 weeks ago. She reports difficulty sleeping and believes that her baby does not like her and that they are not bonding, despite breastfeeding. She has a strong support system, including the baby's father, and has no history of depression. She denies any thoughts of self-harm or substance abuse, and you do not believe the baby is in danger. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      The recommended first line treatment for moderate to severe depression in pregnancy or post-natal period for women without a history of severe depression is a high intensity psychological intervention, such as CBT, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. If this is not accepted or symptoms do not improve, an antidepressant such as a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) should be used. Mindfulness may be helpful for women with persistent subclinical depressive symptoms. Social services should only be involved if there is a risk to someone in the household. The British National Formulary (BNF) advises against using zopiclone while breastfeeding as it is present in breast milk.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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  • Question 52 - A 35-year-old woman, para 2+0, is currently in the second stage of labour...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman, para 2+0, is currently in the second stage of labour and has successfully delivered the anterior shoulder. She has chosen active management for the third stage of labour. During her pregnancy, she experienced mild gestational hypertension and her most recent blood pressure reading was 140/90 mmHg. What medication should be given at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      The third stage of labor begins with the birth of the baby and ends with the expulsion of the placenta and membranes. To reduce the risk of post-partum hemorrhage and the need for blood transfusion after delivery, active management of this stage is recommended. This involves administering uterotonic drugs, delaying clamping and cutting of the cord for over a minute but less than five minutes, and using controlled cord traction after signs of placental separation. Guidelines recommend the use of 10 IU oxytocin by IM injection after delivery of the anterior shoulder. Ergometrine should not be given to patients with hypertension, and oxytocin is preferred as it causes less nausea and vomiting. The active management process should take less than 30 minutes.

      Understanding Labour and its Stages

      Labour is the process of giving birth, which is characterized by the onset of regular and painful contractions that are associated with cervical dilation and descent of the presenting part. Signs of labour include regular and painful uterine contractions, a show (shedding of mucous plug), rupture of the membranes (not always), and shortening and dilation of the cervix.

      Labour can be divided into three stages. The first stage starts from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated. The second stage is from full dilation to delivery of the fetus, while the third stage is from delivery of the fetus to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered.

      Monitoring is an essential aspect of labour. Fetal heart rate (FHR) should be monitored every 15 minutes (or continuously via CTG), contractions should be assessed every 30 minutes, maternal pulse rate should be assessed every 60 minutes, and maternal blood pressure and temperature should be checked every 4 hours. Vaginal examination (VE) should be offered every 4 hours to check the progression of labour, and maternal urine should be checked for ketones and protein every 4 hours.

      In summary, understanding the stages of labour and the importance of monitoring can help ensure a safe and successful delivery.

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  • Question 53 - A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe promethazine

      Explanation:

      Promethazine is the appropriate medication to prescribe for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as it is a first-line antiemetic. Metoclopramide should be avoided due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects if used for more than 5 days. While alternative methods such as ginger and acupressure bands may be discussed, as the patient has requested medication, it is appropriate to prescribe promethazine. It is also important to support the patient’s decision to continue working if that is her preference.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 54 - A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born via normal vaginal delivery and weighs 3.8 kg. The baby has a normal Newborn and Infant Physical Examination (NIPE) after birth and the mother recovers well following the delivery. The mother wishes to breastfeed her baby and is supported to do so by the midwives on the ward.

      They are visited at home by the health visitor two weeks later. The health visitor asks how they have been getting on and the mother explains that she has been experiencing problems with breastfeeding and that her baby often struggles to latch on to her breast. She explains that this has made her very anxious that she is doing something wrong and has made her feel like she is failing as a mother. When her baby does manage to latch on to feed he occasionally gets reflux and vomits afterward. The health visitor weighs the baby who is now 3.4kg.

      What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her to a midwife-led breastfeeding clinic

      Explanation:

      If a baby loses more than 10% of its birth weight, it is necessary to refer the mother and baby to a midwife for assistance in increasing the baby’s weight.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

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  • Question 55 - A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with sudden and severe lower abdominal pain that started 45 minutes ago. She reports a small amount of vaginal bleeding but her baby is still active, although movements are slightly reduced. She has had regular antenatal care and her medical history is unremarkable, except for a 10 pack-year smoking history. Her two previous children were born vaginally and are healthy at ages 4 and 6.

      The patient is alert and oriented but in significant pain. Her vital signs are within normal limits except for a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg and a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. A cardiotocograph shows a normal baseline fetal heart rate with appropriate accelerations and no decelerations.

      What is the most likely diagnosis and what is the next appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit the mother and administer steroids

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient is experiencing placental abruption, which is a medical emergency. The severity of the abruption and the risks to both the mother and the baby determine the management approach. This patient has risk factors such as chronic hypertension and smoking. Steroids should be administered to assist in fetal lung development if the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks, and not in distress. The patient’s vital signs are stable, but the volume of vaginal bleeding may not accurately reflect the severity of the bleed. The fetal status is assessed using a cardiotocograph, which indicates whether the fetus is receiving adequate blood and nutrients from the placenta. Expectant management is not appropriate, and intervention is necessary to increase the chances of a positive outcome. Immediate caesarean section is only necessary if the fetus is in distress or if the mother is experiencing significant blood loss. Vaginal delivery is only appropriate if the fetus has died in utero, which is not the case here.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications

      Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

      If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.

      Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.

      In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 56 - A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes becomes pregnant.
    Which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes becomes pregnant.
      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is an increased risk of polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Diabetes in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, diabetic patients are at an increased risk of developing polyhydramnios, which is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid index is >25 cm or if the deepest vertical pool is >8 cm. Contrary to popular belief, fetal macrosomia is a risk of a diabetic pregnancy, rather than microsomia. All patients should be treated with insulin because this has no teratogenic effects, in contrast to oral hypoglycaemics. The mortality rate from DKA in pregnant patients approaches 50%, so very close monitoring and counselling about the importance of good diabetic control are essential. Hypertension in pregnancy may be treated with other anti-hypertensives, eg labetalol or methyldopa, as ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy because they are associated with oligohydramnios.

      Debunking Common Myths about Diabetes in Pregnancy

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  • Question 57 - A 28-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with fresh red vaginal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with fresh red vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain.
      The patient is at 36 weeks gestation and gravida 3, para 2. She is rhesus positive and a current smoker. Access to her current maternity notes is unavailable. She tells you she has pre-eclampsia for which she takes labetalol.
      Maternal observations are normal and there are no concerns with foetal movements. A cardiotocograph (CTG) demonstrates that the foetal heart rate is 140 beats/min, variability is 15 beats/min, accelerations are present and there are no decelerations noted.
      On examination, the uterus is hard and tender to palpation. The doctor suspects that the foetus may be in a transverse lie. The patient's pad is partially soaked but there is no active bleeding noted on a quick inspection.
      What would the most appropriate first course of action be in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer corticosteroids and arrange admission to the ward

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant patient presents with painful bleeding and a hard, tender uterus, it may indicate placental abruption. In this case, the patient has risk factors such as being a smoker, having pre-eclampsia, and a transverse lie. The management of placental abruption depends on the gestation, maternal condition, and fetal condition. In this scenario, the patient is stable, at 34 weeks gestation, and the fetus is not showing signs of distress. Therefore, the appropriate plan is to admit the patient and administer steroids for observation.

      Administering anti-D and performing a Kleihauer test is unnecessary as the patient is already known to be rhesus positive. Induction of labor is not indicated as the fetus has not matured to term. Emergency caesarean section would only be necessary if fetal distress was present. Performing a sterile speculum examination is not appropriate as it could cause or worsen hemorrhage, especially if the patient has placenta previa. The best course of action is to admit the patient to the ward until access to notes becomes available or an ultrasound is performed.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications

      Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

      If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.

      Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.

      In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 58 - A 32 weeks pregnant woman, who is G2 P0, presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 weeks pregnant woman, who is G2 P0, presents to the emergency department with vaginal bleeding. She had suffered from severe nausea and vomiting earlier in the pregnancy which has now resolved. She has no abdominal pain, no vaginal discharge, no headache, and no pruritus. On abdominal examination, purple striae were noted on the abdomen as well as a dark line running vertically down the middle of the abdomen. A transverse lie is noticed and there is no fetal engagement. The symphyseal-fundal height is 33cm.
      What is the best gold standard investigation to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      It is not advisable to conduct a digital vaginal examination in cases of suspected placenta praevia without first performing an ultrasound, as this could potentially trigger a dangerous hemorrhage.

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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  • Question 59 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Labour Ward at 38 weeks’ gestation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Labour Ward at 38 weeks’ gestation for an elective Caesarean section. She has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), had been taking combined highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) during pregnancy, and her viral load today is 60 copies/ml. She is asking about breastfeeding and also wants to know what will happen to the baby once it is born.

      Which of the following statements best answers this patient’s questions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breastfeeding should be avoided and the baby should have antiretroviral therapy for 4–6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for HIV-positive mothers and breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding is not recommended for HIV-positive mothers as it increases the risk of transmission to the child. Instead, the baby should receive a first dose of antiretroviral therapy within four hours of delivery and continue treatment for 4-6 weeks. Blood tests are taken at set intervals to check the baby’s status. Hepatitis B vaccination should be offered at birth only if there is co-infection with hepatitis B virus in the mother.

      However, if the mother’s viral load is less than 50 copies/ml, breastfeeding may be considered in low-resource settings where the nutritive benefits outweigh the risk of transmission. In high-resource settings, breastfeeding is not advised. The baby will still need to undergo several blood tests to establish their HIV status, with the last one taking place at 18 months of life.

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  • Question 60 - A 33-year-old primiparous woman has been referred at 35+5 weeks’ gestation to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old primiparous woman has been referred at 35+5 weeks’ gestation to the Antenatal Assessment Unit by her community midwife because of a raised blood pressure. On arrival, her blood pressure is 162/114 mmHg despite two doses of oral labetalol and her heart rate is 121 bpm. Examination reveals non-specific abdominal tenderness predominantly in the right upper quadrant; the uterus is soft and fetal movements are palpated. Urine dipstick reveals 3+ protein only. The cardiotocograph is normal.
      Initial blood tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 32 × 109/l 150–450 × 109/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 140 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 129 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 μmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 253 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
      Which of the following is the most definitive treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate delivery of the fetus to improve blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Pre-eclampsia with HELLP Syndrome

      Severe pre-eclampsia with HELLP syndrome is a serious complication of pregnancy that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. The first-line medication for pre-eclampsia is labetalol, but if it fails to improve symptoms, second-line treatments such as intravenous hydralazine or oral nifedipine can be used. In cases of severe pre-eclampsia, delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment. However, if delivery is planned before 36 weeks, intramuscular betamethasone is required to protect the fetus from neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Intravenous magnesium sulfate infusion is also necessary for neuroprotection and to lower the risk of eclampsia. It should be considered in cases of mild or moderate pre-eclampsia with certain symptoms. While these interventions are essential in managing severe pre-eclampsia with HELLP syndrome, they are not definitive treatments. Close monitoring of both the mother and fetus is necessary, and delivery should be planned as soon as possible to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (4/5) 80%
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