00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia for 3 years. To...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia for 3 years. To address his history of non-compliance, he has been prescribed a monthly 250 mg depo injection of zuclopenthixol. What is a typical side effect of this type of antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Parkinsonian symptoms

      Explanation:

      Anti-psychotics often lead to Parkinsonian symptoms, while neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but severe side effect that can be fatal.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old woman with a long history of bipolar disorder visits the mental...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman with a long history of bipolar disorder visits the mental health clinic. She reports experiencing an uncomfortable sensation of inner restlessness for several months, and her husband observes that she frequently moves her arms and legs.
      What symptom is the woman experiencing?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Correct Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Akathisia is characterized by an inner sense of restlessness and an inability to remain still. It is commonly observed in individuals with a prolonged history of anti-psychotic medication use, often due to schizophrenia. Symptoms of acute dystonia typically involve spasms of facial muscles, while parkinsonism may manifest as changes in gait and resting tremors. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by abnormal involuntary movements, such as lip-licking. Although rare in individuals who have been on anti-psychotics for an extended period, neuroleptic malignant syndrome may present with hyperthermia and muscle rigidity.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with concerning symptoms. Ten weeks ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with concerning symptoms. Ten weeks ago, she was in a serious car accident. Despite being physically fine, she has been experiencing flashbacks, heightened alertness when crossing the street, and difficulty concentrating at work. What characteristic would most strongly support the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delusional beliefs

      Correct Answer: Emotional detachment

      Explanation:

      One of the common features of PTSD is emotional detachment, where patients may feel numb and unable to fully experience their emotions. Other symptoms include re-experiencing traumatic events through flashbacks and nightmares, avoiding people or situations, and hyperarousal such as hypervigilance and sleep problems. Delusional beliefs are not typically associated with PTSD, and excessive sleep and nystagmus are not common symptoms. However, there is a link between eyes and PTSD, as eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy is a common treatment for the disorder.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 52-year-old woman who is well known to the community mental health team...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman who is well known to the community mental health team is brought into the psychiatric hospital by her worried friends. She has not been eating more than a few mouthfuls of food a day for the last two weeks and refuses to speak more than a few words. She remains awake all night and rocks in her chair. She even refuses to drink more than a cupful of water per day despite numerous attempts by her friends, doctors and psychiatrists. She is refusing all oral medications. After a brief conversation, you feel she has capacity to make decisions. You learn she has a long history of depression which has been very severe at times.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for a patient with severe depression who is refusing to eat or drink is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). ECT involves 12 sessions and can be effective for patients with a high risk of suicide, psychotic features, catatonic stupor, food refusal, severe weight loss or dehydration, and those who have not responded to antidepressants. If the patient is unable to consent, their capacity must be assessed and treatment may be given under the Mental Health Act. NG tube insertion, emergency antidepressants, lithium, and cognitive behavioural therapy are not appropriate options for this acute situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old woman is being evaluated in the Psychiatry Clinic following her third...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman is being evaluated in the Psychiatry Clinic following her third suicide attempt in the past two years. She had cut her wrist at home and was brought to the hospital after her sister found her unconscious. She was successfully resuscitated, received a blood transfusion, and was discharged after a few days in hospital. She has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder since her teenage years and works in retail. She is currently single after having had unsuccessful relationships in the past. She consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and smokes around ten cigarettes a day. She is currently taking lithium for her mental illness. She is otherwise healthy and does not suffer from any medical conditions. What will be included in her long-term risk management plan?

      Your Answer: Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Suicide Risk Management

      Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of needs and risks is recommended by NICE to identify the needs of the patient and potential risks. However, the use of risk assessment tools to predict future danger is not advised due to their limited predictive value. Instead, a holistic approach considering biological, psychological, and social factors is more effective in identifying patients at high risk of suicide.

      Establishing a crisis plan with the patient is part of the risk management strategy advocated by NICE. This plan includes self-management strategies and guidance on accessing emergency services if necessary. Asking about suicide plans and establishing a crisis plan does not increase suicide risk.

      Confidentiality is crucial in the doctor-patient relationship, but it may need to be broken if the patient poses a serious risk to themselves or others. Therefore, informing the patient that confidentiality will always be maintained is incorrect.

      While psychiatric medications are commonly used to manage underlying mental illnesses, NICE advises against prescribing them specifically to reduce self-harm. A tailored approach to medication management is necessary for each patient.

      Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to suicide risk management is essential for effective prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      54.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended dose increase. When should her levels be re-checked?

      Your Answer: In 1 week

      Explanation:

      Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, if the levels remain stable, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a patient with early-onset schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Supportive psychotherapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines

      Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

      It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man comes to see his doctor complaining of feeling down for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to see his doctor complaining of feeling down for the past two weeks. He has been having nightmares and difficulty sleeping. These symptoms started after he was violently robbed outside of his workplace. He has been avoiding going to work and often feels disconnected from reality.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first 4 weeks after a person experiences a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after 4 weeks. The symptoms of acute stress disorder are similar to PTSD, including intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and phobic disorder are not the same as acute stress disorder and have their own distinct characteristics.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her primary care physician with a complaint of neck pain and limited neck movement for the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she displays normal vital signs except for a mild tachycardia of 105 and neck stiffness with restricted range of motion. Her neck is involuntarily flexed towards the right. Her facial movements are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torticollis

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute dystonia, which is characterized by sustained muscle contractions such as torticollis or oculogyric crisis. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are likely a result of starting a typical antipsychotic medication, specifically haloperidol. Torticollis, or a wry neck, is present with unilateral pain and deviation of the neck, restricted range of motion, and pain upon palpation. While neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a medical emergency that can occur in patients taking antipsychotics, the patient’s lack of altered mental state and normal observations make it unlikely. An oculogyric crisis, which involves sustained upward deviation of the eyes, clenched jaw, and hyperextension of the back/neck with torticollis, is another example of acute dystonia, but the patient does not exhibit any facial signs or symptoms. Tardive dyskinesia, on the other hand, is a condition that occurs in patients on long-term typical antipsychotics and is characterized by uncontrolled facial movements such as lip-smacking.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.
      What is one of the potential hazards linked to the use of zopiclone in older adults?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of falls

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling due to its mode of action on GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA. This is similar to benzodiazepines. Zopiclone can cause adverse effects such as agitation, constipation, dry mouth, dizziness, and decreased muscle tone. However, diarrhea is not a known side effect. Withdrawal from zopiclone may lead to convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.

      Understanding Z Drugs and Their Adverse Effects

      Z drugs are a class of medications that have similar effects to benzodiazepines, but they differ in their chemical structure. These drugs work by acting on the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. There are three groups of Z drugs: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon.

      Despite their effectiveness in treating sleep disorders, Z drugs have adverse effects that are similar to benzodiazepines. One of the most significant risks associated with these drugs is an increased risk of falls in the elderly. Therefore, it is essential to use these medications with caution, especially in older adults. It is also important to follow the prescribed dosage and not to mix them with other medications or alcohol. By understanding the potential risks and benefits of Z drugs, patients can make informed decisions about their use and work with their healthcare providers to manage any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 23-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her friend. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her friend. The friend reports that she has been acting strangely and unable to focus on one task at a time. He has observed over the past few days that she has been walking around in the early hours of the morning and not sleeping. He is particularly concerned that she has been returning home with multiple bags of expensive shopping every day for the past three days.

      The patient denies experiencing any hallucinations but reports feeling fantastic and having an increased appetite. She has no prior medical history and is not taking any medications.

      What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Mania

      Correct Answer: Hypomania

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying signs of hypomania, which is characterized by an elevated mood, pressured speech, and flight of ideas, but without any psychotic symptoms. She is experiencing agitation, insomnia, and an increased appetite. Patients with hypomania may also exhibit disinhibition, such as increased sexuality, spending, or risk-taking behaviors. Hypomania differs from mania in terms of duration (less than 7 days) and the absence of hallucinations. The patient’s history does not suggest any prior episodes of depression, so hypomania is the most appropriate diagnosis at this time. Frontal lobe injury can cause motor symptoms, speech difficulties, and disinhibition, but there is no indication of this in the patient’s history. Mania is more severe than hypomania and lasts longer than 7 days, often involving psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations or delusions, which are not present in this case. The patient is not exhibiting any signs of psychosis, which can also involve thought disorganization, such as tangentiality, word salad, and poverty of speech.

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.

      Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.

      Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old male comes in for his routine check-up without specific concerns. During...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male comes in for his routine check-up without specific concerns. During the examination, no abnormalities were detected. However, upon reviewing the blood test results sent by the nurse before the appointment, the following values were noted:
      Na+ 130 mmol/l
      K+ 3.5 mmol/l
      Urea 4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 85 µmol/l
      The patient's medications are now being reviewed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the electrolyte abnormality?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, but not of aspirin or bisoprolol. Bisoprolol may cause bradycardia, while aspirin may cause dyspepsia. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia in patients with reduced renal function.

      Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs

      SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.

      Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.

      SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying up most nights for the past month, working on four different novels simultaneously. He has not left his home or eaten in the last week and refuses to do so. Additionally, he has started gambling. During the consultation, he appears easily distracted and responds to questions with nonsensical sentences made up of random words. A collateral history was necessary to gather information. There is no evidence of drug misuse, and he is currently being treated for depression. When his family attempts to understand his behavior, he accuses them of trying to hold him back from achieving fame. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bipolar disorder (type I)

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from bipolar disorder (type I) due to their elevated mood and energy following treatment for depression, which can often be a sign of bipolar disorder unmasked by antidepressants. The presence of disorganized speech in the form of ‘word salad’ is evidence of psychosis, which is a characteristic of bipolar I. The patient has also not slept or eaten in the last week, indicating severe functional impairment and the need for hospitalization, which is another DSM-V criteria for bipolar I. Additionally, the patient exhibits decreased need for sleep, increased risky activities, increased goal-directed behavior, and distractibility, which are all symptoms of bipolar I.

      Bipolar disorder (type II) is unlikely as the patient’s disorganized speech suggests psychosis, which is more commonly associated with bipolar I. Schizoaffective disorder is also unlikely as the patient’s elevated mood and history of depression do not fit the diagnostic criteria. Schizophrenia is less likely as it typically presents with negative symptoms followed by delusions and hallucinations, whereas the patient’s symptoms are primarily manic in nature.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Sarah is a 35-year-old married woman with two children. She comes to you...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 35-year-old married woman with two children. She comes to you in distress and expresses suicidal thoughts, stating that she has considered taking an overdose. She has no history of self-harm or suicide attempts, and no psychiatric background. Despite having a loving family and enjoying her job, she is struggling. What is a risk factor for suicide in this case?

      Your Answer: First presentation to mental health services

      Correct Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old boy and his mother die in a car crash. Following these...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy and his mother die in a car crash. Following these deaths, the boy’s 16-year-old brother starts playing with the dead boy’s toys.
      This would most likely be an example of which of the following defence mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Reaction formation

      Correct Answer: Identification

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Coping Strategies for Unconscious Thoughts and Emotions

      Defense mechanisms are unconscious coping strategies that individuals use to protect themselves from anxiety, guilt, and other negative emotions. These mechanisms can be helpful in reducing the impact of stressful situations, but they can also lead to maladaptive behaviors if used excessively. Here are some common defense mechanisms:

      Identification: This mechanism involves adopting the characteristics or activities of another person to reduce the pain of separation or loss. For example, a child may imitate a favorite teacher to cope with the absence of a parent.

      Rationalization: This mechanism involves offering a false but acceptable explanation for behavior to avoid feelings of guilt or shame. For example, a student who fails an exam may blame the teacher for not providing enough study materials.

      Denial: This mechanism involves behaving as if one does not know something that they should reasonably be expected to know. For example, a person with a drinking problem may deny that they have a problem despite evidence to the contrary.

      Reaction Formation: This mechanism involves adopting behavior that is opposite to one’s true feelings. For example, a person who is attracted to someone they consider inappropriate may express disgust or hostility towards that person.

      Sublimation: This mechanism involves directing unacceptable impulses into acceptable outlets. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies may channel their energy into sports or other physical activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy and taking fluoxetine, but her symptoms persist. Her doctor decides to prescribe clomipramine, but warns her of potential side effects. What is the most likely side effect she may experience as a result of taking clomipramine?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Dry mouth and weight gain

      Explanation:

      Clomipramine, a TCA, can cause dry mouth due to its anticholinergic effects and weight gain due to its antihistaminic effects. While rare, extrapyramidal side effects and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are also possible but more commonly associated with antipsychotic drugs. Increased urinary frequency and thirst are side effects of lithium, not TCAs. Additionally, mydriasis, not miosis, is a side effect of TCAs.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol due to a recent breakup with her partner. She expresses remorse for her actions, denies any suicidal thoughts, and requests to be discharged. Her parents and a friend arrive at the hospital soon after. Paracetamol levels at 4 hours are below the treatment limit.
      What should be the next course of action in managing her case?

      Your Answer: Arrange review by mental health liaison team prior to discharge

      Explanation:

      Importance of Mental Health Liaison Team Review Prior to Discharge for Paracetamol Overdose Patients

      Paracetamol overdose is a common presentation of self-harm in emergency departments. While medical management is crucial, patients may also require mental health support. A hospital-based mental health liaison team can provide advice on discharge and arrange follow-up if necessary. Discharging a patient without follow-up increases the risk of further self-harm. However, temporary compulsory detention under the Mental Health Act is not appropriate for low-risk patients. Prescribing N-acetyl-L-cysteine is unnecessary if the paracetamol levels are below treatment threshold. Emergency admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit is only necessary for high-risk patients. Therefore, mental health liaison team review prior to discharge is crucial for appropriate management of paracetamol overdose patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old patient is about to be discharged from hospital with a course...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient is about to be discharged from hospital with a course of diazepam to help with anxiety symptoms.
      Which feature of the history is the most important to ask about?

      Your Answer: Presence of alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      Factors that Influence Benzodiazepine Dependence: A Closer Look

      When it comes to benzodiazepine dependence, there are several factors that can increase the risk of developing this condition. One of the most important determinants is a history of substance dependence, particularly with alcohol. This is because alcohol can synergize with benzodiazepines to cause respiratory depression, which can be dangerous.

      While family history of anxiety or self-harm may be concerning, they are less likely to be risk factors for benzodiazepine dependence. Similarly, a past history of depression may be linked to future depression, but it is not as strongly associated with drug dependence as coexisting alcohol dependence.

      Overall, it is important to consider these factors when assessing the risk of benzodiazepine dependence in individuals. By identifying those who may be at higher risk, healthcare professionals can take steps to prevent or manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant. Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a proton pump inhibitor as a precaution?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      When prescribing an SSRI such as citalopram for depression, it is important to consider the potential risk of GI bleeding, especially if the patient is already taking an NSAID. This is because SSRIs can deplete platelet serotonin, which can reduce clot formation and increase the risk of bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a PPI should also be prescribed.

      TCAs like amitriptyline are also used to treat depression and pain syndromes, but they are not commonly associated with GI bleeds. Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, and selegiline, a MAOI, are rarely used for depression and are not typically associated with GI bleeds either.

      St John’s Wort, a plant commonly used in alternative medicine for depression, has not been associated with an increased risk of GI bleeding, but it can interfere with other medications and increase the risk of serotonin syndrome when used with other antidepressants.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old bipolar woman has been readmitted to the hospital after attempting to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old bipolar woman has been readmitted to the hospital after attempting to harm herself. She is currently stable. What form of psychotherapy would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Psychotherapy Options for Schizophrenia

      There are several psychotherapy options available for individuals with schizophrenia. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is a structured, goal-directed, problem-focused, and time-limited therapy that combines principles of both behavioural and cognitive therapy. It focuses on the environment, behaviour, and cognition simultaneously. Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy primarily relies on insight, bringing unconscious or unclear material into awareness, and linking past and present experiences to address the patient’s difficulties. Interpersonal therapy is derived partially from a psychodynamic perspective and focuses primarily on the patient’s interpersonal relationships. It is fairly non-directive and addresses issues such as grief, role transitions, interpersonal role disputes, and interpersonal deficits as they relate to the patient’s current symptoms.

      Family therapy is another option that helps family members learn about the disorder, solve problems, and cope more constructively with the patient’s illness. There is evidence that family interventions can reduce relapse rates in schizophrenia. Systemic desensitisation is an exposure-based behavioural treatment that utilises gradual, systematic, repeated exposure to the feared object or situation to allow patients with anxiety disorders to become desensitised to the feared stimulus.

      The decision between CBT and family therapy would be highly influenced by patient preference. However, if only CBT is presented as an option, it would be the appropriate choice. It is important to consider the different psychotherapy options available and choose the one that best suits the patient’s needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of inability to use her...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of inability to use her right arm. She has been staying with her mother for the past 5 days after experiencing domestic abuse from her husband. The patient reports feeling very stressed. She denies any history of trauma. On examination, there is normal tone and reflexes but 0/5 power in all muscle groups of the right upper limb. The affected arm falls to the patient's side when held above her face and released. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Correct Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      The probable diagnosis for this patient is conversion disorder, which is a psychiatric condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function and is often caused by stress. There is no evidence of neurological disease in the patient’s history or clinical findings. The condition is likely triggered by recent domestic abuse and stress. The patient also exhibits a positive drop-arm test, which is a controlled drop of the arm to prevent it from hitting the face, and is an unconscious manifestation of psychological stress.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and is characterized by symptoms of hyperarousal, re-experiencing of the traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli, and distress. However, it does not involve physical weakness. It typically lasts between 3 days and 1 month.

      Post-traumatic stress disorder is another condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and has similar symptoms to acute stress disorder. However, it lasts longer than 1 month.

      Patients with somatisation disorder have multiple bodily complaints that last for months to years and persistent anxiety about their symptoms. However, based on this patient’s history and physical findings, conversion disorder is the most likely diagnosis.

      Given the patient’s normal tone and reflexes and the absence of trauma to the neck or spine, it is highly unlikely that a spinal cord lesion is causing total arm paralysis.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old accountant comes to see you for a follow-up review 2 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old accountant comes to see you for a follow-up review 2 weeks after presenting with symptoms suggesting low mood. He had felt ‘down’ for several weeks, no longer enjoyed work or seeing friends and was sleeping more than usual. Despite this, he had a normal appetite, a strong sense of self-worth, denied any thoughts of self-harm or suicide and came across as reasonably active and lively. He says that he feels very anxious on Sunday evenings before going to work on a Monday and is getting increasingly ‘short and snappy’ with his colleagues. However, he says that work is otherwise going well and he is managing to get through the day. He does not feel any better at today’s consultation and is requesting advice about treatment options. He says he is ‘not a tablet person’.
      What should you advise?

      Your Answer: A trial of computer-based cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) or peer support

      Explanation:

      For a patient with mild depression symptoms, the recommended first-line treatment is low-intensity psychosocial interventions such as computer-based CBT, group-based CBT, or peer support groups performing physical activity programs. If the patient prefers non-pharmacological treatment, antidepressants should not be used as first-line. Benzodiazepines should be avoided due to their addictive potential and side-effect profile. In the presence of both depression and anxiety, depression should be treated first according to NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and lightheadedness. Upon conducting an ECG, torsades de pointes is observed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the cardiac anomaly?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Citalopram, an SSRI used to treat major depressive disorder, has been identified as the most likely to cause QT prolongation and torsades de pointes. In 2011, the MHRA issued a warning against its use in patients with long-QT syndrome. While fluoxetine and sertraline can also cause prolonged QT, citalopram is more frequently associated with this side effect. Gentamicin, a bactericidal antibiotic, does not appear to cause QT prolongation or torsades de pointes. Although sertraline is another SSRI that can cause prolonged QT, citalopram remains the most concerning in this regard.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his sister. His sister...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to his psychiatrist by his sister. His sister is worried that her brother firmly believes that he is a superhero, despite having no evidence or abilities to support this belief. Upon assessment, the man appears physically healthy. There are no signs of delusions, disorientation, or unusual speech patterns. However, he maintains an unyielding conviction that Beyonce is in live with him. What is the appropriate diagnosis for this condition?

      Your Answer: De Clerambault's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct term for the delusion that a famous person is in love with someone, without any other psychotic symptoms, is De Clerambault’s syndrome. Capgras syndrome, on the other hand, refers to the delusion that a close relative has been replaced by an impostor, while De Frégoli syndrome is the delusion of seeing a familiar person in different individuals.

      De Clerambault’s Syndrome: A Delusional Belief in Famous Love

      De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a type of paranoid delusion that has a romantic aspect. Typically, the patient is a single person who firmly believes that a well-known person is in love with them. This condition is characterized by a persistent and irrational belief that the famous person is sending secret messages or signals of love, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. The patient may engage in behaviors such as stalking, sending letters or gifts, or attempting to contact the object of their affection. Despite repeated rejections or lack of response, the patient remains convinced of the love affair. This syndrome can be distressing for both the patient and the object of their delusion, and it often requires psychiatric treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with depression. She is currently undergoing treatment with citalopram and has started a course of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT).
      What is used to assess the effectiveness of treatment in patients with depression?

      Your Answer: Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M-SASQ)

      Correct Answer: Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9)

      Explanation:

      Common Screening Tools Used in Primary Care

      Primary care physicians often use various screening tools to assess their patients’ mental and physical health. Here are some of the most commonly used screening tools:

      1. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9): This tool is used to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment.

      2. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): This questionnaire is used to identify cognitive impairment and screen for dementia.

      3. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): This screening tool is used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.

      4. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This tool consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder and measure the severity of symptoms.

      5. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M-SASQ): This is a single question alcohol harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on the frequency of consuming six or more units (if female) or eight or more units (if male) on a single occasion in the last year.

      By using these screening tools, primary care physicians can identify potential health issues early on and provide appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 20-year-old woman who has just started her first year at university. She is described by others as quite a reserved character. She has one friend but prefers solitary activities and has few interests. Sarah has never had a boyfriend and does not seem to be interested in companionship. When she is praised or criticised by others, she remains indifferent to their comments. There is no history of low mood or hallucinations.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for Sarah's condition?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder exhibits similar negative symptoms to those seen in schizophrenia. This disorder is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise or criticism, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and a disregard for social norms. John displays more than three of these traits, indicating a possible diagnosis of schizoid personality disorder. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by feelings of inadequacy and social inhibition, while borderline personality disorder involves mood swings and impulsive behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is marked by attention-seeking behavior and exaggerated emotions.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses that he no longer takes pleasure in his usual pastimes. The patient used to enjoy playing video games and going to the gym, but now finds these activities uninteresting and lacks motivation to engage in them.

      Which symptom of schizophrenia is the patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Anhedonia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Anhedonia, affective flattening, alogia, apathy, and delusions are all symptoms of schizophrenia. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Affective flattening is the loss of a normal range of emotional expression, making it difficult for individuals to express their emotions appropriately. Alogia is a lack of spontaneous speech, making it difficult for individuals to communicate effectively. Apathy is a sense of indifference and lack of interest in activities that were once enjoyable. Delusions are firmly held false beliefs that are not based in reality. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s ability to function in daily life and can lead to social isolation and difficulty maintaining relationships. It is important for individuals experiencing these symptoms to seek professional help and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old boy takes an overdose of 12 paracetamol tablets after a fight with his best friend. He is found by his roommate and rushed to the hospital.

      What is the most significant factor that suggests a high likelihood of a successful suicide attempt?

      Your Answer: Making efforts to not be found

      Explanation:

      The risk of completed suicide is heightened when attempts are made to avoid being discovered. Additionally, factors such as writing a note, making plans, sorting out affairs, and using violent methods also increase the risk. However, an overdose of paracetamol and alcohol has not been found to increase the risk of completed suicide. While a history of deliberate self-harm does increase the risk of suicide, it does not necessarily increase the risk of completed suicide. Furthermore, an impulsive suicide attempt is considered less concerning than a meticulously planned one.

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his fifth suicide attempt...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his fifth suicide attempt in the past two years. He was discovered by his ex-girlfriend, who ended their relationship the day before due to his intense mood swings and overwhelmingly negative emotions. He has no communication with his family and appears unkempt. When questioned, he expresses feelings of worthlessness and a belief that everyone will eventually leave him. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD)

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is emotionally unstable personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by impulsive behavior, disturbances in self-image, and a fear of abandonment. Patients with this disorder often experience severe mood swings and intense negative emotions, including explosive anger outbursts and a chronic sense of emptiness. They tend to have intense relationships with others and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts.

      Bipolar disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as there is no evidence of past manic episodes. Histrionic personality disorder is also incorrect as the patient does not exhibit the typical attention-seeking behavior and preoccupation with physical appearance. Major depressive disorder is also not the correct diagnosis as it does not account for the patient’s intense interpersonal relationships and fear of abandonment.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A mother brings her 10-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 10-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
      She is visiting the clinic as she is still having difficulty managing her daughter's disruptive and challenging behavior, despite receiving group-based support and environmental modifications.
      What is the primary treatment option for managing ADHD?

      Your Answer: Methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      Management of ADHD: First-Line Treatment and Other Options

      Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a common neurodevelopmental disorder that affects young people. While group-based support and environmental modifications can be helpful, medication and therapy are often necessary for ongoing, persistent impairment. Here are some options for managing ADHD:

      First-Line Treatment: Methylphenidate
      Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant that is considered first-line treatment for young people with ADHD who still have significant symptoms despite other interventions. However, it is not approved for use in children under six years and requires monitoring of height, weight, heart rate, blood pressure, and ECG.

      Therapy: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT)
      CBT can be helpful for patients who have already tried medication but continue to have significant symptoms. It can cover topics such as social skills, active listening, self-control, and expression of feelings.

      Alternative Medication: Dexamphetamine
      Dexamphetamine is an option for patients who cannot tolerate or do not respond to methylphenidate. However, it is not first-line treatment.

      Not Recommended: Diazepam and Melatonin
      Diazepam is not recommended for sedation in patients with ADHD. Melatonin can be used for regulating sleep in patients with learning difficulties, but it is not routinely used for ADHD management.

      In summary, ADHD management requires a tailored approach that may involve medication, therapy, or both. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment, but other options are available for patients who do not respond or cannot tolerate it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (16/30) 53%
Passmed