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Question 1
Incorrect
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Barbara, a 75-year-old recently widowed woman, visits your medical practice with her son, who is concerned about his mother's memory. Over the past few months, she has been forgetting appointments and conversations that they had just a few days ago, requiring frequent reminders to recall recent events. When you speak with Barbara, she mentions that she has lost her appetite and is waking up earlier than usual. She denies experiencing any hallucinations or issues with movement.
After administering a mini mental state exam, Barbara scores 23, and you observe that she is having difficulty focusing on your questions, often responding with I don't know.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Depression and Alzheimer’s can have similar presentations in elderly patients, so it’s important to consider depression as a possible cause. Depression is a common issue among the elderly, and it can cause concentration problems that may be mistaken for memory loss.
There are several key symptoms that suggest depression, including loss of appetite, early morning wakening, poor concentration, and recent loss of a spouse. When conducting a mini mental state examination, patients with depression may respond with I don’t know, while those with Alzheimer’s may try to answer but give incorrect responses.
MMSE scores can help determine the severity of cognitive impairment, with scores of 24-30 indicating no impairment, 18-23 indicating mild impairment, and 0-17 indicating severe impairment.
Differentiating between Depression and Dementia
Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.
One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.
Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.
The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.
In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A 27-year-old man dressed in casual attire has been admitted to the psychiatric intensive care unit. He is asked why he was admitted and he responds 'It all started at my workplace, everyone is so busy making money, I've been busy too. I'm investing in stocks, trying to make some extra cash, I keep a record of it in my notebook, I love writing, I write all the time because I'm trying to find a cure for Alzheimer's'. The speech is rapid and has a sense of urgency and when being asked further questions he demonstrates the same behaviour.
What best describes this patient's behaviour?Your Answer: Flight of ideas
Explanation:The patient’s speech pattern is most likely flight of ideas, as there are discernible links between each sentence despite conveying different messages. This is commonly seen in manic episodes. Knight’s move thinking, which involves random and illogical leaps between ideas, is not present in this case. Circumstantiality, where excessive and unnecessary detail is given before eventually answering a question, and perseveration, where a patient repeats a phrase or word despite moving on from the initial question, are also not applicable.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman experiences chest pain following an argument with her 16-year-old daughter. She is brought to your clinic for evaluation. Upon examination, she appears anxious and is hyperventilating. She exhibits tenderness to light pressure on the front of her chest, but her oxygen saturation is 99% while breathing room air. An ECG reveals no abnormalities. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Check troponin and send with routine samples. Plan to repeat ECG in two hours. Explain that you think that there is probably nothing serious going on, but you want to make sure that she has not had a heart attack.
Correct Answer: Explain that she has had a panic attack and that her symptoms are a consequence of this. Help her to control her breathing rate, and say that you think everything will settle down and she will be able to go home.
Explanation:The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.
While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.
Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman with schizophrenia has been under the care of mental health services for a few years with a fluctuating pattern of illness. Her consultant, in collaboration with the patient’s Community Psychiatric Nurse (CPN), decides to initiate clozapine treatment. As a component of the prescription, she is registered into the Clozapine Monitoring Service scheme.
What is the primary rationale for her registration?Your Answer: To monitor the white cell count
Explanation:The Importance of Monitoring White Cell Count in Patients on Clozapine Therapy
Schizophrenia is commonly treated with anti-psychotic medications, including typical and atypical agents. Clozapine, an atypical anti-psychotic, is often prescribed for patients who do not respond to other medications. While effective, clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a lowered white blood cell count that increases the risk of infection. To mitigate this risk, patients on clozapine therapy must be enrolled in a monitoring program that includes regular blood tests to check their white cell count. This monitoring is crucial for patient safety and should be a top priority for healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A patient who has been attending your GP surgery with a worsening depressive episode on a background of known depression presents with occasional suicidal thoughts and is finding it difficult to cope with some daily activities despite use of psychological therapies and regular consultation with the GP. You agree to trial use of an antidepressant.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice for a patient in their 60s?Your Answer: Paroxetine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Depression: Understanding Antidepressants
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While psychological interventions are the first line of treatment, drug therapy may be necessary in some cases. This article discusses the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression.
Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and is the first line choice for treating depression. It is well-tolerated and effective in improving depression symptoms. However, it should be used in conjunction with psychological therapies.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that has largely been replaced by SSRIs due to its toxicity in overdose.
Paroxetine is also an SSRI, but it is only licensed for treating major depressive episodes, not moderate ones.
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that is not recommended for treating depression due to issues with dependence and addiction.
Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that is primarily used for Parkinson’s disease but can be used for treatment-resistant depression under the guidance of a multidisciplinary psychiatric team.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression is crucial in providing effective care for patients. Primary care providers should work closely with mental health professionals to determine the best course of treatment for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) on an emergency appointment due to her worsening anxiety state. She reveals to the GP that she has been experiencing this for several years and is now seeking treatment. What is the most effective approach for long-term management?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Medications for Generalised Anxiety Disorder
Generalised anxiety disorder can severely impact a patient’s daily life. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is the recommended first-line treatment. However, caution must be taken when prescribing to young adults, those over 65, and patients on other medications due to potential side effects. Zopiclone, Haloperidol, and Diazepam are not appropriate treatments for this disorder and should be avoided. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is not considered the best management for generalised anxiety disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman complains of feeling down, having low energy, and losing interest in activities. She has been experiencing poor sleep for the past 2 weeks and has had no appetite. Her physician prescribes mirtazapine. What category of medications does mirtazapine fall under?
Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Correct Answer: Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants
Explanation:By blocking alpha2 adrenoreceptors, mirtazapine increases the release of neurotransmitters and functions as a noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant.
Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.
Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.
Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of depressed mood. He reports feeling fatigued and having suicidal thoughts on a daily basis. His appearance is disheveled and he has made multiple suicide attempts in the past few months. The psychiatrist decides to initiate electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his depression, scheduled to begin in a week. The patient is currently taking 100 mg of sertraline daily. What is the appropriate course of action regarding his medication prior to ECT treatment?
Your Answer: Switch sertraline to lithium
Correct Answer: Reduce the sertraline daily dose
Explanation:Before commencing ECT treatment, it is important to reduce the dosage of antidepressant medication, but not to stop it completely. The recommended approach is to gradually decrease the dosage to the minimum level. In some cases, an increased dosage of antidepressants may be added towards the end of the ECT course. It is not advisable to increase the dosage or discontinue the medication altogether. Switching to an alternative psychiatric drug, such as another SSRI or lithium, is also not recommended as it can be risky before ECT treatment.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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Sarah is a 30-year-old teacher who has been referred to the mental health team with suspected bipolar disorder. The psychiatrist has confirmed the diagnosis and prescribed lithium, which has stabilized her condition. They have requested that you take over the monitoring of her medication levels. When you call Sarah to advise her on when to have her lithium levels checked, she cannot recall the specific timing related to her medication. How would you recommend that her medication levels be monitored?
Your Answer: Blood test 12 hours post dose every 3 months
Explanation:According to NICE, lithium levels should be checked one week after starting treatment, one week after any dose changes, and weekly until stable levels are achieved. Once stable levels are reached, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months, with the sample taken 12 hours after the dose. It is important to note that a trough level taken immediately before a dose is only applicable for certain medications, such as twice-daily clozapine.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated by his supervisor, citing missed deadlines and a decline in the quality of his work. He disputes this and claims that his supervisor has always had a personal vendetta against him. He has confided in his family and close friends, but despite their reassurances, he believes that some of his colleagues were colluding with his supervisor to oust him. During his mental health evaluation, he appears to be generally stable, except for his fixation on his supervisor and coworkers conspiring against him. His family reports that he is easily offended and has a tendency to believe in conspiracies. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Explanation:The diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder may be appropriate for individuals who exhibit hypersensitivity, hold grudges when insulted, doubt the loyalty of those around them, and are hesitant to confide in others.
In the given case, the correct diagnosis is paranoid personality disorder as the individual is reacting strongly to being fired by her manager and believes it to be a conspiracy involving her manager and colleagues. This aligns with the classic symptoms of paranoid personality disorder, and the individual’s family has also observed her tendency to be easily offended and paranoid.
Borderline personality disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as it is characterized by emotional instability, difficulty controlling anger, unstable relationships, and recurrent suicidal thoughts, rather than paranoia.
Schizoid personality disorder is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is characterized by a preference for solitary activities, lack of interest in socializing, and a lack of close relationships, rather than paranoia.
Schizophrenia is an incorrect diagnosis as the individual’s mental state examination is broadly normal, whereas schizophrenia typically presents with delusions, hallucinations, and disordered thinking.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 67-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive eye blinking. He is concerned about the cause of this symptom and reports being unable to control it. He has no visual disturbance and is otherwise in good health. Upon examination, he has a normal facial and ocular appearance except for excessive rapid blinking. What is the probable reason for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:The correct term for the condition described in the stem is tardive dyskinesia. This is a late onset side effect of conventional antipsychotics, such as chlorpromazine, which causes abnormal involuntary movements. Patients may exhibit symptoms such as lip-smacking, jaw pouting, chewing, or repetitive blinking. Unfortunately, this condition is often difficult to treat, but replacing the antipsychotic or trying tetrabenazine may provide some relief.
Parkinsonism is another potential side effect of conventional antipsychotics, but it presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson’s disease, such as tremors, blank facies, bradykinesia, and muscle rigidity. Dry eyes or Sjogren’s syndrome may cause eye twitching, but they are unlikely to cause repetitive blinking. Blepharospasm is a condition characterized by involuntary twitching or contraction of the eyelid, which may be caused by stress or fatigue. However, given the patient’s use of chlorpromazine, tardive dyskinesia is the most likely diagnosis.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.
Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and displays obvious signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.
What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer: Cotard syndrome
Explanation:Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.
Capgras syndrome is a delusional disorder where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.
Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that affects patients with significant vision loss. These patients experience vivid visual hallucinations, which can be simple or complex. However, they are aware that these hallucinations are not real and do not experience any other forms of hallucinations or delusions.
De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may also perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.
Understanding Cotard Syndrome
Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.
The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old female complains of headache, weakness, and pains in her arms and legs. She reports feeling like her symptoms are worsening. She has no significant medical history except for a miscarriage two years ago.
Upon examination, her neurological and musculoskeletal functions appear normal, and there are no alarming signs in her headache history. Her GP conducts a comprehensive blood test, which yields normal results.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Somatoform disorder
Explanation:The young woman has physical symptoms without any disease process, which may be a form of somatisation/somatoform disorder. This disorder is often caused by underlying psychological distress and may result in depression or anxiety. Hypochondriasis is a belief that one is suffering from a severe disorder, while Münchausen syndrome is a disorder where a patient mimics a particular disorder to gain attention. To diagnose malingering, there needs to be evidence that the patient is purposefully generating symptoms for some kind of gain. In a somatisation disorder, the patient may have no clinical evidence of illness or physical injury but believes they have one.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old individual visits their GP with symptoms of flashbacks, nightmares, and difficulty relaxing after being involved in a pub brawl 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history and has attempted breathing exercises to alleviate their symptoms without success. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe diazepam
Correct Answer: Refer for cognitive-behavioural therapy
Explanation:For individuals experiencing acute stress disorder within the first 4 weeks of a traumatic event, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) should be the primary treatment option. The use of benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, should only be considered for acute symptoms like sleep disturbance and with caution. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and other drug treatments should not be the first-line treatment for adults. Debriefings, which are single-session interventions after a traumatic event, are not recommended. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing may be used for more severe cases of post-traumatic stress disorder that occur after 4 weeks of exposure to a traumatic experience.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with known dementia is admitted to hospital for treatment of a community acquired pneumonia. Unfortunately, he was not accompanied by a family member and the history provided by the patient seems confused. Upon arrival of the daughter, she confirms that her father has been confusing real events with those from his imagination. Through this process he appears to be able to maintain a superficial conversation despite significant cognitive impairment.
Which of the following describes this phenomenon?Your Answer: Delusions
Correct Answer: Confabulation
Explanation:Differentiating Confabulation, Delusions, and Other Psychiatric Phenomena
Confabulation, delusions, and other psychiatric phenomena can be confusing and difficult to differentiate. Confabulation is a phenomenon where patients fabricate imaginary experiences due to memory loss, often seen in patients with cognitive impairment. Delusions, on the other hand, are beliefs held with strong conviction despite evidence to the contrary, commonly seen in conditions such as schizophrenia. Flight of ideas, pressure of speech, and hallucinations are other psychiatric phenomena that can be seen in different conditions. Understanding the differences between these phenomena is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The wife reports that her partner has been acting strangely, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and night, sometimes up to twenty times. When questioned, he reveals that he had a frightening experience with his son last month and cannot stop reliving it in his mind. He avoids going to places where he might lose sight of his son and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Panic disorder
Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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A mental state examination is conducted on a 30-year-old individual. When asked about their activities during the week, they begin discussing their job, then transition to their passion for writing, followed by reminiscing about their favorite literature teacher from school, and finally discussing the death of their childhood dog and how it relates to their current writing project. Although their speech is at a normal pace, they never fully answer the question about their recent activities. What can be said about this individual's behavior?
Your Answer: Tangentiality
Explanation:Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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A 29-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatry ward from the emergency department. He was brought by a concerned family member who was worried by his recent behaviour. He had been engaging in large amounts of shopping, spending nearly every night at the mall and hardly sleeping. When asked if he understands the risks of overspending, he is convinced that nothing can go wrong. He struggles to focus on the topic and begins rambling about buying various different items that are sure to make him happy. A diagnosis of a manic episode is made and he is stabilised on treatment with quetiapine. Subsequently it is decided to initiate lithium to maintain his mood.
When should his serum lithium levels next be monitored?Your Answer: 1 week - 12 hours after last dose
Explanation:To prevent future manic episodes, this patient with an acute manic episode can be prescribed lithium as a prophylactic mood stabilizer. When starting or changing the dose of lithium, weekly monitoring of lithium levels is necessary, with samples taken 12 hours after the last dose. After treatment is established, monitoring frequency can be reduced to every 3 months, with samples still taken 12 hours after the last dose. Additionally, U&E and TFTs should be monitored every 6 months after starting treatment.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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A 78-year-old man is admitted with new-onset confusion. He is usually independent and enjoys gardening in his spare time. When he didn't show up for his weekly gardening club meeting, a friend went to his house. The friend noticed that the patient appeared disoriented and was speaking nonsensically, prompting them to call for medical assistance.
What distinguishes delirium from dementia?Your Answer: Fluctuating level of consciousness
Explanation:Dementia vs Delirium: Understanding the Differences
Dementia and delirium are two conditions that can affect cognitive abilities and behavior. While they share some similarities, there are also important differences between them.
Dementia is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that cause a progressive decline in cognition and/or behavior from previous levels of functioning. It is characterized by a slow, insidious progression and is rarely reversible. Memory loss, executive functioning problems, speech and language difficulties, social interaction loss, personality changes, and visuospatial problems are some of the areas of loss associated with dementia. Mobility and gait disturbances are also common.
Delirium, on the other hand, is an acute confusional state characterized by a relatively rapid onset and variable, fluctuating progression. It may cause a global reduction in cognitive abilities but is usually reversible if the underlying cause is promptly identified. Common causes include sepsis, medications, metabolic derangement, and causes of raised intracranial pressure.
While there are some similarities between dementia and delirium, there are also some differences. For example, dementia is never associated with a persistent fluctuating level of consciousness, which is a feature of delirium. Visual hallucinations are present in both delirium and dementia, particularly Lewy body dementia. Impaired memory and dysarthria are also present in both conditions, as is urinary incontinence.
In summary, understanding the differences between dementia and delirium is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. While both conditions can affect cognitive abilities and behavior, they have distinct features that can help differentiate them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old man who lives in a care home is reported missing after breakfast. The care home actively tries to find him but is not able to for the next few hours. A police report is made, and later that day, the man is found wandering two streets away from the care home. He is brought back to the care home, and the care home is concerned that he might try to get out again. The nurse caring for the patient reports that the man has been trying to get out of the care home for the past few weeks but did not manage to do so, as they were able to prevent him on time. The care home wants to fit a lock to the patient’s room door to restrict his mobility during busy times of the day when limited staff are available to make sure he does not get out. The patient is medically stable, has a diagnosis of dementia, and is known to lack capacity to make a decision about his treatment and freedom.
Which of the following is the best course of action for this patient?Your Answer: The patient is to be detained under the Mental Health Act 1983
Correct Answer: The patient can be restricted for seven days under urgent DoLS authorisation
Explanation:Understanding Urgent DoLS Authorisation
In situations where a person’s best interest requires the authorisation of Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DoLS) but there is not enough time for a standard authorisation, an urgent authorisation can be applied for by the care home manager or hospital. This allows the individual to be deprived of their liberty for up to seven days. It is important to note that this can only be done if it is in the person’s best interest.
In the case of a patient who lacks capacity, they cannot make decisions regarding their freedom and treatment. Therefore, the option of allowing the patient to be free is not applicable. However, if the patient is medically stable and does not require hospital admission, they should not be admitted.
It is crucial to understand that an urgent DoLS authorisation can only be applied for seven days, not 21 days. Additionally, the Mental Health Act 1983 is not appropriate for detaining patients who are not in the hospital for assessment or treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old artist visits his GP complaining of anxiety related to social interactions. He prefers solitude and is hesitant to share his beliefs with others, which they find peculiar. During the consultation, the patient talks in a high-pitched voice about his fascination with horror movies and his 'spirit-guide' that protects him. However, he denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations and does not display any delusional thinking. Additionally, there is no evidence of pressure of speech. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation:The man seeking help has social anxiety and prefers to be alone. He has an interest in paranormal phenomena and talks in a high-pitched voice when discussing his spirit guide. These symptoms suggest that he may have schizotypal personality disorder, which is characterized by magical thinking and odd speech patterns. Emotionally unstable personality disorder, histrionic personality disorder, schizoaffective disorder, and schizoid personality disorder are all incorrect diagnoses.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with her partner, concerned about her recent behavior. She has been having trouble sleeping for the past week and has been very active at night, working tirelessly on her new art project, which she believes will be a groundbreaking masterpiece. When questioned further, she admits to feeling very energetic and has been spending a lot of money on new materials for her project. Her partner is worried that this may be a recurrence of her known psychiatric condition. She is currently taking olanzapine and was recently started on fluoxetine for low mood six weeks ago. She has no significant family history. The couple has been actively trying to conceive for the past six months.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Stop the fluoxetine
Explanation:Managing Mania in Bipolar Disorder: Treatment Options
When a patient with bipolar disorder develops mania while on an antidepressant and antipsychotic, it is important to adjust their medication regimen. According to NICE guideline CG185, the first step is to stop the antidepressant. In this case, the patient was on olanzapine and fluoxetine, so the fluoxetine should be discontinued.
While lithium is a first-line mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, it is contraindicated in this patient as she is trying to conceive. Instead, the patient could be switched from olanzapine to quetiapine, another antipsychotic that is similar in effectiveness.
It is important not to stop both the antipsychotic and antidepressant, as this could worsen the patient’s condition. By adjusting the medication regimen, the patient can be effectively managed during a manic episode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
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A 32-year-old woman has come to her doctor for a medication review. She was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 10 months ago and has been taking olanzapine 10 mg once daily and lithium carbonate 600mg twice daily. While her psychological symptoms have improved, she has been feeling more fatigued in the past few weeks. Additionally, she has noticed a decrease in appetite and has experienced bouts of constipation. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism due to lithium toxicity
Explanation:Chronic lithium toxicity is the leading cause of hypothyroidism, which is the most common endocrine disorder. The onset of this condition typically occurs within 6 to 18 months of starting lithium treatment, although the exact mechanism by which lithium inhibits thyroid hormone release is not well understood. While olanzapine does not cause hypothyroidism or hypercalcemia, lithium is not associated with hypoadrenalism. Although undertreatment of bipolar disorder can lead to a depressive episode, the patient in this case has experienced an improvement in mood and the emergence of new somatic symptoms, making hypothyroidism due to lithium toxicity a more probable diagnosis.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
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A 59-year-old man is admitted with pneumonia. He drinks 25 units of alcohol per day. His liver function is normal.
After 12 hours of admission, he suddenly becomes unwell. His vital signs are as follows:
- Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/minute
- Oxygen saturations: 96%
- Blood pressure: 123/76 mmHg
- Heart rate: 106 bpm
- Capillary blood glucose: 4.1 mmol/L
An ECG shows sinus tachycardia at a rate of 103 bpm. Upon examination, he appears tremulous and sweaty and complains of feeling anxious.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide regimen and regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement
Explanation:The administration of glucose IV is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing hypoglycemia. Simply providing regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement is insufficient as the patient also requires a benzodiazepine regimen for alcohol withdrawal. A stat dose of bisoprolol is not appropriate as the patient’s sinus tachycardia is a result of alcohol withdrawal and will not be effectively treated with bisoprolol.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male with a history of daily alcohol consumption for the last five years is admitted to the hospital emergency room. He is experiencing acute visual hallucinations, seeing spiders all around him, and is unable to recognize his family members. He is also exhibiting aggressive behavior and tremors. The patient had stopped drinking alcohol for two days prior to admission. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment, and insight. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Wernicke encephalopathy
Correct Answer: Delirium tremens
Explanation:Delirium Tremens
Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe and potentially life-threatening condition that can occur when someone abruptly stops drinking alcohol. Symptoms can begin within a few hours of cessation, but they may not peak until 48-72 hours later. The symptoms of DT can include tremors, irritability, insomnia, nausea and vomiting, hallucinations (auditory, visual, or olfactory), confusion, delusions, severe agitation, and seizures. Physical findings may be non-specific and include tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnea, diaphoresis, tremor, mydriasis, ataxia, altered mental status, hallucinations, and cardiovascular collapse.
It is important to note that not everyone who stops drinking alcohol will experience DT. However, those who have a history of heavy alcohol use or have experienced withdrawal symptoms in the past are at a higher risk. DT can be a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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A 65-year-old male has been admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit. Upon review this morning, he appears to be a poor historian, providing minimal answers and insisting that he is deceased and does not belong in a hospital meant for the living. What is the specific name of this delusional disorder and with which condition is it typically linked?
Your Answer: Cotard syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder
Explanation:Severe depression is often linked to Cotard syndrome, a rare form of nihilistic delusions where individuals believe they are dead or non-existent. This condition can also be observed in individuals with schizophrenia.
Understanding Cotard Syndrome
Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.
The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman presents complaining of ‘flashbacks’. Seven months earlier, she had been standing at a bus stop when a car swerved off the road into the queue, killing instantly a child standing near to her. Every day she experiences intrusive images of the child’s face as it saw the car mount the curb. She has not been able to go to that part of town since the day and she has avoided taking the bus anywhere. She feels she is always on edge and jumps at the slightest noise around the house. She thinks things are getting worse, rather than better, and asks you whether there are any psychological treatments that might help her.
Which one of the following approaches is indicated?Your Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: Focus on Trauma-Focused CBT
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a delayed and/or prolonged response to a traumatic event that can cause distress in almost anyone. Symptoms include intrusive flashbacks, avoidance of trauma-related triggers, emotional numbness, and hypervigilance. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line treatment for PTSD, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) in the United Kingdom. Other therapies, such as psychodynamic therapy, supportive therapy, and hypnotherapy, may be helpful but are not first-line approaches. Watchful waiting is only appropriate for mild symptoms present for less than a month. It is important to seek help for PTSD, and trauma-focused CBT is a proven effective treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female has presented to the emergency department with a history of diarrhoea for the past week. She denies any blood in her stool or exposure to infectious agents. The patient reports feeling more fatigued and sleeping more than usual.
The patient has a history of depression and was prescribed sertraline. However, she stopped taking the medication two weeks ago as she felt she no longer needed it. Her mental state is currently stable and euthymic.
During the general examination, the patient's pupils are noted to be bilaterally dilated, which was also observed during her childhood. What is the most likely feature in this patient that is a result of discontinuing her medication?Your Answer: Hypersomnia
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Diarrhoea is the correct answer as the patient’s protracted diarrhoea, abdominal cramping, and vomiting are common symptoms of SSRI discontinuation syndrome, which she stopped taking two weeks prior to her presentation. Occam’s razor suggests that this syndrome is more likely than inflammatory bowel disease or gastroenteritis, given the timeline and normal blood results. Euthymia is incorrect as SSRI discontinuation syndrome more commonly results in mood changes, and hypersomnia is incorrect as insomnia is more commonly seen. Generalised weakness is also incorrect as it is likely due to diarrhoea, and there are no focal neurology symptoms to suggest otherwise. Additionally, SSRI discontinuation syndrome can result in paraesthesias rather than a general feeling of fatigue and weakness.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
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A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not experiencing clinical depression, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He occasionally feels indifferent and disheartened, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has heard his late wife speaking to him on several occasions over the last 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he acknowledges that this is impossible. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or smelling their deceased loved one, especially during acute grief. This can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured that this is a common experience.
Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would not be appropriate to arrange blood tests or urinalysis.
While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, the patient is not clinically depressed and is unlikely to benefit from them. In fact, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.
The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent psychiatric involvement or sectioning under the Mental Health Act 1983.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations
Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.
One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.
Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old man with type I diabetes mellitus visits his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about his deteriorating glycaemic control. The GP suspects poor compliance with diet and medication. What is the most effective approach to enhance his compliance during a brief consultation?
Your Answer: Motivational interview
Explanation:Effective Psychological Interventions in Primary Care
Primary care settings are often the first point of contact for patients seeking help for mental health or physical conditions. To provide effective care, healthcare professionals can employ various psychological interventions. Here are some of the most effective ones:
Motivational Interviewing: This patient-centred approach involves resisting a didactic course of action, understanding the reasons for the change in behaviour, listening to the patient’s ideas, concerns or expectations, and empowering the patient to understand they are able to change their behaviour. It has been proven to increase compliance with medication.
Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT): This talking therapy explores the patient’s understanding, concepts and reactions towards a certain problem, gradually building behavioural changes to challenge the concepts and manage the problem. It is used predominantly in the treatment of anxiety and depression, but can also be employed in many other mental health or physical conditions.
Self-Help Materials: Self-help materials in the form of leaflets and aids are a useful tool in the primary care setting, but the patient needs to be motivated for change in order for these to work.
Psychotherapy: This form of counselling employs various techniques to induce behavioural changes and habits that will stay with the patient in the long term. This requires a set amount of sessions over a period of time and therefore, cannot be performed in a short consultation.
Supportive Counselling: This psychological intervention has been shown to be best suited for treating mild to moderate depression and can be used in combination with other methods such as CBT.
By employing these psychological interventions, healthcare professionals can provide effective care for patients seeking help for mental health or physical conditions in primary care settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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