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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of diarrhoea for the past few months. Her stools are pale, bulky, and offensive during these episodes. She consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:

      - Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dl
      - Platelets: 231 * 109/l
      - White blood cells: 5.4 * 109/l
      - Ferritin: 14 ng/ml
      - Vitamin B12: 170 ng/l
      - Folate: 2.2 nmol/l
      - Sodium: 142 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.5 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 88 u/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 21 u/l
      - Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 55 u/l
      - Albumin: 36 g/l

      What is the most likely complication that has occurred in this patient?

      Your Answer: Malabsorption syndrome

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) frequently leads to malabsorption syndrome, which is characterized by reduced absorption of certain vitamins (B12, folate), nutrients (iron), and protein (low albumin) as indicated by blood tests.

      Understanding Malabsorption: Causes and Symptoms

      Malabsorption is a condition that is characterized by diarrhea, weight loss, and steatorrhea. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb nutrients from the food that is consumed. The causes of malabsorption can be broadly divided into three categories: intestinal, pancreatic, and biliary. Intestinal causes include conditions such as coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, tropical sprue, Whipple’s disease, Giardiasis, and brush border enzyme deficiencies. Pancreatic causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic cancer. Biliary causes include biliary obstruction and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other causes of malabsorption include bacterial overgrowth, short bowel syndrome, and lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      117.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and psychiatric issues presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and psychiatric issues presents to the Emergency Department with confusion after experiencing a seizure earlier in the day. During the examination, a coarse tremor is observed, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure = 134/86 mmHg, pulse = 84/min regular, and temperature = 36.7ºC. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine overdose

      Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      219.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A hospital Consultant is trying to quantify how many patients that attend his...

    Incorrect

    • A hospital Consultant is trying to quantify how many patients that attend his geriatric outpatient clinic suffer from dementia. They carry out a review of the charts of 200 randomly selected patients who regularly attend their geriatric outpatients’ clinic and determine that 42 have a diagnosis of dementia.
      Which of the following is it possible to estimate from this data?

      Your Answer: The relative risk of retinopathy in this population

      Correct Answer: The prevalence of retinopathy in this population

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prevalence, Incidence, and Relative Risk in a Population with Retinopathy

      Prevalence, incidence, and relative risk are important measures used to understand the occurrence of a disease in a population. Prevalence refers to the number of cases of a disease present in a population at a specific point in time. To calculate prevalence, researchers randomly select a sample from the population and divide the number of people with the disease by the total number of people in the sample. Incidence, on the other hand, is the rate of new cases of a disease occurring in a specific population over a particular period of time. To calculate incidence, data on the number of new cases over time is needed. Finally, relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without exposure. To calculate relative risk, two populations, one exposed to the risk factor and one not exposed, need to be studied. It is important to note that these measures can only be accurately calculated with a representative sample and that selection bias can affect the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      140
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You decide to do a practice audit of your pediatric repeat prescribing system.
    You...

    Incorrect

    • You decide to do a practice audit of your pediatric repeat prescribing system.
      You have a discussion with your colleagues about the expected rate of prescribing errors in this population.
      What percentage of pediatric prescriptions, upon evaluation, exhibit a prescribing or monitoring mistake?

      Your Answer: Around 25%

      Correct Answer: Around 75%

      Explanation:

      GMC Study on Prescribing and Monitoring Errors in the UK

      A recent study conducted by the General Medical Council (GMC) in the UK has shed light on the frequency and causes of prescribing and monitoring errors. The study analyzed 6,000 prescriptions and found that nearly 5% of them contained errors related to prescribing or monitoring. The most common cause of these errors was incomplete information on the prescription, accounting for a third of all errors identified.

      This study provides valuable insights into the activities that can lead to prescribing and monitoring errors, helping to guide healthcare professionals towards safer practices. While exact figures may not be expected in an AKT examination, knowledge of the general outcomes of this study is reasonable and can be useful in clinical practice. By understanding the common causes of prescribing and monitoring errors, healthcare professionals can take steps to minimize the risk of such errors occurring in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of pregnancy. After an uneventful first and second trimester to date, she has developed widespread itching over the last three weeks and she now has mild jaundice. Her bilirubin is 80 μmol/l (normal <21 μmol/l), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) at 82 IU/l (normal <40 IU/l), and the alkaline phosphatase is markedly raised.
      Which of the following is the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis

      During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, leading to abnormal liver function tests. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, affecting 0.1-1.5% of pregnancies. It typically presents in the late second or early third trimester with generalized itching, starting on the palms and soles. An elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a more sensitive marker than aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and a fasting serum bile acid concentration of greater than 10 mmol/l is the key diagnostic test. Primary biliary cholangitis and acute fatty liver of pregnancy are less likely diagnoses, while cholelithiasis and hyperemesis gravidarum have different clinical presentations. Early diagnosis and management of liver disorders in pregnancy are crucial to prevent adverse outcomes such as prematurity and stillbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      169.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may...

    Incorrect

    • You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may have a cancer.
      Which of the following conditions would alert you to an increased risk of cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis

      Explanation:

      Syndromes and their Association with Cancer

      There are certain syndromes that have been linked to an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer. Down’s syndrome, for example, has been associated with leukaemia, while neurofibromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, has been linked to CNS tumours. Other rare syndromes have also been linked to certain cancers.

      It is important for primary healthcare professionals to be aware of these associations and to be vigilant for any unexplained symptoms in children or young people with these syndromes. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for these patients. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to stay informed and up-to-date on the latest research and recommendations regarding these syndromes and their potential links to cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old gentleman being treated palliatively for prostate cancer is reviewed.

    He has advanced...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman being treated palliatively for prostate cancer is reviewed.

      He has advanced metastatic disease and is currently taking modified release morphine tablets at a dose of 60 mg BD for pain control. He tells you that since increasing his dose of morphine several weeks ago he is having a lot of problems with constipation.

      He weighs 70 kgs and has no known drug allergies or intolerances.

      What is the most appropriate regimen to prescribe alone as an initial treatment for his constipation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glycerol suppositories one PRN

      Explanation:

      Managing Constipation in Palliative Care

      Constipation is a common problem in palliative care, often caused by the use of opioid analgesics. To prevent constipation, laxatives should be co-prescribed with opioids. A combination of a faecal softener and a peristaltic stimulant, such as co-danthramer, is ideal. Alternatively, a stool softener like docusate sodium can be combined with a stimulant laxative like a senna preparation. PRN suppositories are not recommended for regular use. Lactulose can be used in combination with senna, but some sources advise against it due to its side effects. Methylnaltrexone bromide is indicated for opioid-induced constipation in terminally ill patients who do not respond to other laxatives. Prucalopride is not a palliative care medication and is only licensed for treating chronic constipation in women who have not found relief from other laxatives and lifestyle changes.

      In summary, managing constipation in palliative care requires a combination of preventative measures and appropriate medication. Co-prescribing laxatives with opioids is essential, and a combination of a faecal softener and a peristaltic stimulant is ideal. Methylnaltrexone bromide can be used in terminally ill patients who do not respond to other laxatives. Prucalopride is not a palliative care medication and is only licensed for treating chronic constipation in women who have not found relief from other laxatives and lifestyle changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, was seen for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, was seen for a routine mental health review and ECG review. He reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. He is on regular oral haloperidol. He has had no changes to medications other than recently being treated for tonsillitis with clarithromycin.

      Rate 66
      Rhythm Sinus
      PR interval 180 ms
      QTc 505 ms
      RR interval 1 s

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss with the on-call medical team for advice

      Explanation:

      Risk of QT Prolongation with Clarithromycin and Haloperidol

      Both clarithromycin and haloperidol have been associated with an increased risk of QT prolongation, which can lead to potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. If a patient’s QTc interval exceeds 500 ms, it is crucial to discuss the case with the on-call team immediately. The patient may require inpatient cardiac monitoring and consultation with psychiatry regarding their current antipsychotic medication. It is essential to monitor patients closely for signs of QT prolongation when prescribing these medications and to take appropriate measures to prevent adverse outcomes. Proper management of QT prolongation can help prevent serious cardiac events and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
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  • Question 9 - What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended course of action in the management of an adult with asthma who is on low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) but doesn't show improvement after the introduction of a long acting beta agonist (LABA)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) and increase dose ICS

      Explanation:

      BTS Guidance on Low Dose ICS and LABA Treatment

      According to the 2016 BTS guidance, if a patient taking a low dose ICS doesn’t respond to the addition of a LABA, the LABA should be discontinued. Instead, healthcare providers should consider increasing the dose of ICS. It is important to note that options suggesting only an increase in ICS dose without stopping the LABA are incorrect.

      This guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for patients with respiratory conditions. By carefully monitoring patient response to medication and adjusting treatment as needed, healthcare providers can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life. Proper medication management can also help reduce the risk of adverse effects and complications associated with respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) 5 and is due to commence haemodialysis. It outlines the vaccines that she now requires. Which diseases does she need protection against?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal, influenza and Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Haemodialysis units must remain vigilant against blood-borne viruses, despite following standard infection control measures, in order to safeguard both patients and healthcare staff. Fortunately, the occurrence of hepatitis B outbreaks associated with dialysis units has significantly decreased over the past three decades. The Department of Health recommends immunisation against Pneumococcus, influenza, and Hepatitis B for individuals with chronic kidney disease, including those undergoing haemodialysis. While vaccination schedules for both children and adults are rapidly evolving, healthcare professionals must stay informed of these changes and be aware of recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated, general practitioners must be knowledgeable about contraindications and schedules to provide guidance to patients and parents. Conducting audits of specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunisation in light of changing recommendations.

      The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.

      The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
      Free T4 35 pmol/L

      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can cause thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients. This dysfunction can manifest as either hypothyroidism or thyrotoxicosis.

      Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is believed to occur due to the high iodine content of the medication, which can cause a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. Despite this, amiodarone may still be continued if desired.

      On the other hand, amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) can be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 AIT is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 AIT is related to destructive thyroiditis caused by amiodarone. In patients with type 1 AIT, a goitre may be present, while it is absent in type 2 AIT. Management of AIT involves carbimazole or potassium perchlorate for type 1 and corticosteroids for type 2.

      It is important to note that unlike in AIH, amiodarone should be stopped if possible in patients who develop AIT. Understanding the potential effects of amiodarone on the thyroid gland is crucial in managing patients who require this medication for their heart condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of haematospermia over the past few weeks. He denies any urinary symptoms or pain and reports no other unusual bleeding. He is generally healthy and not on any regular medications.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydial infection

      Explanation:

      Causes of Haematospermia in a Young Adult

      Haematospermia, the presence of blood in semen, can be a distressing symptom for men. In those under 40 years of age, infections are the most common cause, with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as chlamydia being a likely culprit, especially in the absence of urinary symptoms. Haemophilia A, a genetic disorder that affects blood clotting, is unlikely to present with haematospermia as the first symptom, especially in a young adult. Malignant hypertension, a rare and severe form of high blood pressure, can cause end-organ damage but is an unusual cause of haematospermia. Prostate cancer, which is more common in older men, can also cause haematospermia, but is usually associated with urinary symptoms and erectile dysfunction. Prostatitis, an inflammation of the prostate gland, can cause haematospermia and other symptoms such as pain and fever, but is less common than UTIs or STIs. A thorough medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help identify the underlying cause of haematospermia and guide treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She experiences spasms of pain in the left iliac fossa and has alternating periods of constipation and loose stools. As her healthcare provider, you are contemplating drug therapy to alleviate her symptoms.

      What is the medication that NICE advises against using in patients with IBS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactulose

      Explanation:

      NICE advises against the use of lactulose for the treatment of IBS.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 14 - A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did...

    Incorrect

    • A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did not show any serious side-effects of the drug. Select from the list the most appropriate method for identifying any unanticipated adverse drug reactions.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Case report

      Explanation:

      The Yellow Card Scheme: Reporting Adverse Drug Reactions

      Before a drug is released to the general public, it undergoes trials to assess its effectiveness and safety. However, these trials may only involve a limited number of patients, which means that rare side effects may not be identified. To address this issue, the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) and the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) in the UK operate the Yellow Card Scheme.

      The Yellow Card Scheme is a system that collects information from both health professionals and the general public on suspected side effects of a medicine. Its success depends on people’s willingness to report adverse drug reactions. This scheme is particularly useful for identifying rare or long-term side effects of a drug, as the number of people taking the drug is much greater than in the trials.

      To report a suspected adverse drug reaction, individuals can fill out a Yellow Card online at http://yellowcard.mhra.gov.uk/. By reporting these reactions, individuals can help ensure the safety of drugs on the market and protect the health of the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male construction worker had recently noticed a decline in his hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male construction worker had recently noticed a decline in his hearing ability in both ears. As a child, he had experienced several ear infections, including a severe one during a bout of measles that impacted his education. There was no history of deafness in his family. During examination, his tympanic membranes appeared intact, but there were calcified scars anterior to the handle of the malleus in both ears. The Rinne test was positive in both ears, and the Weber test was central in both anterior and posterior positions. Striking the 256 cps tuning fork firmly was necessary to achieve the desired volume. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic acoustic trauma

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Deafness in Middle Age

      The patient’s medical history indicates a likelihood of tubotympanic problems associated with serous otitis during childhood, as evidenced by scarred tympanic membranes. However, it is unlikely that these issues would cause recent deafness in middle age. The results of the Rinne and Weber tests, using a more accurate tuning frequency of 512, suggest bilateral sensorineural deafness. With no family history, idiopathic premature deafness is less likely.

      Ossicular chain disruption is typically a result of direct trauma and is more likely to be unilateral. Given that building workers are often unregulated when it comes to hearing protection, the probable diagnosis is chronic acoustic trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 16 - You are a pediatrician who is visiting a children's hospital. A new patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are a pediatrician who is visiting a children's hospital. A new patient is admitted and the nurse is looking through his medications which he has brought with him from home. The patient is a 10-year-old with type 1 diabetes and on his insulin box it says 'insulin lispro (Rapid-acting analogue)', unfortunately the instructions for administration have rubbed out.

      The nurse asks you how insulin lispro is usually administered:

      Given just prior to meal
      46%

      Given just after meal
      9%

      Given 30 minutes before meal
      31%

      Given 30 minutes after meal
      6%

      Given only if blood sugar is found to be greater than 10mmol/L
      7%

      Insulin lispro is a fast acting insulin analogue. Its levels peak 0-3 hours after injection and last 2-5 hours. It should therefore be given just prior to meals.

      The April 2015 AKT feedback report stated:

      Diabetes and prediabetes are increasingly common, and we frequently feed back concerning lack of knowledge in these areas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Given just prior to meal

      Explanation:

      Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog that reaches its peak levels within 0-3 hours of injection and remains effective for 2-5 hours. As a result, it should be administered immediately before meals.

      Understanding Insulin Therapy

      Insulin therapy has been a game-changer in the management of diabetes mellitus since its development in the 1920s. It remains the only available treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and is widely used in type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) when oral hypoglycemic agents fail to provide adequate control. However, understanding the different types of insulin can be overwhelming, and it is crucial to have a basic grasp to avoid potential harm to patients.

      Insulin can be classified by manufacturing process, duration of action, and type of insulin analogues. Patients often require a combination of preparations to ensure stable glycemic control throughout the day. Rapid-acting insulin analogues act faster and have a shorter duration of action than soluble insulin and may be used as the bolus dose in ‘basal-bolus’ regimens. Short-acting insulins, such as Actrapid and Humulin S, may also be used as the bolus dose in ‘basal-bolus’ regimens. Intermediate-acting insulins, like isophane insulin, are often used in a premixed formulation with long-acting insulins, such as insulin determir and insulin glargine, given once or twice daily. Premixed preparations combine intermediate-acting insulin with either a rapid-acting insulin analogue or soluble insulin.

      The vast majority of patients administer insulin subcutaneously, and it is essential to rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy. Insulin pumps are available, which delivers a continuous basal infusion and a patient-activated bolus dose at meal times. Intravenous insulin is used for patients who are acutely unwell, such as those with diabetic ketoacidosis. Inhaled insulin is available but not widely used, and oral insulin analogues are in development but have considerable technical hurdles to clear. Overall, understanding insulin therapy is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care for patients with diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old man is known to have high blood pressure.
    Choose from the options...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is known to have high blood pressure.
      Choose from the options the one drug that is expected to increase his blood pressure even more.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Certain medications and substances can cause an increase in blood pressure, known as drug-induced hypertension. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 selective agents cause sodium and water retention, leading to elevated blood pressure. Sympathomimetic amines, such as amphetamines and pseudoephedrine, can also have this effect. Corticosteroids, particularly those with strong mineralocorticoid effects, can cause fluid retention and hypertension. Oral contraceptives may slightly raise blood pressure in some women. Venlafaxine increases levels of norepinephrine, contributing to hypertension. Cyclosporine and tacrolimus, used in transplant and autoimmune patients, can also have a significant effect on blood pressure. Caffeine and certain dietary supplements, such as ginseng, natural liquorice, and yohimbine, can also cause drug-induced hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - Your practice is willing to participate in the management of drug dependence in...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice is willing to participate in the management of drug dependence in the community, as emphasized by the new General Medical Services (nGMS) contract. Identify the patient who would be appropriate for shared-care drug rehabilitation in general practice.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 32-year-old married woman with children who has been smoking heroin for some months and has been under the care of the local drugs and alcohol service for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Shared-Care Management of Drug Misuse

      Shared-care management of drug misuse is a treatment approach designed for stable patients who have been receiving care from community drug and alcohol services and require maintenance prescribing of Subutex® or methadone. This method involves regular meetings with a drugs worker and a General Practitioner to ensure the patient’s progress and well-being. However, it is not recommended for individuals who are still chaotic in their drug use, those who need to start replacement treatment, or those who cannot attend regular appointments. It is also important to note that children should be referred to specialist drug services for appropriate care and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 19 - Patients over the age of 40 with sickle cell disease are at highest...

    Incorrect

    • Patients over the age of 40 with sickle cell disease are at highest risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic renal failure

      Explanation:

      Sickle Cell Disease and Renal Complications

      Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells, leading to various complications. One of the most significant complications is chronic renal failure, which can occur in up to 5% of patients, especially those over 40 years old. Regular monitoring of renal function is essential, as falling hemoglobin levels can indicate lowered erythropoietin levels.

      In sickle cell disease, serum creatinine levels tend to be lower than normal, and levels within the accepted normal range should not be interpreted as indicating normal renal function. Levels of 60-70 μmol/l may reflect significant renal damage.

      Renal medullary carcinoma is a rare but aggressive malignancy that can occur in patients with sickle cell trait or disease. Patients presenting with hematuria should be evaluated to exclude this complication.

      While haematuria is common in sickle cell disease, other causes should be excluded, such as urinary tract infections, which are more commonly asymptomatic bacteriuria. Simple renal cysts may also occur more frequently and at a younger age in patients with sickle cell disease, although the reason is not known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 20 - Following recent NICE guidelines on child maltreatment, which one of the following should...

    Incorrect

    • Following recent NICE guidelines on child maltreatment, which one of the following should prompt you to suspect child maltreatment, rather than just considering it:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An anal fissure on a 7-year-old boy who is not constipated and doesn't have Crohn's

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2009 to help healthcare professionals identify when a child may be experiencing maltreatment. Child abuse can take many forms, including physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that may indicate abuse, but only selected features are highlighted here. Neglect may be suspected if a child has severe and persistent infestations, is not receiving essential prescribed treatment, has poor hygiene, or is not being dressed appropriately. Sexual abuse may be suspected if a child has persistent dysuria or anogenital discomfort, a gaping anus during examination, or is exhibiting sexualized behavior. Physical abuse may be suspected if a child has unexplained serious or unusual injuries, cold injuries, hypothermia, oral injuries, bruises, lacerations, burns, human bite marks, or fractures with unsuitable explanations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - You are caring for a 34-year-old female patient on the ward when you...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a 34-year-old female patient on the ward when you start to feel uneasy about her behavior towards you. She has been making sexually suggestive remarks and during your last check, she was wearing provocative lingerie. She frequently causes disturbances on the ward and is easily influenced by other patients. Your consultant advises you to refrain from seeing the patient alone and informs you that the patient has a personality disorder.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Histrionic personality disorder is a condition where individuals have a strong desire to be the center of attention, often displaying inappropriate sexual behavior or dress and being easily influenced by others. They may form intense relationships, but may also misinterpret the level of intimacy in these relationships.

      Schizoid personality disorder is unlikely in this case as individuals with this condition typically lack interest in sexual interactions and prefer to be alone rather than forming close friendships.

      Schizotypal personality disorder may involve odd or eccentric beliefs or behavior, but individuals with this condition often struggle to form friendships and may be paranoid or suspicious, making it less likely to be the correct diagnosis for this patient.

      Antisocial personality disorder involves a disregard for social norms and lawful behavior, often resulting in multiple arrests. These individuals can be aggressive and deceitful, but this doesn’t match the behavior of the patient in the stem.

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and recurrent self-harm attempts. Like histrionic personality disorder, individuals with borderline personality disorder may form intense relationships, but these relationships are often unstable.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter...

    Incorrect

    • You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter at a dose of 800 units. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the equivalent dose in micrograms since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.

      Which of the following is equal to 800 units of vitamin D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 mcg

      Explanation:

      Converting Vitamin D Units to Micrograms

      Many CCG pathways recommend taking vitamin D supplements in units, but the packaging of many vitamin D suppliers lists the dose in micrograms. To convert units to micrograms for vitamin D, simply divide by 40. For example, 400 units of vitamin D is equivalent to 10 micrograms. Remember to check the packaging for the correct dosage and always consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new supplement regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her face over the past 2 days. The child appears unwell and has clustered blisters and punched-out erosions covering her chin and left cheek.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      This young boy is suffering from eczema herpeticum, which is a herpes simplex infection that has developed on top of his atopic eczema. If someone with eczema experiences rapidly worsening, painful eczema, along with possible fever, lethargy, or distress, and clustered blisters that resemble early cold sores, they may have contracted herpes simplex virus. Additionally, punched-out erosions that are uniform in appearance and may coalesce could also be present. If eczema that has become infected fails to respond to antibiotic and corticosteroid treatment, patients should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir and same-day dermatological review. For less severely affected individuals, oral aciclovir and frequent review may be an option. This information is based on guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - The guidance produced by the General Medical Council (GMC) pertains to the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • The guidance produced by the General Medical Council (GMC) pertains to the treatment and care provided during the end of life. Which of the following options aligns best with this guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients can make advanced requests for treatment that they feel may be denied them

      Explanation:

      Ethical Considerations in End-of-Life Care

      End-of-life care can present complex ethical dilemmas for healthcare professionals. Here are some important considerations:

      – Advanced Requests: Patients can make advanced requests for treatments they fear may be denied to them. While these requests cannot bind future decisions, they must be given weight by decision-makers if the patient has lost capacity.
      – Religious Beliefs: A doctor cannot withdraw from providing care because their religious beliefs conflict with a patient’s refusal of treatment. However, if their beliefs conflict with a decision about overall benefit, arrangements must be made for another doctor to take over.
      – Decision-Making: Patients with capacity may devolve decision-making to their doctor if they find it distressing. However, they still need basic information to give consent to any proposed treatment.
      – Starting and Withdrawing Treatment: Emotional distress should not override clinical judgement when deciding whether to start or withdraw treatment.
      – Withholding Information: Information about a terminal prognosis should not be withheld unless giving it would likely cause the patient serious harm. Serious harm means more than just upsetting the patient or causing them to refuse treatment.

      Overall, ethical considerations in end-of-life care require a delicate balance between respecting patient autonomy and ensuring that decisions are made in the patient’s best interests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon implanted six months ago but has been experiencing light spotting on approximately 50% of days. Her medical history includes a first trimester abortion two years ago, but otherwise, she has no significant medical issues. A vaginal examination reveals no abnormalities, and she recently tested negative for sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      A cervical smear is not a diagnostic test and should only be conducted as a part of a screening program. An 18-year-old’s risk of cervical cancer is already low, and a normal vaginal examination can further reduce it.

      If controlling bleeding is the goal, the combined oral contraceptive pill is more effective than the progesterone-only pill.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has been ongoing for 4 months. She reports a dull ache in both breasts that occurs 1-2 weeks before her period. She has no other medical issues and is not sexually active.

      Upon examination, there are no palpable breast lumps or skin changes.

      What is the next best course of action in managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advice on a supportive bra and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for cyclical mastalgia is a supportive bra and basic pain relief.

      Cyclical breast pain is a common condition that affects up to two-thirds of women, typically beginning two weeks before their menstrual cycle. Breast pain, in the absence of other breast cancer symptoms such as a lump or changes in the nipple or skin, is not linked to breast cancer. Referral to a breast specialist may be considered if the pain is severe enough to impact quality of life or sleep and doesn’t respond to first-line treatment after three months, but there is no need for referral in this case.

      Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of cyclical breast pain, as there is no evidence to support their use.

      According to current NICE CKS guidelines, the combined oral contraceptive pill or progesterone-only pill should not be used to treat cyclical breast pain, as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness compared to a placebo.

      The first-line approach to managing cyclical breast pain involves advising patients to wear a supportive bra and take basic pain relief. This is based on expert consensus, which suggests that most cases of cyclical breast pain can be managed conservatively with a watchful-waiting approach, as long as malignancy has been ruled out as a cause.

      Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following patients is most likely to require screening for hepatocellular...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patients is most likely to require screening for hepatocellular carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks third in terms of prevalence worldwide. The most common cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the leading cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B & C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.

      HCC often presents late and may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, it may manifest as decompensation in patients with chronic liver disease. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) are also common. High-risk groups such as patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B & C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol should undergo screening with ultrasound (+/- AFP).

      Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. Proper management and early detection are crucial in improving the prognosis of HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 61-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a bowel issue. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a bowel issue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has experienced occasional abdominal bloating and changes in stool consistency for many years. However, over the past four weeks, she has noticed a significant increase in symptoms, including daily loose and frequent stools. She denies any rectal bleeding and cannot recall experiencing loose stools for this extended period before.
      Upon examination, she appears well, with a soft and non-tender abdomen and no palpable masses. Rectal examination is normal, and her weight is comparable to her last visit a year ago.
      Which of the following tests would you suggest for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal x ray

      Explanation:

      Investigating Bowel Symptoms in Patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      A patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) presenting with acute bowel symptoms is a common scenario. However, if their symptoms have undergone a marked change and become more persistent than usual, it is important to consider the possibility of colorectal cancer. In this context, an abdominal X-ray or ultrasound is not appropriate, and testing for inflammatory markers such as ESR doesn’t provide specific information that would aid referral. Tumour marker testing is also not an appropriate primary care investigation.

      According to NICE guidelines, quantitative faecal immunochemical tests should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or aged under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate investigation and referral for patients with IBS and changing bowel symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man with a history of lung cancer presents for follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of lung cancer presents for follow-up. He reports a loss of appetite, nausea, and fatigue over the past three weeks. Upon examination, he appears to be slightly dehydrated. You order a series of blood tests, which reveal the following results:

      - Calcium: 3.12 mmol/L
      - Albumin: 40 g/L
      - Glucose (random): 6.7 mmol/L
      - Urea: 10.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 115 µmol/L

      Which medication that he is currently taking is most likely contributing to his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is caused by thiazides.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 30 - You wish to investigate an outbreak of atypical pneumonia cases in the elderly...

    Incorrect

    • You wish to investigate an outbreak of atypical pneumonia cases in the elderly population and determine if there has been exposure to a particular risk factor.

      Which study design would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Case-control

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate study design to investigate an infectious outbreak is a case-control study. This study design allows for the retrospective identification of patients who have developed the disease and compares their past exposure to suspected causal factors with controls who do not have the disease. A cohort study, which follows patients into the future, is not suitable for this scenario as the aim is to trace the cause of the outbreak. A cross-sectional study provides a snapshot of the condition and exposures in the overall population at a set time, but it is not suitable for finding the cause of the outbreak. Randomized controlled trials are not appropriate as there are no interventions being studied. Meta-analysis is not applicable as there is no mention of other research to review.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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