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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old obese man presents to clinic. He is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old obese man presents to clinic. He is found to have a body mass index (BMI) of 36 kg/m2 and wants advice regarding treatment of his obesity.
      Which of the following pertains to the treatment of obesity?

      Your Answer: Weight loss will be very slow at first when only glycogen breaks down, but this is followed 3–4 weeks later by a period of incremental weight loss due to breakdown of adipose tissue

      Correct Answer: Orlistat causes weight loss by inhibiting pancreatic and gastric lipase

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions and Clarifications about Weight Loss Methods

      Orlistat: A common misconception is that Orlistat causes weight loss by reducing appetite. In reality, it inhibits pancreatic and gastric lipase, which leads to the malabsorption of intestinal triglycerides and causes steatorrhoea.

      Fenfluramine: Another misconception is that Fenfluramine causes systemic hypertension. It was actually banned due to its association with valvular heart disease and pulmonary hypertension.

      Liposuction: Liposuction is not a weight loss method and should not be used as a substitute for diet and exercise. It is a cosmetic procedure that removes localized fat deposits.

      Weight Loss: Weight loss is not a linear process and can vary from person to person. While glycogen depletion may contribute to initial weight loss, it is not the sole factor. Incremental weight loss occurs as adipose tissue is broken down.

      Surgery: Restrictive surgery may be considered for morbidly obese patients under the age of 18, but this is not recommended as an initial option according to NICE guidelines.

      Debunking Weight Loss Myths and Clarifying Methods

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of palpitations and weight loss. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of palpitations and weight loss. Her thyroid function tests reveal the following results:
      TSH <0.03 mU/L (0.35 - 5.5)
      Free T4 46 pmol/L (10 - 19.8)

      What condition do these thyroid function tests suggest?

      Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The thyroid hormone axis is a complex system that involves the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and thyroid gland. The hypothalamus produces thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH then stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release the thyroid hormones T4 and T3.

      In cases of hyperthyroidism, there is an overproduction of free T4, which leads to the suppression of TSH production by the pituitary gland through negative feedback. This results in elevated levels of free T4 in the bloodstream, which can cause symptoms such as weight loss and palpitations.

      It is important to note that while T4 and T3 are mainly bound to protein in the bloodstream, it is the free (non-protein-bound) hormones that are physiologically active. The thyroid hormone axis and its role in regulating the body’s metabolism can help in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer: Carvedilol

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of weight loss, fatigue, heart palpitations,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of weight loss, fatigue, heart palpitations, excessive sweating, and a lump in her throat that has been present for 2 months. After conducting tests, the doctor discovers a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Surgery

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Thyroid Disorders: Carbimazole, Thyroxine, Carbamazepine, Surgery, and Radionuclide Iodine

      Thyroid disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and require different treatment options depending on the diagnosis. Primary hyperthyroidism, caused by a disorder of the thyroid gland itself, is confirmed with raised serum levels of fT3/fT4 and a suppressed/reduced TSH. Symptoms include sweating, weight loss, palpitations, a goitre, hyperactivity, insomnia, emotional lability, reduced libido, heat intolerance, diarrhoea, increased appetite and menstrual irregularities. First-line treatment is with a thionamide such as carbimazole, which inhibits the thyroid peroxidase enzyme involved in the production and release of thyroid hormones. However, carbimazole is associated with serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, angioedema, lymphadenopathy, hepatic disorders and acute pancreatitis.

      Thyroxine is prescribed for patients with hypothyroidism, in which case the TSH would be raised and the T3/T4 hormones low. Symptoms of hypothyroidism include weight gain, constipation, oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea, cold intolerance, tiredness, depression, brittle hair and nails, as well as muscle weakness. Thyroxine is contraindicated in patients with hyperthyroidism as it worsens their symptoms and might precipitate a thyroid storm.

      Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication used in the treatment of epilepsy. It is a sodium channel blocker that prevents sodium binding and repetitive firing of action potentials. However, one of the most serious side effects associated with the use of carbamazepine is Stevens–Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. It can be licensed for use in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy and treatment of patients with bipolar disorder that is resistant to lithium.

      Surgery is not first line for hyperthyroidism unless there is compression or compromise of the airway, medication has failed to control symptoms, or there is a concurrent suspicious or malignant thyroid nodule. Thyroidectomy has complications such as hypocalcaemia due to the removal of the parathyroid glands, vocal cord paralysis and hypothyroidism. Following a thyroidectomy, the patient will need to go on lifelong thyroid replacement therapy.

      Radionu

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual weight loss. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual weight loss. He has lost 8 kg over the past three months, and his previous weight was 62 kg.

      Two years ago, he volunteered at a child rehabilitation program in India and contracted pulmonary tuberculosis, which was successfully treated. A recent chest x-ray showed no suspicious lesions in the lungs, and there is no lymphadenopathy. He denies having a fever or night sweats.

      During the examination, he reveals that he has been drinking one bottle of wine per day for the past three weeks, following a breakup with his girlfriend.

      Which test is likely to show a positive result for the weight loss?

      Your Answer: Liver function test

      Correct Answer: Abdominal x ray

      Explanation:

      Overlooked Causes of Weight Loss: Addison’s Disease

      Weight loss can be caused by a variety of factors, and it is important to consider all possibilities when investigating the underlying cause. One often overlooked cause is Addison’s disease, which can occur as a result of past tuberculosis affecting the adrenal glands. This rare condition can be identified through abdominal x-rays, which may show adrenal calcification shadows.

      While alcohol abuse can lead to liver damage and hepatitis, it is not likely to be the cause of weight loss in this case. Similarly, steatorrhoea, a manifestation of malabsorption, can cause weight loss, but there are no other indications of malabsorption in this patient’s history.

      Thyrotoxicosis, or an overactive thyroid, can also cause weight loss, but it is usually accompanied by other symptoms such as anxiety, tremors, and eye signs. Finally, surreptitious laxative abuse can lead to weight loss, but it is not likely to be the cause in this case given the patient’s history of tuberculosis.

      Overall, it is important to consider all possible causes of weight loss, including rare conditions like Addison’s disease, in order to provide the most effective treatment and care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and skin, cold intolerance, constipation and low mood. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypothyroidism and Differential Diagnosis

      Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, difficulty concentrating, and myxoedema coma. Diagnosis is made by measuring TSH and T4 levels, with elevated TSH and decreased T4 confirming the diagnosis. Treatment involves titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and symptoms resolve. Differential diagnosis includes hypercalcaemia, hyperthyroidism, Addison’s disease, and Cushing’s disease, each with their own unique set of symptoms. Understanding these conditions and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old obese woman, with a history of type II diabetes mellitus, complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old obese woman, with a history of type II diabetes mellitus, complains of weight gain during the past 3 years, despite her adherence to a balanced diet. She has diffuse skeletal pain. She is not married and does not have a sexual partner. Her family history is unremarkable. Her blood pressure is 160/105 mmHg. Her face is plethoric and round and she has hypertrichosis of the upper lip (hirsutism). There are purple striae on the abdomen and thigh, and mild wasting of the upper and lower limb muscles. Her full blood count shows a slight increase in the polymorphonuclear leukocyte count, without a left shift. Her haemoglobin is 180 (115–155 g/l).
      Which of the following changes in serum calcium, phosphate and parathyroid hormone concentrations would you expect to find in this patient?

      Your Answer: Calcium - decreased; phosphate - increased; parathyroid hormone - increased

      Correct Answer: Calcium - decreased; phosphate - decreased; parathyroid hormone - increased

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Calcium, Phosphate, and Parathyroid Hormone Levels in a Patient with Prolonged Hypercortisolism

      A patient presents with diffuse bone pain and laboratory results show decreased calcium and phosphate levels, along with increased parathyroid hormone levels. This is indicative of secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is a common complication of hypercortisolism. Elevated serum cortisol levels can lead to hypocalcaemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism, causing increased osteoclast activity and osteoblast dysfunction, ultimately resulting in osteoporosis and pathological fractures.

      If the patient had increased phosphate levels instead of decreased levels, it would suggest renal impairment. If the patient had increased calcium levels and decreased phosphate levels, it would suggest primary hyperparathyroidism. If the patient had decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate levels, it would suggest hypoparathyroidism. If all levels were normal, it may be too early in the course of hypercortisolism to see changes in these markers.

      In summary, interpreting calcium, phosphate, and parathyroid hormone levels can provide valuable information in diagnosing and managing complications of hypercortisolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for his annual review. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for his annual review. Despite following a diet plan, his glycaemic control is not optimal and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46). You decide to initiate treatment with metformin 500 mg bd. As per NICE NG28 guidelines for diabetes management, what is the recommended interval for rechecking his HbA1c after each intensification of treatment?

      Your Answer: One to two months

      Correct Answer: Three to six months

      Explanation:

      HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control

      The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glucose levels in the blood over a period of time. It reflects the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose, and there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of this molecule and average plasma glucose concentrations. This makes it a widely used tool in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control. Studies have also shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.

      The life span of a red blood cell is 120 days, and HbA1c reflects the average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to re-check HbA1c with each treatment intensification at 3/6 monthly intervals. HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial in managing diabetes and reducing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old male is seeking treatment for hypertension related to his type 2...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male is seeking treatment for hypertension related to his type 2 diabetes. He is currently taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently high at around 160/92 mmHg.

      What medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes Patients

      Patients with type 2 diabetes who have inadequately controlled hypertension should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, which is the preferred antihypertensive medication for diabetes. Combining an ACE inhibitor with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine can also be effective. However, beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is a medication used specifically for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is reserved for cases where other medications have failed to control blood pressure. If blood pressure control is still insufficient with ramipril and amlodipine, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the treatment plan.

      It is important to note that hypertension management in diabetic patients requires careful consideration of medication choices and potential interactions. Consulting with a healthcare provider is crucial to ensure safe and effective treatment. Further reading on this topic can be found in the Harvard Medical School’s article on medications for treating hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite, and weight gain. Her blood work shows low levels of free T3 and T4, as well as low levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Even after receiving thyrotrophin releasing hormone, her TSH levels remain low. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormones. There are three types of hypothyroidism: primary, secondary, and tertiary.

      Primary hypothyroidism is caused by a malfunctioning thyroid gland, often due to autoimmune thyroiditis or burnt out Grave’s disease. In this type, TRH and TSH levels are elevated, but T3 and T4 levels are low.

      Secondary hypothyroidism occurs when the anterior pituitary gland fails to produce enough TSH, despite adequate TRH levels. This results in low levels of TSH, T3, and T4, even after a TRH stimulation test.

      Tertiary hypothyroidism is rare and occurs when the hypothalamus fails to produce enough TRH. All three hormones are inappropriately low in this type.

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a form of autoimmune thyroid disease characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid. It is a form of primary hypothyroidism.

      De Quervain’s thyroiditis is a subacute thyroiditis, usually viral, which causes a transient period of primary hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism in addition to a tender thyroid.

      Understanding the different types of hypothyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome

      Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to postural hypotension and reduced cortisol levels, while aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.

      An increased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be an unusual result and does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism. Similarly, an increased cortisol level with increased aldosterone may occur in rare cases of adrenal adenoma but does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome.

      A decreased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be true in primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case in Sheehan’s syndrome. Finally, a decreased cortisol level with increased aldosterone would also be an unusual result as aldosterone levels are not affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.

      Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with Sheehan’s syndrome, a decreased cortisol level with normal aldosterone is expected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. He claims she has been increasingly depressed and tired over the last few weeks. Past medical history includes coeliac disease, for which she follows a strict gluten-free diet, and vitiligo. She is on no medical treatment. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile. Pigmented palmar creases are also noted. Basic blood investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions

      Addisonian crisis is a condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with autoimmune disease being the most common cause in the UK. Symptoms are vague and present insidiously, including depression, anorexia, and GI upset. Diagnosis is made through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment is based on oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid. Any stressful activity should lead to an increase in steroid dose.

      Other conditions, such as insulin overdose, salicylate overdose, meningococcal septicaemia, and paracetamol overdose, have different clinical features and are not compatible with the symptoms described for Addisonian crisis. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 76-year-old woman presents with lethargy. She has a history of Graves’ disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman presents with lethargy. She has a history of Graves’ disease and thyrotoxicosis. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are found to be 7.3 μU/l (normal range: 0.17–3.2 μU/l). A full blood count is performed and reveals the following: haemoglobin (Hb) is low, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is high, platelet count is normal, white cell count (WCC) is normal.
      What is the most likely cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of macrocytic anaemia in a patient with a history of Graves’ disease

      This patient presents with a macrocytic anaemia, which can have various causes. Given her history of Graves’ disease and autoimmune hyperthyroidism, it is important to consider hypothyroidism as a possible cause, despite the usual association of hyperthyroidism with a suppressed TSH. Pernicious anaemia, another autoimmune disease that can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, should also be considered. However, in this case, the high TSH makes hypothyroidism more likely. Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency can also cause macrocytic anaemia, but the patient’s history and laboratory findings suggest hypothyroidism as the primary diagnosis. Haemolysis is not a likely cause in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 52-year-old woman presents with complaints of irregular periods, weight loss, and excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with complaints of irregular periods, weight loss, and excessive sweating. She reports that her symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few months and she also experiences itching. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 140/80 mmHg and her resting pulse is 95 bpm.
      What is the most suitable test to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T4 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Endocrine Disorder

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of an endocrine disorder, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Here are some tests that may be useful in different scenarios:

      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T4 levels: These tests are essential when thyrotoxicosis is suspected. In rare cases, pruritus may also occur as a symptom.

      Plasma renin and aldosterone levels: This investigation may be useful if Conn syndrome is suspected, but it is not necessary in patients without significant hypertension. Electrolyte levels should be checked before this test.

      Full blood count and ferritin levels: These tests may be helpful in checking for anaemia, but they are less appropriate than TSH/T4 levels.

      Midnight cortisol level: This test is useful when Cushing’s syndrome is suspected. In this case, the only symptom that is compatible with this disorder is irregular menses.

      Test the urine for 24-hour free catecholamines: This test is used to investigate suspected phaeochromocytoma, which can cause similar symptoms to those seen in this case. However, hypertension is an important feature that is not present in this patient.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigations depends on the suspected endocrine disorder and the patient’s clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old patient is found to have an HbA1c of 43 mmol/mol at...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old patient is found to have an HbA1c of 43 mmol/mol at a recent chronic disease health check after being assessed as being at high risk of diabetes mellitus. The patient is being called in to discuss the result with her registered general practitioner. How should the patient’s diagnosis be coded in her notes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-diabetes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Blood Sugar Levels and Diabetes Diagnosis

      Blood sugar levels are an important indicator of a person’s risk for developing diabetes. Pre-diabetes is a term used to describe individuals with elevated blood sugar levels that do not yet qualify as diabetes. A diagnosis of pre-diabetes indicates a high risk of developing diabetes and warrants intervention to identify modifiable risk factors and reduce the risk through lifestyle changes.

      Normoglycaemic individuals have blood sugar levels within the normal range of 3.9-5.5 mmol/l. Diabetes mellitus type 2 is diagnosed when HbA1c is 48 mmol/mol or higher, or fasting glucose is 7.1 mmol/l or higher. A positive result on one occasion is enough for diagnosis if the patient presents with symptoms of diabetes, but two separate confirmatory tests are required for asymptomatic patients.

      Impaired fasting glucose is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l, while impaired glucose tolerance is defined as a serum glucose level of 7.8-11.0 mmol/l at 2 hours post-ingestion of a 75-g oral glucose load. Understanding these levels and their implications can help individuals take proactive steps to manage their blood sugar levels and reduce their risk of developing diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old male presents at a well man clinic. He has a significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents at a well man clinic. He has a significant family history of ischaemic heart disease and is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day. He also consumes approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is found to be obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and has a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg. His investigations reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 10.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), HbA1c of 62 mmol/mol (20-46), and a cholesterol concentration of 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2).

      Which intervention would be most effective in reducing his cardiovascular risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypertension and Diabetes for Cardiovascular Risk Reduction

      This patient is diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes, as indicated by the elevated fasting plasma glucose. While metformin has been found to reduce cardiovascular (CV) mortality in obese diabetics, ramipril reduces CV risk in hypertensive diabetics, and statins reduce CV mortality, none of these interventions are as effective as quitting smoking in reducing CV risk. The Nurses’ Health Study provides the best evidence for the risk of smoking in women, with past smokers and current smokers having a higher risk compared to non-smokers. In men, there is less definitive evidence, but it is unlikely that many practitioners would consider the other interventions to be more beneficial than smoking cessation. There is currently no evidence that weight loss alone reduces CV mortality, although this may be due to a lack of studies on the topic.

      Overall, managing hypertension and diabetes is crucial for reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease. While medication can help, quitting smoking remains the most effective intervention for reducing CV risk. Further research is needed to determine the impact of weight loss on CV mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of feeling tired and dizzy upon standing up. His family members are worried because they have noticed a change in his facial appearance. Upon further investigation, the following laboratory results were obtained:
      Serum:
      Na+ 128 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
      K+ 6.1 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
      Short adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test:
      Plasma cortisol:
      0900 h 150 nmol/l (140–690 nmol/l)
      30 min after ACTH: 155 nmol/l
      60 min after ACTH: 155 nmol/l
      0900 h ACTH: 6 ng/l (normal <50 ng/l)
      What condition is consistent with these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Adrenal Hypofunction: Understanding the Biochemistry

      Adrenal hypofunction can occur due to various reasons, and understanding the underlying biochemistry can help in identifying the cause. The following are some of the common causes of adrenal hypofunction and their associated biochemical changes:

      Abrupt Withdrawal of Corticosteroid Therapy: The most common cause of adrenal hypofunction is the suppression of the pituitary-adrenal axis due to therapeutic corticosteroid therapy. During therapy, patients may present with Cushing’s syndrome, which causes a moon face. However, if therapy is withdrawn abruptly or demand for cortisol increases without a concomitant dosage increase, symptoms and signs of adrenal hypofunction can occur. This results in the loss of Na+ and retention of K+. Prolonged suppression of the adrenals means that output of cortisol cannot increase in response to the ACTH stimulation test until function has recovered. Additionally, patients will classically become hypotensive.

      Adrenal Metastases: Adrenal metastases cause adrenal failure through destruction of the gland tissue. So the same biochemistry will occur as in abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroid therapy, but ACTH levels would be expected to be high, owing to lack of negative feedback.

      Conn’s Syndrome: In Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism), the high aldosterone levels result in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia, unlike what is seen in patients with adrenal hypofunction.

      Hypopituitarism: This results in secondary adrenal failure, so Na+ is lost and K+ retained.

      Cushing’s Disease: Cushing’s disease resulting from overproduction of cortisol results in hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia because cortisol has some mineralocorticoid activity.

      In conclusion, understanding the biochemistry of adrenal hypofunction can help in identifying the underlying cause and guiding appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - Which test can be used to distinguish between insulinoma and exogenous insulin administration...

    Incorrect

    • Which test can be used to distinguish between insulinoma and exogenous insulin administration in a patient experiencing hypoglycaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma C peptide

      Explanation:

      The Role of C Peptide in Distinguishing Between Exogenous and Endogenous Insulin

      Plasma C peptide levels are useful in differentiating between the presence of exogenous insulin and excess endogenous insulin during hypoglycemia. If there is an excess of exogenous insulin, the C peptide level will be suppressed, but the insulin level will still be detectable or elevated. However, it is important to note that not all clinical laboratory assays can detect the new insulin analogues.

      C peptide also has other uses, such as checking for pancreatic insulin reserve. This information can help distinguish between type 1 diabetes, which is caused by autoimmune destruction of the pancreas, and type 2 diabetes, which is caused by insulin resistance or relative insulin insufficiency.

      Proinsulin is the storage form of insulin, and only a small amount enters systemic circulation. It is cleaved into insulin and a connecting (C) peptide, which are secreted in equal amounts. However, there is more measurable C peptide in circulation due to its longer half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old teacher presents to the general practitioner (GP) complaining of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old teacher presents to the general practitioner (GP) complaining of fatigue and muscle pains. The symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few months, and now she feels too tired after work to attend her weekly yoga class. She has a history of seasonal allergies and takes antihistamines during the spring and summer. The patient is a non-smoker, drinks occasionally, and follows a vegetarian diet.
      During examination, no abnormalities are found, and the GP orders blood tests for further investigation. The results reveal a serum vitamin D (25OHD) level of 18 nmol/l (normal value recommended > 50 nmol/l).
      Which molecule involved in the vitamin D synthesis pathway binds to the vitamin D receptor to regulate calcium homeostasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcitriol

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Forms of Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in calcium homeostasis. However, it exists in different forms, each with its own unique properties and functions. Here are the different forms of vitamin D and their roles:

      1. Calcitriol: Also known as 1, 25-hydroxycolecalciferol, this form of vitamin D binds to the vitamin D receptor to create a ligand-receptor complex that alters cellular gene expression.

      2. Previtamin D3: This is the precursor to vitamin D3 and does not play a direct role in calcium homeostasis.

      3. Calcidiol: This is 25-hydroxycolecalciferol, the precursor to calcitriol. It has a very low affinity for the vitamin D receptor and is largely inactive.

      4. Colecalciferol: This is vitamin D3, which is itself inactive and is the precursor to calcidiol.

      5. 24, 25-dihydroxycolecalciferol: This is an inactive form of calcidiol and is excreted.

      Understanding the different forms of vitamin D is important in determining the appropriate supplementation and treatment for vitamin D deficiency.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - An investigator intended to test the antiglycaemic action of a new drug, which...

    Incorrect

    • An investigator intended to test the antiglycaemic action of a new drug, which acts by increasing the peripheral uptake of glucose and reduces postprandial glucose level. He noted that in the elderly control group, subjects receiving an oral glucose load have higher postprandial insulin concentrations and more rapid glucose clearance, compared to subjects receiving isoglycaemic intravenous glucose infusion.
      Which of the following is the most likely mediator of this effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Hormones and their Functions

      The gastrointestinal tract secretes various hormones that play important roles in digestion and metabolism. One such hormone is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is an incretin hormone that enhances insulin secretion in response to oral glucose intake. On the other hand, cholecystokinin induces gallbladder contraction and bile release, while secretin increases pancreatic and biliary bicarbonate secretion and reduces gastric acid secretion. Gastrin, on the other hand, stimulates gastric acid secretion. Lastly, somatostatin inhibits the secretion of gastric acid and other gastrointestinal hormones. Understanding the functions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2) presents to you 2 days after having undergone a total thyroidectomy. He reports experiencing cramps in his calves and thighs and tingling around his lips. Upon examination, you observe positive Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau sign. Further investigations reveal his serum calcium level to be 2 mmol/l and his serum phosphate level to be 1.8 mmol/l. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acquired hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia

      Acquired hypoparathyroidism is a likely cause of the biochemical abnormalities observed in a patient who recently underwent a total thyroidectomy. This condition results from damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to insufficient secretion of parathyroid hormone and subsequent hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia. Other potential causes of these abnormalities include chronic renal failure and vitamin D deficiency, but these do not match the patient’s clinical history. Pseudohypoparathyroidism, a rare genetic disorder characterized by target tissue resistance to parathyroid hormone, is not a likely explanation either. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, another rare inherited disorder that mimics the physical features of pseudohypoparathyroidism without the biochemical changes, is not relevant to this case. Therefore, acquired hypoparathyroidism is the most probable diagnosis, and appropriate management should include calcium and vitamin D supplementation, as well as monitoring for potential complications such as seizures and tetany.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - Through which of the following molecules is the hypercalcaemia of malignancy most commonly...

    Incorrect

    • Through which of the following molecules is the hypercalcaemia of malignancy most commonly mediated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone related protein

      Explanation:

      The Role of Parathyroid Hormone-Related Protein in Hypercalcaemia

      Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP) is a group of protein hormones that are produced by various tissues in the body. Its discovery was made when it was found to be secreted by certain tumors, causing hypercalcaemia in affected patients. Further studies revealed that the uncontrolled secretion of PTHrP by many tumor cells leads to hypercalcaemia by promoting the resorption of calcium from bones and inhibiting calcium loss in urine, similar to the effects of hyperparathyroidism.

      Overall, PTHrP plays a crucial role in regulating calcium levels in the body, and its overproduction can lead to serious health complications. the mechanisms behind PTHrP secretion and its effects on the body can aid in the development of treatments for hypercalcaemia and related conditions.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - What are the cells in the pancreas that produce glucagon? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the cells in the pancreas that produce glucagon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha cells

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Cells and Their Secretions

      The pancreas is an important organ in the endocrine system, and it contains different types of cells that secrete various hormones. Alpha cells in the pancreas produce glucagon, which helps to increase blood sugar levels. Beta cells, on the other hand, secrete insulin, which helps to lower blood sugar levels. Delta cells produce somatostatin, which regulates the release of insulin and glucagon.

      In addition to the pancreas, the thyroid gland also contains specialized cells called parafollicular C cells. These cells secrete calcitonin, which helps to regulate calcium levels in the body. Finally, Sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and are involved in the development of sperm. the different types of endocrine cells and their secretions is important for maintaining proper hormonal balance in the body.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease and is currently taking alfacalcidol, ramipril, Renagel, and EPO injections. Her eGFR upon admission is 24 ml/min/1.73 m2. What analgesic would you recommend for her pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol 1 g QDS

      Explanation:

      Medication Considerations for Patients with Renal Dysfunction

      Patients with renal dysfunction should avoid taking NSAIDs as they can worsen their condition and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is already a common complication of chronic renal failure. Instead, alternative pain management options should be explored. If opiates are necessary, they should be prescribed with caution as they can accumulate in the body due to reduced renal excretion, especially in patients who have not previously taken them. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with renal dysfunction. Proper medication management can help prevent further damage to the kidneys and improve overall patient outcomes.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses worry about osteoporosis. He has questions about bone formation and calcium homeostasis, and you explain the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in regulating calcium levels.
      Which of the following statements about PTH is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It causes indirect osteoclastic activation via RANK-L

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) indirectly activates osteoclasts by increasing the production of RANK-L by osteoblasts. This leads to bone degradation and the release of calcium. PTH also decreases the release of osteoprotegerin, which is a decoy receptor for RANK-L. This further enhances osteoclast activity and bone degradation. Additionally, PTH causes a decrease in serum calcium by promoting calcium release from bone. It also enhances renal phosphate excretion by decreasing phosphate reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - For which medical condition is Pioglitazone prescribed? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which medical condition is Pioglitazone prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Pioglitazone for Type 2 Diabetes: Mechanism of Action and Side Effects

      Pioglitazone is a medication used to treat insulin resistance in patients with type 2 diabetes. It works by activating PPAR gamma, a protein that regulates the expression of genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism. This leads to improved insulin sensitivity and better control of blood sugar levels. Pioglitazone has been shown to lower HbA1c levels by approximately 1%.

      However, pioglitazone is associated with several side effects. One of the most common is fluid retention, which can lead to swelling in the legs and feet. It can also cause a loss of bone mineral density, which may increase the risk of fractures. Additionally, pioglitazone has been linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer, particularly in patients with a history of bladder tumors or polyps. For this reason, it should not be prescribed to these patients.

      In summary, pioglitazone is an effective medication for treating insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects, particularly the risk of bladder cancer in certain patients. Patients taking pioglitazone should be monitored closely for any signs of fluid retention or bone loss, and those with a history of bladder tumors or polyps should not take this medication.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department following a fall in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department following a fall in the local supermarket. He is in an acute confusional state and unaccompanied, so a history is not available. Upon examination, the doctor noted digital clubbing and signs of a right-sided pleural effusion. The patient was euvolaemic.
      Investigations:
      Serum:
      Na+ 114 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
      K+ 3.6 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
      Urea 2.35 mmol/l (2.5–6.7 mmol/l)
      Osmolality 255 mOsmol/kg (282–295 mOsm/kg)
      Urine:
      Osmolality 510 mOsmol/kg (raised)
      Na+ 50 mmol/l (25–250 mmol/l, depending on hydration state)
      Which of the following could be the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small cell lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis

      Hyponatraemia is a common electrolyte disturbance that can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this case, the patient’s acute confusional state is likely due to significant hyponatraemia. The low serum urea level and osmolality suggest dilutional hyponatraemia, but the raised urine osmolality indicates continued secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), known as syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).

      SIADH can be associated with malignancy (such as small cell lung cancer), central nervous system disorders, drugs, and major surgery. In this patient’s case, the unifying diagnosis is small cell lung cancer causing SIADH. Digital clubbing also points towards a diagnosis of lung cancer.

      Other conditions that can cause hyponatraemia include nephrotic syndrome, Addison’s disease, cystic fibrosis, and excessive diuretic therapy. However, these conditions have different biochemical profiles and clinical features.

      Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyponatraemia and guide appropriate management.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to the Emergency Department. Upon admission, the patient's body mass index (BMI) is measured at 26 kg/m2, and a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is established.
      Regarding diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Myths and Facts

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to life-threatening consequences. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition. Here are some important facts to help you better understand DKA:

      Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism: Patients with DKA are at an increased risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), especially in the pediatric age group and in patients with type-1 diabetes. Low-molecular-weight heparin is recommended to prevent this risk.

      DKA can be treated with oral hypoglycemics: This is a myth. Oral hypoglycemics are ineffective in managing DKA as the underlying cause is an imbalance between insulin and other regulatory hormones.

      Respiratory acidosis is typical: Metabolic acidosis occurs in DKA, and patients may develop a compensatory respiratory alkalosis (Kussmaul respiration).

      Hypokalemia is common at presentation: There is a risk of developing hypokalemia during admission due to insulin administration, but potassium levels are usually normal or high on admission.

      It often occurs in type II diabetes: This is a myth. DKA usually occurs in people with type I diabetes as it is related to low insulin levels, which leads to ketogenesis.

      Understanding these facts about DKA can help in its early recognition and prompt management, leading to better outcomes for patients.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old waitress presents with a 2-day history of increasing confusion. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old waitress presents with a 2-day history of increasing confusion. She has no significant medical history, takes only oral contraceptives, and denies any substance use. Blood and urine tests suggest a possible diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following statements regarding SIADH secretion is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may occur in subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding SIADH: Causes and Treatment Options

      SIADH, or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, is a condition characterized by excessive production of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia. While it can occur in various medical conditions, subarachnoid haemorrhage is a known cause of SIADH. In such cases, monitoring sodium levels is crucial. The treatment of choice for SIADH is fluid restriction, but in severe cases, hypertonic saline may be used. Demeclocycline, a tetracycline, is sometimes used to treat hyponatraemia in SIADH. It’s important to note that small cell lung cancer, not adenocarcinoma of the lung, is a well-known cause of SIADH through ectopic ADH secretion. Understanding the causes and treatment options for SIADH is essential for managing this condition effectively.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 47-year-old man is diagnosed with hypertension after multiple readings show a blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is diagnosed with hypertension after multiple readings show a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg. Further investigation reveals a 4.3-cm right-sided adrenal lesion, and he is found to have elevated plasma free metanephrines at 3000 pmol/l (normal range: 80-510 pmol/l). He is scheduled for elective adrenalectomy. What initial treatment should be initiated to prepare this patient for surgery to remove his adrenal phaeochromocytoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers

      Explanation:

      Management of Phaeochromocytoma: Medications and Precautions

      Phaeochromocytoma is a neuroendocrine tumour that secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, leading to sympathetic stimulation and clinical symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, diaphoresis, and weight loss. Diagnosis is through measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in plasma or urine. Surgery is required, but patients are at high risk due to potential life-threatening tachycardia and hypertension. Management includes the use of alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers such as phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin to dampen sympathetic activity. IV fluids should be readily available for potential blood loss during surgery. Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers can be used after alpha blockers, but not before to avoid unopposed alpha receptor stimulation and hypertensive crisis. Calcium channel blockers are not commonly used in phaeochromocytoma management. Low-salt diet and low fluid intake are not necessary precautions in this case, as the drop in blood pressure following surgery eliminates the risk of fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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