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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history of diarrhoea. She has had intermittent loose normal-coloured stools 2-3 times a day. She also has up to 10 hot flushes a day but thinks she is entering menopause; her GP has recently started her on hormone replacement therapy. 15 years ago she had a normal colonoscopy after presenting with abdominal pain and intermittent constipation. She has asthma controlled by inhalers, hypertension controlled by ACE inhibitors and hypothyroidism controlled by thyroxine. She smoked 10 cigarettes a day for the last 30 years and drinks alcohol about 14 units/week. On examination, she looks hot and flushed. She is afebrile. Her pulse is regular 92bpm and her BP is 164/82 mmHg. Her respirator rate is 20 breaths/min at rest and she sounds quite wheezy. A widespread polyphonic expiratory wheeze can be heard on chest auscultation. Her abdomen is soft. Her liver is enlarged 4 cm below the right costal margin but not-tender. Results of blood tests show: Na 140 mmol/L, K 4.8 mmol/L, Glucose 9.8 mmol/L, Albumin 41 g/l, ALT 94 U/l, ALP 61 U/l, Bilirubin 18 mmol/L, Ca 2.47 mmol/L, WCC 10.1 × 109/L, Hb 12.2 g/dL, MCV 90.5 fl, Platelets 234 × 109 /l, PT 13 s. Chest X-ray is normal. Ultrasound of the liver shows an enlarged liver containing three ill-defined mass lesions in the right lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid tumours are of neuroendocrine origin and derived from primitive stem cells in the gut wall, especially the appendix. They can be seen in other organs, including the lungs, mediastinum, thymus, liver, bile ducts, pancreas, bronchus, ovaries, prostate, and kidneys. While carcinoid tumours tend to grow slowly, they have the potential to metastasise.
      Signs and symptoms seen in larger tumours may include the following:
      – Periodic abdominal pain: Most common presentation for a small intestinal carcinoid; often associated with malignant carcinoid syndrome.
      – Cutaneous flushing: Early and frequent (94%) symptom; typically affects head and neck.
      – Diarrhoea and malabsorption (84%): Watery, frothy, or bulky stools, gastrointestinal (GI) bleed or steatorrhea; may or may not be associated with abdominal pain, flushing, and cramps.
      – Cardiac manifestations (60%): Valvular heart lesions, fibrosis of the endocardium; may lead to heart failure with tachycardia and hypertension.
      – Wheezing or asthma-like syndrome (25%): Due to bronchial constriction; some tremors are relatively indolent and result in chronic symptoms such as cough and dyspnoea.
      – Pellagra with scale-like skin lesions, diarrhoea and mental disturbances.
      – Carcinoid crisis can be the most serious symptom of the carcinoid tumours and life-threatening. It can occur suddenly or after stress, including chemotherapy and anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      176.6
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  • Question 2 - In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?

      Your Answer: Constitutional short stature

      Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.
      Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.

      Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      172.3
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  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with sweating and palpitations. His blood pressure during the attacks is around 220/120 mmHg. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of catecholamines

      Correct Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests with the following 4 characteristics:
      – Headaches
      – Palpitations
      – Sweating
      – Severe hypertension

      The Endocrine Society, the American Association for Clinical Chemistry, and the European Society of Endocrinology have released clinical practice guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pheochromocytoma.
      Biochemical testing via measurement of plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines should be performed in patients suspected of having pheochromocytoma.

      Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumour, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      29.9
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  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show: fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3– 6), sodium 148 mmol/l (137–144), potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5–4.9), calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2–2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia. What could be the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
      The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath. Recent thyroid function tests on the hospital computer reveal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of <0.05 mU/l and a markedly elevated T4. You arrange blood gas testing. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with Grave’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pa(CO2)

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroid patients show significantly lower resting arterial CO2 tension, tidal volume and significantly higher mean inspiratory flow and pa(O2) than healthy patients. This may of course lead to misdiagnosis of patients with hyperthyroidism as having hyperventilation syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - Regarding the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Concordance between identical twins is higher in type 2 diabetes mellitus than type 1

      Explanation:

      Type 1 diabetes is a chronic illness characterized by the body’s inability to produce insulin due to the autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas. Approximately 95% of patients with type 1 DM have either HLA-DR3 or HLA-DR4. Although the genetic aspect of type 1 DM is complex, with multiple genes involved, there is a high sibling relative risk. Whereas dizygotic twins have a 5-6% concordance rate for type 1 DM, monozygotic twins will share this diagnosis more than 50% of the time by the age of 40 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship. What is the best treatment option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adequate diet and observation

      Explanation:

      Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.
      Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.
      Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for review. Over the past few months, she has lost increasing amounts of weight and has become increasingly anxious about palpitations, which occur mostly at night. Her TSH is <0.1 IU/l (0.5-4.5). On examination, her BP is 122/72 mmHg, her pulse is 92 and regular. You cannot palpate a goitre or any nodules on examination of her neck. Which of the following investigations can differentiate between self-administration of thyroid hormone and endogenous causes of thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radioactive uptake thyroid scan

      Explanation:

      Once thyrotoxicosis has been identified by laboratory values, the thyroid radio-iodine uptake and scan may be used to help distinguish the underlying aetiology. Thyroid radioiodine uptake is raised in Graves’ disease. It may be normal or raised in patients with a toxic multinodular goitre. It is very low or undetectable in thyrotoxicosis resulting from exogenous administration of thyroid hormone or the thyrotoxic phase of thyroiditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She mentioned that she has an uncle with previous parathyroid gland excision and a cousin who has recently been diagnosed with insulinoma. On examination, her BP is 135/72 mmHg, her pulse is 70/min and regular, her BMI is 20. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Investigations show: Hb 12.6 g/dL, WCC 5.4 x109/L, PLT 299 x109/L, Na+ 139 mmol/L, K+ 4.4 mmol/L, Creatinine 121 ىmol/L, Albumin 37 g/l, Ca++ 2.95 mmol/L, PTH 18 (normal<10). Which of the following is the most likely cause of her raised calcium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      The combination of Insulinoma and Parathyroid diseases is suggestive of MEN 1 syndrome.
      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a rare hereditary tumour syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and characterized by a predisposition to a multitude of endocrine neoplasms primarily of parathyroid, entero-pancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin, as well as non-endocrine neoplasms.
      Other endocrine tumours in MEN1 include foregut carcinoid tumours, adrenocortical tumours, and rarely pheochromocytoma. Nonendocrine manifestations include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), due to parathyroid hyperplasia is the most frequent and usually the earliest expression of MEN-1, with a typical age of onset at 20–25 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite. Thyrotoxicosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite. Thyrotoxicosis is suspected and various investigations are performed. Which of the following findings is most consistent with Graves’ disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High titre of thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      Free T4 levels or the free T4 index is usually elevated, as is the free T3 level or free T3 index
      – Assays for thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (particularly TSIs) almost always are positive.
      – Detection of TSIs is diagnostic for Graves disease.
      – Other markers of thyroid autoimmunity, such as antithyroglobulin antibodies or antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, are usually present.
      – Other autoantibodies that may be present include thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibodies and anti–sodium-iodide symporter antibody.
      The presence of these antibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease.
      – The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the uptake is diffusely distributed over the entire gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3 children and a full-time job and is finding it very difficult to hold everything together. There is no significant past medical history. On examination, her BP is 145/80 mmHg and her BMI is 28. Investigations show: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 6.7 x109/L, PLT 204 x109/L, Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 120 μmol/L, Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, TSH 7.8 U/l, Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (10-22), Free T3 4.9 pmol/l (5-10). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elevated TSH (usually 4.5-10.0 mIU/L) with normal free T4 is considered mild or subclinical hypothyroidism.
      Hypothyroidism commonly manifests as a slowing in physical and mental activity but may be asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are often subtle and neither sensitive nor specific.
      The following are symptoms of hypothyroidism:
      – Fatigue, loss of energy, lethargy
      – Weight gain
      – Decreased appetite
      – Cold intolerance
      – Dry skin
      – Hair loss
      – Sleepiness
      – Muscle pain, joint pain, weakness in the extremities
      – Depression
      – Emotional lability, mental impairment
      – Forgetfulness, impaired memory, inability to concentrate
      – Constipation
      – Menstrual disturbances, impaired fertility
      – Decreased perspiration
      – Paraesthesia and nerve entrapment syndromes
      – Blurred vision
      – Decreased hearing
      – Fullness in the throat, hoarseness
      Physical signs of hypothyroidism include the following:
      – Weight gain
      – Slowed speech and movements
      – Dry skin
      – Jaundice
      – Pallor
      – Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
      – Loss of scalp hair, axillary hair, pubic hair, or a combination
      – Dull facial expression
      – Coarse facial features
      – Periorbital puffiness
      – Macroglossia
      – Goitre (simple or nodular)
      – Hoarseness
      – Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased diastolic blood pressure
      – Bradycardia
      – Pericardial effusion
      – Abdominal distention, ascites (uncommon)
      – Hypothermia (only in severe hypothyroid states)
      – Nonpitting oedema (myxoedema)
      – Pitting oedema of lower extremities
      – Hyporeflexia with delayed relaxation, ataxia, or both.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates. She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity. The following results are obtained: (Time (hours) : Blood glucose (mmol/l)), 0 : 9.2, 2 : 14.2. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
      The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old son who has recently been diagnosed by type-1 diabetes. He has an identical twin brother and she is concerned about his risk of developing diabetes. What advice would you give regarding his future risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has a 30–50% future risk of developing type-1 diabetes

      Explanation:

      The frequency of type-1 diabetes is higher in siblings of diabetic parents (e.g., in the UK 6% by age 30) than in the general population (in the U.K. 0.4% by age 30), while disease concordance in monozygotic (identical) twins is about 40% i.e. the risk that the unaffected twin will develop diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis of his weight-bearing joints. He has recently begun to suffer from symptoms of sleep apnoea. On examination, he has a prominent jawline and macroglossia. His BP is elevated at 155/95 mmHg and there is peripheral visual field loss. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pegvisomant can be used where IGF-1 is not normalised post surgery

      Explanation:

      The patient has Acromegaly.
      Acromegaly is a chronic disorder characterised by growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion, predominantly caused by a pituitary adenoma.

      Random GH level testing is not recommended for diagnosis given the pulsatile nature of secretion. Stress, physical exercise, acute critical illness and fasting state can cause a physiological higher peak in GH secretion.

      Pegvisomant is a US Food and Drug Administration-approved treatment for use after surgery. In a global non-interventional safety surveillance study, pegvisomant normalised IGF-1 in 67.5% of patients after 5 years (most likely due to lack of dose-up titration), and also improved clinical symptoms. Pegvisomant improves insulin sensitivity, and long-term follow-up showed significantly decreased fasting glucose over time, while the first-generation SRL only have a marginal clinical impact on glucose homeostasis in acromegaly. Pegvisomant does not have any direct anti-proliferative effects on pituitary tumour cells, but tumour growth is rare overall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of acute pancreatitis. On examination, he has a BP of 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is regular 70 bpm and his BMI is 23. There is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on examination of his skin. It was noted that his fasting triglycerides level is 8.5 mmol/l (0.7-2.1) at his follow up appointment although his LDL level is not particularly raised. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Three classes of medications are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations: fibric acid derivatives, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.

      Fibrate is used as a first-line agent for reduction of triglycerides in patients at risk for triglyceride-induced pancreatitis.

      High-dose niacin (vitamin B-3) (1500 or more mg/d) decreases triglyceride levels by at least 40% and can raise HDL cholesterol levels by 40% or more. Niacin also reliably and significantly lowers LDL cholesterol levels, which the other major triglyceride-lowering medications do not.

      Omega-3 fatty acids are attractive because of their low risk of major adverse effects or interaction with other medications. At high doses (>4 g/d), triglycerides are reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be diagnosed radiologically at birth

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is the most common type of short-limb disproportionate dwarfism. A single gene mapped to the short arm of chromosome 4 (band 4p16.3) is responsible for achondroplasia and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. All people with achondroplasia have a short stature.
      Characteristic features of achondroplasia include an average-size trunk, short arms and legs with particularly short upper arms and thighs, limited range of motion at the elbows, and an enlarged head (macrocephaly) with a prominent forehead. Fingers are typically short and the ring finger and middle finger may diverge, giving the hand a three-pronged (trident) appearance. People with achondroplasia are generally of normal intelligence.
      Examination of the infant after birth shows increased front-to-back head size. There may be signs of hydrocephalus. It may be diagnosed radiographically at birth, or becomes obvious within the first year with disparity between a large skull, normal trunk length and short limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis. On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Investigations show: Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600), Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20), Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20), Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450), Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22), TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.
      In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure

      Explanation:

      Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights.

      congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies

      Explanation:

      Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.

      The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during pregnancy, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Block-and-replace is preferable in pregnancy compared to antithyroid drug titration

      Explanation:

      Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy.

      – Poor control of thyrotoxicosis is associated with pregnancy loss, pregnancy-induced hypertension, prematurity, low birth weight, intrauterine growth restriction, stillbirth, thyroid storm, and maternal congestive heart failure.

      – Antithyroid drugs are the treatment of choice of hyperthyroidism during pregnancy. The lowest dose of ATD needed to maintain TT4 1.5× the upper limit of the non-pregnant reference range or FT4 at the upper limit of the reference range should be used.
      Two different antithyroid drug (ATD) regimens are in common use for Grave’s disease: i) Titration method and ii) Block-and-replace method.
      In the titration method, the usual starting dose is 15–30 mg/day methimazole (or equivalent doses of other thionamides); further to periodic thyroid status assessment, daily dose is tapered down to the lowest effective dose (avoiding both hyper- and hypothyroidism).
      The block-and-replace method uses persistently high ATD doses in association with L-thyroxine replacement to avoid hypothyroidism; treatment lasts 6 months. This method has advantages and disadvantages over the titration method. Higher doses of ATDs may have a greater immunosuppressive action useful for a permanent remission of hyperthyroidism, but this effect remains to be demonstrated.
      Avoidance of hypothyroidism or ‘escape’ of hyperthyroidism seems easier than with the titration method; treatment is shorter, and the number of visits lower. On the other hand, the much higher number of tablets taken every day may create problems of poor compliance. The block-and-replace method should not be used during pregnancy.

      – Breastfeeding has been shown to be safe in mothers taking ATDs in appropriate doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.

      Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
      The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      – Hirsutism
      – Infertility
      – Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      – Diabetes
      – Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Androgen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.

      Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has a history of Graves disease. On examination, his blood pressure is 103/58 mmHg, pulse 64/min and temperature 36.3ºC. The following results are obtained: Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.4 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 42 umol/L, TSH 3.5 mu/l, Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L. You arrange for a random cortisol test, however, whilst awaiting the result he becomes unresponsive. In addition to giving intravenous steroids and fluid, what test is urgent to check first given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Addison’s disease as he has a history of autoimmune disease, hyperkalaemia and hypotension.
      It is important to keep an Addisonian crisis on the differential in cases of shock, especially since adrenal crisis can be the patient’s first presentation of adrenal insufficiency.
      Patients with Addison’s disease are prone to developing hypoglycaemia due to loss of the glucogenic effect of glucocorticoids. Given the sudden deterioration, a glucose level must be checked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
      The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
      Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology with thyrotoxicosis. Following a discussion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology with thyrotoxicosis. Following a discussion of management options, she chooses to have radioiodine therapy. Which one of the following is the most likely adverse effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Approximately one third of patients treated with radioiodine therapy develop transient hypothyroidism. Unless a patient is highly symptomatic, thyroxine replacement may be withheld if hypothyroidism occurs within the first 2 months of therapy. If it persists for longer than 2 months, permanent hypothyroidism is likely and replacement with T4 should be initiated.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule is felt in the region of the thyroid gland. She mentions that her mother had kidney stones and died following a tumour in her neck. A surgeon recommends complete thyroidectomy as her treatment of choice. What is the most important investigation to be done before the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24-hour urinary catecholamines

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC).
      Sporadic, or isolated MTC accounts for 75% of cases and inherited MTC constitutes the rest.
      Inherited MTC occurs in association with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2A and 2B syndromes, but non-MEN familial MTC also occurs.
      A 24-hour urinalysis for catecholamine metabolites (e.g., vanillylmandelic acid [VMA], metanephrine) has to be done to rule out concomitant pheochromocytoma in patients with MEN type 2A or 2B, as Pheochromocytoma must be treated before MTC.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years. On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord. Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema. A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests. Some of these results are shown: Na 144 mmol/L, K 2.2 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L, Glucose 16 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
      – Shortness of breath
      – Cough
      – Bone pain
      – Weight loss
      – Fatigue
      – Neurologic dysfunction
      Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most important aetiological factor causing cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18

      Explanation:

      It has been determined that HPV infection is the most powerful epidemic factor. This virus is needed, but not sufficient for the development of cervical cancer.
      The WHO’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classified HPV infection as carcinogenic to humans (HPV types 16 and 18), probably carcinogenic (HPV types 31 and 33) and possibly carcinogenic (other HPV types except 6 and 11).
      Tobacco smoking, the use of contraceptives, and the number of births are factors that showed no statistically significant deviations in the studied population compared to other countries in the region, as well as European countries. They have an equal statistical significance in all age groups.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 28 - A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l. A diagnosis of SIADH is confirmed. What is the most appropriate initial management for his fluid balance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid restriction

      Explanation:

      European guidelines for the treatment of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis include the following recommendations for the management of moderate or profound hyponatremia:
      – Restrict fluid intake as first-line treatment.
      – Second-line treatments include increasing solute intake with 0.25–0.50 g/kg per day or a combination of low-dose loop diuretics and oral sodium chloride.
      – Use of lithium, demeclocycline, or vasopressin receptor antagonists is not recommended.
      Recommendations on the treatment of SIADH from an American Expert Panel included the following:
      – If chronic, limit the rate of correction.
      – Fluid restriction should generally be first-line therapy.
      – Consider pharmacologic therapies if serum Na + is not corrected after 24-48 hr of fluid restriction or if the patient has a low urinary electrolyte free water excretion.
      – Patients being treated with vaptans should not be on a fluid restriction initially.
      – Water, 5% dextrose or desmopressin can be used to slow the rate of correction if the water diuresis is profound.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained: TSH < 0.05 mu/l, Free T4 29 pmol/L. Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
      Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 46-year-old woman was referred to the endocrinology department with hypercalcemia and raised...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman was referred to the endocrinology department with hypercalcemia and raised parathyroid hormone levels. Her blood tests are highly suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism. She has type 2 diabetes controlled by metformin alone. Her albumin-adjusted serum calcium level is 3.5 mmol/litre. Which of the following is the most important reason for her referral?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 3.5 mmol/litre

      Explanation:

      Indications for surgery for the treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism:
      1. Symptoms of hypercalcaemia such as thirst, frequent or excessive urination, or constipation
      2. End-organ disease (renal stones, fragility fractures or osteoporosis)
      3. An albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 2.85 mmol/litre or above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
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