-
Question 1
Correct
-
An 83-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a labial lump that has been present for two weeks. Although she does not experience any pain, she reports that the lump is very itchy and rubs against her underwear. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and she takes amlodipine, metformin, and sitagliptin daily. During the examination, the physician observes a firm 2 cm x 3 cm lump on the left labia majora. The surrounding skin appears normal without signs of erythema or induration. Additionally, the physician notes palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vulval carcinoma
Explanation:A labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy in an older woman may indicate the presence of vulval carcinoma, as these symptoms are concerning and should not be ignored. Although labial lumps are not uncommon, it is important to be vigilant and seek medical attention if a new lump appears.
Understanding Vulval Carcinoma
Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.
There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.
It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for 5 days before menses during each cycle over the past 6 months. She has been married for a year but has been unable to conceive. She experiences lower abdominal cramps during her menses and takes naproxen for relief. Additionally, she complains of pelvic pain during intercourse and defecation. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in the right adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women
Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common gynecological problem that can have various underlying causes. Here are some of the most common causes of abnormal uterine bleeding in women:
Endometriosis: This condition occurs when the endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, usually in the ovaries or pelvic cavity. Symptoms include painful periods, painful intercourse, painful bowel movements, and adnexal tenderness. Endometriosis can also lead to infertility.
Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding: This condition is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the treatment of choice.
Cervical cancer: This type of cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection, smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, use of oral contraceptives, and immunosuppression. Symptoms include vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge. Cervical cancer is rare before the age of 25 and is unlikely to cause dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, or adnexal tenderness.
Submucosal leiomyoma: This is a benign neoplastic mass of myometrial origin that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods, but acute pain is rare.
Endometrial polyps: These are masses of endometrial tissue attached to the inner surface of the uterus. They are more common around menopausal age and can cause heavy or irregular bleeding. They are usually not associated with pain or menstrual cramps and are not pre-malignant.
Understanding the Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female visits her doctor for contraception. She has a medical history of depression and spina bifida, which requires her to use a wheelchair. Additionally, she has a family history of ovarian cancer and is a regular smoker, consuming 15 cigarettes per day. What would be a contraindication for initiating the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) in this patient?
Your Answer: Her smoking history
Correct Answer: Her wheelchair use
Explanation:Wheelchair users should not be prescribed the COCP as their immobility increases the risk of developing DVTs, outweighing the benefits of using this form of contraception (UKMEC 3). Past history of depression, family history of ovarian cancer, and smoking history are not significant factors in determining the suitability of COCP use.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
As you review your daily results, you come across a cervical smear test for a 32-year-old patient. The result indicates that it is a repeat test and states that she is 'high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) negative'. Upon further examination of her medical records, you discover that this is her second repeat test after an abnormal result during a routine screening two years ago. Her last test was 12 months ago, where she tested 'hrHPV positive. Cytologically normal'. Interestingly, she has never been invited for a colposcopy. What would be the most appropriate next step in this situation?
Your Answer: Return to routine recall (in 3 years)
Explanation:If a patient’s 2nd repeat smear at 24 months is now negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the correct course of action is to return to routine recall in 3 years. This assumes that the patient had an initial abnormal smear 2 years ago, which showed hrHPV positive but normal cytology, and a repeat test at 12 months that was also hrHPV positive but cytologically normal. If the patient had still been hrHPV positive, they would have been referred for colposcopy. However, since they are now negative, they can go back to routine recall. The latest cervical screening programme does not require cytology to be performed if hrHPV is negative, so it would be inappropriate and impractical for the GP to request cytology on the sample. There is no need to repeat the smear in 4 weeks or 12 months, as transient hrHPV infection is common and self-resolves, and does not necessarily indicate a high risk of cervical cancer.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 28-year-old transgender male patient (assigned female at birth) comes to the clinic seeking advice on contraception. He is receiving testosterone therapy from the gender identity clinic and has a uterus, but plans to have surgery in the future. He is sexually active with a male partner and wants to explore other contraceptive options besides condoms. What recommendations can you provide for this patient?
Your Answer: A combined oral contraceptive pill is not suitable
Explanation:Not all hormonal contraceptives are contraindicated for patients assigned female at birth undergoing testosterone therapy. The combined oral contraceptive pill, which contains oestrogen, should be avoided as it may interfere with the effects of testosterone therapy. However, the copper intrauterine device and progesterone-only pill are acceptable options as they do not have any adverse effects on testosterone therapy. The vaginal ring, which also contains oestrogen, should also be avoided.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.
For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.
For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.
In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.
Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office with concerns about forgetting to change her combined contraceptive patch. She has missed the deadline by 12 hours and had sex during this time. She has never missed a patch before. What guidance would you offer her?
Your Answer: Apply a new patch immediately, no further precautions needed
Explanation:The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. She had an appendicectomy 10 years ago. She denies any recent per-vaginal (PV) bleeding and her last menstrual period was six weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa. She also complains of right shoulder tip pain.
Observations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Heart rate 110 beats per minute 60–100 beats per minute
Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg <120/<80 mmHg
Respiratory rate (RR) 16 breaths per minute 12–20 breaths per minute
O2 saturation 98% 94–99%
Temperature 37.2°C 36.5–37.5°C
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ruptured ectopic
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Severe Iliac Fossa Pain in Reproductive-Age Women
Severe, sudden-onset pain in the right or left iliac fossa is a common symptom of ectopic pregnancy in reproductive-age women. This pain may be accompanied by vaginal bleeding, shoulder tip pain, syncopal episodes, and shock. To rule out pregnancy, a urinary beta human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone (b-HCG) test should be performed, followed by a transvaginal ultrasound scan to confirm the diagnosis.
Ovarian torsion may also cause iliac fossa pain, but it is unlikely to cause referred shoulder pain. Appendicitis is not a consideration in this scenario, as the patient does not have an appendix. Irritable bowel syndrome and inflammatory bowel disease are also unlikely diagnoses, as the patient’s tachycardia and right iliac fossa tenderness and guarding are not consistent with these conditions. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to differentiate between these potential causes of severe iliac fossa pain in reproductive-age women.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman is considering artificial insemination. What is the most reliable blood hormone marker for predicting ovulation?
Your Answer: Progesterone
Correct Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH)
Explanation:Hormones Involved in the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is regulated by a complex interplay of hormones. Here are the key hormones involved and their functions:
Luteinising hormone (LH): This hormone triggers ovulation by causing the release of an egg from the ovary. An LH surge occurs prior to ovulation, and ovulation occurs about 12 hours after the peak in LH.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): FSH stimulates the development of follicles in the ovary. It peaks on day 3 of the menstrual cycle.
Oestrogen: Oestrogen is responsible for the growth of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus.
Progesterone: After ovulation, progesterone induces secretory activity of the endometrial glands in anticipation of implantation.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG): If fertilisation occurs, the developing conceptus begins to secrete hCG from the syncytiotrophoblast. This hormone is a convenient marker for pregnancy, not ovulation.
Understanding the roles of these hormones can help women better understand their menstrual cycle and fertility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge. She describes it as a thin, greyish, watery discharge. It is painless and has a fishy odour.
Which is the appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Metronidazole 400 mg twice a day for a week
Explanation:Appropriate Treatment Options for Vaginal Infections
Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection that results in a decrease in lactobacilli and an increase in anaerobic bacteria. The typical symptoms include a white, milky, non-viscous discharge with a fishy odor and a pH greater than 4.5. The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole 400 mg twice a day for a week.
Azithromycin is the treatment of choice for Chlamydia, but it is not appropriate for bacterial vaginosis. acyclovir is used to treat herpes infections, which is not the cause of this patient’s symptoms. Fluconazole is a treatment option for vaginal candidiasis, but it is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms. Pivmecillinam is used to treat urinary tract infections, which is not the cause of this patient’s symptoms.
In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole, and other treatments should be considered based on the specific diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 38-year-old woman presents with a gradual masculinisation process, including deepening of her voice, increased body hair, and clitoral enlargement. Ultrasonography shows a tumour in the left ovarian hilus, and her 17-ketosteroid excretion is elevated. The histopathology confirms a diagnosis of hilus cell tumour, with large, lipid-laden tumour cells. Which cells in the male reproductive system are homologous to the affected cells?
Your Answer: Leydig cells
Explanation:Homologous Cells in Male and Female Reproductive Systems
The male and female reproductive systems have homologous cells that perform similar functions. Leydig cells, also known as pure Leydig cell tumors, are found in both males and females. In females, these cells are located in the ovarian hilus and secrete androgens, causing masculinization when a tumor arises. Sertoli cells, on the other hand, have a female homologue called granulosa cells, both of which are sensitive to follicle-stimulating hormone. Epithelial cells in the epididymis have a vestigial structure in females called the epoophoron, which is lined by cells similar to those found in the epididymis. Spermatocytes have female homologues in oocytes and polar bodies, while spermatogonia have female homologues in oogonia. Understanding these homologous cells can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of reproductive system disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 25-year-old female complains of lower abdominal pain that started one day ago. She has no significant medical history. During the examination, her temperature is 37.5°C, and she experiences extreme tenderness in the left iliac fossa with guarding. Bowel sounds are audible. What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Urinary beta-hCG
Explanation:Importance of Pregnancy Test in Women with Acute Abdominal Pain
When a young woman presents with an acute abdomen and pain in the left iliac fossa, it is important to consider the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy, even if there is a lack of menstrual history. Therefore, the most appropriate investigation would be a urinary beta-hCG, which is a pregnancy test. It is crucial to rule out a potentially life-threatening ectopic pregnancy as the first line of investigation for any woman of childbearing age who presents with acute onset abdominal pain.
In summary, a pregnancy test should be performed in women with acute abdominal pain to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. This simple and quick test can provide valuable information for prompt and appropriate management of the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 22-year-old patient comes to your clinic after receiving a positive pregnancy test result. She has made the decision to have an abortion after discussing it with her partner and family. However, as a healthcare provider, you personally do not support abortion and are currently treating patients who are struggling with infertility. How should you handle this challenging consultation?
Your Answer: Discuss her options and explain that due to your personal beliefs, you will arrange for her to see another doctor in this instance who will make necessary arrangements
Explanation:According to Good Medical Practice (2013), if you have a conscientious objection to a particular procedure, it is your responsibility to inform your patients and explain their right to see another doctor. You must provide them with sufficient information to exercise this right without expressing any disapproval of their lifestyle, choices, or beliefs. It is important to ensure that your personal views do not unfairly discriminate against patients or colleagues and do not affect the treatment you provide or arrange.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 27-year-old woman presents to her doctor to discuss the results of her recent cervical smear. She is sexually active with one partner for the past 6 months and denies any history of sexually transmitted infections or post-coital bleeding. The results of her cervical smear show low-grade dyskaryosis and a positive human papillomavirus test. What is the next best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:If a patient’s cervical smear shows abnormal cytology and a positive result for a high-risk strain of human papillomavirus, the next step is to refer them for colposcopy to obtain a cervical biopsy and assess for cervical cancer. This patient cannot be discharged to normal recall as they are at significant risk of developing cervical cancer. If the cytology is inadequate, it can be retested in 3 months. However, if the cytology shows low-grade dyskaryosis, colposcopy and further assessment are necessary. Delaying the repeat cytology for 6 months would not be appropriate. If the cytology is normal but the patient is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus, retesting for human papillomavirus in 12 months is appropriate. However, if abnormal cytology is present with high-risk human papillomavirus, colposcopy and further assessment are needed.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 30-year-old married woman has been struggling with infertility for a while. Upon undergoing an ultrasound, it was discovered that her ovaries are enlarged. She has also been experiencing scant or absent menses, but her external genitalia appears normal. Additionally, she has gained weight without explanation and developed hirsutism. Hormonal tests indicate decreased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and increased luteinising hormone (LH), increased androgens, and undetectable beta human chorionic gonadotropin. What is the most likely cause of her condition?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:Understanding Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) and Related Conditions
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a hormonal disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by enlarged ovaries with many atretic follicles but no mature antral follicles. This leads to increased production of luteinizing hormone (LH), which stimulates the cells of the theca interna to secrete testosterone. Peripheral aromatase then converts testosterone to estrogen, which suppresses follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) secretion and upregulates LH secretion from the adenohypophysis. This results in decreased aromatase production in granulosa cells, low levels of estradiol, and failure of follicles to develop normally.
To remember the signs and symptoms of PCOS, use the mnemonic PCOS PAL. PCOS is associated with male pattern balding (alopecia), hirsutism, obesity, hypertension, acanthosis nigricans (thickening and hyperpigmentation of the skin), and menstrual irregularities (oligo- or amenorrhea). It can also cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which is characterized by impaired secretion of gonadotropins from the pituitary, including FSH and LH. This condition can be caused by various factors, such as Kallmann syndrome and GnRH insensitivity. Gonadal dysgenesis, monosomy X variant, is another condition that affects sexually juvenile women with an abnormal karyotype (45, X). It results in complete failure of development of the ovary and therefore no secondary sexual characteristics. Chronic adrenal insufficiency (or Addison’s disease) is another condition that can cause anorexia, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin in sun-exposed areas.
It is important to note that early pregnancy is not a possibility in women with PCOS who are not ovulating. Additionally, if a woman with PCOS were pregnant, she would have elevated beta human chorionic gonadotropin. Understanding these conditions and their associated symptoms can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage PCOS effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options. She has been relying on condoms but has recently entered a new relationship and wants to explore other methods. She expresses concern about the possibility of gaining weight from her chosen contraception.
What should this woman avoid?Your Answer: Injectable contraceptive
Explanation:Depo-provera is linked to an increase in weight.
If this woman is concerned about weight gain, it is best to avoid depo-provera, which is the primary injectable contraceptive in the UK. Depo-provera can cause various adverse effects, including weight gain, irregular bleeding, delayed return to fertility, and an increased risk of osteoporosis.
While some users of the combined oral contraceptive pill have reported weight gain, a Cochrane review does not support a causal relationship. There are no reasons for this woman to avoid the combined oral contraceptive pill.
The progesterone-only pill has not been associated with weight gain and is safe for use in this woman.
The intra-uterine system (IUS) does not cause weight gain in users and is a viable option for this woman.
The subdermal contraceptive implant can cause irregular or heavy bleeding, as well as progesterone-related side effects such as headaches, nausea, and breast pain. However, it is not typically associated with weight gain and is not contraindicated for use in this situation.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
In the study of contraception modes, researchers examine the cell structure of sperm. In the case of the copper intrauterine device (IUD), which cellular structure is affected by its mode of action?
Your Answer: Centrioles
Correct Answer: Golgi apparatus
Explanation:How the Copper IUD Affects Different Parts of Sperm
The copper IUD is a popular form of birth control that works by preventing fertilization. It does this by affecting different parts of the sperm. The Golgi apparatus, which contributes to the acrosome of the sperm, is inhibited by the IUD, preventing capacitation. The mitochondria, which form the middle piece of the sperm, are not affected. The nucleus is also unaffected. Sperm do not have cell walls, so this is not a factor. Finally, the centrioles contribute to the flagellum of the sperm, but the copper IUD does not target this part of the sperm. Understanding how the copper IUD affects different parts of the sperm can help individuals make informed decisions about their birth control options.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A mother brings her 13-year-old daughter to the GP with concerns about her daughter's lack of menstrual periods and cyclical pain. Upon examination, the daughter appears to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Constitutional delay
Correct Answer: Imperforate hymen
Explanation:The topic of primary amenorrhoea is being discussed, where the patient is experiencing cyclical pain but has not had any evidence of menstruation. This eliminates certain possibilities such as mullerian agenesis and constitutional delay, which are typically painless. Turner syndrome is also unlikely as it is often accompanied by distinct physical features and health issues. Pregnancy cannot be ruled out entirely, but it is improbable given the patient’s lack of menarche and cyclical pain. Therefore, imperforate hymen is the most probable diagnosis.
Amenorrhoea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be primary (when menarche has never occurred) or secondary (when the patient has not had periods for more than six months despite having had them in the past). Primary amenorrhoea is diagnosed if the patient has not had a period by the age of 14 without any secondary sexual characteristics, or over the age of 16 if such characteristics are present. The causes of primary amenorrhoea can include constitutional delay (when the patient is a late bloomer but has secondary sexual characteristics) or anatomical issues such as mullerian agenesis (where the patient has varying degrees of absence of female sexual organs despite developing secondary sexual characteristics).
Common Causes of Delayed Puberty
Delayed puberty is a condition where the onset of puberty is later than the normal age range. This can be caused by various factors such as genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and chronic illnesses. Delayed puberty with short stature is often associated with Turner’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Noonan’s syndrome. These conditions affect the growth and development of the body, resulting in a shorter stature.
On the other hand, delayed puberty with normal stature can be caused by polycystic ovarian syndrome, androgen insensitivity, Kallmann syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome. These conditions affect the production and regulation of hormones, which can lead to delayed puberty.
It is important to note that delayed puberty does not necessarily mean there is a serious underlying condition. However, it is recommended to consult a healthcare professional if there are concerns about delayed puberty. Treatment options may include hormone therapy or addressing any underlying medical conditions.
In summary, delayed puberty can be caused by various factors and can be associated with different genetic disorders. It is important to seek medical advice if there are concerns about delayed puberty.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 35–45 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2 and has had persistent acne since being a teenager.
During examination, brown, hyperpigmented areas are observed in the creases of the axillae and around the neck.
Hormone levels have been tested, as shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Total testosterone 7 nmol/l 0.5–3.5 nmol/l
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 15 IU/l 1–25 IU/l
Luteinising hormone (LH) 78 U/l 1–70 U/l
Which of the following ultrasound findings will confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Five follicles per ovary, ranging in size from 2 to 9 mm
Correct Answer: 12 follicles in the right ovary and seven follicles in the left, ranging in size from 2 to 9 mm
Explanation:Understanding Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by menstrual irregularities, signs of hyperandrogenism, and ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries. The Rotterdam criteria provide diagnostic criteria for PCOS, which include oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea, clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries.
Follicle counts and ovarian volume are important ultrasonographic features used to diagnose PCOS. At least 12 follicles in one ovary, measuring 2-9 mm in diameter, and an ovarian volume of >10 ml are diagnostic of PCOS. However, the absence of these features does not exclude the diagnosis if two of the three criteria are met.
Total testosterone levels are usually raised in PCOS, while FSH is usually within the normal range or low, and LH is raised. The ratio of LH:FSH is usually >3:1 in PCOS.
A single complex cyst in one ovary is an abnormal finding and requires referral to a gynaecology team for further assessment.
Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria and Ultrasonographic Features of PCOS
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
You are recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old woman who is healthy but is suffering from severe menopausal symptoms. She is curious about the advantages and disadvantages of various HRT options.
What is the accurate response concerning the risk of cancer associated with different types of HRT preparations?Your Answer: Combined HRT increases the risk of breast cancer
Explanation:The addition of progesterone to HRT increases the likelihood of developing breast cancer, but this risk is dependent on the duration of treatment and decreases after HRT is discontinued. However, it does not affect the risk of dying from breast cancer. HRT with only oestrogen is linked to a lower risk of coronary heart disease, while combined HRT has a minimal or no impact on CHD risk. progesterone-only HRT is not available. NICE does not provide a specific risk assessment for ovarian cancer in women taking HRT, but refers to a meta-analysis indicating an increased risk for both oestrogen-only and combined HRT preparations.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain. She also reports experiencing pain in her right shoulder. What investigation would be the most helpful in managing this patient further?
Your Answer: Urine β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG)
Explanation:The Importance of Urine Pregnancy Testing in Females with Abdominal Pain
Any female of childbearing age who presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain should have a urinary pregnancy test performed (β-HCG). This is because a negative pregnancy test is necessary to confirm that the patient is not pregnant. It is an easy and inexpensive test to perform.
Shoulder tip pain may indicate diaphragmatic irritation secondary to free intraperitoneal fluid, which can be caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. However, a full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U & Es) will not diagnose a potential ruptured ectopic pregnancy and, as such, will not guide subsequent management.
An erect chest X-ray may be requested if perforation is suspected, but a urine pregnancy test would be much more useful in this scenario. An abdominal X-ray is not indicated.
In summary, a urine pregnancy test is crucial in females of childbearing age with abdominal pain to rule out pregnancy and potentially diagnose a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about post-coital bleeding. She has experienced this three times, but reports no pain, discharge, or bleeding between periods. She is currently taking the combined contraceptive pill and is sexually active with a consistent partner. The patient has never been pregnant and is anxious due to her family history of endometrial cancer in her grandmother. During the examination, the GP observes a small area of redness surrounding the cervical os. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Correct Answer: Combined contraceptive pill use
Explanation:The likelihood of cervical ectropion is higher in individuals who take the COCP due to increased levels of oestrogen. Based on the patient’s medical history and examination results, cervical ectropion appears to be the most probable diagnosis. This condition is more prevalent during puberty, pregnancy, and while taking the pill. Endometrial cancer is improbable in a young person, and the presence of cervical ectropion on examination supports this straightforward diagnosis. Although chlamydia infection can cause cervicitis, the patient’s sexual history does not suggest this diagnosis, and the pill remains the most likely cause. It is recommended to undergo STI screenings annually.
Understanding Cervical Ectropion
Cervical ectropion is a condition that occurs when the columnar epithelium of the cervical canal extends onto the ectocervix, where the stratified squamous epithelium is located. This happens due to elevated levels of estrogen, which can occur during the ovulatory phase, pregnancy, or with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The term cervical erosion is no longer commonly used to describe this condition.
Cervical ectropion can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge and post-coital bleeding. However, ablative treatments such as cold coagulation are only recommended for those experiencing troublesome symptoms. It is important to understand this condition and its symptoms in order to seek appropriate medical attention if necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A 19-year-old female patient visits her doctor urgently seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 80 hours ago. She is currently on day 20 of her menstrual cycle. The doctor discovers that the patient was previously prescribed ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) for a similar situation just 10 days ago. What would be an appropriate emergency contraception method for this patient?
Your Answer: ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) pill
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
An 18 year old girl comes to the clinic with a complaint of never having started her menstrual cycle. Upon further inquiry, she reports having developed secondary sexual characteristics like breast tissue growth and pubic hair. Additionally, she experiences pelvic pain and bloating. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Imperforate hymen
Explanation:When a teenage girl experiences regular painful cycles but has not yet started menstruating, an imperforate hymen is a likely cause. This condition blocks the flow of menstrual blood, leading to primary amenorrhoea while allowing for normal development of secondary sexual characteristics like pubic hair and breast growth. The accumulation of menstrual blood in the vagina can cause discomfort and bloating due to pressure. Other potential causes of amenorrhoea include chemotherapy during childhood, Turner’s syndrome, and polycystic ovary syndrome, which can all interfere with the production of estrogen and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
Which of these patients have an absolute contraindication for the COCP?
Your Answer: 25-year-old breastfeeding at 4 weeks postpartum
Explanation:1: If you are over 35 years old and smoke at least 15 cigarettes a day, smoking is not recommended.
2: A BMI over 35 kg/m² should be evaluated by a medical professional, but it is not considered an absolute contraindication.
3: A history of ectopic pregnancies does not affect the use of COCP.
4: It is not recommended to use COCP within 6 weeks after giving birth.
5: There is no evidence linking the use of COCP to carpal tunnel syndrome.The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 27-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a positive urine pregnancy test result. She underwent a medical termination of pregnancy using mifepristone and misoprostol three weeks ago when she was eight weeks pregnant. She reports no ongoing pregnancy symptoms and only slight vaginal bleeding since the procedure. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer: Reassure and repeat urine pregnancy test at 4 weeks post termination
Explanation:It is common for HCG levels to remain positive for several weeks after a termination of pregnancy. HCG levels are typically measured every two days, and a positive result beyond four weeks may indicate a continuing pregnancy. However, in most cases, HCG levels will return to normal within four weeks.
In this scenario, the appropriate course of action is to repeat the urine pregnancy test in one week, as the patient is currently only three weeks post-termination. There is no need for further referrals or imaging at this time, as a positive test result is unlikely to indicate a continuing pregnancy, and the patient does not exhibit any urgent symptoms such as infection or hemorrhage.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 50-year-old female visits her primary care physician with complaints of decreased libido and vasomotor symptoms that have persisted for three weeks. She has been experiencing vaginal dryness for the past year and has been using topical estrogen to manage it. After consulting with her doctor, they decide to discontinue the topical estrogen and start her on an oral form of estrogen-progesterone hormone replacement therapy (HRT). As a result of the addition of progesterone, what health risks is the patient more likely to face?
Your Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:The addition of a progesterone to HRT raises the likelihood of developing breast cancer, making this the accurate response.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 14-year-old girl has had apparently normal appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, except that she has not menstruated. A pelvic examination reveals a mobile mass in her left labium major and a shallow, blind-ending vagina without a cervix, but otherwise normal female external genitalia. Ultrasound reveals no cervix, uterus or ovaries. Karyotype analysis reveals 46,XY.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)
Explanation:Disorders of Sexual Development: An Overview
Disorders of sexual development (DSD) are a group of conditions that affect the development of the reproductive system. Here are some of the most common DSDs:
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS)
AIS is a condition where cells cannot respond to androgens, resulting in disrupted sexual development. Patients with complete AIS have a female phenotype with male internal genitalia, while those with partial or mild AIS may have a mix of male and female characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a condition where patients are missing all or part of an X chromosome, resulting in premature ovarian failure and delayed puberty. Patients are phenotypically female with normal external genitalia.Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where patients have an extra copy of an X chromosome, resulting in hypogonadism and infertility. Patients are phenotypically male with normal external genitalia.Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later present with symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome or hyperpigmentation.5-α Reductase Deficiency
5-α reductase deficiency is a condition where patients have a mutation in the SDR5A2 gene, resulting in disrupted formation of external genitalia before birth. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later show virilisation during puberty. Patients are infertile.Treatment for DSDs involves hormone replacement therapy and supportive care. It is important to provide psychosocial support for patients and their families.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 26-year-old nulliparous woman presents to her General Practice for a routine cervical smear. Her previous smear was negative, and she is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She had one episode of gonorrhoeae treated two years ago. During the examination, the practice nurse observes a soft, pea-sized, fluctuant lump on the posterior vestibule near the vaginal opening. There is some minor labial swelling, but it is non-tender. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bartholin cyst
Explanation:Common Causes of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women
The vaginal area in women can be affected by various lumps, which can cause discomfort and concern. Here are some of the most common causes of lumps in the vaginal area in women:
Bartholin Cyst: This type of cyst occurs when the ducts connecting the Bartholin glands, which are located near the introitus at the 4 and 8 o’clock positions, become obstructed. Bartholin cysts are usually soft, small, and asymptomatic, but they can cause discomfort and require removal in women over 40 to rule out vaginal carcinoma.
Lipoma: A lipoma is a benign adipose tissue that can be found on the labia majora. It is a larger and rarer lump than a Bartholin cyst.
Bartholin Abscess: This condition arises from an infected Bartholin cyst and causes significant labial swelling, erythema, tenderness, and pain on micturition and superficial dyspareunia. Treatment includes antibiotics and warm baths, but surgical management may be necessary.
Haematoma: A haematoma is a collection of blood cells outside the vessels, which presents as a firm, red-purple lump. It usually occurs after trauma or surgery.
Infected Epidermal Cyst: Epidermal cysts are benign tumors that can occur in the perineal area. When infected, they cause erythema, pain, and extravasation of keratin material.
Understanding the Different Types of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman was recently requested by her GP practice to come in for a repeat smear test. Her previous test results 18 months ago indicated that the sample was positive for high risk HPV (hrHPV), but cytologically normal. The patient is feeling quite nervous about being called back and has asked the practice nurse what the next steps will be. If the results come back as hrHPV negative, what course of action will the patient be recommended to take?
Your Answer: Return to normal recall
Explanation:For cervical cancer screening, if the first repeat smear test after 12 months shows a negative result for high risk HPV (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall. However, if the initial smear test shows a positive result for hrHPV but is cytologically normal, the patient will be called back for a repeat test after 12 months. If the second test also shows a negative result for hrHPV, the patient can return to normal recall. On the other hand, if the second test is still positive for hrHPV but cytologically normal, it will be repeated again after 12 months.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old patient has a history of irregular menstrual cycles over the past few years. She is well known to you and has seen you regularly with regard to her weight problem, oily skin and acne. She presents to you on this occasion with a 6-month history of amenorrhoea and weight gain.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation in the above scenario?Your Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH) : follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels
Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test
Explanation:The Most Appropriate Initial Investigation for Amenorrhoea: Urine Pregnancy Test
When a patient presents with amenorrhoea, the most appropriate initial investigation is always a pregnancy test. If pregnancy is excluded, further investigations may be necessary to determine the underlying cause. For example, a diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) may be supported by high levels of free testosterone with low levels of sex-hormone binding globulin, which can be tested after excluding pregnancy. A pelvic ultrasound is also a useful investigation for PCOS and should be done following β-HCG estimation. While a raised LH: FSH ratio may be suggestive of PCOS, it is not diagnostic and not the initial investigation of choice here. Similarly, an oral glucose tolerance test might be useful in patients diagnosed with PCOS, but it would not be an appropriate initial investigation. Therefore, a urine pregnancy test is the most important first step in investigating amenorrhoea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)