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  • Question 1 - An 83-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following a...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following a visit from his General Practitioner. The GP noted that he was experiencing severe shortness of breath and coughing up rust-coloured sputum. He is a smoker, consuming ten cigarettes per day. Upon examination, he displays crackles and bronchial breathing on the right side, indicative of pneumonia. At the hospital, his respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and he requires 3 litres of oxygen via nasal cannulae to achieve oxygen saturations of 96%. A chest X-ray confirms right basal consolidation, and he is started on antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). He responds well to treatment and is ready for discharge after five days. What feature of CAP necessitates a repeat chest X-ray at six weeks?

      Your Answer: Need for hospital admission

      Correct Answer: Age > 50 years

      Explanation:

      When to Arrange a Chest X-Ray for Patients with Pneumonia: BTS Guidelines

      The British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines recommend arranging a chest X-ray after about six weeks for patients with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) who have persistent symptoms or physical signs or who are at higher risk of underlying malignancy, especially smokers and those aged over 50 years. This recommendation applies to all patients treated for pneumonia, whether or not they are admitted to hospital. The need for repeat imaging should not be based on the CURB-65 score, which is used to stratify a patient’s risk associated with CAP. The need for oxygen therapy during admission or a previous history of pneumonia does not indicate a need for repeat imaging, although persistent symptoms or signs following initial treatment should prompt repeat imaging.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      57.8
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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the outpatient clinic with her parents, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the outpatient clinic with her parents, complaining of small volume haemoptysis and mild breathlessness. Her mother reports that she has had repeated chest infections since childhood and is the smallest of her siblings. The patient's siblings are all healthy, and they have a pet cat at home. On examination, the patient appears well and is not dyspnoeic, but coarse crackles are heard throughout both lung fields, and she has nasal polyps. The following investigations were conducted:

      - Haemoglobin: 113 g/L (130 - 180)
      - WCC: 12.9 ×109/L (4 - 11)
      - Platelets: 438 ×109/L (150 - 400)
      - CRP: 41 mg/L (<10)
      - Serum Sodium: 138 mmol/L (137 - 144)
      - Serum Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 4.9)
      - Urea: 5.3 mmol/L (2.5 - 7.5)
      - Creatinine: 69 ÎŒmol/L (60 - 110)
      - Bilirubin: 37 ÎŒmol/L (1 - 22)
      - AST: 49 U/L (1 - 31)
      - ALP: 228 U/L (45 - 105)

      Spirometry results are as follows:

      - FEV1: 1.8L/min (62% predicted)
      - FVC: 3.1 L (83% predicted)
      - Kco: 72% predicted

      CXR shows patchy haziness throughout both lung fields, with tramlines noted at the bases. ECG shows sinus rhythm with no abnormalities.

      What is the most appropriate test to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sweat test

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Cystic Fibrosis, Kartagener’s Syndrome, and Goodpasture’s Syndrome

      Cystic fibrosis can be identified through various symptoms such as repeated chest infections, small stature, nasal polyps, and deranged liver function tests. A sweat test can confirm the diagnosis, with a sweat concentration of over 60 mmol/L being diagnostic. On the other hand, Kartagener’s syndrome is characterized by abnormal cilia and is associated with bronchiectasis, situs inversus, and infertility. However, the absence of a right-sided apex beat and dextrocardia on the ECG can rule out situs inversus.

      Goodpasture’s syndrome, on the other hand, is usually diagnosed in adults over 16 years old and can be identified through immunological testing that shows positive anti-GBM antibodies. It is important to note that these three conditions have distinct diagnostic criteria and require different tests for confirmation. By the unique characteristics of each syndrome, healthcare professionals can provide accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment plans for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      34.5
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department in a confused and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department in a confused and agitated state after experiencing a seizure. She had woken up an hour earlier to find her husband dead in bed next to her, and an ultrasound confirmed that her 26-week-old fetus had also passed away. The patient reports that both she and her husband had been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past week, and had recently moved into an old house they were renovating. The day before, they had painted their bedroom and eaten reheated Chinese food for dinner. The patient has a history of well-controlled asthma and had quit smoking when she became pregnant, but had recently been experiencing headaches. On examination, she is tachypneic with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, pulse of 120 beats per minute, and oxygen saturations of 98% on air. There is no visible rash or purpura on her body, and her heart and abdominal exams are normal. What is the most likely cause of this tragic event?

      Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning

      Explanation:

      Carbon Monoxide Poisoning and Other Possible Causes of Acute Illness

      Carbon monoxide poisoning is still a significant cause of death, with 75 fatalities per year. The symptoms of this type of poisoning are often non-specific, including headache, malaise, myalgia, and weakness. It is also worth noting that fumes from cleaning fluids and paint removers containing methylene chloride can also cause carbon monoxide poisoning. When inhaled, methylene chloride is converted into CO gas, which can be deadly.

      In a specific case, a woman survived carbon monoxide poisoning because her unborn child’s fetal haemoglobin preferentially bound to the poisonous gas. However, lead poisoning does not present as acutely, and there is no indication of methaemoglobinaemia in the patient’s history. While it is possible that the patient’s symptoms could be due to septicaemia caused by Bacillus cereus or meningococcus, the clinical findings do not support this hypothesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      77.8
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  • Question 4 - A drowsy 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency department accompanied by a friend....

    Correct

    • A drowsy 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency department accompanied by a friend. The patient lives alone in a one bedroom apartment and has been experiencing difficulty concentrating in lectures. She is a smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day, and has no significant medical history or current medication use. Upon examination, the patient appears flushed with a bounding pulse of 120 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg. She had also vomited. Initial investigations reveal normal oxygen saturations, but abnormal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, serum sodium, serum potassium, and serum urea. The drug screen is negative and the chest x-ray is normal. Arterial blood gases on air show low pO2 and normal pH and pCO2 levels. What diagnostic test would confirm the patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carboxy haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide poisoning is a serious condition that can have severe consequences if left untreated. This type of poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds with haemoglobin in the blood, displacing oxygen and causing tissue hypoxia. The symptoms of mild poisoning include headaches, tiredness, nausea, dizziness, and poor concentration. As the levels of carboxy haemoglobin increase, vomiting, weakness, impaired consciousness, hypertension, tachycardia, and flushing may occur. In severe cases, convulsions, coma, respiratory depression, and even death can occur.

      The treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning involves administering 100% oxygen through a tight-fitting, non-rebreathing face mask at a flow rate of 10 L/min. In severe cases, intubation and mechanical ventilation may be necessary. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy may also be used in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      55.5
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease, left ventricular hypertrophy,...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease, left ventricular hypertrophy, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes presents to the Acute Medical Assessment Unit with progressive shortness of breath. He has been a heavy smoker for the past 50 years. His blood tests show a slightly elevated white blood cell count and C-reactive protein level, but are otherwise unremarkable. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral pleural effusions, cardiomyopathy, and pleural plaques. The patient responds well to intravenous diuresis, but a significant residual pleural effusion remains on the right side. What further investigation should be performed for this patient?

      Your Answer: Diagnostic aspiration

      Explanation:

      If a pleural effusion is suspected to be a transudate based on the clinical presentation, the initial approach should be to treat the underlying cause. However, if the effusion persists despite treatment, a diagnostic aspiration should be performed to investigate the possibility of a malignant or exudate effusion. The aspiration can be either a small or large volume depending on the patient’s condition. It is important to have all the necessary sampling equipment ready as multiple samples may be required. If the diagnosis confirms a malignant or exudate effusion, a chest drain may be necessary.

      Bronchoscopy is not appropriate for investigating pleural effusions. It is used for other indications such as suspected tumours, biopsies, foreign bodies, infections, or inflammation.

      Inserting a chest drain without performing a diagnostic aspiration is not the recommended approach for investigating a possible malignant or exudate effusion.

      Continuing diuresis and reviewing the patient is not appropriate if there is a failure to resolve unilaterally and suspicion of asbestos exposure. A diagnostic aspiration should be performed to investigate further.

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends performing a posterioranterior (PA) chest x-ray and an ultrasound to increase the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and detect pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is also increasingly used to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions. Pleural aspiration should be performed using a 21G needle and 50ml syringe, and the fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can be used to distinguish between a transudate and an exudate, and other characteristic pleural fluid findings can help identify the underlying cause.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should also be placed.

      For patients with recurrent pleural effusions, options for management include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as dyspnea. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines for investigation and management of pleural effusion to ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      22.2
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  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old woman with a history of tuberous sclerosis presents to the respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with a history of tuberous sclerosis presents to the respiratory clinic with worsening dyspnea. Her primary care physician ordered a chest x-ray which revealed significant alterations. What is the complication that has arisen?

      Your Answer: Lung angiofibromas

      Correct Answer: Lymphangioleiomyomatosis

      Explanation:

      The CT scan reveals numerous small, uniform cysts spread throughout the lungs, which is a characteristic indication of lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM). This condition can occur independently or in conjunction with tuberous sclerosis.

      Tuberous sclerosis (TS) is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is similar to neurofibromatosis in that most of the features seen in TS are neurocutaneous. The condition is characterized by various cutaneous features such as depigmented ‘ash-leaf’ spots that fluoresce under UV light, roughened patches of skin over the lumbar spine (Shagreen patches), adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas) that are distributed like a butterfly over the nose, fibromata beneath nails (subungual fibromata), and cafĂ©-au-lait spots. Neurological features include developmental delay, epilepsy (infantile spasms or partial), and intellectual impairment. Other features of TS include retinal hamartomas, rhabdomyomas of the heart, gliomatous changes that can occur in the brain lesions, polycystic kidneys, renal angiomyolipomata, and lymphangioleiomyomatosis, which is characterized by multiple lung cysts.

      It is important to note that while café-au-lait spots are more commonly associated with neurofibromatosis, a study conducted in 1998 found that 28% of patients with TS also had café-au-lait spots. When comparing neurofibromatosis and TS, it is important to note that while they are both autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorders, there is little overlap between the two conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      12.3
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man is receiving treatment for an empyema in a medical ward....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving treatment for an empyema in a medical ward. Following the insertion of a chest drain under ultrasound guidance and the initiation of antibiotics, there has been a marked improvement in his clinical condition.

      During the daily morning ward round, the medical team reviews the chest drain and notes that it is on suction. However, there has been minimal drainage output over the past 24 hours, and bubbling is observed when the patient coughs.

      What is the significance of this bubbling?

      Your Answer: Bronchopleural fistula

      Explanation:

      When a chest drain inserted to drain an empyema bubbles, it is a sign of an air leak. This suggests that a bronchopleural fistula has developed, given the patient’s medical history. Therefore, this is the correct answer.

      The answer that suggests the chest drain is blocked is incorrect, as bubbling indicates that the drain is not blocked.

      If the chest drain is displaced outside of the chest and on suction, it can also cause bubbling. To differentiate between a bronchopleural fistula and a displaced chest drain, a simple test is to ask the patient to cough. If the bubbling increases with coughing, it suggests a bronchopleural fistula. If the bubbling is constant and unrelated to coughing, it suggests a displaced chest drain.

      Bubbling from a chest drain is not normal and indicates an issue. Swinging of the drain is normal with changes in intrathoracic pressure, but bubbling suggests air is entering the drain. The most common cause is a displaced drain, but in this case, a bronchopleural fistula is the likely diagnosis due to the changes on coughing.

      The bubbling of the chest drain does not necessarily indicate an unresolved empyema, as this would not cause bubbling. The drain is functioning correctly, as indicated by the bubbling increasing with coughing, and the low drain output. Further imaging may be necessary to determine if the drain is located correctly within the empyema.

      Chest Drain Insertion and Management

      A chest drain is a tube that is inserted into the pleural cavity to allow the movement of air or liquid out of the cavity. It is indicated in cases of pleural effusion, pneumothorax, empyema, haemothorax, haemopneumothorax, chylothorax, and some cases of penetrating chest wall injury in ventilated patients. However, insertion of a chest drain is relatively contraindicated in patients with INR > 1.3, platelet count < 75, pulmonary bullae, or pleural adhesions. To insert a chest drain, the patient should be positioned in a supine position or at a 45Âș angle, and the area should be anaesthetised using local anaesthetic injection. The drainage tube should then be inserted using a Seldinger technique and secured with either a straight stitch or an adhesive dressing. Positioning can be confirmed by aspiration of fluid from the drainage tubing or on chest x-ray. Complications that may occur during chest drain insertion include failure of insertion, bleeding, infection, penetration of the lung, and re-expansion pulmonary oedema. Patients should be advised of these complications during the consent process. In the event of concerns regarding re-expansion pulmonary oedema, the chest drain should be clamped, and an urgent chest x-ray should be obtained. The removal of the chest drain is dependent upon the indication for insertion. In cases of fluid drainage from the pleural cavity, the drain should be removed when there has been no output for > 24 hours and imaging shows resolution of the fluid collection. In cases of pneumothorax, the drain should be removed when it is no longer bubbling spontaneously or when the patient coughs and ideally when imaging shows resolution of the pneumothorax. Drains inserted in cases of penetrating chest injury should be reviewed by the specialist to confirm an appropriate time for removal.

      Overall, chest drain insertion and management should be approached on an individual case basis, with consideration of the patient’s specific circumstances and potential contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      25
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old construction worker is admitted with a fracture of his left femur,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old construction worker is admitted with a fracture of his left femur, which he sustained on the job. He is put on traction in the ward and he is scheduled for theatre two days later. On the eve of the procedure he is seen by the house officer because of an episode of chest pain. Clinical examination is unremarkable except for a rash on his chest. His MRI and X-ray are reported as normal, and the patient is prescribed some pain medication.

      The following morning the patient is taken to theatre as planned. While in the anaesthetic room he is noted to have a respiratory rate of 20/min and oxygen saturations of 90% on room air. His heart rate is 110 beats/min regular and his blood pressure is 95/70 mmHg. His heart sounds are normal and there are crackles on auscultation of his chest bilaterally. His jugular venous pressure is raised to 6 cm. There is no peripheral edema.

      His ECG shows right axis deviation with prominent R waves on leads V1–V2.

      What would be the appropriate next step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: IV thrombolysis

      Correct Answer: IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Management of Non-Cardiac Pulmonary Edema in Fat Embolism Syndrome

      Fat embolism syndrome can cause non-cardiac pulmonary edema, which presents with respiratory symptoms similar to ARDS, neurological features, and a petechial rash. Treatment is supportive, with a focus on maintaining circulatory pressure through IV fluids and removing the underlying cause if possible. IV furosemide and IV GTN infusion are not recommended due to their potential to lower blood pressure. Subcutaneous low-molecular weight heparin is not beneficial in managing fat embolism. IV thrombolysis is not useful in this situation as the symptoms are related to ARDS, not an embolus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      115.9
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with acute shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with acute shortness of breath. She is unable to provide a clinical history due to her breathing difficulties. Her current medications include Cetirizine 10mg orally once daily and Clobetasone butyrate (Eumovate) topically.

      Upon examination, bilateral widespread polyphonic wheezes are heard. Her pulse rate is 102 beats per minute, blood pressure is 128/75 mmHg, and respiration rate is 33. Oxygen saturations are 96% on 4L/min via face mask. A dry flaking rash is observed in her elbow flexures with signs of excoriation.

      Blood tests reveal a Hb of 11.2 g/dl, platelets of 204*10^9/l, WBC of 10.3 *10^9/l, eosinophil of 0.56 *10^9/l, CRP of 65, Na+ of 135 mmol/l, K+ of 4.4 mmol/l, urea of 7.6 mmol/l, and creatinine of 101 ”mol/l. Chest x-ray is clear, and peak expiratory flow is 200 L/min (expected 402).

      The patient is treated with nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, oral prednisolone 40mg, and oxygen 4L/min. Upon re-examination 30 minutes later on the Admissions Unit, symmetrical quiet breath sounds and quiet bilateral wheezes are heard. Her pulse rate is 80 beats per minute, blood pressure is 103/68 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 18 with oxygen saturations of 94% on 6L/min via face mask. Peak expiratory flow is 120 L/min.

      A repeat arterial blood gas on 6L/min oxygen via face mask reveals a pH of 7.33, pCO2 of 6.2kPa, pO2 of 13 kPa, HCO3 of 20 mmol/l, and lactate of 2.2 mmol/l. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Referral to intensive care

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition was worsening, as evidenced by a decrease in respiratory rate indicating exhaustion, worsening hypoxia, hypercapnic acidotic ABG, and deteriorating PEF. IV Magnesium may be considered, but given the deteriorating picture, immediate referral to the ITU is necessary. Reducing oxygen levels is not the appropriate course of action as CO2 retention is likely due to exhaustion rather than oxygen therapy. IV Salbutamol is not recommended in current guidelines. The correct answer is to refer the patient to intensive care as they have near-fatal asthma with worsening symptoms despite nebulisers and steroids.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      102.8
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old female patient presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for her asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female patient presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for her asthma review.

      Regrettably, she has been admitted to hospital three times in the past year with asthma exacerbations, requiring 2-3 days in hospital but never requiring intubation or intensive care admission. This is on a background of multiple admissions to hospitals in previous years.

      During the review, she reports wheeze associated with dyspnoea on most days, usually triggered by exertion. There is a non-productive cough most mornings which settles throughout the course of the day. She has no history of allergic rhinitis, eczema or other medical problems. She is a lifelong non-smoker.

      Her current asthma therapy is high dose inhaled fluticasone propionate plus salmeterol 2 puffs twice daily, prednisolone 10mg once daily and inhaled salbutamol as required. She has been taking regular prednisolone 10mg for the last eighteen months.

      On examination, observations revealed a respiratory rate of 14/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, heart rate 80/min regular, blood pressure 130/70 mmHg and a temperature of 36.8ÂșC. There is no clubbing, cervical lymphadenopathy or elevation of the jugular venous pressure. Auscultation of the chest revealed dual heart sounds with no murmurs and some mild expiratory wheeze in the upper zones. The calves were soft and non-tender, with no pedal oedema.

      You had reviewed this patient during her most recent exacerbation and had arranged some outpatient tests, the results of which are shown below:

      Hb 140 g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l
      Platelets 350 * 109/l K+ 3.4 mmol/l
      WBC 8 * 109/l Urea 5 mmol/l
      Neuts 4.5 * 109/l Creatinine 70 ”mol/l
      Lymphs 1.0 * 109/l CRP 7 mg/l
      Eosin 2.5 * 109/l


      Fraction of exhaled nitric oxide 65 parts per billion (upper limit of normal 50 ppb)

      What would be the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start a course of voriconazole

      Correct Answer: Add in mepolizumab

      Explanation:

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regimen, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old man presents to the oncology clinic with a two-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the oncology clinic with a two-week history of shortness of breath. He was diagnosed with mesothelioma two years ago. He has been experiencing difficulty walking long distances without becoming short of breath and had trouble making it from the car park, 200 yards away, to the clinic. He denies having a cough or fever but has been feeling more fatigued lately. His saturations are 95% while breathing room air, and his blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are all within normal limits.

      Upon performing a chest X-ray, a right-sided pleural effusion is discovered, and he is admitted to the hospital. A chest drain is inserted, and three liters of blood-stained fluid are drained in two hours. He begins to cough and becomes increasingly short of breath. He denies any chest pain. On examination, he is uncomfortable and breathing 4L of oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. Bilateral crepitations are present in his chest.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Re-expansion pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely experiencing re-expansion pulmonary edema, a serious condition that can occur when a large amount of fluid or air is rapidly drained. Symptoms such as sudden shortness of breath, coughing, and low oxygen levels are indicative of this condition following chest drain insertion. Empyema is unlikely due to the absence of fever and lack of evidence on the initial chest X-ray. Iatrogenic infection is also less likely due to the lack of fever and early timing. While pneumothorax is a possibility, the presence of crepitations during examination suggests otherwise.

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends performing a posterioranterior (PA) chest x-ray and an ultrasound to increase the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and detect pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is also increasingly used to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions. Pleural aspiration should be performed using a 21G needle and 50ml syringe, and the fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can be used to distinguish between a transudate and an exudate, and other characteristic pleural fluid findings can help identify the underlying cause.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should also be placed.

      For patients with recurrent pleural effusions, options for management include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as dyspnea. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines for investigation and management of pleural effusion to ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      33.8
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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man with a history of interstitial lung disease presents with worsening...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of interstitial lung disease presents with worsening shortness of breath, fevers, and night sweats. He immigrated from Pakistan and previously worked in quarry sites extracting silica from sand. He stopped working due to shortness of breath and moved to the UK five years ago. He is currently unable to walk more than 10 meters without becoming breathless. On examination, he has crepitations in both lungs and is saturating at 92% on 2 liters of nasal cannulae. His lab results show an elevated D-dimer and positive interferon-gamma release assay. Imaging reveals cavitating disease with a reticulonodular pattern predominantly in the upper lobe, as well as ground glass changes and a honeycomb lung appearance. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Silicosis can increase the likelihood of contracting tuberculosis. A man who has had previous exposure to silica is suspected to have silicosis due to his recent travel on long train journeys and symptoms such as weight loss and night sweats. He has also been to a region where tuberculosis is prevalent, and his IGRA test indicates exposure. His CXR/CT scan shows cavitating disease. While he could have a lower respiratory tract infection or influenza, these conditions typically present more acutely. Cor pulmonale, which is the development of right-sided heart failure due to chronic respiratory distress, usually develops gradually. Patients with silicosis are at a higher risk of contracting tuberculosis, which can be more severe and extensive than in other individuals. This condition is known as silicotuberculosis.

      Understanding Silicosis: A Lung Disease Caused by Inhaling Silica Particles

      Silicosis is a type of lung disease that occurs when a person inhales fine particles of crystalline silicon dioxide, commonly known as silica. This condition is often seen in individuals who work in industries such as mining, slate works, foundries, and potteries, where they are exposed to high levels of silica dust. Silica is toxic to macrophages, which makes individuals with silicosis more susceptible to developing tuberculosis.

      The disease is characterized by fibrosis in the upper zone of the lungs and the formation of an egg-shell calcification in the hilar lymph nodes. Chest x-rays and CT scans can help diagnose silicosis, with the former showing bilateral diffuse upper lobe reticular shadowing and scattered mass-like opacities, while the latter shows upper zone predominant mass-like scarring with calcification and volume loss. Hilar and mediastinal lymph node calcification may also be present, but cavitary changes are not typically seen.

      In summary, silicosis is a serious lung disease that can be caused by inhaling silica particles. It is important for individuals who work in high-risk industries to take precautions to prevent exposure to silica dust and to undergo regular medical check-ups to detect the disease early.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      42
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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old office worker presents with a productive cough of yellow sputum, mild...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old office worker presents with a productive cough of yellow sputum, mild wheeze, and mild dyspnoea that has been ongoing for a week. He has a smoking history of 1.5 packs per year but has been otherwise healthy. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 120/90 mmHg, heart rate is 80 beats/minute, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. There is a mild wheeze on auscultation, but his chest is otherwise clear.

      Lab results show a hemoglobin level of 140 g/l, platelet count of 350 * 109/l, and a white blood cell count of 13 * 109/l. A chest x-ray reveals no abnormalities.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Adequate hydration

      Explanation:

      In the case of an otherwise healthy man experiencing acute bronchitis, antibiotics are not necessary as the condition typically resolves on its own within three weeks. Instead, it is recommended to focus on managing symptoms through proper hydration and pain relief. Cough medicines should be avoided as they can interfere with the body’s natural ability to clear the airways.

      For individuals with a chronic chest condition, antibiotics may be prescribed, but it is important to consider a delayed prescription strategy.

      Regardless of the situation, it is crucial to provide advice on smoking cessation.

      In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old man visited his GP complaining of a persistent cough. He has...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man visited his GP complaining of a persistent cough. He has been smoking 10 cigarettes a day since he was 16 years old. The GP ordered a chest x-ray which showed calcification on both hemidiaphragms and clear lung fields, leading to a referral to the outpatients' department. The patient had worked in a shipyard for eight years fifty years ago. He had no significant medical history, except for occasional heartburn and nocturia. He lived alone and raised pigeons. On examination, his pulse was 74 beats per minute, blood pressure was 155/75 mmHg, and there were no respiratory abnormalities detected. Which statement below is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is likely that the x ray abnormality is related to his previous occupation

      Explanation:

      Pleural Plaques and Asbestos Exposure

      This patient’s chest X-ray reveals calcification on both hemidiaphragms, which are most likely pleural plaques resulting from previous exposure to asbestos. The patient had worked in shipyards where he would have been exposed to asbestos. Pleural plaques are benign and serve as a marker of previous asbestos exposure, making them common in individuals who have been exposed to asbestos in the past. They rarely cause symptoms and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s cough. Furthermore, they do not require long-term follow-up.

      It is unlikely for the patient to develop asbestosis 50 years after his last exposure to asbestos. Most patients develop the disease within 20 years of exposure. Similarly, the average latent period from exposure to diagnosis of mesothelioma is 20 years. This explains why the incidence of mesothelioma continues to rise and is expected to peak in 2020 at around 1300 cases per year in the United Kingdom.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old woman is referred to the Medical Clinic by her GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is referred to the Medical Clinic by her GP due to experiencing shortness of breath. She has been seeing her GP for the past few months regarding increasing shortness of breath during exercise. Despite some investigations, her GP has been unable to determine the cause of her symptoms. She has also been experiencing a dry cough on and off for the past 4 months. During examination, her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, pulse is regular at 70 bpm, and her jugular venous pulse is not raised. Although her breathing is noisy, her chest is clear on auscultation. Which investigation would be most useful in identifying the location of any obstruction?

      Your Answer: Bronchoscopy

      Correct Answer: Flow volume loop

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Upper Airway Obstruction in Adults

      Upper airway obstruction in adults can be caused by various factors such as tumors, multinodular goiters, or aneurysms. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests are available. One of the most useful tests is the flow volume loop, which can show characteristic patterns of intrathoracic or extrathoracic obstruction. Arterial blood gases are not necessary in this context. A chest X-ray may not be helpful in determining the location of the obstruction, but it may reveal a significant multinodular goiter. Bronchoscopy is important in managing central airway obstruction, but its role in diagnosing upper airway obstruction is limited. Polysomnography is not useful in determining the location of the obstruction and is mainly used in diagnosing sleep disorders.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 63-year-old man presents with pleuritic chest pain on the right side. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with pleuritic chest pain on the right side. He reports a chronic cough that he attributes to his smoking habit but denies experiencing shortness of breath. His medical history includes bronchitis, and he uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. He smokes five cigarettes per day and does not consume alcohol. A chest x-ray reveals a right-sided pneumothorax measuring approximately 0.5cm at the hilum level and right basal atelectasis on a background of chronic lung changes. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Monitor as inpatient but do not administer oxygen

      Correct Answer: Monitor as inpatient and administer oxygen

      Explanation:

      For a secondary pneumothorax with less than 1 cm of air and no shortness of breath, the recommended management is to admit the patient and provide oxygen for 24 hours while monitoring their condition. This approach differs from the management of primary pneumothorax, which is characterized by the absence of underlying lung disease. In cases of primary pneumothorax with less than 2 cm of air and no symptoms, discharge home may be considered. However, all patients with secondary pneumothorax should be admitted for monitoring, even if no intervention is required. Chest drain insertion is necessary for secondary pneumothorax if there is more than 2 cm of air, pleural aspiration has failed to re-inflate the lung, or the patient is experiencing shortness of breath. In primary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is required if there is still more than 2cm of air or the patient is short of breath after pleural aspiration. The second option for primary pneumothorax patients with less than 2 cm of air and no symptoms is to monitor them as inpatients without administering oxygen.

      Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of fever, headache,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of fever, headache, epistaxis, diarrhea, and cough for the past 8 days. He has no medical history but drinks 32 units of alcohol per week, keeps parrots, and enjoys open water swimming in rivers. On examination, he has splenomegaly and crackles in both lungs. Blood tests show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated CRP. Chest radiography reveals bilateral patchy airspace opacification. Which pathogen is the most likely cause of his illness?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia psittaci

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia psittaci is the correct answer as it can cause atypical pneumonia, also known as Psittacosis. The transmission occurs through inhalation of aerosolized faecal and urinary products found on bird feathers. Patients may experience a prodrome of high fevers, diarrhoea, and epistaxis, along with splenomegaly and a low white blood cell count. This organism should be suspected in cases of respiratory infection with the aforementioned symptoms, especially if the patient has been exposed to birds, including parrots.

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is an incorrect answer as it typically causes cavitating pneumonia and is not associated with epistaxis, although it is common in individuals who consume excessive amounts of alcohol.

      Legionella pneumophilia is also an incorrect answer as it can cause atypical pneumonia and diarrhoea, but the white blood cell count is usually elevated, and epistaxis and splenomegaly are less common. Patients are typically exposed to poorly ventilated air conditioning systems.

      Leptospira alexanderi is another incorrect answer as it causes Leptospirosis, which is characterized by jaundice, subconjunctival haemorrhages, and deranged liver function. Although freshwater swimming may expose the patient to this organism, it does not cause atypical pneumonia.

      Pneumonia is a common condition that affects the alveoli of the lungs, usually caused by a bacterial infection. Other causes include viral and fungal infections. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common organism responsible for pneumonia, accounting for 80% of cases. Haemophilus influenzae is common in patients with COPD, while Staphylococcus aureus often occurs in patients following influenza infection. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Legionella pneumophilia are atypical pneumonias that present with dry cough and other atypical symptoms. Pneumocystis jiroveci is typically seen in patients with HIV. Idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is a group of non-infective causes of pneumonia.

      Patients who develop pneumonia outside of the hospital have community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), while those who develop it within hospitals are said to have hospital-acquired pneumonia. Symptoms of pneumonia include cough, sputum, dyspnoea, chest pain, and fever. Signs of systemic inflammatory response, tachycardia, reduced oxygen saturations, and reduced breath sounds may also be present. Chest x-ray is used to diagnose pneumonia, with consolidation being the classical finding. Blood tests, such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP, are also used to check for infection.

      Patients with pneumonia require antibiotics to treat the underlying infection and supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids. Risk stratification is done using a scoring system called CURB-65, which stands for confusion, respiration rate, blood pressure, age, and is used to determine the management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia. Home-based care is recommended for patients with a CRB65 score of 0, while hospital assessment is recommended for all other patients, particularly those with a CRB65 score of 2 or more. The CURB-65 score also correlates with an increased risk of mortality at 30 days.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old man comes to the respiratory clinic for evaluation. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the respiratory clinic for evaluation. He has a history of recurrent coughing episodes lasting for months, which have been worse during winters. He has also noticed a decline in his exercise tolerance over the past two years and experiences shortness of breath more easily. He has no prior medical history and does not take any regular medications. He has a smoking history of 20 pack-years. Spirometry reveals an FEV1/FVC ratio of 63%, with an FEV1 of 74% of predicted. His chest X-ray is normal, and blood tests are unremarkable. During a previous exacerbation, his sputum sample showed growth with pseudomonas. What feature is inconsistent with a COPD diagnosis?

      Your Answer: FEV1

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas

      Explanation:

      A low FEV1 and a history of winter bronchitis with a decline in exercise tolerance are indicative of COPD, which is primarily caused by smoking. While Pseudomonas is more commonly associated with bronchiectasis, it may not necessarily be a pathogen and could be a contaminant.

      Investigating and Diagnosing COPD

      To diagnose COPD, NICE recommends considering patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. The following investigations are recommended: post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and BMI calculation. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with Stage 1 being mild and Stage 4 being very severe. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. It is important to note that the grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old man presents to the Emergency department after being found unconscious by...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the Emergency department after being found unconscious by his girlfriend. He has a history of anxiety and depression and is currently taking benzodiazepines and tricyclic antidepressants. According to his girlfriend, he ingested 50mg of diazepam and 500mg of amitriptyline, and left a suicide note and an empty bottle of vodka next to his body. He also has a history of well-controlled asthma with high dose inhaled corticosteroids.

      On examination, the patient is drowsy with a Glasgow coma score of 7. His vital signs are as follows: temperature of 34.8°C, pulse of 120 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg. Bronchial breath sounds are heard over the right upper zone, and a chest x-ray reveals right upper lobe consolidation.

      Arterial blood gases on 15 L of oxygen per minute via a reservoir bag mask show a pH of 7.2, PaCO2 of 9.5 kPa, PaO2 of 12.0 kPa, and HCO3 of 27.3 mmol/L.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue with high flow oxygen and fast bleep the on-call anaesthetist for an ETT

      Explanation:

      Intubation as the Only Option for a Patient with Ventilatory Failure

      Intubation is the only viable option for a patient with ventilatory failure whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is less than 8 and has an unprotected airway. The patient’s condition is a result of several factors, including reduced consciousness, respiratory suppressant drugs, and aspiration pneumonia. It is important to note that the patient is not a chronic CO2 retainer and requires high concentration oxygen until intubation is performed.

      Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended in this case since the patient is not protecting their airway. Additionally, flumazenil is contraindicated due to the tricyclic antidepressant drugs the patient has taken, which significantly reduce their seizure threshold. Therefore, intubation is the only correct option to ensure the patient’s airway is protected and to provide adequate ventilation.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic for evaluation of his chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic for evaluation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) symptoms. He has been referred by his primary care physician due to increasing shortness of breath. Despite his diagnosis, he continues to smoke ten cigarettes per day. He reports a history of childhood asthma and a positive response to oral steroids in the past. His most recent forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) is 40% of predicted, and he can only walk 50 m to the local bus stop. He currently takes a salbutamol inhaler as needed and carbocisteine. On examination, his blood pressure is 135/82 mmHg, pulse is 78 bpm and regular, and he has signs of right heart failure. What is the most appropriate intervention to decrease the risk of future exacerbations?

      Your Answer: LABA and high-dose ICS

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for COPD

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive respiratory disease that requires careful management to prevent exacerbations and improve outcomes. There are several treatment options available, each with its own benefits and risks.

      LABA and high-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is a combination that has been shown to reduce the frequency of exacerbations in patients with asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness. However, it also increases the risk of pneumonia.

      LABA and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) is the preferred intervention for patients with symptomatic COPD who do not have features of asthma or steroid responsiveness.

      Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) may improve symptoms, but it does not have a positive impact on outcomes in COPD.

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) improves mortality by reducing the progression of right heart failure and pulmonary hypertension, but it is less desirable in patients who continue to smoke due to the risk of fire.

      Theophylline may improve symptoms, but it does not improve mortality in COPD and increases the risk of atrial arrhythmias in patients who take it. Inhaled beta agonists are the preferred option.

      In conclusion, the choice of treatment for COPD depends on the patient’s individual characteristics and needs. A careful evaluation of the benefits and risks of each option is necessary to determine the most appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 25 year-old patient presents to the Acute Medical Unit with a 4-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old patient presents to the Acute Medical Unit with a 4-week history of increasing cough and breathlessness. The cough was generally non-productive but he had coughed up a small amount of blood on 3 occasions. His past medical history consisted only of asthma which was well controlled with a salbutamol inhaler. There was no family history of venous thromboembolism. His recent travel history included a trip to Sierra Leone 3 months ago. He was a non-smoker and drank 20 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination, his temperature was 37.6oC, heart rate 80 beats per minute, blood pressure 124/88 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute and oxygen saturations 92% on room air. He was able to talk in full sentences. A few bibasal crackles were evident on auscultation of the chest. His JVP was not elevated and heart sounds were normal.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Artesunate

      Correct Answer: Mebendazole

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of eosinophilic pneumonia caused by a parasite infection, also known as Loeffler’s syndrome. The most probable culprit is the roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides, which can trigger Loeffler’s syndrome during its pulmonary migration phase. While idiopathic pulmonary eosinophilia or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis could also be considered based on the clinical features and eosinophilia, the suggested treatment for both conditions (corticosteroids) is not listed as an option. The chest x-ray results and normal ECG make pulmonary embolism less likely as a diagnosis.

      Pulmonary eosinophilia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of eosinophils in the airways and lung tissue, often accompanied by a blood eosinophilia. This condition can be caused by various factors, including Churg-Strauss syndrome, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, Loeffler’s syndrome, eosinophilic pneumonia, hypereosinophilic syndrome, tropical pulmonary eosinophilia, and certain drugs such as nitrofurantoin and sulphonamides. Less commonly, it may be associated with Wegener’s granulomatosis. Loeffler’s syndrome, which is thought to be caused by parasites such as Ascaris lumbricoides, typically presents with a fever, cough, and night sweats lasting less than two weeks and is generally self-limiting. Acute eosinophilic pneumonia is highly responsive to steroids, while tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is associated with Wuchereria bancrofti infection.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman from New York, with no significant medical history, traveled to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman from New York, with no significant medical history, traveled to Nepal for a hiking trip in the Himalayas. She is a non-smoker. After reaching an altitude of 4000 m, she developed a severe headache, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. She also felt fatigued and complained of difficulty sleeping. Her respiratory rate was 20/min and her pulse was 95/min. The rest of the physical examination was unremarkable. No medical tests are available as the nearest hospital is over 150 km away. By the next morning, she was disoriented and had difficulty walking steadily, and by the following day, she was lethargic and confused.

      What would be the appropriate course of treatment for this woman?

      Your Answer: Immediate transfer down the mountain

      Explanation:

      The woman in this scenario is suffering from acute mountain sickness, which is a type of altitude illness that can lead to cerebral edema. The cause is unknown, but it is more common in people who live at low altitude. Symptoms include headache, gastrointestinal issues, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and difficulty sleeping. If the condition worsens and the patient develops ataxia and drowsiness, it may be considered end-stage AMS. Aspirin is not a suitable treatment for mountain sickness. Acetazolamide may be used for prevention and treatment, but further ascent would be dangerous for this patient. Dexamethasone and immediate antibiotics are also not appropriate treatments for AMS.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old man presents with a dry cough and worsening shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with a dry cough and worsening shortness of breath on exertion that has been ongoing for five months. After undergoing extensive investigations, he is diagnosed with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. His blood work shows a hemoglobin level of 141 g/l, platelets of 255 * 109/l, WBC of 5.2 * 109/l, and an ESR of 32 mm/h. His lung function tests reveal a forced vital capacity (FVC) of 65% of predicted. On examination, he has finger clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crepitations on chest auscultation. He has a past medical history of smoking for ten years between the ages of 20 and 30. Despite being enrolled in a pulmonary rehabilitation program, he is interested in trying a pharmacological therapy. What drug should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pirfenidone

      Explanation:

      Over the past decade, the management of IPF has undergone significant changes. Previously, small trials had indicated some benefits of using a combination of corticosteroids with azathioprine, which remained the only pharmacological therapy for many years. However, larger trials later showed that this treatment regimen does not confer any benefit and may even cause harm. As a result, the National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends against the use of immunosuppressant therapies such as azathioprine, prednisolone, and mycophenolate mofetil in IPF.

      The only pharmacological therapy that has demonstrated any benefit in IPF is pirfenidone, an immunosuppressant that has anti-inflammatory and antifibrotic effects. Although the mechanism of action of pirfenidone is not fully understood, it is believed to suppress fibroblast proliferation, thereby reducing the production of fibrosis-associated proteins and cytokines.

      For patients with IPF, the only other therapeutic option is lung transplantation, and NICE recommends that patients who wish to explore this option should be referred, provided they have no absolute contraindications. Unfortunately, the speed of disease progression and the availability of suitable organs mean that this treatment modality is only used in a very small minority of patients.

      In summary, the guidelines make it clear that pirfenidone is the appropriate choice for IPF treatment. Bosentan, on the other hand, is an endothelin receptor antagonist used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic with a three-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic with a three-month history of weight loss, drenching night sweats, and a productive cough. He reports producing approximately 1 cup of green sputum daily and has lost 4 kgs during this time. He has a 40-year history of smoking 20 cigarettes a day and last traveled abroad 2 years ago to visit family in North America.

      The GP has conducted routine blood tests, which are unremarkable, and a negative HIV test. Several sputum samples have been sent for routine microscopy, culture & sensitivities (MC&S), growing only normal respiratory flora. After a normal chest X-ray, a high-resolution CT (HRCT) scan is performed, revealing right middle lobe and left lower lobe bronchiectasis with multiple nodules in both lungs.

      What other initial investigations would you conduct to aid in reaching a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sputum for acid fast bacilli (AFB)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nontuberculous Mycobacteria

      Nontuberculous mycobacteria (NTM) are a group of mycobacterial species that are distinct from those belonging to the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex. These organisms are commonly found in the environment and are typically free-living. The most common cause of NTM is the M. avium complex (MAC) organisms.

      NTM can present in various ways, including pulmonary disease, cavitating lesions, nodular/bronchiectatic disease, and disseminated disease. These presentations can be severe and may require medical intervention. It is important to understand the nature of NTM and its potential impact on human health.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 25 - A 85-year-old male presents with his fourth admission of right lower zone community-acquired...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old male presents with his fourth admission of right lower zone community-acquired pneumonia in 6 months. A CT thorax demonstrates a 2.5cm mass in right lower lobar bronchus with no regional lymph nodes. Bronchoscopy reveals non-small cell lung Ca 3.5cm from the carina, CT staging reveals no other metastases. A final staging diagnosis of T1b N0 M0 is made, at stage 1A. The patient undergoes lung function testing as follows:

      FVC 2.1l
      FEV1 1.6l/s
      TLCO 40% of predicted

      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Right lower lobectomy

      Explanation:

      Managing Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

      Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) is a type of lung cancer that accounts for about 85% of all lung cancer cases. Unfortunately, only 20% of NSCLC patients are suitable for surgery. Before surgery, a mediastinoscopy is performed to check for mediastinal lymph node involvement as CT scans do not always show this. Curative or palliative radiotherapy is an option for those who are not suitable for surgery. However, NSCLC has a poor response to chemotherapy.

      There are several contraindications for surgery, including the patient’s general health, the stage of the cancer, FEV1 (a measure of lung function), malignant pleural effusion, tumour location, vocal cord paralysis, and SVC obstruction. If FEV1 is less than 1.5 litres for lobectomy or less than 2.0 for pneumonectomy, further lung function tests may be necessary to determine if surgery is possible. Despite the challenges, managing NSCLC requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual circumstances to determine the best course of action.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old man complains of breathlessness. He is a current smoker of 20...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man complains of breathlessness. He is a current smoker of 20 cigarettes per day and previously worked in a coal mine. His BMI is 40 kg/mÂČ. The results of his spirometry are as follows:

      FEV1 - 3.05 (79% predicted)
      FVC - 3.27 (70% predicted)
      DLCO - 86% predicted
      KCO - 105% predicted

      What could be the probable reason for this man's breathlessness?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      The spirometry results indicate that this man has restrictive lung disease, which is supported by evidence. However, the fact that his KCO is high while his DLCO is low suggests that the cause of his restriction is not within the lungs themselves. Among the options provided, obesity is the only extra-pulmonary factor that can lead to a restrictive deficit. Conditions such as COPD and asthma cause obstructive lung disease, while pneumoconiosis, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, and other intrapulmonary factors can also cause restrictive lung disease.

      Understanding the Differences between Obstructive and Restrictive Lung Diseases

      Obstructive and restrictive lung diseases are two distinct categories of respiratory conditions that affect the lungs in different ways. Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a reduction in the flow of air through the airways due to narrowing or blockage, while restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a decrease in lung volume or capacity, making it difficult to breathe in enough air.

      Spirometry is a common diagnostic tool used to differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In obstructive lung diseases, the ratio of forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) to forced vital capacity (FVC) is less than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to exhale air. In contrast, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by an FEV1/FVC ratio greater than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to inhale air.

      Examples of obstructive lung diseases include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), chronic bronchitis, and emphysema, while asthma and bronchiectasis are also considered obstructive. Restrictive lung diseases include intrapulmonary conditions such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, and drug-induced fibrosis, as well as extrapulmonary conditions such as neuromuscular diseases, obesity, and scoliosis.

      Understanding the differences between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. While both types of conditions can cause difficulty breathing, the underlying causes and treatment approaches can vary significantly.

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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of increasing shortness of breath for...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of increasing shortness of breath for the past 4 months. She occasionally experiences a productive cough. Her medical history includes two previous heart attacks treated with percutaneous coronary intervention and hypercholesterolaemia managed with simvastatin. She has a 35 pack-year smoking history and does not consume alcohol.

      The GP orders lung function tests which reveal:

      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) 0.78L
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) 1.68L
      Total lung capacity 5.08L

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      Based on the reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC, the most probable diagnosis for this case is COPD. The patient’s age and high pack-year history further support this diagnosis, rather than asthma.

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old stonemason presents to the respiratory clinic complaining of increasing breathlessness over...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old stonemason presents to the respiratory clinic complaining of increasing breathlessness over the past two years. He has a history of smoking, with a total of 45 pack years. Upon examination, he appears to be in good health, with hyperexpanded chest and bibasal inspiratory crackles. There is no clubbing or lymphadenopathy present. Spirometry results show FEV1 at 38% predicted, FVC at 70% predicted, and KCO at 55% predicted. A chest x-ray reveals hilar eggshell calcification and some fibrotic changes in the upper zone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Silicosis

      Explanation:

      Silicosis: A Lung Disease Associated with Occupational Exposure to Silica

      Silicosis is a type of lung fibrosis that occurs as a result of inhaling silica, a compound found in materials such as sand, quartz, and granite. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who work in quarries, mines, and sandblasting, as well as those who work with pottery and stone. The diagnosis of silicosis is heavily dependent on the patient’s employment history, as well as the presence of characteristic changes on chest x-rays.

      The radiological changes that are typically seen in patients with silicosis include hilar eggshell calcification, which is a pathognomonic finding. This refers to the calcification of the lymph nodes in the lung hilum, which can be seen on x-rays as a thin, white line around the nodes. These changes are often accompanied by other signs of lung fibrosis, such as scarring and thickening of the lung tissue.

      Overall, silicosis is a serious occupational lung disease that can have significant long-term effects on a patient’s health. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in preventing further damage to the lungs and improving outcomes for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man with a history of multiple sclerosis was admitted to the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of multiple sclerosis was admitted to the hospital after overdosing on baclofen. He was diagnosed with relapsing and remitting multiple sclerosis 20 years ago and typically uses two sticks to walk. He intermittently self-catheterizes and takes baclofen 20 mg three times a day as his only medication.

      The patient's son found him surrounded by empty packets of baclofen after returning from a night out with friends. Earlier that evening, the patient had an argument with his partner, which was believed to have triggered his actions. According to his partner, there were approximately 20 tablets left in the packet, each containing 10 mg of baclofen. (Severe toxicity is associated with 150 mg of baclofen.)

      The patient is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. His only other significant medical history is a previous admission 18 months ago for severe community-acquired pneumonia, which required mechanical ventilation.

      Upon examination, the patient was drowsy with a respiratory rate of 5/min. He had a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8/15 (eye = 2, verbal = 2, motor = 4), and neurological examination revealed generalized hyporeflexia. His pulse rate was 60/min, and his blood pressure was 95 systolic and 60 diastolic. Examination of his respiratory, cardiovascular, and abdominal systems was unremarkable.

      His arterial gases on 50% inspired O2 were as follows:
      pH 7.34 (7.36-7.44)
      PO2 24.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      PCO2 7.2 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      HCO3 27 mmol/L (20-28)
      Base excess 0.3 mmol/L (+/-2)

      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intubation and mechanical ventilation

      Explanation:

      Baclofen Toxicity and its Effects on Respiratory Function

      Baclofen toxicity can lead to central nervous system depression and reduced diaphragmatic contraction, resulting in CO2 retention. The onset of toxicity is rapid and can last up to 35-40 hours after ingestion. Symptoms of baclofen toxicity include drowsiness, coma, respiratory depression, hyporeflexia, hypotonia, hypothermia, and hypotension. Additionally, bradycardia with first-degree heart block and prolongation of the Q-T interval may occur.

      Treatment for baclofen toxicity is typically supportive and may require intensive care. Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) may be an option, but it is not recommended for patients with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8/15 or those at high risk of aspiration pneumonia. It is unlikely that the patient has hypoxic drive, as they are a non-smoker, and a reduction in inspired oxygen would not increase their respiratory drive. Doxapram is not effective in treating baclofen toxicity.

      In summary, baclofen toxicity can have significant effects on respiratory function, leading to CO2 retention and other symptoms. Treatment is supportive and may require intensive care, with NIPPV being an option in some cases. However, caution should be exercised in patients with a low GCS score or a high risk of aspiration pneumonia.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of shortness of breath. He recently flew back from Australia and has a medical history of type two diabetes mellitus, high cholesterol, hypertension, and a previous cholecystectomy. He is also morbidly obese. The patient denies any chest pain or leg pain or swelling. His vital signs are stable, and an ECG shows sinus rhythm. A chest X-ray is normal. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is performed to rule out pulmonary embolism (PE), which is negative. However, the CTPA reveals a 7mm pulmonary nodule in the left lower lobe. What is the appropriate course of action for investigating or monitoring the pulmonary nodule?

      Your Answer: Urgent image-guided biopsy

      Correct Answer: CT chest in three months

      Explanation:

      BTS Guidelines for Solitary Lung Nodules

      When it comes to solitary lung nodules, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has established guidelines to determine the risk of malignancy and appropriate next steps. If the nodule is less than 5 mm in size or has clear benign features, or is unsuitable for treatment, it can be discharged. However, if the nodule is 8mm or larger and deemed high-risk according to the Brock model, a CT-PET scan is recommended. If the CT-PET scan shows high uptake, a biopsy is necessary. For nodules that are 5-6mm or 8mm or larger but low-risk according to the Brock model, CT surveillance is recommended. For nodules that are 5-6mm, a follow-up CT should be done after one year. For nodules that are 6mm or larger, a follow-up CT should be done after three months. These guidelines help ensure appropriate management of solitary lung nodules and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 31 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the rapid access chest clinic with a four-month...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the rapid access chest clinic with a four-month history of progressive breathlessness, lethargy, anorexia, and a one-stone weight loss. She has been experiencing a dull pain on the right side of her chest for the past month, which is partially relieved with 'low dose' co-codamol prescribed by her GP. She is a smoker, consuming 15 cigarettes a day, and her husband, who was a retired plumber, recently passed away due to a chest problem.

      Upon examination, the patient appears cachectic and dyspnoeic. Chest examination reveals reduced expansion, vocal fremitus, breath sounds, and dull percussion note throughout the right lung. A chest x-ray shows a medium-sized pleural effusion on the right side, with thickening of the pleura in the right hemithorax.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Explanation:

      Possible Mesothelioma in a Lady with Constitutional Symptoms and Unilateral Pleural Effusion

      This lady is experiencing constitutional symptoms such as weight loss, lethargy, and chest pain, along with a unilateral pleural effusion. These symptoms suggest the possibility of malignancy, which needs to be ruled out. However, her husband’s occupation as a plumber provides a clue to her underlying diagnosis. Asbestos exposure is a common risk for plumbers, and this lady may have been exposed to it through washing her husband’s clothes.

      Considering her symptoms and probable asbestos exposure, mesothelioma is the most likely diagnosis. Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the lungs and is commonly caused by asbestos exposure. If this diagnosis is confirmed, the lady may be eligible for compensation.

      Further investigation is required to confirm the diagnosis, including a CT scan and biopsy. It is important to identify mesothelioma early to provide the best possible treatment and improve the patient’s chances of survival.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 32 - A 26-year-old woman with a history of recurrent hospital admissions for asthma exacerbations...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman with a history of recurrent hospital admissions for asthma exacerbations presents to the Emergency department at 8 am with increasing breathlessness. On examination, she appears dyspnoeic and wheezy, with a respiratory rate of 27 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 118 bpm (sinus tachycardia), and a PEFR of 34%. An arterial blood gas is obtained, with the following results: pH 7.52 (7.36-7.44), pO2 8.64 kPa (11.3-12.6), and pCO2 3.1 kPa (4.7-6.0). Based on this information, what is the severity of the patient's exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Acute severe exacerbation

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Acute Severe Exacerbation of Asthma

      An acute severe exacerbation of asthma can be diagnosed based on certain criteria. These include a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate of 25 or more breaths per minute, a heart rate of 110 or more beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      These criteria are used to identify patients who are experiencing a severe asthma attack and require immediate medical attention. It is important to note that these criteria are not the only indicators of an acute severe exacerbation of asthma, and other symptoms such as chest tightness, wheezing, and coughing may also be present.

      Prompt recognition and treatment of an acute severe exacerbation of asthma is crucial to prevent further complications and improve outcomes. Treatment may include the use of bronchodilators, corticosteroids, and oxygen therapy. In some cases, hospitalization may be necessary for close monitoring and more intensive treatment.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 33 - A 12-year-old patient is referred to the respiratory outpatient clinic with recurrent chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old patient is referred to the respiratory outpatient clinic with recurrent chest infections associated with purulent sputum. His family life is chaotic and his parents frequently did not bring him to routine hospital appointments.

      On examination, there are bilateral coarse crackles heard on chest auscultation, which clear on coughing. He is of thin body habitus. The nails are normal.

      A chest x-ray shows evidence of bronchiectasis. A sputum sample grows Burkholderia cepacia. Genetic testing reveals that he is homozygous for the delta F508 mutation.

      What is an appropriate treatment option for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lung transplant

      Correct Answer: Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for a patient with cystic fibrosis who is homozygous for the delta F508 mutation is Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor, also known as Orkambi. This medication has been shown to improve pulmonary function, increase weight, and decrease pulmonary exacerbations. Lung transplant is not a viable option for this patient due to colonization with Burkholderia cepacia, which is a contraindication for transplant. Mepolizumab, an IL5 inhibitor used for refractory asthma, is not appropriate for CF treatment and may have negative effects. A low calorie, low-fat diet is also not recommended for CF patients, who often have low body weight and should consume a high fat, high-calorie diet. The patient’s delayed diagnosis may be attributed to their chaotic family life.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 34 - A 67-year-old man presents with two episodes of mild haemoptysis in the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with two episodes of mild haemoptysis in the past 4 months. He has also lost 6 kilograms of weight in the past 4 months. He is a smoker with a 55 pack years history and a social drinker. He is actively mobile and has no significant past medical history.

      On clinical examination, there are no abnormalities except for clubbing.

      A contrast-enhanced CT chest reveals a 4 cm mass in the right upper lobe periphery close to the chest wall and enlarged right hilar (2 cm) and subcarinal (2 cm) lymph nodes. A positron emission tomography (PET) scan is performed, which shows a standard uptake value (SUV) max of 20 for the lung mass. The ipsilateral hilar and subcarinal lymph nodes are also found to be FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose) avid. There is no evidence of distant metastasis.

      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound guided biopsy of the lung mass

      Correct Answer: Endobronchial ultrasound (EBUS) guided mediastinal lymph node sampling

      Explanation:

      Investigating Lung Cancer: Methods and Findings

      When investigating suspected lung cancer, there are several methods that doctors may use to obtain a diagnosis. The first investigation is often a chest x-ray, which can reveal abnormalities in the lungs. However, it is important to note that in around 10% of patients subsequently diagnosed with lung cancer, the chest x-ray was reported as normal. Therefore, if lung cancer is still suspected, a CT scan is the investigation of choice. This method provides a more detailed view of the lungs and can help identify any abnormalities that may have been missed on the chest x-ray.

      If a biopsy is needed to obtain a histological diagnosis, a bronchoscopy may be performed. This procedure allows doctors to take a tissue sample from the lungs for further analysis. In some cases, endobronchial ultrasound may be used to aid in the biopsy process.

      In non-small cell lung cancer cases, a PET scan may be done to establish eligibility for curative treatment. This method uses 18-fluorodeoxygenase, which is preferentially taken up by neoplastic tissue. PET scanning has been shown to improve diagnostic sensitivity of both local and distant metastasis spread in non-small cell lung cancer.

      Finally, blood tests may also be done to help diagnose lung cancer. Raised platelets may be seen in some cases. By using a combination of these methods, doctors can obtain a more accurate diagnosis of lung cancer and determine the best course of treatment for their patients.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 35 - A 56-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic with a dry cough and...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic with a dry cough and progressive shortness of breath. He has no significant medical history or exposure to environmental triggers and is a non-smoker who does not take any medications. Upon examination, bibasal inspiratory crackles and clubbing are noted, but there are no signs of cardiac failure. His current oxygen saturation level is 94% on air, and his last appointment revealed a known FVC of 70%. Pulmonary function testing shows a restrictive pattern, and a high resolution CT scan reveals bilateral lung volume loss with >5% honeycombing extensively at the bases and subpleural areas with evidence of peripheral traction bronchiectasis, extensively at the lung bases. Blood investigations for connective tissue disease have been negative. The patient has already been referred for pulmonary rehabilitation but is interested in knowing if any medication can potentially alter the course of his disease. What medication can be used to reduce functional decline in this patient population?

      Your Answer: Pirfenidone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 36 - An 80-year-old male presents following a fall whilst intoxicated. He has sustained a...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male presents following a fall whilst intoxicated. He has sustained a fractured right neck of femur and is admitted under the orthopaedic team. He has a past medical history of liver cirrhosis, ischaemic heart disease and congestive cardiac failure. There is a suspicion that he drinks excessively.

      On examination, his right leg is externally rotated and shortened. He is thin and has mild pitting oedema to his mid-shins. His pulse is 92 beats per minute and regular, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, blood pressure 121/72 mmHg, Sa02 94% on room air. Apart from a slight expiratory wheeze, his chest is clear to auscultation.

      Bloods show:

      Hb 112 g/l
      Platelets 48 * 109/l
      WBC 11.2* 109/l
      INR 1.9

      The orthopaedic team arrange for a transfusion of two units of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and two units of platelets before taking the patient to theatre.

      Four hours after the transfusion the patient has become unwell.
      Observations show a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute, Sa02 80% on room air. Heart rate is 120 beats per minute and regular. Temperature is 38.5ÂșC. A chest X-ray is performed at the bedside which shows bilateral shadowing.

      What is the most likely cause of the patient's deterioration?

      Your Answer: Transfusion associated circulatory overload

      Correct Answer: Transfusion associated acute lung injury

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history does not suggest community-acquired pneumonia, making it an unlikely diagnosis. However, transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is a possible complication of transfusion, especially in patients over 70 years old. The commonly accepted concept that one unit of packed red cells increases hemoglobin by 1g/dL only applies to patients weighing 70-80 kg, and a general guideline is to transfuse 4 ml/kg for a 1g/dL increment. TACO can occur within six hours of transfusion and may present with acute respiratory distress, tachycardia, increased blood pressure, or acute or worsening pulmonary edema. Management involves diuretics and measuring the hematocrit, and venesection may be necessary in cases of a significant hematocrit elevation to prevent stroke. However, the patient’s symptoms started later than expected, and the risk of TACO is higher with packed red cells than with FFP or platelets, making it less likely.

      Acute myocardial infarction is another possible diagnosis, but the absence of chest pain in the patient’s history makes it less likely. Atrial fibrillation leading to acute left ventricular failure is also a possibility, and an electrocardiogram would be necessary for diagnosis. However, the patient’s regular pulse makes this diagnosis less likely.

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), which presents with acute shortness of breath and hypoxia within six hours of transfusion. Chest X-ray typically shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, and the patient may have a fever. TRALI is caused by human leukocyte antibodies/human neutrophil antibodies from donor plasma and is more common with platelets and FFP than with packed red cells. Blood tests can confirm the presence of anti-leukocyte antibodies in the donor plasma that react with recipient neutrophil antigens. Supportive care is the mainstay of management, but intubation and ventilation may be necessary. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of transfusion.

      Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.

      TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 37 - A 28 year old asthmatic woman has been hospitalized after intentionally overdosing on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old asthmatic woman has been hospitalized after intentionally overdosing on her regular theophylline medication. What is a potential complication of theophylline toxicity?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular nodal blockade

      Correct Answer: Increased myocardial contractility

      Explanation:

      Theophylline poisoning can cause hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia, tachycardia, and increased myocardial contractility. Theophylline is a drug similar to caffeine and is used to treat bronchoconstriction in conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. It works by inhibiting phosphodiesterases, which reduces inflammatory cytokines and increases blood flow. This can lead to hypokalaemia and increased glucose levels. Theophylline also competes with adenosine receptors, causing tachycardia, increased AV conduction, and increased myocardial contractility. Other symptoms of toxicity include nausea, vomiting, seizures, and electrolyte disturbances. Management is supportive, with benzodiazepines used to control seizures and electrolyte abnormalities corrected. Activated charcoal can be effective in adsorbing the drug. Concurrent use of drugs that inhibit theophylline metabolism should be avoided.

      Theophylline and its Poisoning

      Theophylline is a naturally occurring methylxanthine that is commonly used as a bronchodilator in the management of asthma and COPD. Its exact mechanism of action is still unknown, but it is believed to be a non-specific inhibitor of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. Other proposed mechanisms include antagonism of adenosine and prostaglandin inhibition.

      However, theophylline poisoning can occur and is characterized by symptoms such as acidosis, hypokalemia, vomiting, tachycardia, arrhythmias, and seizures. In such cases, gastric lavage may be considered if the ingestion occurred less than an hour prior. Activated charcoal is also recommended, while whole-bowel irrigation can be performed if theophylline is in sustained-release form. Charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable to hemodialysis in managing theophylline poisoning.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 38 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with progressive shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with progressive shortness of breath over the past three days. The dyspnea worsens with activity but is not accompanied by cough or wheeze. She has a medical history of asthma and HIV, for which she takes antiretroviral medication regularly. Two weeks ago, she was diagnosed with oral candida and prescribed a 2-week course of nystatin and started on dapsone for prophylaxis of pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. She is a non-smoker.

      Upon examination, the patient's lips and nail beds have a bluish tinge, and she is visibly breathless. Her respiratory rate is 26 per minute, and her pulse oximetry readings show saturations of 91% on air both at rest and on exercise. Her temperature is 36.5ÂșC, and she has not experienced any feverish symptoms. On auscultation, she has vesicular breath sounds with minimal wheeze, and normal heart sounds with no murmurs. There is no ankle edema, and JVP is not raised. There is no evidence of oral candidiasis or lymphadenopathy. Her calves are soft and non-tender.

      A chest x-ray shows clear lung fields with no focal consolidation or lymphadenopathy. ECG is sinus rhythm at 90 beats per minute with normal complexes throughout.

      Arterial blood gas on air:

      pH 7.51
      PaO2 13.7 kPa
      PaCO2 3.34 pka
      HCO3- 22.1 mmol/l
      BE -3.3 mmol/l
      sO2 97%
      Hb 113 g/l
      Na+ 143 mmol/l
      K+ 3.7 mmol/l
      Glu 5.2 mmol/l
      Lac 1.9 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Methemoglobinemia

      Explanation:

      This woman is experiencing difficulty breathing and low oxygen levels as measured by pulse oximetry, but her arterial blood gas shows normal oxygen levels. Additionally, she has a bluish tint to her skin and her chest exam is normal. These symptoms suggest that she may have methemoglobinemia, a known side effect of the medication dapsone that she is taking.

      It is unlikely that her symptoms are due to an asthma exacerbation, as this would typically present with wheezing and low arterial oxygen levels. Carbon monoxide poisoning would result in a cherry red appearance, which is not present in this case. Pulmonary embolism would also be unlikely, as it would typically cause a low arterial oxygen level and a rapid heart rate. Pneumocystis pneumonia is unlikely due to prophylaxis, and would typically present with x-ray changes and a drop in oxygen levels during exercise.

      Understanding Methaemoglobinaemia

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. Normally, NADH methaemoglobin reductase regulates this process by transferring electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, reducing it to haemoglobin. However, when this process is disrupted, tissue hypoxia occurs as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, shifting the oxidation dissociation curve to the left.

      There are congenital causes of methaemoglobinaemia, such as haemoglobin chain variants like HbM and HbH, as well as NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes include drugs like sulphonamides, nitrates (including recreational nitrates like amyl nitrite ‘poppers’), dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine, as well as chemicals like aniline dyes.

      Symptoms of methaemoglobinaemia include ‘chocolate’ cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, and in severe cases, acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma. Despite normal pO2 levels, oxygen saturation is decreased.

      Management of NADH methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency involves ascorbic acid, while acquired methaemoglobinaemia can be treated with IV methylthioninium chloride (methylene blue). Understanding the causes and symptoms of methaemoglobinaemia is crucial in its proper diagnosis and management.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 39 - A patient who was seen in rapid access chest clinic at the age...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who was seen in rapid access chest clinic at the age of 60 undergoes a CT thorax. The report states that there is a mass arising from the left main bronchus, 1.5 cm from the carina and not directly involving the carina. The mass is causing almost complete obstruction of the left main bronchus and is likely to represent a primary lung tumour. Additionally, there are several left hilar lymph nodes, the largest measuring 2 cm. What is the TNM staging of this lung tumour?

      Your Answer: T2N1MX

      Correct Answer: T3N1MX

      Explanation:

      TNM Classification of Malignant Tumours

      The TNM Classification of Malignant Tumours (TNM) is a system used to stage cancer and determine the extent of its spread in a patient’s body. The system is based on three factors: the size of the primary tumor (T), the presence of distant metastasis (M), and the involvement of regional lymph nodes (N).

      The T factor describes the size of the tumor and whether it has invaded nearby tissue. T0 indicates no evidence of a primary tumor, while This refers to carcinoma in situ. T1 and T2 tumors are smaller in size, while T3 and T4 tumors are larger and have invaded surrounding tissues.

      The M factor describes the presence of distant metastasis, which is the spread of cancer from one body part to another. M0 indicates no distant metastasis, while M1 indicates the presence of distant metastasis in extrathoracic organs.

      The N factor describes the involvement of regional lymph nodes. NX indicates that regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed, while N0 indicates no regional lymph node metastases. N1 and N2 indicate the presence of metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary nodes, and ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph node(s), respectively. N3 indicates metastasis in contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph node(s).

      the TNM Classification of Malignant Tumours is important for determining the appropriate treatment plan for cancer patients. By accurately staging the cancer, doctors can determine the best course of action to effectively treat the disease and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 40 - A 75-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic with complaints of shortness...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic with complaints of shortness of breath during exertion. He has no significant medical history and is not on any regular medications. He has never smoked or consumed alcohol. The patient worked at a paper mill for 51 years.

      Upon examination, the patient appears mildly dyspnoeic at rest, and bibasal inspiratory crackles are audible on auscultation. The patient's fingers are clubbed, but cardiovascular examination is unremarkable.

      A high-resolution CT scan of the chest reveals honeycomb lung, traction bronchiectasis, and parenchymal bands, with no pleural involvement.

      What treatment is likely to be recommended for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conservative management

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for asbestosis is conservative management, as no interventions have been found to significantly improve the condition. A patient with exertional shortness of breath and crackles undergoes an HRCT chest, which reveals classic signs of fibrotic lung disease, likely caused by asbestos exposure from previous work in a paper mill.

      Chemotherapy is an incorrect option, as the patient does not have pleural involvement or mesothelioma, which is a malignant cancer of the pleura often associated with asbestos exposure.

      Prednisolone is also an incorrect option, as it is not effective in treating asbestosis. While it may be used in some cases of interstitial lung disease, asbestosis is not typically responsive to medical treatment.

      Radiotherapy is also not recommended, as it is primarily used to treat lung cancer or mesothelioma, neither of which are present in this case.

      Asbestos exposure can lead to various lung diseases, ranging from benign pleural plaques to mesothelioma. Pleural plaques are non-cancerous and do not require any follow-up, while pleural thickening may occur in a similar pattern to that seen after an empyema or haemothorax. Asbestosis, on the other hand, is related to the length of exposure and typically causes lower lobe fibrosis. It is characterized by dyspnoea, reduced exercise tolerance, clubbing, bilateral end-inspiratory crackles, and a restrictive pattern with reduced gas transfer. Mesothelioma is a malignant disease of the pleura, with crocidolite (blue) asbestos being the most dangerous form. It may cause progressive shortness-of-breath, chest pain, and pleural effusion. Palliative chemotherapy is usually offered, with surgery and radiotherapy having a limited role. Unfortunately, the prognosis is very poor, with a median survival from diagnosis of 8-14 months. Lung cancer is the most common form of cancer associated with asbestos exposure and has a synergistic effect with cigarette smoke in terms of increased risk.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 41 - A 34-year-old HIV-positive man presented to hospital with increasing shortness of breath and...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old HIV-positive man presented to hospital with increasing shortness of breath and cough, as well as slightly worse vision over the last few weeks. He had a prolonged admission 4 months ago for a chest complaint and has been taking prophylactic co-trimoxazole. He is a current smoker with a 10-pack year history. On examination, he appeared unwell with a pulse of 110/min, respiratory rate of 28/min, BP of 95/65 mmHg, and saturations of 91% on air. Auscultation of his chest revealed fine crackles bilaterally, and the CXR showed reticular shadowing throughout both lung fields. His investigations revealed a low haemoglobin level, low white cell count, low CD4+ count, and elevated bilirubin, AST, and ALP levels. His TLCO was 80% predicted. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: CMV pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      CMV Pneumonitis in an Immunocompromised Patient

      This patient is presenting with CMV pneumonitis, a common opportunistic infection in individuals with advanced HIV disease and a CD4 count below 50 cells/mm3. CMV can also cause hepatitis, colitis, retinitis, radiculopathy, and encephalitis. The patient’s reduced visual acuity and abnormal liver function tests are consistent with CMV.

      Serology may not be useful in immunosuppressed individuals, so diagnosis is typically made through PCR of serum or histological staining of transbronchial biopsies. Rapid culture methods such as DEAFF can also be used.

      Treatment for CMV pneumonitis is with intravenous ganciclovir.

      Other potential infections, such as nocardia, P. jirovecii pneumonia, tuberculosis, and streptococcal pneumonia, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and radiological findings. In this case, the diffuse CXR shadowing, eye symptoms, and deranged LFTs make CMV pneumonitis the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 42 - What is the most precise statement regarding the management of adult respiratory distress...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most precise statement regarding the management of adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in a patient with severe sepsis?

      Your Answer: A target tidal volume of 6 ml/kg actual body weight should be set

      Correct Answer: The ventilator strategy should employ a relatively high level of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

      Explanation:

      ARDS Management Guidelines for Severe Sepsis

      ARDS is a common complication of severe sepsis, and its management is crucial in improving patient outcomes. The ARDSnet guidelines are an essential component of the Surviving Sepsis guidelines, with a particular focus on factors that are critical in severe sepsis.

      One of the primary recommendations is to base the target tidal volume on ideal body weight rather than actual body weight. This is because fat does not have alveoli, and a target tidal volume of 6 ml/kg ideal body weight should be set while maintaining plateau pressures of less than 30 cmH2O. Additionally, a high-PEEP strategy is recommended to reduce atelectotrauma, and turning the patient prone and recruitment manoeuvres are recommended for worsening hypoxaemia.

      Pulmonary artery catheters should not be used routinely, and a conservative fluid strategy should be used where possible. Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) should not be routinely used and only considered in a minority of cases. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage ARDS in patients with severe sepsis and improve their chances of recovery.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 43 - A 72-year-old active smoker with a 35 pack year history presents with his...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old active smoker with a 35 pack year history presents with his second non-infective exacerbation of COPD in 3 months. He was diagnosed with COPD three years ago and had been relatively well controlled using salbutamol as required prior to these two admissions. Three days after his admission, he reports that he is close to his baseline and would like to go home. His repeat pulmonary function tests reveal a forced expiratory volume in 1 second of 48%.

      On reviewing his peak flow diary you note a significant (> 20%) diurnal variation in his peak flow.

      What would be the most effective approach to optimize his COPD management?

      Your Answer: Add salmeterol and fluticasone combination inhaler

      Explanation:

      If a patient with COPD is experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and exhibits features of asthma/steroid responsiveness, the recommended course of action is to add a LABA + ICS. Since there is significant diurnal variation in this patient’s symptoms, a long-acting beta agonist such as salmeterol, along with an inhaled corticosteroid, is the next step in management. It is now recommended by NICE to use combined inhalers whenever possible.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 44 - A 20-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a persistent cough and fever...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a persistent cough and fever for the past 2 weeks. He initially thought it was just a cold, but his symptoms have been getting worse. He is worried because he supports his elderly parents financially, who recently returned from a trip to China. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has lost his appetite and experiences night sweats that soak his bed sheets. Based on his medical history and physical examination, the doctor suspects tuberculosis and urgently refers him to a Chest Clinic for confirmation. Tests confirm the diagnosis, and the patient is started on standard treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis. However, when he returns to the doctor several weeks later, he reports a decline in his vision since his diagnosis.
      What is the most likely cause of this side effect?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Pulmonary Tuberculosis Treatment and Their Associated Side Effects

      Pulmonary tuberculosis is typically treated with a combination of medications. The initial phase of treatment lasts for two months and includes rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and includes isoniazid and rifampicin only. Other combination preparations may be used depending on availability. It is crucial to stress the importance of compliance with treatment and to assess liver and renal function before starting therapy.

      Ethambutol, one of the medications used in the initial phase, requires special attention to ocular toxicity. Visual acuity, color vision, and visual fields should be tested before and during treatment, preferably by an ophthalmologist.

      Pyrazinamide is associated with gastrointestinal upset and hepatotoxicity, while rifampicin can cause orange discoloration of secretions such as tears and urine, gastrointestinal symptoms, and alteration of hepatic function. Isoniazid, another medication used in the initial phase, can cause peripheral neuropathy in high doses, gastrointestinal upset, agranulocytosis, and hemolytic anemia. Finally, streptomycin, which may be used in some cases, is associated with vestibular and renal toxicity.

      In summary, while these medications are effective in treating pulmonary tuberculosis, they can also cause side effects that need to be monitored closely.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 45 - A 36-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of difficulty breathing and...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of difficulty breathing and a productive cough with yellow sputum. He typically experiences a dry cough only. This marks his third episode this year, and he has undergone four rounds of antibiotics and steroids. He has only smoked once or twice during his university days and works in a factory that produces computer components.

      The patient was fully vaccinated as a child and was healthy until three years ago. He has no other medical history.

      During the examination, the patient displays scattered wheezing but no crepitations. His chest is resonant and hyperinflated, and his respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute with 94% saturation in air. There is no clubbing or cyanosis. The patient is awaiting lung function testing.

      Hb 140g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l
      Platelets 340 * 109/l K+ 4.7 mmol/l
      WBC 14.1 * 109/l Urea 6.2 mmol/l
      Neuts 12 * 109/l Creatinine 89 ”mol/l
      Lymphs 3.2 * 109/l CRP 50 mg/l
      Eosin 1.0 * 109/l

      The chest x-ray reveals hyperinflated lung fields, a flattened hemidiaphragm, and no consolidation.

      What other test would be beneficial for the patient?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1-antitrypsin

      Explanation:

      If a non-smoker presents with COPD, it is important to consider the possibility of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. This is particularly relevant for young individuals who have not had respiratory issues in childhood but are now experiencing recurrent episodes of wheezing and infections. While smoking is the primary cause of COPD, individuals with severe alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency can develop the condition even without smoking.

      To differentiate between other potential diagnoses such as cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, or ciliary dyskinesias, various tests can be performed. The sweat test and CFTR genotyping can diagnose cystic fibrosis, saccharin testing can indicate ciliary dyskinesias, and low immunoglobulins can cause bronchiectasis. However, only the alpha-1-antitrypsin test can explain the early onset of COPD in a non-smoker.

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is a genetic condition that occurs when the liver does not produce enough of a protein called protease inhibitor (Pi). This protein is responsible for protecting cells from enzymes like neutrophil elastase. A1AT deficiency is inherited in an autosomal recessive or co-dominant manner and is located on chromosome 14. The alleles are classified by their electrophoretic mobility, with M being normal, S being slow, and Z being very slow. The normal genotype is PiMM, while heterozygous individuals have PiMZ. Homozygous PiSS individuals have 50% normal A1AT levels, while homozygous PiZZ individuals have only 10% normal A1AT levels.

      A1AT deficiency is most commonly associated with panacinar emphysema, which is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This is especially true for patients with the PiZZ genotype. Emphysema is more likely to occur in non-smokers with A1AT deficiency, but they may still pass on the gene to their children. In addition to lung problems, A1AT deficiency can also cause liver issues such as cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, and cholestasis in children.

      Diagnosis of A1AT deficiency involves measuring A1AT concentrations and performing spirometry to assess lung function. Management of the condition includes avoiding smoking and receiving supportive care such as bronchodilators and physiotherapy. Intravenous alpha1-antitrypsin protein concentrates may also be used. In severe cases, lung volume reduction surgery or lung transplantation may be necessary.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 46 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of shortness of breath. He is started on non-invasive ventilation for a suspected exacerbation of COPD. However, despite full maximal therapy, he fails to improve. What is the probable reason for his lack of improvement?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Mask leak

      Explanation:

      If there is a significant air leak from the mask, it can hinder the achievement of adequate pressures during non-invasive ventilation. This can be observed in a patient with a clear COPD exacerbation who fails to improve despite starting non-invasive ventilation. The presence of an audible hiss of air from the mask and the inability of the machine to attain the set pressures are indicative of poor mask application or facial dysmorphia, which can result in a poor seal to the face and air leakage. The patient’s elevated respiratory rate suggests that their deterioration is unlikely to be due to reducing consciousness secondary to CO2 narcosis. Additionally, there are no indications of pneumothorax, which typically presents as a deterioration rather than a failure to improve. The patient appears comfortable and is not exhibiting signs of dyssynchrony, where they would be fighting the machine. Furthermore, sudden desaturation, which is not observed in this case, is usually associated with a large mucous plug.

      Guidelines for Non-Invasive Ventilation in Acute Respiratory Failure

      Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) is a technique used to support breathing without the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Royal College of Physicians have published guidelines on the use of NIV in acute respiratory failure. The key indications for NIV include COPD with respiratory acidosis, type II respiratory failure due to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease or obstructive sleep apnoea, cardiogenic pulmonary oedema unresponsive to CPAP, and weaning from tracheal intubation.

      The BTS guidelines recommend using NIV in patients with a pH of 7.25-7.35, but caution that more monitoring and a lower threshold for intubation should be used in patients with a pH below 7.25. The recommended initial settings for bi-level pressure support in COPD include an expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) of 4-5 cm H2O, an inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) of 12-15 cm H2O (BTS) or 10 cm H2O (RCP), a back-up rate of 15 breaths/min, and a back-up inspiration:expiration ratio of 1:3.

      Overall, these guidelines provide healthcare professionals with a framework for the safe and effective use of NIV in acute respiratory failure.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 47 - A 26-year-old woman with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the endocrinology...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the endocrinology clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing weight loss and her recent fasting plasma glucose level was measured at 8.1 mmol/l. She has had three hospital admissions in the past year due to exacerbations of her CF. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 122/81 mmHg, pulse is regular at 71 beats per minute, and coarse crackles and scattered wheezing are heard on chest auscultation. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and her body mass index is 19.5 kg/mÂČ. What is the optimal approach to managing her diabetes?

      Your Answer: Insulin and high calorie diet

      Explanation:

      Maintaining weight is a significant challenge for cystic fibrosis patients, even if they don’t develop diabetes. Losing weight can increase the risk of disease exacerbation and mortality. Therefore, it’s crucial for patients to consume a high-calorie diet and take insulin to convert those calories into stored energy.

      The other options, such as a standard or low-calorie diet, are incorrect because they won’t help the patient maintain their body weight. Dapagliflozin causes carbohydrate to be excreted in the urine, resulting in a calorie deficit, making it an unsuitable option. Gliclazide can be used initially for diabetes associated with cystic fibrosis, but it’s essential to encourage patients to consume a high-calorie diet in this situation.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 48 - A 50 year old patient undergoing R-CHOP chemotherapy for Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma presents with...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old patient undergoing R-CHOP chemotherapy for Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma presents with a persistent cough, fevers up to 39.4 degrees, and rigors. Despite two courses of antibiotics prescribed by their GP, the patient's symptoms have not improved. They were admitted to the Medical Assessment Unit after experiencing blood-stained sputum during a particularly severe coughing episode.

      The following investigations were conducted:

      Hb: 10.4 g/dl
      Platelets: 460 * 109/l
      WBC: 16.4 * 109/l
      Neutrophils: 13.5 * 109/l
      Lymphocytes: 2.7 * 109/l

      Na+: 134 mmol/l
      K+: 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea: 7.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 106 ”mol/l

      Chest X-Ray: Cavitating lesion in the right upper zone. No evidence of pleural effusion. No other focal consolidation.

      CT Thorax: Cavitating lesion with halo sign.

      Broncho-alveolar lavage induced sputum: Hyphae seen on silver staining.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Invasive Aspergillosis

      Explanation:

      Aspergillosis is a serious fungal infection that can have severe consequences if left untreated. It is important to promptly identify and treat this condition, as fluconazole is not effective in treating it. Voriconazole is the recommended first-line treatment, administered intravenously before transitioning to oral dosing. If voriconazole is not well-tolerated, liposomal amphotericin should be used instead.

      Aspergilloma may not cause any symptoms and may only be discovered incidentally during medical imaging for other conditions. It can develop in cavities that remain after tuberculosis treatment. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is commonly seen in patients with asthma or cystic fibrosis. ABPA typically presents as poorly controlled asthma, with symptoms such as wheezing and exercise intolerance. It can progress to a bronchiectasis-like condition with or without chronic sputum production.

      Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a condition caused by an allergy to Aspergillus spores. Patients with ABPA often have a history of bronchiectasis and eosinophilia. The symptoms of ABPA include bronchoconstriction, which can cause wheezing, coughing, and difficulty breathing. Patients may have previously been diagnosed with asthma. ABPA can also cause bronchiectasis in the proximal airways.

      To diagnose ABPA, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a flitting chest X-ray, a positive radioallergosorbent (RAST) test to Aspergillus, and a positive IgG precipitins test. Patients with ABPA may also have elevated levels of eosinophils and IgE.

      The treatment for ABPA typically involves oral glucocorticoids, which can help reduce inflammation in the airways. In some cases, itraconazole may be introduced as a second-line agent. With proper treatment, most patients with ABPA can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

      Overall, ABPA is a condition that can cause significant respiratory symptoms and complications. However, with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 49 - A 45-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for review. He has...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for review. He has a medical history of asthma, which was diagnosed during his childhood. As an adult, he has been admitted to the hospital multiple times due to asthma exacerbations, which tend to occur during the summer months. He reports experiencing a nocturnal cough up to three times per week, along with rhinorrhoea and dry eyes since the weather became warmer. He works in construction and finds that his symptoms worsen when he is outside. Three weeks ago, he was admitted to the hospital for an asthma exacerbation and was treated with salbutamol nebulisers and a short course of prednisolone. On examination, he has mild end expiratory wheeze in the upper posterior zones bilaterally. His vital signs are normal, and there is no pedal oedema.

      The patient's drug history includes salbutamol metered dose inhaler when required, salmeterol 50 micrograms/fluticasone propionate 500 micrograms - two puffs twice daily, and levetiracetam 500 mg twice daily. His laboratory results show an elevated IgE level of 500 UI/ml (normal range 150-300 UI/ml). Aspergillus precipitins are negative, and his chest x-ray is normal.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Add in omalizumab

      Explanation:

      Omalizumab is a suitable treatment for patients with allergic asthma and elevated IgE levels, such as this gentleman who has poorly controlled asthma despite treatment, a history of atopy, and elevated IgE levels. According to GINA guidelines, he is on step 4 of the asthma treatment ladder and may benefit from add-on therapy such as anti-IgE therapy with omalizumab. Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to free IgE and prevents its interaction with mast cells, reducing the risk of asthma exacerbations. Other options such as theophylline, additional prednisolone, or voriconazole are not as appropriate for this patient’s presentation and medical history.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regimen, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

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  • Question 50 - A 51-year-old teacher presents to the clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old teacher presents to the clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath, chronic cough, and wheezing. She is a smoker of 15 cigarettes per day and has a strong odor of cigarettes. On physical examination, coarse wheezing and occasional crackles are heard on auscultation. What is the most helpful factor in determining the appropriate long-term management of her condition?

      Your Answer: Spirometry with reversibility

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Shortness of Breath in a Patient with COPD

      Shortness of breath is a common symptom in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Spirometry with reversibility can help identify patients who may benefit from inhaled corticosteroids, as up to 30% of patients with COPD show improvement in lung function after bronchodilator therapy. Additionally, spirometry can also predict long-term mortality and motivate patients to quit smoking.

      Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency testing is not necessary in this patient as her age and smoking history suggest that her shortness of breath is likely related to COPD. A chest X-ray may reveal hyper-expansion consistent with emphysema or lung cancer, but it cannot determine response to treatment. CT thorax may be useful in identifying the underlying cause of restrictive lung disease if lung function testing reveals a restrictive defect.

      Bronchoscopy may show airway inflammation related to asthma, but it does not strongly correlate with response to corticosteroids in patients with COPD. In summary, spirometry with reversibility is a valuable diagnostic test for patients with COPD experiencing shortness of breath.

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  • Question 51 - A 30-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis attends the respiratory clinic with her partner....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis attends the respiratory clinic with her partner. They are considering starting a family but have concerns about the impact of her asthma on pregnancy. She has had a few exacerbations in the past year but is currently well-controlled on inhaled corticosteroids. She works as a teacher. During her last exacerbation, a blood gas analysis showed a pH of 7.35 and a PaO2 of 70 mmHg on room air.
      Investigations:

      Haemoglobin 135 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 250 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 ”mol/l 50–120 ”mol/l
      FEV1 85% of that predicted

      What advice should be given to the couple regarding pregnancy?

      Your Answer: She should be advised to never get pregnant

      Correct Answer: After treating the acute infection she has a good chance of a successful pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy and Cystic Fibrosis: Evaluating Risks and Chances

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) can affect fertility in both men and women, but the impact on female fertility is not well understood. While men with CF are usually infertile, women with CF can still conceive. However, the risks associated with pregnancy in CF patients depend on the severity of the disease.

      If a woman with CF has mild disease, pregnancy can be well tolerated. However, if her lung function is poor, there is an increased risk of premature delivery and infant death. Additionally, pregnancy can accelerate the decline of maternal lung function.

      Treating acute infections in CF patients can improve their chances of a successful pregnancy. However, chronic Pseudomonas infection and multiple exacerbations can worsen the outcome for both the mother and the baby.

      Thickening of cervical mucous in CF patients does not significantly impact their ability to conceive, as CFTR is found in large quantities on the cervix. Late onset of menstruation in CF patients also does not affect their fertility.

      In conclusion, the risks and chances of pregnancy in CF patients depend on the severity of the disease and other factors such as chronic infections. It is important for CF patients to discuss their options and risks with their healthcare providers before attempting to conceive.

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  • Question 52 - A 56-year-old accountant has been referred by his doctor due to complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old accountant has been referred by his doctor due to complaints of constant fatigue. He has a history of depression and is currently taking antidepressant medication as prescribed by his GP. Recently, he had to resign from his job as he found it difficult to drive long distances and almost got into a car accident due to sudden swerving. He has gained 3 stone in weight over the past three years, which he attributes to his depression. During his check-up, his blood pressure was found to be high at 170/100 mmHg. What investigation is most likely to provide an explanation for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Overnight oximetry

      Explanation:

      Obstructive Sleep Apnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome is a condition where the airway in the throat becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to repeated episodes of breathing cessation (apnoeas) or reduced airflow (hypopnoeas) for more than 10 seconds. This can cause loud snoring and excessive daytime sleepiness due to frequent awakenings. The gold standard for diagnosis is overnight polysomnography, but simpler monitoring systems or overnight oximetry can also be used, often in the patient’s home. The recommended treatment includes weight loss, avoiding sedatives and excessive alcohol, and using nasal continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 53 - A 57-year-old woman with a history of asthma attends her respiratory clinic appointment....

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman with a history of asthma attends her respiratory clinic appointment. She has been hospitalized twice in the past year due to exacerbations and also has hypothyroidism and angina. Her current medications include tiotropium, fluticasone, levothyroxine, simvastatin, aspirin, and GTN spray. During her last appointment, she was prescribed theophylline at a standard dose and completed a course of ciprofloxacin for a mild exacerbation. She is a smoker and has allergies to pollen.

      Upon examination, she presents with a dry cough but is able to speak in full sentences. Her chest shows scattered wheezing throughout.

      Lab results show a Na+ level of 145 mmol/l, K+ level of 3.9 mmol/l, urea level of 4.2 mmol/l, creatinine level of 56 ”mol/l, and a theophylline level of 6 mcg/ml (normal range 10-20). Additionally, her chest x-ray shows hyperexpanded lung fields and her TSH level is 5.2 mU/l.

      What could be the possible reason for her subtherapeutic theophylline level?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Individuals have varying requirements for theophylline/aminophylline due to differences in liver metabolism. The concentration of these drugs depends on the rate of metabolism, which can be affected by factors such as statins, ciprofloxacin, and alcohol consumption. These factors can increase sensitivity to theophylline and increase the risk of toxicity at lower doses. However, smoking is known to induce liver enzyme activity, which means that smokers may require higher starting doses. The patient’s slightly hypothyroid state, as indicated by the TSH, is not expected to significantly affect drug metabolism.

      Aminophylline infusions are utilized to manage acute asthma and COPD. In patients who have not received xanthines (theophylline or aminophylline) before, a loading dose of 5mg/kg is administered through a slow intravenous injection lasting at least 20 minutes. For the maintenance infusion, 1g of aminophylline is mixed with 1 litre of normal saline to create a solution of 1 mg/ml. The recommended dose is 500-700 mcg/kg/hour, or 300 mcg/kg/hour for elderly patients. It is important to monitor plasma theophylline concentrations.

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  • Question 54 - A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up after being referred to the respiratory clinic...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up after being referred to the respiratory clinic under the two-week-wait scheme. He has a current smoking habit and has smoked for 65 pack-years. He has been experiencing a worsening cough and coughing up blood for the past month, as well as losing 3kg in weight over the same period. Upon examination, he appears emaciated, with clubbed and tar-stained fingers. He experiences tenderness in his wrists. On his chest, there is reduced expansion on the right side, with diminished breath sounds and dullness. What is the probable significance of the wrist tenderness?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy, which is often associated with lung cancer. The patient’s history of heavy smoking, haemoptysis, and weight loss, along with concerning examination findings, support this diagnosis. The wrist tenderness is likely a result of paraneoplastic hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy caused by squamous cell lung cancer, which is also indicated by the presence of clubbing. Osteoarthritis, osteopenia, and osteoporosis are unlikely to cause wrist tenderness, and paraneoplastic rheumatoid-like disease is more likely to affect the lower limbs and be asymmetrical.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

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  • Question 55 - A 29-year-old man presents to the acute medical team after being referred by...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the acute medical team after being referred by A&E. He is a Swedish PhD student studying at the local university. He reports a 6-week history of fevers and a non-productive cough. He also mentions a reduction in exercise tolerance and pains in his knees, ankles, and wrists. He has noticed some painful red swellings on his legs, which he had experienced several years ago but resolved without medical treatment. He denies any bowel symptoms or weight loss but admits to having bilateral tender red nodules on his shins. On examination, he is afebrile and cardiovascularly stable. His blood results show elevated platelets and non-specific inflammation. His chest x-ray and CT chest reveal bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with small pulmonary infiltrates. A bronchoscopy is normal, and transbronchial biopsies of the hilar lymph nodes show non-caseating granulomas. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      This man is suffering from Lofgren’s syndrome, a type of Sarcoidosis that is more common in Scandinavian patients and has a better prognosis than in Afro-Caribbean patients. The syndrome is characterized by Arthralgias, fevers, erythema nodosum, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. The CXR shows pulmonary infiltrates, indicating stage 2 sarcoidosis. The preferred treatment for this condition is oral corticosteroids. Supportive measures and NSAIDs are recommended for less symptomatic patients with arthralgia. If steroids are not effective or not tolerated, immunosuppressant agents such as methotrexate can be tried. It is important to note that the presence of non-caseating granulomas suggests a diagnosis other than lymphoma, and RCHOP, a chemotherapy regimen used in lymphoma patients, is not appropriate.

      Understanding Lofgren’s Syndrome

      Lofgren’s syndrome is a type of sarcoidosis that is acute in nature. It is characterized by the presence of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, fever, and polyarthralgia. This condition is commonly observed in young females and is known to have a favorable prognosis. The symptoms of Lofgren’s syndrome are usually self-limiting and tend to resolve on their own within a few weeks to months. The condition is often diagnosed based on clinical presentation and imaging studies. Treatment is usually not required, but in some cases, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may be prescribed to manage the symptoms. Overall, Lofgren’s syndrome is a relatively benign condition that can be managed effectively with appropriate medical care.

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  • Question 56 - A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician three weeks after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician three weeks after experiencing an infective exacerbation of COPD. He is currently feeling well but is worried that this is his second exacerbation this winter. He is currently taking fostair, tiotropium, and salbutamol as needed. He has a mild cough but has attended his recent COPD review.

      Upon examination, his chest is clear with no wheezing or crepitations. His JVP is not raised, and there is no edema. His oxygen saturation is 94% in air, and he has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. He is currently able to do his gardening and walk his dog up to half a mile each day without experiencing breathlessness at night. He has been discharged from chest physio and is performing well.

      FEV1 (% predicted) is 40%, and FVC (% predicted) is 80%. A chest x-ray reveals several bullae and a hyperexpanded chest with no consolidation. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and a right bundle branch block.

      What additional intervention should be considered for this patient's current management?

      Your Answer: Roflumilast

      Explanation:

      As per the recent GOLD guidance, the patient had multiple exacerbations.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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  • Question 57 - A 62 year-old male patient with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year-old male patient with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for routine review at respiratory outpatients. He is currently taking inhaled tiotropium and salmeterol/fluticasone at optimal doses. You note he has had two exacerbations in the previous 12 months requiring oral steroids and antibiotics. A recent high resolution CT showed severe emphysema affecting all lobes.

      His ABGs in clinic today is a follows:

      pH 7.38
      pO2 7.91 kPa
      pCO2 6.7 kPa
      HCO3 30.1 mmol/L
      Sats 88%

      His blood tests today show:

      Hb 16.2 g/dL
      Platelets 260 x 10 9 /L
      WCC 6.9 x 10 9 /L

      What would be the best approach to further optimize his management?

      Your Answer: Refer to lung volume reduction surgery

      Correct Answer: Consider long term oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      This woman has polycythemia and a resting pO2 below 8.0kPa, making her eligible for long-term oxygen therapy. It would be wise to conduct another ABG test after a month to confirm the results before commencing oxygen therapy.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplemental oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

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  • Question 58 - A middle-aged patient with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with a...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with a persistent fever, coughing up blood, green phlegm, and a left-sided effusion. The patient reports feeling unwell with fluctuating fevers for the past week and admits to drinking a significant amount of alcohol and not maintaining a proper diet. You suspect the possibility of an empyema. What test would be most helpful in confirming your suspicion?

      Your Answer: Pleural fluid pH

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Empyema: Importance of Pleural Fluid pH

      Empyema is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Among the various diagnostic tests available, pleural fluid pH is the most useful investigation for confirming the presence of empyema. A pH of less than 7.2 is highly suggestive of empyema and should be considered a red flag.

      Other diagnostic tests, such as urinary and serum pneumococcal antigen tests, may be helpful but are not definitive. Pleural fluid microscopy and culture are important for tailoring antimicrobial therapy, but only 60% of cultures are positive. Pleural fluid white cell count and differential may also be elevated in empyema, but a low pH is a more reliable indicator.

      Given the patient’s history of alcohol excess, the likelihood of a Klebsiella pneumonia causing the empyema is high, rather than a pneumococcal pneumonia. Therefore, clinicians should prioritize pleural fluid pH as a diagnostic test for empyema.

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  • Question 59 - What is the probable cause of the symptoms and findings in a 69-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable cause of the symptoms and findings in a 69-year-old man with a history of well-controlled rheumatoid arthritis who presents with pain and swelling in his wrists and ankles, chronic cough, shortness of breath on exertion, weight loss, and fingernail clubbing, and has a chest X-ray showing a discrete opacification at the periphery of the right middle lobe, and laboratory results showing elevated serum uric acid and CRP levels?

      Your Answer: Caplan's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      An urgent investigation would be necessary for his case due to its severity.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.

      In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 60 - A 78-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of shortness of breath and a cough productive of yellow sputum. There are no other symptoms of note and she has a history of hypertension. She takes medication for this condition. She has never smoked.
      On examination, her Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15/15. She has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturations of 93% on air. Her heart sounds are normal, with a heart rate of 110 bpm and a blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg. On chest auscultation, there are fine crackles at the right lung base.
      Investigations:
      s
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 120 - 160 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 12.0 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 8.5 × 109/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 109/l
      Urea 5.0 mmol/l 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 110 Όmol/l 50 - 120 ”mol/l

      Which factor in this patient’s presentation is the most significant predictor of outcome?

      Your Answer: Right hemicolectomy for caecal carcinoma

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Ileal resection for Crohn’s disease can lead to an increased risk of cholesterol stone formation due to the reduction in the enterohepatic circulation of bile salts. On the other hand, partial gastrectomy for gastric ulcer can result in iron deficiency anaemia and B12 deficiency. Right hemicolectomy for caecal carcinoma may or may not lead to bile salt malabsorption, unlike ileal resection for Crohn’s disease which is more likely to cause this side effect. Left lobectomy of the liver for carcinoid tumour is not associated with the formation of gallstones, but the gallbladder may need to be resected depending on the position of the tumour. Lastly, jejunal resection for gastrointestinal lymphoma may result in short bowel syndrome, which is characterised by malabsorption, maldigestion, malnutrition, and diarrhoea, but it is not associated with the formation of gallstones.

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  • Question 61 - A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough that has been ongoing for...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough that has been ongoing for three days. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath over the past two days and reports feeling weak and lethargic. He also has a fever and rigors. His wife brought him to the emergency department as she is concerned about his rapid deterioration.

      Upon examination, his heart rate is 125 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, Sa02 is 90% on room air, temperature is 38.9Âș, and blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg. Although he appears distressed, he is not confused.

      Initial investigations reveal a Hb of 134 g/l, platelets of 550 * 109/l, and WBC of 18 * 109/l. His electrolyte levels are within normal range, with Na+ at 141 mmol/l and K+ at 3.7 mmol/l. His urea level is 9.2 mmol/l and creatinine is 130 ”mol/l. A chest x-ray shows left lower zone consolidation.

      What is his CURB-65 score based on the given information?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB 65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

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  • Question 62 - A 62-year-old Nepalese woman who recently moved to the United Kingdom presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old Nepalese woman who recently moved to the United Kingdom presents to her GP with a known multinodular goitre that has been untreated. Her daughter, who acts as a translator, reports that her mother has been experiencing a sensation of tightness in her neck, as if she is being strangled. This sensation is worse in the mornings and her daughter has noticed that her mother's face appears puffy. The patient denies any weight loss, fevers, or night sweats. On examination, a large multinodular goitre is observed, measuring 15-20 cm in width and occupying a significant portion of the neck. Although there is no audible stridor, several neck veins are visible. When asked to stretch her hands up high, the patient complains of worsening tightness. Chest sounds are quiet and clear, but dull percussion is noted under the top third of the sternum. Laboratory results reveal a TSH of 0.07 mU/L (normal range 0.05-5.0), T4 of 10 pmol/L (normal range 9-50), and T3 of 4.0 pmol/L (normal range 3.5-7.8). D-dimer is 0.15 (normal range 0-0.25), and a chest x-ray shows a widened mediastinum with no focal lung lesion. What is the likely cause of the patient's new symptoms?

      Your Answer: Superior vena cava thrombus

      Correct Answer: Multinodular goitre

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava obstruction can be caused by an enlarged goitre, which is a rare occurrence. The patient’s symptoms, particularly the worsening when lifting her hands up, indicate a positive Pemberton’s test. The next step is to determine the underlying cause. While lung carcinoma is a possibility, the patient’s non-smoking status and lack of cough or weight loss make it less likely. Thoracic artery aneurysm would typically present with a widened mediastinum and may be associated with connective tissue disease or uncontrolled hypertension. Lymphoma causing SVC obstruction would typically show mediastinal lymphadenopathy on chest x-ray. SVC thrombus is unlikely given the negative D-dimer result.

      Understanding Superior Vena Cava Obstruction

      Superior vena cava obstruction is a medical emergency that occurs when the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, is compressed. This condition is commonly associated with lung cancer, but it can also be caused by other malignancies, aortic aneurysm, mediastinal fibrosis, goitre, and SVC thrombosis. The most common symptom of SVC obstruction is dyspnoea, but patients may also experience swelling of the face, neck, and arms, headache, visual disturbance, and pulseless jugular venous distension.

      The management of SVC obstruction depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s individual circumstances. Endovascular stenting is often the preferred treatment to relieve symptoms, but certain malignancies may require radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy instead. Glucocorticoids may also be given, although the evidence supporting their use is weak. It is important to seek advice from an oncology team to determine the best course of action for each patient.

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  • Question 63 - A 70-year-old man is referred to the hospital by his GP with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is referred to the hospital by his GP with a suspected case of pneumonia. He is able to converse appropriately in complete sentences.

      His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 98, blood pressure of 110/79 mmHg, respiratory rate of 27, and a temperature of 38.2°C.

      The results of his laboratory tests are as follows: hemoglobin level of 125 g/L (normal range: 130-180), white blood cell count of 18.7 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11), neutrophil count of 16.1 ×109/L (normal range: 1.5-7.0), platelet count of 479 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400), sodium level of 123 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144), potassium level of 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9), urea level of 8.1 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5), creatinine level of 115 ÎŒmol/L (normal range: 60-110), and CRP level of 210 mg/L (normal range: <10).

      Based on the above information, what is his predicted mortality rate according to the current BTS guidelines?

      Your Answer: 5-7%

      Correct Answer: 9%

      Explanation:

      The inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. In order for a child to inherit CF, both parents must be carriers of the mutated gene. However, the chance of one or both parents having CF is low as the ability to reproduce in affected adults is extremely low. Therefore, it is safe to assume that both parents are carriers if one of their children is affected.

      If a child is phenotypically normal at the age of 8, it means that they do not have CF as the symptoms would have become apparent by now. However, the child could still be a carrier of the mutated gene. In this case, the chance of the child being a carrier is 2 out of 3.

      It is important to note that for autosomal recessive disorders like CF, the child of an affected individual has a 100% chance of being a carrier. The inheritance of CF is crucial for genetic counseling and family planning.

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  • Question 64 - A 68-year-old man undergoes a planned knee replacement surgery and experiences a successful...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man undergoes a planned knee replacement surgery and experiences a successful procedure with no complications during anaesthesia. However, a few hours after the surgery, the patient's oxygen saturation levels begin to drop and eventually reach 92% despite receiving oxygen via a face mask. Additionally, the patient starts coughing up small mucous plugs.

      The patient has a medical history of mild COPD treated with tiotropium and hypertension managed with ramipril and amlodipine. He has a smoking history of 15 cigarettes per day for 35 years. There is no relevant family history.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Basal atelectasis

      Explanation:

      Basal atelectasis is the most probable diagnosis in this case. This condition occurs when mucous becomes trapped in the bronchial tree, causing obstruction in small airways. As a result, there may be segmental lung collapse. Treatment involves chest physiotherapy and saline nebulizers to stimulate the production of mucous.

      Understanding Atelectasis: A Postoperative Complication

      Atelectasis is a condition that often occurs after surgery, where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to difficulty in breathing. This happens when the airways become blocked by secretions in the bronchial tubes. Symptoms of atelectasis include shortness of breath and low oxygen levels, which usually appear around 72 hours after surgery.

      To manage atelectasis, patients are advised to sit upright to help open up their airways. Chest physiotherapy, which involves breathing exercises, can also be helpful in clearing the airways. By taking these steps, patients can reduce the risk of complications and improve their overall respiratory function.

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  • Question 65 - A 22-year-old Asian medical student presented to the emergency department with a month-long...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old Asian medical student presented to the emergency department with a month-long history of fever, night sweats, and a cough productive of purulent sputum.

      On examination, the patient was found to be febrile with a pulse of 110 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. Coarse crackles were heard over the right lung apex, and a chest x-ray showed right upper lobar consolidation with a single cavitating lesion. Further investigations revealed a positive sputum sample for acid-alcohol fast bacilli.

      The patient was started on anti-tuberculous therapy, and within seven days, his fever had settled, and his inflammatory markers were improving. Contact tracing revealed that he lived with his parents and two sisters. His older sister, who had lived in the United Kingdom all her life, subsequently had a strongly positive Mantoux test. She otherwise feels well and has no symptoms of anorexia, weight loss, fever, night sweats, or cough, and her chest radiograph is normal.

      What is the most appropriate management for the patient's sister?

      Your Answer: Ignore the Mantoux test as she is physically well and has no signs of active tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a three month course of rifampicin and isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Importance of Preventing Cross Infection in Tuberculosis Management

      Prevention of cross infection is crucial in managing tuberculosis, especially in patients who are smear positive. Close contacts, such as family and housemates, are at a higher risk of being infected. Therefore, it is essential to take measures to prevent the spread of the disease.

      Patients with tuberculosis should receive full treatment to prevent the spread of the disease. On the other hand, those with infection but no evidence of disease should receive prophylaxis with isoniazid for six months or rifampicin and isoniazid for three months. This approach helps to prevent the development of active tuberculosis and reduce the risk of transmission to others.

      In conclusion, preventing cross infection is vital in managing tuberculosis. It is essential to provide appropriate treatment and prophylaxis to patients to prevent the spread of the disease to close contacts. By taking these measures, we can reduce the burden of tuberculosis and improve the health outcomes of affected individuals.

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  • Question 66 - A 68-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and reduced consciousness. His wife...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and reduced consciousness. His wife reports that he has had some diarrhea over the past few days and has been weak and unable to get up today. He has been experiencing morning headaches and is being referred to the sleep clinic. On examination, he has a respiratory rate of 11 breaths/minute and is saturating at 94% on 4 litres through a face mask. His calves are soft with mild edema in the ankles and he is overweight. Based on the provided information, what is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing type 2 respiratory failure, as indicated by their normal bicarbonate levels. This acute deterioration is unlikely to be caused by COPD exacerbation or obstructive sleep apnea, which typically result in CO2 retention and elevated bicarbonate levels. Although a pulmonary embolism is a possibility, it is more likely that the patient’s poor respiratory effort and lack of tachypnea are due to inadequate ventilation caused by neuromuscular weakness. Patients with neuromuscular failure typically exhibit shallow ventilation and significantly reduced functional vital capacity, as evidenced by spirometry.

      Causes of Respiratory Acidosis

      Respiratory acidosis occurs when the lungs cannot remove enough carbon dioxide from the body, leading to an increase in acidity in the blood. This condition can be caused by various factors, including COPD, which is a chronic lung disease that makes it difficult to breathe. Other respiratory conditions such as life-threatening asthma and pulmonary edema can also lead to respiratory acidosis. Neuromuscular diseases that affect the muscles used for breathing can also contribute to this condition. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome, which occurs in people who are severely overweight, can also cause respiratory acidosis. Additionally, sedative drugs such as benzodiazepines and opiate overdose can slow down breathing and lead to respiratory acidosis. It is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of respiratory acidosis to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 67 - A 59-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sharp chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sharp chest pain that has been ongoing for three days. He reports that the pain worsens when he takes deep breaths and that paracetamol has not provided any relief. He denies experiencing shortness of breath or any other symptoms. The patient has a history of COPD and regularly uses combination inhalers with salbutamol inhalers as needed. He has not had an exacerbation recently and has never required invasive ventilation or been admitted to the ICU. Upon examination, no abnormalities are detected, and vital signs are within normal limits. A chest X-ray reveals a pneumothorax measuring less than 1 cm on the right side. The patient is given high-flow oxygen. What is the advantage of administering oxygen in the treatment of a pneumothorax?

      Your Answer: Exchange of nitrogen for oxygen allowing quicker resorption of the pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      When treating a pneumothorax, administering high-flow oxygen is recommended as it facilitates the exchange of nitrogen with oxygen, leading to faster resorption. This process increases the oxygen levels in the pneumothorax and reduces the concentration of nitrogen. As oxygen is more easily absorbed, the pneumothorax resolves at a quicker rate.

      Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 68 - A 31-year-old man has presented to the hospital with severe difficulty breathing.

    Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man has presented to the hospital with severe difficulty breathing.

      Upon initial assessment by paramedics, his respiratory rate was 30/min, oxygen saturations were 70% on room air, his pulse was 118/min, his blood pressure was 125/70 mmHg, and his temperature was 38.5ÂșC.

      Upon examination in the emergency department, the patient is sitting upright on the bed and leaning forward. There is evidence of drooling and a vomit bowl filled with saliva is beside him. Audible stridor can be heard from the edge of the bed. Oxygen has been administered and his saturations have improved to 92% on 15L.

      A neck x-ray was performed due to concerns of a foreign body and revealed a 'thumb sign'.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Nebulised adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Endotracheal intubation

      Explanation:

      In cases of severe acute epiglottitis, endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. Patients may exhibit symptoms such as leaning forward to aid breathing and difficulty swallowing due to pooling of saliva. The presence of the ‘thumb sign’ on a neck x-ray indicates an oedematous epiglottitis. In situations where there is significant desaturation in oxygen and audible stridor, urgent anaesthetic input should be sought as the patient is likely to require intubation. CPAP should not be trialled as it may worsen the obstruction by displacing the epiglottis. High flow oxygen can be used in stable patients with low oxygen saturation, but it is not appropriate in cases where urgent airway intervention is required. Intramuscular adrenaline may be beneficial in cases of anaphylaxis-associated stridor, but there is no evidence of this in the given scenario.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier.

      Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only by senior or airway trained staff. X-rays may be done if there is concern about a foreign body. A lateral view in acute epiglottitis will show swelling of the epiglottis, while a posterior-anterior view in croup will show subglottic narrowing, commonly called the steeple sign.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those able to provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. If suspected, do NOT examine the throat due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. Oxygen and intravenous antibiotics are also important in management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 69 - A 67-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up appointment regarding...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up appointment regarding his COPD. During his last visit, his medications were increased to include regular inhaled Spiriva (tiotropium bromide), Symbicort (budesonide and formoterol), and salbutamol as needed. He reports experiencing shortness of breath at rest and during physical activity, which is limiting his daily activities. He has had two exacerbations in the past year and has been an ex-smoker for six months.

      Upon examination, the patient is tachypnoeic with oxygen saturation levels of 92% on air. Bilateral wheezing is audible during auscultation, and his heart sounds are normal. The patient's calves are soft and non-tender, with no signs of oedema.

      Arterial blood gas results are as follows:

      pH 7.35 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PaO2 8.2 kPa (11 - 13)
      PaCO2 5.1 kPa (4.7 - 6.0)
      Haemoglobin 135 g/L (135 - 180)

      FEV1 is less than 50% predicted.

      What would be the most appropriate addition to this patient's long-term management plan?

      Your Answer: Roflumilast

      Explanation:

      Respiratory medicine utilizes various drugs to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Salbutamol is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle through its effects on beta 2 receptors. It is commonly used in asthma and COPD treatment. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta receptor agonist, has similar effects. Corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory drugs used as maintenance therapy in the form of inhaled corticosteroids. Oral or intravenous corticosteroids are used following an acute exacerbation of asthma or COPD.

      Ipratropium is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, relaxing bronchial smooth muscle. It is primarily used in COPD treatment, while tiotropium has similar effects but is long-acting. Methylxanthines, such as theophylline, are non-specific inhibitors of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. They are given orally or intravenously and have a narrow therapeutic index. Monteleukast and zafirlukast block leukotriene receptors and are usually taken orally. They are useful in treating aspirin-induced asthma. Overall, these drugs play a crucial role in managing respiratory conditions and improving patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 70 - A 19-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain. He has no medical history to report.

      Upon examination, there are no notable findings.

      A chest x-ray shows a visible pleural edge with a distance of around 1.1 cm from the pleural edge to the lung margin at the hilum level.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, what guidance should he receive regarding air travel?

      Your Answer: He can fly immediately upon clinical improvement

      Correct Answer: He can fly 1 week post treatment with a chest x-ray demonstrating resolution

      Explanation:

      If a chest x-ray shows resolution, the patient with a small PTX < 2 cm and no history of lung disease can fly one week after treatment and be suitable for discharge and outpatient review. This is the correct advice. The previous advice of waiting six weeks post-treatment has been replaced. It is important to have chest x-ray evidence of resolution before flying, so advising the patient to fly immediately upon clinical improvement is not appropriate. There is no indefinite ban on flying for patients with a prior history of resolved PTX. The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 71 - A 65-year-old man with a history of rheumatoid arthritis well controlled on methotrexate...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of rheumatoid arthritis well controlled on methotrexate presents with gradual pain and swelling in his wrists and ankles.

      The pain is described as a dull ache that is intermittent, often worse in the evenings. There is associated swelling which can sometimes feel warm. He has tried regular paracetamol but this has had limited effect.

      He also describes a chronic cough and shortness of breath on exertion for the past 6 months that he has not mentioned to his GP. There has been no haemoptysis and he denies any fevers. His wife has noticed that he has been losing weight recently.

      He has a past medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He currently takes methotrexate weekly, folic acid 5mg weekly, ramipril 5mg, simvastatin 20mg at night, metformin 500mg three times a day and paracetamol 1g four times daily.

      He is a retired accountant and a current smoker with a 50 pack year smoking history. He drinks approximately 30 units of beer a week. He denies any recent foreign travel.

      On examination, he is cachectic and short of breath on exertion. His pulse is 80/min and regular, blood pressure 140/93 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 93% on air. He has marked fingernail clubbing. Examination of his wrists reveals slightly swollen and tender joints. Swan neck and ulnar deviation deformities are noted in both hands. Other than his wrists, no other joint abnormalities are detected. Examination of the peripheral nervous system is normal.

      Examination of his chest is normal with no focal consolidation.

      Initial bloods are as follows:

      Na+ 134 mmol/L
      K+ 3.9 mmol/L
      Urea 7.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine 105 ”mol/L
      Hb 100 g/L
      WBC 6.0x10^9/L
      Platelets 200 x 10^9/L
      LFTs Normal
      Serum uric acid 410 ”mol/L
      CRP 12 mg/L

      What is the most likely cause of his joint pains?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy secondary to bronchogenic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient does not have gout as his serum uric acid levels are normal and his symptoms do not match the typical presentation of gout in the first metatarsophalangeal joint. However, he does have some risk factors for developing gout. He is experiencing intermittent aching and swelling in his wrists and ankles, which is not a common symptom of lung cancer.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 72 - A 68-year-old man who is a heavy smoker and resides in a men's...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man who is a heavy smoker and resides in a men's hostel presents to the Emergency department with back pain. He has been experiencing a persistent cough for the past nine months and has had episodes of haemoptysis. He appears malnourished and disheveled. He smokes 40 cigarettes daily and consumes a bottle of cider every day. He also reports urinary frequency and hesitancy, but no blood in his urine.

      The patient undergoes several tests, and the results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level: 104 g/L (normal range: 130-180)
      - White blood cell (WBC) count: 11.9 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11)
      - Platelet (Plt) count: 342 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level: 3 ”g/L (normal range: <4)
      - Chest X-ray reveals cavitating lesions in both upper lobes.
      - Lumbar spine X-ray shows suspicious lesions in L3 and L5.
      - Sputum microscopy reveals multiple red rods on a blue background.
      - Bone biopsy shows caseating granuloma.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Cavitating Apical Lesions

      Cavitating apical lesions are a common characteristic of tuberculosis, but it is important to consider other potential diagnoses such as lung cancer. The sputum appearance using the Ziehl-Neelsen stain is classic for acid-fast bacilli (AAFB). Biopsy of the affected site may reveal a caseating granuloma, which is also characteristic of tuberculosis. However, a normal PSA level can exclude metastatic prostate cancer as a potential cause. While staphylococcal infection can also lead to cavitating lung lesions, the remaining investigations are consistent with a diagnosis of tuberculosis.

      It is crucial to consider all potential diagnoses when presented with cavitating apical lesions. While tuberculosis is a common cause, lung cancer and staphylococcal infection should also be considered. The appearance of AAFB in sputum using the Ziehl-Neelsen stain and the presence of caseating granulomas on biopsy can support a diagnosis of tuberculosis. However, a normal PSA level can exclude metastatic prostate cancer as a potential cause. Overall, a thorough evaluation and consideration of all potential diagnoses is necessary for proper management of patients with cavitating apical lesions.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 73 - A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain. This...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain. This has developed since earlier that morning. Previous medical history includes hypertension, bronchiectasis, hyperlipidaemia and atrial fibrillation.

      His blood tests show:

      - Hb 178 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 360 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 10.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      His observations show:

      - Heart rate 78/min
      - Blood pressure 136/89 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate 16/min
      - Saturations 94% on room air

      A chest x-ray shows no consolidation and a less than 1 cm pneumothorax on the left-hand side.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit and start on oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      For a secondary pneumothorax that is less than 1 cm, the appropriate course of action is to admit the patient and provide oxygen therapy for 24 hours while monitoring their condition. This is in line with British thoracic guidelines, which recommend oxygen therapy for patients with underlying respiratory disease who may not tolerate pneumothoraces well. It is not necessary to perform a seldinger chest drain unless the pneumothorax is greater than 2cm or the patient is experiencing acute breathlessness. IV antibiotics and steroids are not indicated unless there is evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection. Surgical chest drains are reserved for traumatic pneumothorax, haemothorax, or haemopneumothorax, and may be used for tension pneumothorax after a finger thoracotomy for rapid decompression.

      Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 74 - A 50-year-old woman presents with an increasing cough and shortness of breath that...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with an increasing cough and shortness of breath that has been worsening over the past year. She has experienced multiple chest infections in the last six months. Although she used to smoke 10 cigarettes a day, she quit eight years ago. She has no known allergies and works as a hairdresser. A chest x-ray came back normal. Pulmonary function testing revealed an FEV1 of 1.60 L (53% predicted), FVC of 2.86 L (78% predicted), total lung capacity of 4.83 L (110% predicted), TLCO of 6.63% (93% predicted), and KCO of 1.36 (120% predicted). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Lung Function Tests in Respiratory Diseases

      When assessing lung function in patients with respiratory diseases, several tests are used to determine the severity and type of the condition. In cases of moderate airways obstruction, the FEV1/FVC ratio is typically reduced to 56% predicted. While transfer factor and transfer co-efficient can be normal or elevated in asthma, they are always reduced in emphysema. Patients with extra-pulmonary restrictive defects, such as obesity, may show an elevated KCO with normal TLCO, but their FEV1/FVC ratio and lung volumes are reduced. In chronic bronchitis, the KCO may be relatively well preserved, but it would not be raised. Elevated KCO is more typical of asthma, possibly due to increased pulmonary capillary density secondary to active inflammation. Additionally, there is an occupational link between hair bleach/spray and asthma. these lung function tests can aid in the diagnosis and management of respiratory diseases.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 75 - A 56-year-old man presents with a confirmed right adenocarcinoma of the bronchus. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a confirmed right adenocarcinoma of the bronchus. He reports weight loss over the past few months and a persistent cough, but is still able to work and care for his family. The following investigations were conducted:

      Haemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
      White cell count (WCC): 6.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
      Platelets (PLT): 180 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      Sodium (Na+): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine (Cr): 110 ÎŒmol/l (normal range: 50-120 ÎŒmol/l)

      Which of the following tests would be most useful in determining his eligibility for surgery?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary function testing

      Correct Answer: PET/CT combined scan

      Explanation:

      The Best Imaging Modality for Determining Lymph Node Involvement in Bronchial Carcinoma

      When it comes to determining lymph node involvement in bronchial carcinoma, the PET/CT combined scan is the best imaging modality available. While pulmonary function testing can also impact suitability for surgery, it is likely that a patient with a good functional status and who cycles to work will have adequate lung function for pneumonectomy. CT thorax can provide information on tumour staging, but not lymph node involvement. Elevated serum calcium may not necessarily be a contraindication to surgery, as there are other reasons for hypercalcaemia. Finally, a CT head is of limited value if there is no indication of cerebral metastases.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 76 - A 67-year old male with metastatic small cell lung cancer presents with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old male with metastatic small cell lung cancer presents with an acutely swollen leg. An ultrasound scan reveals a femoral vein deep vein thrombosis. Later in the day, he experiences pleuritic chest pain and SOB but neglects to inform the nursing staff. As his condition worsens, he becomes tachypnoeic and his oxygen saturation level drops to 88% on air. On auscultation, he has a wheeze bilaterally and reduced air on the left with hyper-resonant percussion note. An urgent CT thorax is requested, which shows a large 5 cm pneumothorax, bilateral segmental PE's, left-sided 4x3x2 cm lung cancer (unchanged from last scan one month ago), and bibasal atelectasis. The patient stabilizes after a chest drain is inserted. What is the most likely cause of the pneumothorax?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax secondary to malignancy

      Correct Answer: Pneumothorax secondary to pulmonary embolism (PE)

      Explanation:

      PE Causing Pneumothorax: A Rare but Serious Complication

      PE causing pneumothorax is a rare but serious complication that can occur in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). In this case, the patient presented with a DVT likely due to secondary embolism from a PE. Although the patient described reflux symptoms, they were more likely to be consistent with the PE causing the pneumothorax at the time. The patient’s observations deteriorated, which also fit with PE causing the pneumothorax.

      It is important to treat the underlying pneumothorax if severe while still treating the PE with anticoagulation. Using unfractionated heparin may be favourable in cases where there is an increased risk of bleeding from the drain site. It is crucial to be aware of this rare complication and manage it appropriately to prevent further complications. Further reading on the management of spontaneous pneumothorax and secondary spontaneous pneumothorax can provide more information on how to manage this condition.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 77 - A 65-year-old man has been admitted for an infective exacerbation of COPD. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been admitted for an infective exacerbation of COPD. He presented with a productive cough, fever, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Despite receiving back-to-back nebulisers, IV hydrocortisone, and IV antibiotics, he remains in type two respiratory failure with acidosis. Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) with IPAP of 10cmH2O and EPAP of 4cmH2O was initiated and later increased to IPAP of 16cmH2O. The nursing staff inquires about the administration of nebulisers, which were prescribed every three hours.

      What is the appropriate approach to nebuliser treatment while the patient is receiving NIV?

      Your Answer: Add nebulisers into NIV mask

      Correct Answer: Take off mask to administer nebulisers

      Explanation:

      To administer nebulisers to a patient with severe COPD exacerbation, it is preferable to take off the mask rather than giving it through NIV. Stopping nebulisers or NIV is not recommended as both are necessary.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 78 - A 47-year-old man presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath. He is a Saudi Arabian national who arrived in the UK for a business trip three days ago. Over the past two days, he has experienced a dry cough, runny nose, myalgia, and fever. He denies any history of productive cough, haemoptysis, or gastrointestinal symptoms. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, which are controlled with metformin and captopril. He denies any contact with domestic animals or unwell contacts.

      On examination, the patient appears unwell and diaphoretic. His respiratory rate is mildly elevated, and his oxygen saturation is low. Chest x-ray shows no focal consolidation or mass lesions. Nasopharyngeal swab RT-PCR detects MERS-CoV RNA.

      What is the appropriate medical management for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Oral oseltamivir (75 mg twice daily for 5 days)

      Correct Answer: In-patient supportive treatment to relieve symptoms and prevent or treat complications

      Explanation:

      Understanding Middle East Respiratory Syndrome

      Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a respiratory illness caused by the MERS-CoV betacoronavirus. Currently, the virus is only found in the Arabian Peninsula and its neighboring countries. However, due to its incubation period of 2-14 days, individuals who have traveled to this region may present with MERS in other parts of the world. The primary risk factor for contracting MERS-CoV is contact with camels, including their products such as milk. The symptoms of MERS vary from mild to severe, with some cases resulting in life-threatening multi-organ failure. It is essential to understand the symptoms and risk factors associated with MERS to prevent its spread and ensure prompt treatment for those affected.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 79 - A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean male presents with sudden onset palpitations and feeling generally unwell...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean male presents with sudden onset palpitations and feeling generally unwell for 2 hours. An admission ECG in the emergency department demonstrates ventricular tachycardia. His heart rate is 80 beats/ minute with a blood pressure of 140/75 mmHg. The patient is chemically cardioverted back to sinus rhythm with a single intravenous bolus of amiodarone. The patient was commenced on haemodialysis 9 months ago after developing end-stage renal failure over a course of 16 months with no conclusive underlying cause found for the deteriorating renal function. He also complains of a new dry cough over the past 18 months, weight loss of at least one and a half stone and general malaise, which he attributes to his deteriorating kidneys.

      On examination, the patient has normal heart sounds with no additional murmurs. Auscultation of his chest demonstrates biapical find inspiratory crackles with no wheeze. Abdominal examination reveals a mild 2 cm hepatomegaly with no splenomegaly. An arteriovenous fistula is noted in the left brachiocephalic region. No skin rashes are noted. An admission chest X-ray demonstrates no clear consolidation, reticular opacities in both apices and prominent bilateral hilar, with no cardiomegaly or tramlining.

      Blood tests are as follows:

      Hb 134 g/l
      Platelets 292 * 109/l
      WBC 12.5 * 109/l

      Na+ 131 mmol/l
      K+ 5.9 mmol/l
      Urea 22.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine 540 ”mol/l

      Bilirubin 17 ”mol/l
      ALP 55 u/l
      ALT 70 u/l
      CRP 12 mg/l
      ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) negative

      Pulmonary function tests: FVC 60% predicted FEV1 92% predicted

      A bronchoalveolar lavage is performed, demonstrating lymphocytosis of 25%, CD4:CD8 ratio of 5:1, a transbronchial biopsy demonstrates non-caseating granulomas.

      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Although ACE levels are often used as a diagnostic tool for sarcoidosis, it is not a reliable indicator for ruling out the disease. Histopathology remains the most effective method for distinguishing sarcoidosis from other multisystem disorders, as tuberculosis would result in caseating granulomas, lymphomas would present with atypical lymphocytes, and amyloid would exhibit crossed beta sheets.

      Investigating Sarcoidosis

      Sarcoidosis is a disease that does not have a single diagnostic test, and therefore, diagnosis is mainly based on clinical observations. Although ACE levels may be used to monitor disease activity, they are not reliable in diagnosing sarcoidosis due to their low sensitivity and specificity. Routine blood tests may show hypercalcemia and a raised ESR.

      A chest x-ray is a common investigation for sarcoidosis and may reveal different stages of the disease. Stage 0 is normal, stage 1 shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), stage 2 shows BHL and interstitial infiltrates, stage 3 shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates only, and stage 4 shows diffuse fibrosis. Other investigations, such as spirometry, may show a restrictive defect, while a tissue biopsy may reveal non-caseating granulomas. However, the Kveim test, which involves injecting part of the spleen from a patient with known sarcoidosis under the skin, is no longer performed due to concerns about cross-infection.

      In addition, a gallium-67 scan is not routinely used to investigate sarcoidosis. CT scans may also be used to investigate sarcoidosis, and they may show diffuse areas of nodularity predominantly in a peribronchial distribution with patchy areas of consolidation, particularly in the upper lobes. Ground glass opacities may also be present, but there are no gross reticular changes to suggest fibrosis.

      Overall, investigating sarcoidosis involves a combination of clinical observations, blood tests, chest x-rays, and other investigations such as spirometry and tissue biopsy. CT scans may also be used to provide more detailed information about the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 80 - A 72-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of excessive daytime sleepiness, which...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of excessive daytime sleepiness, which has become so disruptive that he has been put on probation at work. He reports frequent morning headaches and experiences breathlessness when walking to the shops. He used to smoke 20 cigarettes a day for 20 years and drinks a pint of beer every evening at the pub. Additionally, he is clinically obese.

      Upon referral to the hospital, an arterial blood test is conducted in the evening, revealing a PaO2 of 9.9 kPa and a PaCO2 of 4.4 kPa. The following morning, the arterial blood gas is repeated, showing a PaO2 of 10.0 kPa and a PaCO2 of 9.1 kPa.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Obesity hypoventilation syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from obesity hypoventilation syndrome, which is indicated by elevated levels of carbon dioxide in the morning rather than the evening.

      Understanding Obesity Hypoventilation Syndrome

      Obesity hypoventilation syndrome is a condition characterized by two major features: obesity and daytime hypercapnia. This condition may present with symptoms similar to sleep apnoea, such as morning headaches, daytime sleepiness, reduced exercise tolerance, and poor concentration. The primary treatment for this condition involves weight loss and assisted ventilation, which may be accompanied by supplemental oxygen.

      To manage obesity hypoventilation syndrome, it is essential to address the underlying cause of obesity. This may involve dietary changes, increased physical activity, and other lifestyle modifications. Additionally, assisted ventilation may be necessary to help the patient breathe more effectively. This may involve the use of a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) machine or other devices that help to maintain an open airway during sleep.

      Supplemental oxygen may also be necessary to help improve oxygen levels in the blood. This may involve the use of an oxygen concentrator or other devices that deliver oxygen directly to the patient’s lungs. With proper treatment and management, many patients with obesity hypoventilation syndrome can experience significant improvements in their symptoms and overall quality of life.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 81 - A 79-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive airways disease (COPD) is...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive airways disease (COPD) is being discharged from the hospital after being admitted for an infective exacerbation. He has completed a seven-day course of prednisolone and is no longer on antibiotics. However, his room air Sa02 remains at 91%, indicating hypoxia. The patient's blood work shows a hemoglobin level of 134 g/l, platelet count of 350 * 109/l, and a white blood cell count of 10.2 * 109/l. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a Pa02 of 7.8 kPa, PaCO2 of 6.5 kPa, and HCO3- of 30 mmol/L. The patient's wife inquires about the possibility of having oxygen at home. What additional tests are necessary to determine if this patient would benefit from long-term oxygen therapy?

      Your Answer: Oxygen saturations before and after exercise

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the prolonged use of oxygen for patients with chronic hypoxaemia. It is prescribed for conditions such as COPD, asthma, interstitial lung disease, and heart failure. BTS guidelines state that patients should have a Pa02 consistently at or below 7.3kPa on air at a time when they are clinically stable. Patients with a Pa02 between 7.3kPa and 8 kPa and the presence of either secondary polycythaemia or clinical and/or echocardiographic evidence of pulmonary hypertension can also be prescribed LTOT. An echocardiogram is the best way to determine if a patient with chronic hypoxaemia and a Pa02 between 7.3kPa and 8 kPa would benefit from LTOT.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 82 - A 68-year-old man presents with a 5 day history of coughing up green...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a 5 day history of coughing up green sputum, increased breathlessness, wheezing, fever, and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, and diabetes. He has a smoking history of 40 pack years but quit 2 years ago.

      Upon examination, he appears unwell, flushed, and breathless at rest. Heart sounds are normal, but he has right basal crackles with bronchial breathing and wheezing. There is no leg edema or tenderness. His vital signs show a pulse of 120 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg, SaO2 = 89% on 24% oxygen, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, and T=38.5oC.

      An electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia, and a chest X-ray confirms right basal consolidation. Blood tests show Hb 13.1 g/dl, platelets 180 * 109/l, WBC 15.4 * 109/l, Na+ 135 mmol/l, K+ 4.9 mmol/l, urea 10 mmol/l, creatinine 120 ”mol/l, and CRP 180 mg/l. Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.28, pCO2 5.0 kPa, pO2 8.5 kPa, and HCO3- 15 mEq/l.

      What is the optimal management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous fluids, oral antibiotics, nebulisers and steroids

      Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids, intravenous antibiotics, nebulisers and steroids

      Explanation:

      The purpose of this inquiry is to raise awareness about the appropriate use of non-invasive ventilation (NIV) for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

      According to the guidelines, NIV should only be considered for patients with COPD exacerbation who continue to experience respiratory acidosis despite receiving maximum standard medical treatment on controlled oxygen for no more than one hour. It is important to note that NIV is not recommended for patients with COPD who develop metabolic acidosis due to sepsis from community acquired pneumonia (CAP).

      In the case of a patient with CAP who presents with metabolic acidosis and a CURB 65 score of 3, along with acute kidney injury, treatment should include intravenous fluids, antibiotics, nebulisers, and steroids, but not NIV.

      Guidelines for Non-Invasive Ventilation in Acute Respiratory Failure

      Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) is a technique used to support breathing without the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Royal College of Physicians have published guidelines on the use of NIV in acute respiratory failure. The key indications for NIV include COPD with respiratory acidosis, type II respiratory failure due to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease or obstructive sleep apnoea, cardiogenic pulmonary oedema unresponsive to CPAP, and weaning from tracheal intubation.

      The BTS guidelines recommend using NIV in patients with a pH of 7.25-7.35, but caution that more monitoring and a lower threshold for intubation should be used in patients with a pH below 7.25. The recommended initial settings for bi-level pressure support in COPD include an expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) of 4-5 cm H2O, an inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) of 12-15 cm H2O (BTS) or 10 cm H2O (RCP), a back-up rate of 15 breaths/min, and a back-up inspiration:expiration ratio of 1:3.

      Overall, these guidelines provide healthcare professionals with a framework for the safe and effective use of NIV in acute respiratory failure.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 83 - A 28-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with persistent symptoms despite being...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with persistent symptoms despite being on high dose fluticasone/salmeterol, montelukast, and oral theophylline. He has experienced four exacerbations in the past year and is unable to reduce his oral prednisone dose below 10 mg without worsening shortness of breath and wheezing. On examination, his blood pressure is 125/82 mmHg, his pulse is regular at 82 beats per minute, and he has quiet wheezing on chest auscultation. His peak flow is 435 ml/min (560 predicted), and his eosinophil count is elevated at 4.1 x 10(9)/l. IgE levels are normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Mepolizumab

      Explanation:

      Mepolizumab is a suitable treatment option for asthma patients with high eosinophils. This anti-IL5 monoclonal antibody works by binding to IL5 and preventing it from promoting eosinophil growth and activity. Studies have shown that mepolizumab can significantly improve symptoms in patients with resistant asthma. Omalizumab, on the other hand, is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody that is effective in treating resistant asthma with raised IgE and allergic symptoms. Mycophenolate is not used for resistant asthma, but rather for lupus nephritis and as an anti-rejection agent. Infliximab is used for inflammatory bowel disease and arthritides, while tiotropium is primarily used for COPD. Nebulisers are only used for asthma patients who cannot use a conventional inhaler and spacer device for beta agonist therapy.

      Respiratory medicine utilizes various drugs to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Salbutamol is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle through its effects on beta 2 receptors. It is commonly used in asthma and COPD treatment. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta receptor agonist, has similar effects. Corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory drugs used as maintenance therapy in the form of inhaled corticosteroids. Oral or intravenous corticosteroids are used following an acute exacerbation of asthma or COPD.

      Ipratropium is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, relaxing bronchial smooth muscle. It is primarily used in COPD treatment, while tiotropium has similar effects but is long-acting. Methylxanthines, such as theophylline, are non-specific inhibitors of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. They are given orally or intravenously and have a narrow therapeutic index. Monteleukast and zafirlukast block leukotriene receptors and are usually taken orally. They are useful in treating aspirin-induced asthma. Overall, these drugs play a crucial role in managing respiratory conditions and improving patients’ quality of life.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 84 - A 47-year-old man with a 20-year history of smoking 20 cigarettes a day...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man with a 20-year history of smoking 20 cigarettes a day is admitted to the hospital with increasing breathlessness, coughing up purulent sputum, and left-sided chest pain. He has also experienced poor appetite and decreased intake of food and water over the past two days. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg once daily. His father died of bronchial carcinoma at age 68, and he works as a plumber while drinking four pints of beer each night. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.5°C, a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute, and an area of bronchial breathing at the left base with associated coarse crackles. Investigations reveal abnormal levels of haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, and serum creatinine. The chest x-ray shows an area of dense consolidation in the left lower zone. Which of the following is not a factor associated with a poorer prognosis in community-acquired pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Platelet count of less than 100 ×109/L

      Explanation:

      Community acquired pneumonia can be severe and increase the risk of death. Predictors of severity include low or high white cell count, comorbidities like renal disease, multi-lobar involvement on CXR, and extreme temperatures. Thrombocytosis is associated with increased mortality. Severity scores like the PSI, Modified American Thoracic Society rule, and CURB-65 score incorporate these predictors. The CURB-65 score is easy to use and based on confusion, urea levels, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 85 - A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of shortness of breath. Additionally, he complains of a worsening cough with green sputum. He has a 25 pack-year smoking history and drinks 12 units of alcohol a week. He has a past medical history of COPD, for which he takes inhaled corticosteroids, formoterol and salbutamol.

      Upon auscultation of his chest, there are crackles at the left base, no wheezes. He has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 100 bpm, BP is 120/70 mmHg, SpO2 is 92% on 4L through a 28% Venturi mask, and he is afebrile.

      A chest X-ray shows left lower zone consolidation.

      An arterial blood gas shows the following:


      HCO3 27 (22-26 meq/L)
      pH 7.38 (7.35 - 7.45)
      pCO2 6.1 (4.5 - 6.0 kPa)
      pO2 9.9 (10 - 14 kPa)

      You have prescribed appropriate IV fluids and administered IV co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin.

      What is the most suitable additional treatment?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB 65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 86 - A 16-year-old male is brought to the resuscitation area of the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male is brought to the resuscitation area of the emergency department with an acute exacerbation of asthma. This is his second hospital visit this winter. He has widespread wheezing, poor air entry, and appears fatigued. He struggles to complete full sentences. Upon checking his arterial blood gases, the results are as follows:

      pH 7.4
      PaO2 9.3 kPa
      PaCO2 3.3 kPa
      HCO3- 26 mmol/L

      The patient is given 100% oxygen, high dose steroids, back to back salbutamol nebulisers, and an intravenous magnesium sulphate infusion. After an hour, his arterial blood gases are checked again and the results are:

      pH 7.35
      PaO2 15.4 kPa
      PaCO2 4.7 kPa
      HC03- 22 mmol/L

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Intensive care review

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 87 - A 35-year-old South American woman presents to her primary care physician with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old South American woman presents to her primary care physician with a persistent cough. She reports experiencing fever, night sweats, and weight loss for the past 10 months. She also mentions that her sputum has been occasionally blood-stained. Her medical history is unremarkable, but she has been a smoker for the past 10 years. On examination, her BMI is 18, and she has a temperature of 38°C. There are non-specific wheezes and occasional crackles on auscultation. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: HIV testing

      Correct Answer: Chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms that suggest pulmonary tuberculosis or underlying bronchial carcinoma, the most appropriate initial investigation is a chest X-ray. This can reveal calcified nodules or hilar lymph node calcification in primary infection, or fibrosis and cavitation in the case of reactivation of the tubercle. Mycobacterium serology is not recommended as a first-line investigation, but T-spot testing can be used to aid diagnosis. A CT scan of the thorax is seldom necessary if a chest X-ray shows pathological apical findings, but it can be helpful in finding further lesions if the X-ray is normal. Sputum samples should be the first attempt to test for acid-fast bacilli on Ziehl-Neelsen staining, with confirmation by growth. If no sputum can be obtained by coughing, then sputum should be induced. Finally, HIV testing should be considered later, as HIV positivity can increase the risk of tuberculosis.

      Investigations for Suspected Pulmonary Tuberculosis or Bronchial Carcinoma

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 88 - A 85-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a four-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 85-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a four-day history of increasing shortness of breath and worsening of a chronic productive cough. She does not speak English, but her medical records indicate that she recently moved from rural India to live with her family two years ago. There is no known underlying lung condition. Upon examination, bilateral expiratory wheeze and hyperexpanded lungs are observed, with no clear inspiratory crackles. Heart sounds appear normal, and mild bilateral pitting edema is present. Her saturation measures 88% on air via pulse oximeter, and her respiratory rate is 24 to 28 per minute. A chest radiograph shows hyperexpanded lungs with mild bibasal fibrotic changes but no focal signs of consolidation. She has no history of smoking or alcohol use. Her blood tests reveal:

      - Hb 15.0 g/dl
      - Platelets 211 * 109/l
      - WBC 11.4 * 109/l
      - Neutrophils 9.5 * 109/l
      - Urea 8.4 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 112 ”mol/l
      - CRP 37 mg/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Progression of pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Infective exacerbation COPD

      Explanation:

      While COPD is commonly linked to smoking, it’s important to consider other causes of chronic emphysematous changes. In individuals from developing countries, non-smokers from the Indian subcontinent and African nations may exhibit symptoms similar to COPD due to the use of open fires for cooking or heating, particularly when burned indoors. According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), up to 3 billion people cook in this manner, resulting in up to 1 million deaths worldwide from COPD without a smoking history. The clinical presentation is indicative of an obstructive pattern, and lung hyperexpansion suggests an underlying chronic lung condition, despite no prior formal diagnosis. Mild edema may indicate some degree of right heart failure from the underlying lung pathology. While bibasal fibrotic changes may suggest lung fibrosis, a restrictive pattern would be expected instead. The primary differential diagnosis would be community-acquired pneumonia, but it does not account for the chronic cough or hyperexpanded lungs.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

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  • Question 89 - A 40-year-old male presents to the HIV clinic with a complaint of a...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the HIV clinic with a complaint of a productive cough. Upon sputum analysis, it is noted that there are Gram-positive (weakly) bacilli that stain red with Ziehl Neelsen stain. What is the probable organism causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: M. tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Sputum Analysis and Identification of Pathogens

      The analysis of sputum has revealed the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a small non-motile bacillus that requires oxygen to survive. Although it is classified as a Gram positive organism, it stains weakly and appears bright red when using the Ziehl-Neelsen test. Other pathogenic bacilli include B. anthracis, which causes anthrax, and B. cereus. However, the sputum findings do not suggest the presence of these organisms.

      In addition to bacilli, respiratory illnesses in immunocompromised patients can also be caused by pathogens such as Aspergillus and Pneumocystis. However, the sputum analysis does not indicate the presence of these organisms. Proper identification of the pathogen causing the respiratory illness is crucial for effective treatment and management of the disease.

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  • Question 90 - A 55-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic with a gradual onset...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic with a gradual onset of shortness of breath. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Despite being on regular atorvastatin, salbutamol, and symbicort, he still smokes 5 cigarettes daily and has a 40 pack-year history. He lives with his wife and can only tolerate exercise for approximately 30 yards.

      During the clinical examination, the patient's chest is barrel-shaped, and there is hyper-resonance to percussion bilaterally. Auscultation reveals moderate harsh-sounding wheeze, and his fingertips are stained with nicotine. However, there is no clubbing, no peripheral edema, and the jugular venous pulse is not raised. The heart sounds are normal, and the pulse is regular.

      Lung function tests show that the patient's FEV1 is 35% (predicted), FVC is 68% (predicted), and FEV1/FVC is 51.4%. Blood tests reveal that his Hb is 154 g/L, platelets are 211 * 109/L, WBC is 7.2 * 109/L, Na+ is 133 mmol/L, K+ is 4.4 mmol/L, urea is 5.3 mmol/L, creatinine is 99 ”mol/L, bilirubin is 14 ”mol/L, ALP is 91 u/L, ALT is 34 u/L, γGT is 66 u/L, D-dimer is 333 ng/ml, albumin is 36 g/L, CRP is 4 mg/L, and BNP is 88 pg/ml.

      A plain radiography of the chest shows generalized increased lucency bilaterally but clear lung fields. Based on the patient's clinical history, what is the appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Add a long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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  • Question 91 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of a dry cough, fever and retrosternal discomfort. He has a past medical history of HIV and is poorly compliant with anti-retroviral medications. He has recently returned from a holiday in Mississippi.

      Observations:

      Heart rate 95 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 101/65 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 24/minute
      Spo2 93% on room air
      Temperature 37.3C

      The examination is unremarkable.

      A chest x-ray demonstrates multifocal consolidation that extends to the periphery of the lungs.

      Sputum microscopy reveals yeasts.

      What is the most likely organism responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Coccidioides posadasii

      Correct Answer: Histoplasma capsulatum

      Explanation:

      Histoplasma capsulatum is the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. This fungal organism is endemic to the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys and can cause respiratory symptoms such as a dry cough, fever, and chest x-ray evidence of pneumonia. The presence of yeasts on sputum microscopy further supports a fungal infection. Severe histoplasmosis is more common in immunocompromised patients, which is a concern given the patient’s history of poor compliance with HIV medications.

      Coccidioides posadasii is an incorrect answer as it causes coccidioidomycosis, which is not endemic to Mississippi. Legionella pneumophila is also incorrect as it causes a bacterial atypical pneumonia and is not necessarily endemic to Mississippi. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is another potential cause of pneumonia in a patient with HIV, but yeasts would not be seen on sputum microscopy, indicating a fungal rather than bacterial infection.

      Understanding Histoplasmosis

      Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. This infection is commonly found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys. The symptoms of histoplasmosis include upper respiratory tract infection symptoms and retrosternal pain.

      To manage histoplasmosis, pharmacological agents such as amphotericin or itraconazole are used. These agents are considered the best options for treating this infection.

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  • Question 92 - A tall 24-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A tall 24-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. The chest pain is sharp in nature and worsens on inspiration. He has no relevant medical or family history and is not taking any medications. He smokes 6 cigarettes per week for the past 5 years. Upon examination, he is tachycardic at 110 beats per minute and tachypnoeic. Blood pressure and temperature are within normal limits. Respiratory examination reveals reduced air entry on the left side, while other systems are normal. The ECG shows sinus tachycardia, and blood analysis is unremarkable. A chest radiograph reveals a left-sided pneumothorax measuring 1.7 cm at the left of the hilum. How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Chest drain insertion

      Correct Answer: High flow oxygen and chest aspiration

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with pneumothorax, which has been confirmed through a chest X-ray. The British Thoracic Society has provided guidelines for managing primary and secondary pneumothorax. As the patient has no known underlying lung disease and a minimal smoking history, this is considered a primary pneumothorax. According to the guidelines, the size of the pneumothorax should be measured horizontally at the hilum level. If the size is less than 2 cm and the patient is not experiencing breathlessness, they can be discharged with outpatient follow-up. However, if the size is greater than 2 cm or the patient is experiencing breathlessness, chest aspiration is recommended. If this does not resolve symptoms, admission for chest drain is advised. High flow oxygen can provide symptomatic relief and speed up the resolution of pneumothorax.

      Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 93 - A 35-year-old construction worker presents with a 2-month history of wheezing and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old construction worker presents with a 2-month history of wheezing and shortness of breath associated with working on construction sites and resolving about 8 h after stopping work.

      On examination, his BP is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 78/min and regular and oxygen saturation is 96% on air. He has fine inspiratory crackles and a dry cough. You suspect he is suffering from occupational asthma.

      What is the most likely finding on his chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Lower zone nodular pattern of fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Upper zone nodular pattern of fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis is a condition that affects the lungs and is caused by exposure to certain allergens. Radiological findings can help in the diagnosis of this condition. The upper zone nodular pattern of fibrosis is a common feature of extrinsic allergic alveolitis. This pattern is usually bilateral and affects the upper lobes of the lungs. However, a honeycomb pattern in the upper zones is unlikely in this condition, as it is a sign of end-stage interstitial fibrosis.

      Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is not a common feature of extrinsic allergic alveolitis. It is more commonly associated with other conditions such as sarcoidosis, malignancy, and infection. Lower zone nodular pattern of fibrosis is also not a common feature of extrinsic allergic alveolitis. This pattern is usually seen in conditions such as asbestosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and connective tissue diseases.

      Pleural thickening is a non-specific feature that can occur with both benign and malignant pleural disease. It is not a specific finding for extrinsic allergic alveolitis. In conclusion, radiological findings can help in the diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis, but a combination of clinical and radiological findings is necessary for an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 94 - A 24-year-old woman presents with a 2 month history of increasing shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presents with a 2 month history of increasing shortness of breath and feeling that her chest is tight. This has built up gradually with no obvious cause and it has reached the point where she struggles to breathe when climbing a flight of stairs. She has occasional episodes of sweating profusely at night with her having to change pillows during the night.

      She has a dry cough and a past medical history only significant for recurrent UTIs. She takes the combined oral contraceptive pill and prophylactic nitrofurantoin. She does not smoke, keeps a pet dog and was abroad in the USA 6 months ago.

      On examination, her saturations are 94% in air and she is tachypnoeic as she walks down the corridor. Her chest has a mixture of crepitations and wheeze. There is no JVP and no murmurs. She has some red scaly areas across the back of her hands. There is no clubbing and her current peak flow is 320.

      Hb 140 g/l Na+ 139 mmol/l
      Platelets 397 * 109/l K+ 3.9 mmol/l
      WBC 6.2 * 109/l Urea 5.6 mmol/l
      Neuts 3.4 * 109/l Creatinine 89 ”mol/l
      Lymphs 0.3 * 109/l CRP 32 mg/l
      Eosin 1.5 * 109/l

      Chest x-ray bilateral patchy shadows in the mid zones
      High resolution CT scan bilateral patchy areas of ground-glass opacity and interlobular septal thickening
      Bronchoalveolar lavage raised leucocytes with eosinophil predominance

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eosinophilic polyangiitis with granulomatosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary eosinophilia

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary eosinophilia is a known side effect of nitrofurantoin, which can cause symptoms such as reduced peak flow, shortness of breath, and wheezing. It is important to note that these symptoms are not indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, as this condition is characterized by preserved peak flow and does not typically present with ground glass changes. Similarly, asthma would not be associated with such changes.

      Pulmonary eosinophilia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of eosinophils in the airways and lung tissue, often accompanied by a blood eosinophilia. This condition can be caused by various factors, including Churg-Strauss syndrome, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, Loeffler’s syndrome, eosinophilic pneumonia, hypereosinophilic syndrome, tropical pulmonary eosinophilia, and certain drugs such as nitrofurantoin and sulphonamides. Less commonly, it may be associated with Wegener’s granulomatosis. Loeffler’s syndrome, which is thought to be caused by parasites such as Ascaris lumbricoides, typically presents with a fever, cough, and night sweats lasting less than two weeks and is generally self-limiting. Acute eosinophilic pneumonia is highly responsive to steroids, while tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is associated with Wuchereria bancrofti infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 95 - A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and alcohol...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and alcohol misuse comes in with a fever and productive cough. He denies any weight loss or coughing up blood. He was born and raised in the United States and has never traveled abroad. He has never been a smoker. During the examination, he has crackles in his left upper lobe but is otherwise stable. A chest X-ray shows consolidation that is cavitating in his left upper lobe. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumonia

      Explanation:

      The upper lobe pneumonia caused by Klebsiella is commonly observed in individuals with diabetes and alcoholism, and often results in cavitation. Other possible diagnoses for this patient may include tuberculosis or lung cancer, but these are typically accompanied by weight loss and a history of travel to Eastern Europe or Asia.

      Understanding Klebsiella Pneumoniae

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the gut flora of humans. However, it can also cause various infections such as pneumonia and urinary tract infections. It is more prevalent in individuals who have alcoholism or diabetes. Aspiration is a common cause of pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae. One of the distinct features of this type of pneumonia is the production of red-currant jelly sputum. It usually affects the upper lobes of the lungs.

      The prognosis for Klebsiella pneumoniae infections is not good. It often leads to the formation of lung abscesses and empyema, which can be fatal. The mortality rate for this type of infection is between 30-50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 96 - A 42-year-old female teacher is referred by her general practitioner due to a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female teacher is referred by her general practitioner due to a dry, nocturnal cough that has been present for the past four months. She is a non-smoker and does not produce any sputum. She has not experienced any haemoptysis and has a similar exercise tolerance to her colleagues despite maintaining a steady weight. Upon examination, her chest is clear to auscultation. She is 5' 6 (1.68m) tall and weighs 72 kg (BMI = 26.1 kg/m2). The results of her spirometry are as follows:

      FEV1 2.8 L (Predicted 3.10 L)
      FVC 3.9 L (Predicted 4.00 L)
      FEV1/FVC 0.72 (Predicted 0.77)
      PEFR 420 L/min (Predicted 440 L/min)

      What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Peak flow chart

      Explanation:

      Investigating Nocturnal Dry Cough: Common Causes and Diagnostic Considerations

      Nocturnal dry cough can be caused by various conditions, including asthma, reflux, and post nasal drip. However, when spirometry shows an obstructive picture with an FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 70%, reflux and post nasal drip can be excluded as possible causes. This eliminates the need for oesophageal manometry and nasendoscopy as diagnostic options.

      Obstructive sleep apnoea can also be ruled out as a cause, as it would typically present with a restrictive defect secondary to obesity. Therefore, sleep studies may not be a useful diagnostic tool in this case. While bronchoscopy can be used to investigate a possible bronchial carcinoma, it is a highly invasive investigation and not typically used as a first-line option without any indication of malignancy in the patient’s history.

      Instead, maintaining a peak flow chart can be a useful diagnostic tool. A variation of greater than 25% on the chart, before and after bronchodilator use, would support an initial diagnosis of reversible small airways disease, such as asthma. By considering these common causes and diagnostic options, healthcare professionals can effectively investigate and manage nocturnal dry cough in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 26-year-old male employed in a plastic factory complained of experiencing difficulty in...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male employed in a plastic factory complained of experiencing difficulty in breathing. He had just come back from a two-week vacation in Spain where he was in good health. At 2:00 AM, he arrived at the Emergency department after using his salbutamol inhaler eight times. However, he recuperated fully after receiving treatment with a salbutamol nebulizer and steroids. What condition is he most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

      Correct Answer: Occupational asthma

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma: Causes, Symptoms, and Prevention

      Occupational asthma is a prevalent lung disease in the western world, with over 500 known causes. It is responsible for up to 10% of adult-onset asthma cases and is caused by exposure to agents encountered in the workplace. The most commonly affected occupations in the United Kingdom include paint sprayers, bakers, chemical processors, plastics workers, solderers, and laboratory technicians. Symptoms typically include breathlessness, wheezing, and coughing during the workweek, which subside during periods away from work, such as holidays.

      Symptoms do not usually appear immediately upon first exposure but may develop days, months, or even years later. Early removal from exposure to the sensitizing agent can lead to remission of asthma, although sensitization to the agent is typically permanent. It is crucial for individuals in high-risk occupations to take preventative measures, such as wearing protective equipment and monitoring their symptoms closely. By taking these precautions, individuals can reduce their risk of developing occupational asthma and maintain their respiratory health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 98 - A 29-year-old female with a history of cystic fibrosis comes to the respiratory...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female with a history of cystic fibrosis comes to the respiratory clinic for evaluation. Her primary care physician sent a sputum sample before the appointment due to her worsening cough and difficulty breathing. Which microbe is linked to the poorest prognosis?

      Your Answer: Burkholderia

      Explanation:

      Burkholderia is the correct answer. Although all the listed pathogens can cause cystic fibrosis exacerbation, Burkholderia and Pseudomonas are particularly challenging to eliminate. Burkholderia, in particular, has a poor prognosis.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 99 - A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of dyspnoea, dry cough, and palpitations. On examination, his temperature is 37.3ÂșC, respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg with a heart rate of 100 bpm. Reduced air entry in the right lower zone is noted on auscultation, and a chest radiograph confirms a right pneumothorax. A thoracostomy tube is immediately placed on the right side.

      During the morning ward round, 3 days later, it is observed that there is an air leak of 50cc while checking the chest drain. A repeat chest radiograph shows that the right pneumothorax is still present.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Thoracic surgery consultation

      Explanation:

      If a patient with primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP) has a persistent air leak (such as bubbling chest drain) or the lung fails to re-expand after 3-5 days of draining, it is important to seek a thoracic surgical opinion. Resuscitation should be the first step, focusing on airway stabilization and supplemental oxygen to treat hypoxemia and aid in air absorption from the pleural space. If air needs to be removed, options include observation with or without oxygen, needle aspiration, or chest tube/catheter thoracostomy. A prolonged air leak lasting 3-7 days requires checking for the source and consulting a thoracic surgeon for a more aggressive approach. Applying supplemental oxygen, observation for 48 hours, suction, or changing the tube are not appropriate solutions in this case.

      Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      66
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 75-year-old woman presents with a one stone weight loss and lethargy over...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with a one stone weight loss and lethargy over the past four months. She has a persistent cough and has been coughing up blood. She used to smoke 20 cigarettes a day but quit four months ago when her symptoms began. She had a history of pulmonary tuberculosis 15 years ago but is unsure of the treatment she received. Her lab results show a low white cell count, positive Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins, and a solid lesion on her left lung apex. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      Aspergilloma in a Tuberculous Cavity: A Potential Cause of Haemoptysis

      The lesion found in the left apex is most likely an aspergilloma that has developed in an old tuberculous cavity. Although aspergillomas may not cause any symptoms, they can lead to haemoptysis in up to 75% of patients. In some cases, haemoptysis can be severe and even fatal. Patients may also experience systemic symptoms such as weight loss, lethargy, and fever, although these are less common.

      On a chest X-ray, an aspergilloma appears as a solid opacity within a cavity, often accompanied by a rim of air. However, these features are more clearly visible on computed tomography. To confirm the diagnosis, precipitating antibodies are often present in 95% of cases.

      In summary, an aspergilloma in a tuberculous cavity can be a potential cause of haemoptysis and other symptoms. It is important to diagnose and manage this condition promptly to prevent severe complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      17.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (56/100) 56%
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