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Question 1
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A middle-aged man named John presents to the Emergency department with self-harm. The trigger for this was his wife asking him for a divorce.
John informs you that he could have been a successful businessman himself had he chosen and wants to know your exact income. He then asks to speak to your supervisor instead, and when you explain this is not possible, he refuses to continue the interview, saying that he is a financial expert and can be treated only by professionals.
His wife, who brought him in, explains that she can no longer cope with the patient's selfishness and lack of consideration. Things came to a head last night when she was upset and was crying. John stormed into her room to complain that the noise was keeping him awake. He then accused his wife of doing this purposively because she envied John's financial success. One of her friends went to college with John and says he has always been like this.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:Based on the collateral history provided, it is more likely that the individual is exhibiting a personality disorder rather than a mental illness. Specifically, the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for narcissistic personality disorder may be applicable. This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy, which typically begins in early adulthood and is present in various contexts. To meet the diagnostic criteria, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success of power, a belief that they are special and unique, a need for excessive admiration, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, a lack of empathy, envy of others, and arrogant or haughty behaviors or attitudes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are asked to assist a middle-aged woman who is experiencing hyperventilation and finger spasms. She has had multiple similar episodes in the past few weeks, both at home and at work. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Panic disorder
Explanation:The symptoms described are consistent with panic disorder, as rapid hyperventilation and carpopedal spasm are common during panic attacks. Agoraphobia is not suggested as the episodes have occurred at home, ruling out the fear of leaving one’s safe space. Complex partial seizure is unlikely as there is no loss of consciousness. Generalized anxiety disorder is not a match as the anxiety is episodic. Social phobia is also unlikely as the symptoms do not align with this disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A middle-aged individual reports regularly wearing their partner's clothing without feeling sexually aroused, maintaining a positive relationship with their partner, and having no desire to permanently identify as the opposite gender. What diagnosis would be most appropriate for this individual's situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dual-role transvestism
Explanation:Types of Gender and Sexual Identity
Dual-role transvestism refers to the act of wearing clothing typically associated with the opposite sex without experiencing discomfort with one’s biological gender of a desire to permanently live as the opposite sex. This behavior is not accompanied by sexual arousal, which distinguishes it from fetishistic transvestism. Fetishistic transvestism, on the other hand, involves wearing clothing of the opposite sex for the purpose of sexual arousal. Transsexualism is a desire to live as a member of the opposite sex, often accompanied by discomfort with one’s biological gender and a desire for gender reassignment. Sexual dysfunction encompasses a range of difficulties with sexual desire and performance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old child has several tics. What is a characteristic symptom of Tourette's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vocal tics
Explanation:Tourette’s syndrome, also known as combined vocal and motor tic disorder, is characterized by multiple motor tics and one of more vocal tics. Inattention may be present but is not a defining symptom. Coprophagia, of the act of eating feces, is not associated with Tourette’s syndrome and is more commonly seen in individuals with learning difficulties of chronic psychotic disorders. Glossolalia, of speaking in tongues, is not related to psychopathology and is not a feature of Tourette’s syndrome.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A concerned individual informs you that their 40-year-old friend has been housebound for the past year due to anxiety. The friend last went shopping a year ago and expressed feeling too nervous to leave the house again. The individual reports no knowledge of any panic attacks. The friend is now experiencing low mood and has begun to lose contact with friends. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Agoraphobia
Explanation:Agoraphobia is the most probable diagnosis, even though not all individuals with agoraphobia experience panic attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which statement below best describes Cotard's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occurs mostly in elderly age group
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a disorder characterized by sudden onset of nihilistic delusions, including beliefs of poverty, negation, and meaninglessness. Hypochondriacal delusions and feelings of guilt may also be present. This condition is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females, and is often associated with depression and organic illnesses.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As the liaison psychiatry doctor on-call, you are requested to assess a 42-year-old male patient in the early hours of the morning on a general medical ward. He was admitted with pancreatitis twelve hours ago and has been medically cleared. The patient has no significant past medical of psychiatric history, but he has become paranoid and delusional, believing that there are bugs crawling under his skin. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delirium tremens (DTs)
Explanation:The presence of acute psychosis, visual hallucinations, and formications in an individual with pancreatitis likely caused by alcohol suggests severe alcohol withdrawal of DTs, which should have been prevented with prophylactic treatment using Librium (chlordiazepoxide). Schizophrenia is improbable due to the patient’s age, sudden onset of symptoms, and lack of first rank symptoms. Korsakoff’s of amnesic syndrome typically precedes Wernicke’s, and parenteral Pabrinex (thiamine) is usually administered prophylactically. Since the patient was an inpatient, it is unlikely that he had access to illicit drugs, and the absence of post-seizure psychosis rules out that possibility.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is indicative of a hypomanic episode in an individual diagnosed with bipolar disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disturbance of psychosocial function
Explanation:Hypomania is a milder form of mania (F30.1) that lacks hallucinations of delusions but still presents persistent and noticeable changes in mood and behavior that exceed those seen in cyclothymia (F34.0). To diagnose hypomania, these features must be present for several consecutive days and cause significant interference with work of social activity. However, if the disruption is severe of complete, mania (F30.1 of F30.2) should be considered instead.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman, with a lengthy history of alcohol misuse, presents in a disorganized and bewildered state. She has significant difficulty maintaining her balance. What clinical manifestation would provide the strongest evidence for a diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nystagmus and ataxia of gait
Explanation:The typical symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy include ophthalmoplegia (such as horizontal and vertical nystagmus, weakness of paralysis of the lateral rectus muscles, and weakness of paralysis of conjugate gaze), ataxia (primarily affecting stance of gait, often without clear intention tremor), and confusion. If a patient presents with drowsiness, jaundice, and metabolic flap, it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. On the other hand, nystagmus and intention tremor are indicative of alcohol withdrawal.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old male with a prolonged history of alcohol abuse arrives at the Emergency department displaying evident disorientation, a lateral gaze palsy, and lack of coordination. His blood alcohol concentration measures at 68 mg per 100 mls blood, while his electrolytes, complete blood count, and liver function tests appear normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy
Explanation:If a patient presents with confusion, eye signs (ophthalmoplegia of nystagmus), and an ataxic gait, Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be suspected. This serious, but reversible, condition is most commonly caused by alcohol dependence and is due to a lack of Vitamin B1 (thiamine). Acute alcohol intoxication is unlikely as the patient’s blood alcohol level is below the legal limit for driving. Amnesic syndrome is not the correct diagnosis as it is characterized by impairment of new learning without obvious confusion. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterized by urinary incontinence, gait disturbance, and cognitive decline. Subdural hematoma is not a likely diagnosis as there is no history of head injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to her doctor and reports feeling anxious and self-conscious in social situations, particularly at work meetings where she worries that her colleagues view her as unintelligent of uninteresting. Despite no one ever expressing such opinions to her, she avoids social gatherings such as football games, pubs, and family events. She notes that this has been a lifelong issue, but has become more severe since starting her current job with frequent meetings. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:An Overview of Anxiety Disorders
Anxiety disorders are a group of mental health conditions that are characterised by excessive and persistent feelings of fear, worry, and apprehension. There are several types of anxiety disorders, each with its own unique set of symptoms and diagnostic criteria.
Social phobia, also known as social anxiety disorder, is characterised by intermittent anxiety that is associated with specific social situations. Individuals with social phobia often feel the need to perform of fear being scrutinised in these situations, leading to avoidance as a maladaptive coping strategy.
Generalised anxiety disorder, on the other hand, is characterised by persistent free-floating anxiety that is not necessarily tied to any specific situation of trigger.
Paranoid personality disorder is not typically associated with anxiety as a key feature, although individuals with this condition may experience other symptoms such as suspiciousness and mistrust.
In contrast, paranoid schizophrenia may involve self-referential delusions, although the cognitive distortions seen in social phobia are not considered delusional.
Finally, specific phobia is a category of anxiety disorders that involves intense fear of anxiety in response to a specific object of situation, such as heights of spiders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You receive a call from a fellow physician who is worried she might be experiencing panic disorder. What symptom is most indicative of this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Episodic anxiety
Explanation:Panic disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by sudden and intense episodes of anxiety that often occur without warning. Physical symptoms such as palpitations and dizziness are common during these episodes. Fear of collapsing of dying is a common psychological symptom associated with this disorder. Free-floating anxiety is a feature of generalized anxiety disorder, while situational anxiety is more characteristic of specific phobic anxiety. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) classifies panic disorder as F41.0, also known as episodic paroxysmal anxiety.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You observe a 42-year-old woman with delusions referred by her primary care physician. She is convinced that George Clooney is deeply in love with her. Over the past two months, she has attempted to send him 50 handwritten letters, along with numerous gifts. She frequently visits locations associated with the actor and places where he is attending public events. She believes that he is unable to express his true feelings for her due to the potential backlash from his wife and fans. What syndrome is being exhibited in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: De Clérambault's syndrome
Explanation:De Clérambault’s syndrome is characterized by amorous delusions where the patient believes that a person of higher social status, often a public figure, is in love with them. These delusions are not based on any actual contact of encouragement from the subject. Patients with this syndrome may also experience delusions of persecution. Due to their strong belief in the reality of their delusions, patients often lack insight and may not seek help. Treatment can include psychotherapy and antipsychotics. Other syndromes with delusional symptoms include Capgras syndrome, Cotard’s syndrome, Ekbom’s syndrome, and Othello’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 14
Incorrect
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John is a 25-year-old man who has been referred for depression that has not improved with two courses of SSRIs. He reports feeling low, but his mood improves significantly when he spends time with his friends. He used to enjoy playing video games, but now finds it difficult to concentrate on them.
John believes that his current problems stem from his recent breakup with his girlfriend. He feels like he is carrying a heavy weight on his shoulders. He denies having trouble sleeping, but is concerned about his recent weight gain.
He complains of having an insatiable appetite and has had to buy new clothes because his old ones no longer fit. John feels like people are treating him differently because of his weight gain. When asked about his eating habits, he becomes upset and feels like he is being judged for being overweight.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atypical depression
Explanation:Atypical depression can often be mistaken for a personality disorder due to its symptoms, which include sensitivity to rejection, low but reactive mood, some ability to experience pleasure (though not to normal levels), hyperphagia with at least 3 kg of weight gain in three months, hypersomnia, and a feeling of heaviness in the limbs. However, the key to diagnosing atypical depression is a change in function. It is important to gather collateral history to determine if there is a lifelong pattern of problems that have been exacerbated of if the break-up is due to the depression and the resulting sensitivity to rejection. The preferred treatment for atypical depression is MAOIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about OCD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be diagnosed in the presence of delusions and hallucinations
Explanation:According to current diagnostic criteria in both the ICD-10 and DSM IV, OCD can co-occur with psychotic disorders. OCD is a chronic and debilitating disorder characterized by intrusive and distressing obsessions and/of compulsions that cause significant distress to the individual and their loved ones. Obsessions are recurrent and unpleasant thoughts, images, of impulses, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors that a person feels compelled to perform. These behaviors are often ritualistic and follow intrusive thoughts, with resistance to carrying out compulsions resulting in increased anxiety. Patients with OCD typically recognize that their obsessions and compulsions are irrational and experience them as ego dystonic. While an obsessional personality is over-represented among OCD patients, about a third of patients have other types of personality. While magnetic resonance imaging has not revealed any consistent structural brain abnormality specific to OCD patients, studies using SPECT and PET have shown increased activity in certain brain regions, such as the frontal lobe and orbitofrontal activity. Contrary to Freud’s theory, OCD has been linked to anal fixation rather than oedipal fixation, with obsessional symptoms occurring as a way of avoiding impulses related to the subsequent genital and oedipal stages.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old firefighter comes to the hospital six weeks after responding to a major fire incident. He is worried that he might be suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
What symptom would be the most indicative of this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flashbacks of the traumatic event
Explanation:While EMDR can be beneficial for various disorders, its effectiveness does not hold any diagnostic significance for PTSD. The presence of flashbacks of distressing reliving experiences is the primary requirement for diagnosing PTSD, and other symptoms such as autonomic disturbance, avoidance of work, and increased sensitivity to noise are not necessary for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following diagnostic characteristics is most strongly linked to schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Running commentary' hallucinations
Explanation:Somatisation is a clinical feature that can be present in a variety of disorders and is not exclusive to schizophrenia. Delusions of guilt and grandeur are more commonly associated with affective psychosis, while running commentary is a classic symptom of schizophrenia and is given diagnostic significance in ICD-10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 18
Incorrect
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In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of wrist cutting. Upon evaluation, you determine that she has a personality disorder. What specific type of personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Anankastic personality disorder is a personality disorder characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. It falls under cluster C personality disorders according to DSM-IV classification.
Deliberate self-harm is commonly associated with cluster B personality disorders. In the United Kingdom, poisoning by drugs accounts for 90% of deliberate self-harm cases, while wrist cutting accounts for 6-7%, and all other methods combined account for 3-4%. Frequent wrist cutting can be a part of recurrent suicidal gestures seen in individuals with depressive disorder, schizophrenia, and borderline personality disorder.
The reasons for wrist cutting are varied and complex, including a means of punishment oneself, reducing tension, feeling bodily instead of emotional pain, wishing to die, testing the benevolence of fate, seeking an interruption to an unendurable state of tension, crying for help, communicating with others, and unbearable symptoms.
Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by impulsive acts, mood instability, and chaotic relationships. Individuals with BPD are impulsive in areas that have a potential for self-harm and exhibit recurrent suicidal gestures such as wrist cutting, overdose, of self-mutilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient was started on an antipsychotic medication for the first time. She presented with fluctuating blood pressure, hyperthermia, confusion, urinary incontinence, and elevated levels of creatinine kinase. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious and potentially fatal complication of neuroleptic treatment that is characterized by hyperthermia, rigidity, confusion, diaphoresis, autonomic instability, elevated creatinine phosphokinase, and leukocytosis. It can occur at any time during antipsychotic treatment and is often misdiagnosed as an exacerbation of psychosis. Therefore, it is crucial to accurately diagnose NMS.
Dystonias are abnormal movements of postures caused by brief of prolonged muscle contractions, including oculogyric crisis, tongue protrusion, trismus, torticollis, laryngeal pharyngeal dystonias, and dystonic postures of limbs and trunk.
Symptoms of parkinsonism include muscle stiffness (lead pipe rigidity), cogwheel rigidity, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and drooling. The pill rolling tremor of idiopathic parkinsonism is rare, but a regular coarse tremor similar to essential tremor may be present.
Tardive dyskinesia is a delayed effect of antipsychotics that rarely occurs until after six months of treatment. Tardive dystonia is a form of drug-induced secondary dystonia.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the subsequent options is not classified as a personality disorder in the ICD-10?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizotypal
Explanation:While schizotypal personality disorder is included in the DSM, it is not listed as a separate diagnosis in the ICD-10. Instead, it is classified under the umbrella of schizophrenia. However, all of the other personality disorders mentioned are recognized in both the ICD-10 and DSM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A teenage girl refuses to attend social events with her peers due to her fear of having bad breath, even though others have told her she does not have it. She insists on staying home alone. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Taijin-jikoshu-kyofu
Explanation:Culture-bound syndromes are conditions that are specific to certain cultures and are often accompanied by culturally accepted beliefs and practices for treatment. These syndromes may not fit into the diagnostic criteria of Western medicine and are often unique to certain regions of ethnic groups. Examples of culture-bound syndromes include Taijin-jikoshu-kyofu in Japan, Piblokto in the Arctic, Koro in Malaysia, Locura among Latinos in the United States and Latin America, and Susto among Latinos in the United States and in Mexico, Central America, and South America. These syndromes are often associated with social and cultural factors and may require culturally sensitive approaches to treatment.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired teacher was referred to your team by the liaison service for further assessment following a recent episode of confusion during hospital admission for a surgical procedure. Her acute confusion was treated with haloperidol and she developed severe rigidity.
The patient's family reported that she has been somewhat forgetful in the last 12-18 months. They also gave a longer history of disturbed sleep almost once a week, in which she screams and sometimes acts out her dreams. She herself was more troubled by 'tremors' and few episodes in evenings when she saw a 'strange army' in her lounge. On MMSE she scored 23/30.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Research has shown that there is a connection between idiopathic rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder (IRBD) and the onset of neurodegenerative diseases that involve alpha synucleinopathy, such as Parkinson’s disease (PD), dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), and multiple systems atrophy (MSA).
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- Diagnosis
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the probable diagnosis for an adult physicist who avoids teaching and publishing, is known for walking barefoot and dressing casually, and prefers solitude over socializing with colleagues and students?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:Schizoid personality disorder is a personality disorder that is only recognized in the ICD-10. It is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise of criticism, little interest in sexual experiences, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and insensitivity to social norms. When diagnosing this disorder, it is important to differentiate it from an autistic spectrum disorder. One way to do this is to look for a lack of reliance on routines and rituals, as well as a lack of desire for friendship of relationships. While individuals with an autistic spectrum disorder may struggle with relationships, they typically desire them and experience feelings of loneliness.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is in a car accident where several individuals lose their lives. Although she is not physically harmed, she experiences a sense of detachment, confusion, and disorientation in the days that ensue, along with physical symptoms of trembling and perspiration. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a brief yet intense condition triggered by a highly distressing event that can cause a range of symptoms. Although the symptoms can appear quickly, they typically subside within a few days. These symptoms may include psychological effects like feeling disconnected of confused, as well as physical symptoms such as sweating, trembling, heart palpitations, and difficulty sleeping. In some cases, individuals may progress to develop post-traumatic stress disorder.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Tim displays odd behavior, such as avoiding stepping on thresholds due to superstition, and provides excessively detailed answers to questions. He strongly believes in UFOs and government contact with them, and his social life revolves around an online community focused on these beliefs. He lives with his mother and has never been in a romantic relationship. His family has expressed concern about his odd behavior and potential for schizophrenia, but he has not exhibited hallucinations like his aunt. Based on these symptoms, what do you suspect Tim has?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizotypal PD
Explanation:Schizotypal PD is classified differently in DSM-IV and ICD-10, with the latter listing it under psychotic disorders. It is genetically linked to schizophrenia and often found in first-degree relatives of those with the disorder. In this case, there is no evidence of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder, but the individual’s beliefs are outside of cultural norms. The DSM-IV criteria for schizotypal PD include social and interpersonal deficits, cognitive of perceptual distortions, and eccentric behavior. The individual must exhibit at least five of the listed criteria, such as odd beliefs of magical thinking, unusual perceptual experiences, and suspiciousness of paranoid ideation. The disorder cannot be exclusively attributed to another mental health condition.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man has been out of contact with his daughter for several weeks whilst she has been on vacation. Upon her return, she finds him confused and unclothed on the couch in his apartment. He is unsteady on his feet and unable to recall how long he has been there, suggesting that he has also just returned from vacation. He points to rats on the floor of his apartment, which his daughter cannot see. He is taken to the hospital, where he is diagnosed with ataxia and ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following conditions would make this man more susceptible to the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol dependence
Explanation:The most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is alcohol dependence, which can lead to a depletion of B1 stores and result in Wernicke’s encephalopathy. While hypertension and type 2 diabetes are risk factors for vascular disease, they typically present with focal neurological signs rather than confusion. The patient’s triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, along with visual hallucinations and confabulation, suggest a Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result from a thiamine deficiency. While anorexia nervosa can also cause B1 deficiency, it is an unlikely condition in an elderly gentleman, and other conditions causing malabsorption can also trigger Wernicke’s. While diabetics can experience delirium from low blood sugars and infections, the specific symptoms described here are not typical of these causes. While people with learning difficulties may be more prone to delirium with concurrent illness, it is not likely to cause the specific triad of symptoms seen in this patient.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman is experiencing constant fatigue~ sadness~ and tearfulness~ as well as poor sleep. These symptoms have been present for the past 3 months. She recently delivered her third child 4 months ago. She has lost interest in socializing~ work~ and sex~ and feels guilty for not being able to feel happy despite having a healthy baby and a supportive family. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postpartum depression
Explanation:It is highly probable that the individual is experiencing postpartum depression, as all the symptoms are characteristic and have manifested within a year of giving birth. While the ‘baby blues’ is a brief and immediate response, postnatal depression typically develops within two to three months after delivery.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Samantha is a middle-aged woman who has been brought to the Emergency department by her husband. He is concerned about her recent behavior and wants her to be evaluated by a medical professional.
Samantha is initially resistant to speaking with you, stating that she only wants to speak with a specialist. She explains that she is a successful businesswoman and needs to be treated by someone who understands her unique needs. She is unsure why her husband has brought her in, but suspects that he is jealous of her success. As she speaks, she paces the room and is anxious to return to work.
Her husband tells you that Samantha has been working long hours and has become increasingly irritable and demanding. She has been spending a lot of money on expensive clothes and accessories, and he recently discovered that she has been using their joint credit card to make these purchases. When confronted, Samantha said that she needed to look her best to maintain her professional image and that she deserved to treat herself.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mania
Explanation:It is important to note that there is no collateral history available and the duration of the observed behaviour pattern is unknown. Additionally, the individual’s excessive panting and pacing may indicate motor over-activity, which is consistent with symptoms of mania. Therefore, it is necessary to consider the possibility of a drug-induced state as a potential differential diagnosis. However, until further information is obtained, it is crucial to treat this as an episode of mania.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man was at a concert when a firework exploded nearby. He was standing at the time and the force of the blast threw him to the ground. He suffered a broken arm and multiple cuts. Several people were killed and many others were injured.
After four months, he experiences nightmares about the incident, struggles to sleep, has avoided going to concerts since, and jumps at sudden sounds. He often finds himself unable to stop thinking about what happened.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder
Explanation:Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a condition that develops in response to an exceptionally threatening of catastrophic event of situation, such as the one described above. It is only diagnosed if symptoms arise within six months of the traumatic event. The symptoms of PTSD can be categorized into three groups: re-experiencing the traumatic event (such as through nightmares of vivid thoughts), persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma, and persistent symptoms of increased arousal (such as difficulty sleeping of concentrating).
Agoraphobia is a fear of being in situations of places from which escape is difficult, leading to avoidance of many situations and confinement to the home. This fear is typically triggered by situations such as crowds, public places, of traveling alone of away from home.
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent anxiety that is not limited to any specific environmental circumstance. To receive this diagnosis, a patient must experience symptoms of anxiety on most days for several weeks of months, with evidence of impairment in important areas of functioning. However, this diagnosis is not appropriate for the scenario described above, as the anxiety is related to a specific event of trigger.
Panic disorder involves sudden onset of severe anxiety, with at least three panic attacks experienced over a three-week period. Symptoms may include sweating, palpitations, shortness of breath, nausea, trembling, chest pain of discomfort, dizziness of lightheadedness, chills of hot flushes, fear of losing control of dying, paraesthesia, feeling of choking, and derealization or depersonalization.
Social phobia is characterized by a marked fear of social situations in which embarrassment may occur, leading to avoidance of these situations.
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- Diagnosis
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male alcoholic presents to the Emergency department with symptoms of ataxia, abnormal eye movements, confusion, and signs of dehydration. He also has a low blood sugar level. What is the initial treatment that should be given to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiamine IV, IV replacement of other vitamins, then both orally thereafter
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires immediate replacement of thiamine. The preferred route of administration is intravenous (IV). It is important to note that correcting hypoglycemia should not be attempted before thiamine replenishment, as a large dose of sugar, especially glucose, can worsen the encephalopathy. Rehydration to restore blood volume should follow as needed.
In the UK, Pabrinex is the usual treatment for thiamine replacement, which also contains vitamins B2, B3, B6, and C. Parenteral treatment is given for at least 5 days. The prognosis depends on the severity of the condition. Early treatment leads to rapid and complete recovery. However, established Wernicke’s encephalopathy can have serious long-term consequences, and patients may require permanent inpatient care.
Source: https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg100/chapter/Recommendations#wernickes-encephalopathy
https://academic.oup.com/alcalc/article/48/4/514/533760 -
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