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  • Question 1 - A 43-year-old man is suspected of having a renal calculus. He has some...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man is suspected of having a renal calculus. He has some investigations carried out by the general practitioner to monitor the effects of his medication. The following results are obtained:
      Plasma
      Na+ 138 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
      K+ 3.1 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
      24-hour urine sample:
      Ca2+ 40 mg/day (100–300 mg/day)
      Given the results above, which one of the following is the patient most likely taking?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Overview of Different Types of Diuretics and Their Effects on Electrolytes and Renal Calculi Formation

      Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. However, different types of diuretics have varying effects on electrolyte balance and renal calculi formation.

      Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, work in the distal tubule of the nephron and result in sodium and potassium loss in urine, with calcium resorption. This makes them useful in controlling chronic renal calculi formation. However, they can also cause hypokalemia and hypercalcemia.

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, work in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and result in sodium, potassium, and calcium loss in urine. This can increase the risk of renal calculi formation.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as acetazolamide, work in the proximal convoluted tubule and produce alkaline urine rich in bicarbonate. Continued use can lead to metabolic acidosis and an increased risk of renal calculi formation.

      Aldosterone antagonists, such as spironolactone, work in the distal part of the distal tubule and collecting tubules and inhibit aldosterone-mediated sodium absorption and potassium excretion. This can result in hyperkalemia.

      Mannitol, a osmotic diuretic, may cause hyponatremia but does not usually affect plasma potassium or urinary calcium excretion.

      Overall, understanding the different types of diuretics and their effects on electrolyte balance and renal calculi formation is important in selecting the appropriate medication for a patient’s specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      105.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old woman presents with persistent generalized itching and yellowing of the skin...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with persistent generalized itching and yellowing of the skin for the past 4 weeks. The symptoms have been gradually worsening. She has no significant medical history and is postmenopausal. She lives with her husband and has a monogamous sexual relationship. Vital signs are normal, but her skin and sclera are yellowish. There is mild enlargement of the liver and spleen. Her serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is 250 iu/l, aspartate transaminase (AST) level 320 iu/l, alkaline phosphatase level 2500 iu/l, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase level 125 iu/l, total bilirubin level 51.3 μmol/l and direct bilirubin level 35.9 μmol/l. Hepatitis B and C serologic tests are negative, but her serum titre of anti-mitochondrial antibody is elevated. What medication would be most effective for long-term treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Ursodeoxycholic acid is a medication that can slow down the progression of liver failure in patients with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). PBC is characterized by symptoms such as general itching, elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase and direct hyperbilirubinemia, and high levels of anti-mitochondrial antibodies. Ursodeoxycholic acid is a synthetic secondary bile acid that reduces the synthesis of cholesterol and bile acids in the liver, which helps to reduce the total bile acid pool and prevent hepatotoxicity caused by the accumulation of bile acids.

      Corticosteroids are commonly used to treat autoimmune hepatitis.

      Etanercept is a medication that inhibits tumour necrosis factor and is used to treat conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis.

      Lamivudine is a nucleoside analogue that can inhibit viral reverse transcriptase and is used to treat infections caused by HIV or HBV.

      Cholestyramine is a medication that binds to bile acids in the intestinal lumen, preventing their reabsorption. It is used to treat conditions such as hypercholesterolemia, pruritus, and diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient attends the neurology clinic following a referral from the GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the neurology clinic following a referral from the GP due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the right trigeminal nerve.
      Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy in an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle

      Correct Answer: Bite weakness on the right

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Cranial Nerve Lesions

      Cranial nerves are responsible for various functions in the head and neck region. Damage to these nerves can result in specific symptoms that can help identify the location and extent of the lesion. Here are some common symptoms of cranial nerve lesions:

      1. Bite weakness on the right: The masticatory muscles are served by the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Therefore, weakness in biting on the right side can indicate damage to this nerve.

      2. Loss of taste in anterior two-thirds of the tongue: The facial nerve carries taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of taste sensation in this region.

      3. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle: The muscles of facial expression, including the buccinator, are supplied by the motor fibers carried in the facial nerve. Paralysis of this muscle on the right side can indicate damage to the facial nerve.

      4. Hyperacusis: The stapedius muscle, which is innervated by the facial nerve, helps dampen down loud noise by attenuating transmission of the acoustic signal in the middle ear. Damage to the facial nerve can result in hyperacusis, a condition where sounds are perceived as too loud.

      5. Loss of taste in posterior third of the tongue: The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies the posterior third of the tongue. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of taste sensation in this region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. During the examination, a purpuric rash is observed on the trunk and limbs.

      What condition is this patient at risk for?

      Your Answer: Zollinger–Ellison syndrome

      Correct Answer: Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medical Syndromes and Their Characteristics

      Waterhouse–Friderichsen Syndrome: This syndrome is caused by acute meningococcal sepsis due to Neisseria meningitidis. It can lead to sepsis, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), endotoxic shock, and acute primary adrenal failure.

      Zollinger–Ellison Syndrome: This syndrome results from a gastrinoma, which leads to recurrent peptic ulcers.

      Osler–Weber–Rendu Disease: Also known as hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, this disease results in multiple telangiectasias and arteriovenous shunting of blood.

      Fitz–Hugh–Curtis Syndrome: This is a rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease, resulting in liver capsule inflammation.

      Cushing Syndrome: This syndrome is due to excess cortisol, which causes hypertension, central obesity, striae, a moon face, and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall. He...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall. He fell from standing height and is experiencing pain in his right leg. A pelvic X-Ray shows a right intertrochanteric femoral fracture. There are no fractures present on the left. He has a history of osteoporosis and osteoarthritis but generally considers himself to be active and enjoys playing golf.

      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Dynamic hip screw (DHS)

      Explanation:

      The preferred surgical treatment for extracapsular proximal femoral fractures, specifically intertrochanteric fractures, is the use of dynamic hip screws (DHS). Therefore, in this case, the correct answer would be DHS. Conservative management is not recommended, as the patient is in good health and does not have any medical conditions that would prevent surgery. Hemiarthroplasty is only used for intracapsular neck of femur fractures in patients who are not fit for surgery. Intramedullary nails are used for subtrochanteric femoral fractures.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother for an asthma review. She was diagnosed with asthma eight months ago. Since then, she has been using a low-dose clenil (beclomethasone 100 μg BD) inhaler and salbutamol inhaler as needed, both inhaled via a spacer. She has been experiencing a nocturnal cough and has been using her salbutamol inhaler 3–4 times per day due to the cold weather, with good results. On examination, there are no signs of respiratory distress, her oxygen saturation is 98%, and her chest is clear.
      What would be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase the dose of clenil

      Correct Answer: Add montelukast

      Explanation:

      Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old

      When a child under five years old is suspected to have asthma, the diagnosis can be challenging as they cannot perform objective lung function tests. Therefore, a low threshold for referral is recommended if treatment fails to control symptoms.

      The first step in treatment is a trial of a moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) for eight weeks. If symptoms persist, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. However, if the asthma is still poorly controlled, referral to a paediatrician is advised.

      It is not appropriate to change the short-acting beta agonist (SABA) inhaler, but increasing the dose of the ICS should only be done under specialist advice. If the child needs to use a SABA inhaler regularly, the ICS should be stopped for four weeks, and if symptoms recur, the inhaler should be restarted at a low dose.

      In summary, a stepwise approach is recommended for treating suspected asthma in children under five years old, with a low threshold for referral to a specialist if treatment fails to control symptoms.

      Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 4-week-old girl presents with vomiting, jaundice and dehydration. Investigations reveal hypokalaemia and...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old girl presents with vomiting, jaundice and dehydration. Investigations reveal hypokalaemia and metabolic alkalosis.
      What is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Correction of metabolic derangements

      Explanation:

      Management of Infantile Pyloric Stenosis: Correcting Metabolic Derangements

      Infantile pyloric stenosis is a condition that affects 3-4/1000 live births, with a higher incidence in males and first-born babies. The condition is characterized by an increase in the length and diameter of the pylorus, with hypertrophy of the circular muscle layer and autonomic nerves. The classical electrolyte abnormality associated with infantile pyloric stenosis is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis.

      Before undertaking surgery, it is crucial to correct the metabolic abnormalities in consultation with an experienced paediatrician and anaesthetist. Jaundice may also occur in 2-3% of infants with pyloric stenosis due to a decrease in hepatic glucuronosyltransferase activity associated with starvation.

      The tumour is typically diagnosed clinically as a palpable tumour on test feed alongside a history of projectile vomiting and hungry feeding without bile in the vomitus. Upper GI endoscopy may not be necessary if the diagnosis is clear.

      Feeding jejunostomy is not appropriate initial management for infantile pyloric stenosis. The definitive surgical treatment is Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy, which involves excluding the umbilicus from the operative field due to the risk of staphylococcus aureus infection. Total parenteral nutrition may be ill-advised given the significant electrolyte derangements associated with the condition.

      In summary, correcting metabolic derangements is crucial before undertaking surgery for infantile pyloric stenosis. The definitive treatment is Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy, and other management options should be carefully considered in consultation with experienced healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old patient, with learning difficulties and poorly controlled epilepsy, is admitted following...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old patient, with learning difficulties and poorly controlled epilepsy, is admitted following a tonic−clonic seizure which resolved after the administration of lorazepam by a Casualty officer. Twenty minutes later, a further seizure occurred that again ceased with lorazepam. A further 10 minutes later, another seizure takes place.
      What commonly would be the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Admission to the intensive care unit (ICU)

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Managing Status Epilepticus: Medications and Treatment Options

      Epilepsy is a manageable condition for most patients, but in some cases, seizures may not self-resolve and require medical intervention. In such cases, benzodiazepines like rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam are commonly used. However, if seizures persist, other drugs like iv phenytoin may be administered. Paraldehyde is rarely used, and topiramate is more commonly used for seizure prevention. If a patient experiences status epilepticus, informing the intensive care unit may be appropriate, but the priority should be to stop the seizure with appropriate medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      175
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the definition of Nissl bodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of Nissl bodies?

      Your Answer: Synaptic vesicles

      Correct Answer: Granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      Nissl Bodies: Stacks of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

      Nissl bodies are named after the German neurologist Franz Nissl and are found in neurones following a selective staining method known as Nissl staining. These bodies are composed of stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum and are a major site of neurotransmitter synthesis, particularly acetylcholine, in the neurone. Therefore, the correct answer is that Nissl bodies are granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum. It is important to note that the other answer options are incorrect as they refer to entirely different organelles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a gradual onset of left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a gradual onset of left-sided visual issues. She reports no discomfort or itching in the affected area. During the examination, left-sided ptosis and miosis are observed. When the lights are dimmed, the right pupil dilates, but the left pupil does not. She has a history of smoking for 8 years. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic stroke

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      60.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a myocardial infarction. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a myocardial infarction. Upon assessment, the nursing staff observes her blood pressure to be 90/50 mmHg and her pulse to be only 32. The ECG confirms that she is experiencing complete heart block. As you attempt to determine the location of the MI, you consider the typical position of the sinoatrial node, which serves as the cardiac pacemaker.

      Your Answer: In the left atrium near the entrance of the pulmonary veins

      Correct Answer: In the right atrium near the entrance of the superior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The Conducting System of the Heart

      The conducting system of the heart is responsible for initiating and coordinating the contractions of the heart muscle. It begins at the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is located in the right atrium and acts as the cardiac pacemaker. The SA node produces the first contraction signal, which rapidly propagates through the walls of both atria. This signal is then picked up by the atrioventricular (AV) node, located in the interatrial septum near the opening of the coronary sinus. The AV bundle runs along the septum, allowing conduction to pass through the insulating fibrous skeleton of the heart. The AV bundle divides into right and left bundles, which then divide into subendocardial branches (Purkinje fibres) that extend into the walls of the respective ventricles, allowing for contraction of the ventricles.

      The SA node and AV node are supplied by the right coronary artery in most people, but can also be supplied by the circumflex branch of the left coronary artery. Damage to these nodes can be temporary and recoverable, but anterior wall myocardial infarctions (MIs) can cause permanent damage to the conducting system, requiring a permanent pacemaker. In cases where the normal conduction system fails, an escape rhythm may originate in the ventricles, producing a wide complex escape rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 78-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.
      What is one of the potential hazards linked to the use of zopiclone in older adults?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of falls

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling due to its mode of action on GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA. This is similar to benzodiazepines. Zopiclone can cause adverse effects such as agitation, constipation, dry mouth, dizziness, and decreased muscle tone. However, diarrhea is not a known side effect. Withdrawal from zopiclone may lead to convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.

      Understanding Z Drugs and Their Adverse Effects

      Z drugs are a class of medications that have similar effects to benzodiazepines, but they differ in their chemical structure. These drugs work by acting on the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. There are three groups of Z drugs: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon.

      Despite their effectiveness in treating sleep disorders, Z drugs have adverse effects that are similar to benzodiazepines. One of the most significant risks associated with these drugs is an increased risk of falls in the elderly. Therefore, it is essential to use these medications with caution, especially in older adults. It is also important to follow the prescribed dosage and not to mix them with other medications or alcohol. By understanding the potential risks and benefits of Z drugs, patients can make informed decisions about their use and work with their healthcare providers to manage any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You have had a long week and are looking forward to leaving work...

    Correct

    • You have had a long week and are looking forward to leaving work on time to meet friends. However, upon getting ready, you realize that you forgot to hand over something important to the on-call team. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Phone the hospital’s switchboard and asked to be transferred to the on-call junior doctor

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Proper Communication in Patient Care: Contacting the On-Call Doctor

      When it comes to patient care, proper communication is crucial. In situations where a message needs to be passed on to the on-call doctor, it is important to take the appropriate steps to ensure that the message is received and patient confidentiality is maintained.

      The most appropriate action would be to phone the hospital’s switchboard and ask to be transferred to the on-call junior doctor. This ensures that the message is passed on in a private and secure manner. Going back to the hospital in person should only be done as a last resort.

      It is important to remember that patient safety should always come first. Ignoring a message or relying on social media to contact the on-call doctor can compromise patient care and confidentiality. By taking the proper steps to communicate with the on-call doctor, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a suspected opioid overdose....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a suspected opioid overdose. After prompt treatment, he quickly regains consciousness. This patient has been frequenting the emergency department for the same issue over the past few months. Inpatient treatment for addiction is offered and the patient is admitted to a ward. What is the most suitable medication for this individual?

      Your Answer: Methadone

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for opioid detoxification should be methadone or buprenorphine. Methadone is a synthetic opioid agonist that effectively eliminates withdrawal symptoms, while buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist. Both medications can be used as the initial treatment for patients undergoing detoxification for opioid dependence. Acamprosate, chlordiazepoxide, and naloxone are not appropriate first-line treatments for opioid detoxification as they are used for other purposes such as maintaining abstinence in alcohol dependence, managing alcohol withdrawal, and emergency management of opioid overdose, respectively.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including both natural and synthetic opioids. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning. Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C can also be helpful.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old patient presents to her doctor with complaints of excessive sweating and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presents to her doctor with complaints of excessive sweating and feeling very warm. Upon examination, no significant thyroid nodule is observed. The patient's blood tests reveal the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) < 0.1 µU/l 0.4–4.0 µU/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 30 pmol/l 10–20 pmol/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graves’ disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders: Causes and Symptoms

      Thyroid disorders are common and can cause a range of symptoms. Here are some of the most common thyroid disorders and their associated symptoms:

      1. Graves’ disease: This is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis in the UK. Symptoms include a low TSH and an elevated T4.

      2. De Quervain’s thyroiditis: This is a subacute thyroiditis that can cause hypothyroidism.

      3. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: This is an autoimmune disorder that is associated with hypothyroidism.

      4. Toxic multinodular goitre: There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient has this condition.

      5. Thyroid adenoma: Patients usually present with a neck lump, which is not seen in this case.

      If you are experiencing any symptoms of a thyroid disorder, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken to the Emergency Department where X-rays were taken. A radiologist examined the films and observed a single fracture of the carpal bone that articulates with the majority of the base of the third metacarpal bone.
      Which of the following bones was most likely fractured?

      Your Answer: Triquetrum

      Correct Answer: Capitate

      Explanation:

      The Carpal Bones: An Overview of the Bones in the Wrist

      The wrist is composed of eight small bones known as the carpal bones. These bones are arranged in two rows, with each row containing four carpal bones. The proximal row includes the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform, while the distal row includes the trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate.

      The capitate bone is located in the center of the wrist and articulates with the base of the third metacarpal bone. The trapezium bone is the most lateral bone in the distal row and articulates with the base of the first metacarpal bone. The hamate bone is the most medial bone in the distal row and articulates with the fourth and fifth metacarpal bones.

      The pisiform bone is a small, seed-shaped bone located on the medial side of the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones. The triquetrum bone is also located in the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones.

      Understanding the anatomy of the carpal bones is important for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 23-year-old female undergoes a laparoscopic appendicectomy and is extubated without any issues....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female undergoes a laparoscopic appendicectomy and is extubated without any issues. However, she fails to make any respiratory effort and needs to be re-intubated and ventilated. After being closely monitored in the intensive care unit, all observations are normal. She is successfully weaned off the ventilator 24 hours later. What is the complication that occurred?

      Your Answer: Overdose of propofol

      Correct Answer: Suxamethonium apnoea

      Explanation:

      A small portion of the population has an autosomal dominant mutation that results in a deficiency of a specific acetylcholinesterase in the plasma. This enzyme is responsible for breaking down suxamethonium, which terminates its muscle relaxant effect. As a result, the effects of suxamethonium are prolonged, and the patient requires mechanical ventilation and observation in the intensive care unit until the effects wear off.

      Respiratory depression caused by opioid toxicity is unlikely to be severe enough to cause no respiratory effort under the monitored conditions of an anesthetic. Misplacement of the endotracheal tube can lead to hypoxia, respiratory acidosis, and potentially a pneumothorax on the same side as the tube placement, with collapse on the opposite side. A propofol overdose can cause a drop in blood pressure. Malignant hyperpyrexia is characterized by an increase in temperature, blood pressure, muscle spasms, type II respiratory failure, metabolic acidosis, and arrhythmias.

      Muscle relaxants are drugs that can be used to induce paralysis in patients undergoing surgery or other medical procedures. Suxamethonium is a type of muscle relaxant that works by inhibiting the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. It is broken down by plasma cholinesterase and acetylcholinesterase and has the fastest onset and shortest duration of action of all muscle relaxants. However, it can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia, malignant hyperthermia, and lack of acetylcholinesterase.

      Atracurium is another type of muscle relaxant that is a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug. It usually has a duration of action of 30-45 minutes and may cause generalised histamine release on administration, which can produce facial flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Unlike suxamethonium, atracurium is not excreted by the liver or kidney but is broken down in tissues by hydrolysis. Its effects can be reversed by neostigmine.

      Vecuronium is also a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug that has a duration of action of approximately 30-40 minutes. Its effects may be prolonged in patients with organ dysfunction as it is degraded by the liver and kidney. Similarly, its effects can be reversed by neostigmine.

      Pancuronium is a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocker that has an onset of action of approximately 2-3 minutes and a duration of action of up to 2 hours. Its effects may be partially reversed with drugs such as neostigmine. Overall, muscle relaxants are important drugs in medical practice, but their use requires careful consideration of their potential adverse effects and appropriate monitoring of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You assess a 74-year-old male patient who comes to the clinic with deteriorating...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 74-year-old male patient who comes to the clinic with deteriorating heart failure. During the examination, you observe that his blood pressure is high at 152/90 mmHg. Additionally, his general practitioner has recently prescribed him regular diclofenac for joint pain. Can you identify one of the suggested ways in which NSAIDs cause the retention of salt and water?

      Your Answer: Potentiation of aldosterone action

      Correct Answer: Reduced aldosterone metabolism

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs and Aldosterone Metabolism

      Aldosterone is a hormone that regulates salt and water balance in the body. Studies have shown that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may interfere with the metabolism of aldosterone by inhibiting its glucuronidation, a crucial step in its breakdown. This can lead to increased levels of aldosterone, which in turn can cause the body to retain more salt and water.

      Contrary to popular belief, NSAIDs do not increase plasma renin levels, which is another hormone involved in regulating salt and water balance. In fact, evidence suggests that NSAIDs may actually reduce plasma renin levels. It is important to note that the effects of NSAIDs on aldosterone metabolism and plasma renin levels may vary depending on the individual and the specific NSAID used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 19 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are worried about his walking. Up until four months ago, he was developing normally. However, they have now noticed he has difficulty getting up from the floor or climbing stairs. During the examination, the doctor observes Gowers’ sign and the boy has large, bulky calf muscles. His mother remembers having an uncle who died at a young age but cannot recall the cause of death. What is the probable reason for his walking difficulties?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Muscular Dystrophy and their Characteristics

      Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive muscle weakness and wasting. Here are some of the different types of muscular dystrophy and their characteristics:

      1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy: This is an X-linked myopathy that occurs in boys aged 3-5. It can present as delay in motor development or regression of previously obtained motor milestones. Treatment is with steroids and respiratory support. Average life expectancy is around 25 years.

      2. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy: This is the third most common muscular dystrophy and causes proximal upper limb weakness due to dysfunction of the scapula. Patients may also experience facial muscle weakness and progressive lower limb weakness. It typically presents in the third decade.

      3. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy: This is a rare muscular dystrophy characterised by weakness and progressive wasting of the lower leg and arm muscles. It is more common in boys, with typical onset in teenage years.

      4. Myotonic dystrophy: This is the most common inherited muscular dystrophy in adults. It is characterised by delayed muscle relaxation after contraction and muscle weakness. Patients may also experience myotonic facies with facial weakness, ptosis and cardiorespiratory complications.

      5. Polymyositis: This is an inflammatory myopathy in which patients experience proximal muscle weakness. It is more common in women in the fifth decade and is associated with underlying malignancy.

      It is important to identify the type of muscular dystrophy a patient has in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have been ongoing for the past 3 weeks and she describes them as severe (8/10) and throbbing in nature. She reports that the headaches worsen whenever she talks for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has been experiencing fatigue and slight blurred vision since the onset of the headaches, which is unusual for her. Based on the probable diagnosis, what investigation and treatment options would you prioritize?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone and vision testing

      Explanation:

      After being diagnosed with temporal arthritis, it is important to conduct vision testing as a crucial investigation. This autoimmune condition affects blood vessels and can be effectively treated with steroids, with an initial dose of 40-60 mg being recommended to alleviate symptoms and prevent further progression. If left untreated, temporal arthritis can lead to irreversible blindness due to occlusion of the ophthalmic artery, which may be preceded by transient visual problems. Unlike renal function, which is not significantly impacted by temporal arthritis, aspirin and a CT head are typically used to diagnose ischemic stroke or TIA. While co-codamol can effectively treat tension headaches, an MRI head is not a primary investigation for temporal arthritis due to its high cost. Additionally, fludrocortisone is not the first line of treatment for this condition.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      61.3
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Renal (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/5) 20%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
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Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
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