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  • Question 1 - A 79-year-old male patient has a home visit from his general practitioner for...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old male patient has a home visit from his general practitioner for follow-up after sustaining fractured neck of femur slipping on ice. He reports to feel well in himself and is progressing with the rehabilitation programme advised to him at discharge and is not reliant on analgesia any longer. He had no previous medical or surgical history prior to the fall. The patient would like some advice regarding preventing future fractures.

      Which, of the options below, is appropriate?

      Your Answer: Prescription of alendronate

      Explanation:

      In patients aged 75 years or older who have experienced a fragility fracture, alendronate should be initiated without delay, even in the absence of a DEXA scan. This patient meets the NICE criteria for bisphosphonate treatment, and while a calcium-rich diet and supplementation may be helpful, they are not sufficient for managing osteoporosis. Zoledronic acid may be considered if the patient cannot tolerate bisphosphonates, but it should not be the first-line treatment.

      Managing Osteoporosis in Patients with Fragility Fracture

      The management of patients with fragility fractures depends on their age. For patients aged 75 years and above, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, which is an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      On the other hand, for patients below 75 years old, a DEXA scan should be arranged to determine their ongoing fracture risk. The results of the scan can be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine the appropriate management plan. For instance, if a 79-year-old woman sustains a Colles’ fracture, she is presumed to have osteoporosis and should be started on oral alendronate 70mg once weekly without a DEXA scan.

      In summary, managing osteoporosis in patients with fragility fractures requires age consideration and appropriate assessment to determine the best management plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - When visiting a 60-year-old patient at home to do a wound dressing, the...

    Incorrect

    • When visiting a 60-year-old patient at home to do a wound dressing, the District Nurse wants to confirm if the patient has received complete tetanus vaccination. What is the number of tetanus vaccine doses required for life-long protection?

      Your Answer: 1

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the hospital with...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the hospital with severe chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals anterior ST elevation, and he is promptly treated with thrombolysis, resulting in the resolution of symptoms and ECG changes. What combination of medications should he be prescribed four weeks after the event?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the emergency department complaining of vomiting and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she appears dehydrated. The following are some of her blood test results:
      pH 7.23 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 2.1 kPa (4.5-6.0)
      pO2 11.2 kPa (10-14)
      Na+ 135 mmol/L (135-145)
      K+ 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      Bicarbonate 13 mmol/L (22-28)
      Glucose 22.4 mmol/L (<11.1)
      Ketones 3.6 mmol/L (<0.6)

      Question: What should be done with her regular insulin during her treatment?

      Your Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      In the management of DKA, it is important to continue the patient’s regular long-acting insulin while stopping their short-acting insulin. Fixed-rate insulin and fluids should also be administered. Continuing short-acting insulin may lead to hypoglycaemia, so it should be stopped until the patient is stable. Increasing the dose of both long-acting and short-acting insulin is not recommended.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?

      Your Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 63-year-old male is being seen in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male is being seen in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. Despite being on current treatment with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he continues to experience breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, his chest is clear to auscultation and there is minimal ankle edema. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was recently attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old man has been referred due to a tremor and bradykinesia, leading...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man has been referred due to a tremor and bradykinesia, leading to a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms are now interfering with his work as an accountant and overall quality of life. What initial treatment is he likely to receive?

      Your Answer: Levodopa

      Explanation:

      Patients with newly diagnosed Parkinson’s who experience motor symptoms that negatively impact their quality of life should be provided with levodopa.

      Management of Parkinson’s Disease: Medications and Considerations

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized expertise in movement disorders for diagnosis and management. However, all healthcare professionals should be familiar with the medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease due to its prevalence. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2017 to aid in the management of Parkinson’s disease.

      For first-line treatment, levodopa is recommended if motor symptoms are affecting the patient’s quality of life. If motor symptoms are not affecting the patient’s quality of life, dopamine agonists (non-ergot derived), levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors may be used. NICE provides tables to aid in decision-making regarding the use of these medications, taking into account their effects on motor symptoms, activities of daily living, motor complications, and adverse events.

      If a patient continues to have symptoms despite optimal levodopa treatment or has developed dyskinesia, NICE recommends the addition of a dopamine agonist, MAO-B inhibitor, or catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor as an adjunct. Other considerations in Parkinson’s disease management include the risk of acute akinesia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome if medication is not taken or absorbed, the potential for impulse control disorders with dopaminergic therapy, and the need to adjust medication if excessive daytime sleepiness or orthostatic hypotension develops.

      Specific medications used in Parkinson’s disease management include levodopa, dopamine receptor agonists, MAO-B inhibitors, amantadine, COMT inhibitors, and antimuscarinics. Each medication has its own set of benefits and potential adverse effects, which should be carefully considered when selecting a treatment plan. Overall, the management of Parkinson’s disease requires a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual needs and circumstances of each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman returns to her General Practitioner for the results of a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman returns to her General Practitioner for the results of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test; the result is positive. Which of the following investigations will be most useful in estimating her risk of developing an opportunistic infection (OI)?

      Your Answer: CD4 count

      Explanation:

      The CD4 count is a reliable way to measure the immune system’s response to HIV infection. In HIV-negative individuals, the CD4 count is usually maintained above 600-800 cells/µl. However, without antiretroviral therapy, HIV-positive individuals will experience a gradual decline in CD4 count over time. A CD4 count of less than 350 cells/µl increases the risk of opportunistic infections, while a count of less than 200 cells/µl indicates an 80% risk of developing an OI within three years. Some patients may remain well despite having a low CD4 count, depending on viral load and host immunity factors. Different OIs are more likely at different CD4 counts. The World Health Organization now recommends starting ART in every HIV-positive individual, regardless of CD4 count.

      A CXR is usually normal in HIV-positive individuals without chronic respiratory disorders. Blood cultures may help diagnose an OI, but do not estimate the risk of developing OIs. HIV-positive individuals often have an abnormal FBC, but this does not help with risk assessment for OIs. TST is used to check for immunity to TB and diagnose LTBI. HIV-positive individuals are at higher risk of TB disease, but may have a muted response to TST due to their compromised immunity. TST can be useful in assessing eligibility for isoniazid preventive therapy, but not in assessing disease stage and risk of OIs in general.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man with chronic schizophrenia complains of nausea and vomiting. He is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic schizophrenia complains of nausea and vomiting. He is given metoclopramide to alleviate his symptoms. However, after twenty minutes, he becomes restless and experiences severe oculogyric crises and oromandibular dystonia. What medication should be prescribed in this situation?

      Your Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Procyclidine is the usual treatment for acute dystonia caused by antipsychotics. This patient’s acute dystonic reaction can be reversed with procyclidine, which is an anticholinergic medication that blocks acetylcholine. This medication can alleviate muscle stiffness, sweating, and excessive saliva production, and can also improve walking ability in individuals with Parkinson’s disease. The patient most likely developed this reaction due to long-term use of antipsychotics and subsequent administration of metoclopramide. While midazolam and lorazepam can relieve anxiety, they are not effective in treating dystonia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old woman has been given a single dose of 1.5mg LevonelleTM (levonorgestrel)...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman has been given a single dose of 1.5mg LevonelleTM (levonorgestrel) as emergency contraception after having unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) 24 hours ago. She wants to start taking oral combined hormonal contraception (‘the pill’) as ongoing contraception immediately as she anticipates having further UPSI. What is the appropriate time to begin ongoing contraception after taking emergency contraception?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      According to FSRH guidelines, it is acceptable to begin hormonal contraception immediately after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. It is important to wait 5 days after taking ulipristal acetate (Ella-OneTM) before starting ongoing hormonal contraception. Waiting until the start of the next menstrual period is not necessary for quick-starting hormonal contraception, which can be done if the patient prefers it or if there is ongoing risk of pregnancy. While a negative pregnancy test at 21 days post-UPSI can reasonably exclude pregnancy, it is still recommended to take a pregnancy test 21 days after the episode of UPSI in case emergency contraception has failed.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with a unilateral hand tremor....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the neurology clinic with a unilateral hand tremor. Her family has noticed changes in her behavior, mood, and speech over the past year. During the examination, a resting tremor is observed in her right hand, along with bradykinesia and a lack of movement. Additionally, dark circular marks are visible around her iris. The patient mentions that her uncle passed away from liver cirrhosis at the age of 42. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Wilson’s disease is indicated by the presence of both liver and neurological conditions, as well as the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings and a family history of liver disease.

      Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes excessive copper buildup in the body tissues due to increased copper absorption from the small intestine and decreased hepatic copper excretion. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13. Symptoms usually appear between the ages of 10 and 25, with children presenting with liver disease and young adults with neurological disease. The disease is characterised by excessive copper deposition in the brain, liver, and cornea, resulting in various symptoms such as hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioural problems, Kayser-Fleischer rings, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails.

      To diagnose Wilson’s disease, a slit lamp examination is conducted to check for Kayser-Fleischer rings, and blood and urine tests are performed to measure copper levels. The diagnosis is confirmed by genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene. The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. However, trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation for the treatment of Wilson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option...

    Incorrect

    • After hepatitis B immunisation, which serological marker indicates successful immunisation? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Anti-HBc antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Antibodies and Antigens

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. To diagnose and manage the disease, healthcare providers rely on various serologic tests that detect specific antibodies and antigens in the blood. Here are some key markers and their significance:

      Anti-HBs antibodies: These antibodies are produced after a resolved infection or vaccination. They indicate immunity to hepatitis B.

      HBs antigen: This antigen is present in the blood during an acute infection. Its detection confirms the diagnosis of hepatitis B.

      Anti-HBe antibodies: These antibodies appear during recovery from acute hepatitis B or in inactive carriers. They suggest a lower risk of infectivity.

      Anti-HBc antibodies: These antibodies are present in both acute and chronic hepatitis B. Their detection helps distinguish between recent and past infections.

      HBe antigen: This antigen is a marker of high infectivity and viral replication. Its presence indicates a higher risk of transmission.

      Understanding these markers can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage hepatitis B infections more effectively. It can also help individuals understand their immune status and make informed decisions about vaccination and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14.2
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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old male presents with progressive weakness and fatigue over the past year....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with progressive weakness and fatigue over the past year. He reports difficulty achieving and maintaining an erection with his new partner, which is a new symptom for him. Laboratory tests reveal elevated ferritin levels. The patient is started on a treatment plan that involves regular phlebotomies.

      What is the most effective way to monitor the patient's response to treatment?

      Your Answer: Serum iron and ferritin

      Correct Answer: Ferritin and transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      To monitor treatment in haemochromatosis, the most effective combination of iron tests is ferritin and transferrin saturation. These tests can track the response to treatment by measuring total iron stores and the amount of serum iron bound to proteins in the blood. However, serum transferrin and serum iron are not reliable indicators of treatment response as they fluctuate throughout the day and are affected by diet and phlebotomies. Therefore, using ferritin and serum transferrin or serum iron would not be the most useful combination for monitoring haemochromatosis. Similarly, using serum iron and serum transferrin together would not provide any insight into treatment monitoring. The most appropriate and effective combination is ferritin and transferrin saturation.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.

      The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old man is being evaluated after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is being evaluated after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during his recent hospitalization. He has a history of mitral stenosis and takes ramipril for hypertension. He was started on warfarin during his admission and was discharged with plans for follow-up in the cardiology clinic. However, he is now found to be in sinus rhythm during his current review. What is the appropriate course of action regarding anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Continue warfarin for 6 months

      Correct Answer: Continue lifelong warfarin

      Explanation:

      Warfarin should be continued indefinitely due to the patient’s risk factors for stroke and history of atrial fibrillation. It is preferred over direct oral anticoagulants due to his valvular heart disease.

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:

      Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l

      What would be the best initial approach to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: Admit for IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.

      Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also has angina, gout and...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also has angina, gout and peripheral vascular disease.
      Which of the following antihypertensives is best suited for him initially?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Antihypertensive Medications and NICE Guidelines

      NICE guidelines recommend different antihypertensive medications based on age and ethnicity. For those under 55, an ACE inhibitor or ARB is advised, while calcium channel blockers are recommended for those over 55 and of Afro-Caribbean origin. Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, are only third-line treatments and contraindicated in gout. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension but can be used for oedema in heart failure. Beta blockers, like atenolol, are relatively contraindicated in peripheral vascular disease and not recommended for hypertension treatment. ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, are the first-line treatment for patients under 55, while calcium channel blockers are advised for those over 55, like an 80-year-old patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of dyspnoea on...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of dyspnoea on exertion and a non-productive cough that has been bothering her for the past 4 months. During the examination, the doctor notices clubbing and crepitations at the lung bases. Lung function tests reveal a decreased vital capacity and an elevated FEV1:FVC ratio. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cryptogenic Fibrosing Alveolitis

      Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, also known as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, is a disorder that typically affects individuals between the ages of 50 and 70 years, with a slightly higher incidence in men than women. The condition is characterized by progressive breathlessness on exertion, dry cough, and a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests. While excessive sputum production is uncommon in the early stages, constitutional symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy may occur. Finger clubbing is a common finding in patients with cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis.

      While haemoptysis is rare, it may suggest the development of lung malignancy, which occurs with an increased risk in patients with this condition. It is important to note that the risk of lung cancer does not exclude the possibility of cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis. Chest pain is uncommon in this condition.

      There is no definitive treatment for cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, and the average survival from the time of diagnosis is 3 years. However, the course of the disease can be highly variable, and up to 20% of patients survive for more than 5 years from diagnosis.

      In summary, cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis is a progressive lung disorder that presents with breathlessness on exertion, dry cough, and a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests. While there is no definitive treatment, early diagnosis and management can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.

      She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.

      On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.

      Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
      Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
      Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.

      A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.

      In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Among the following options, which condition is considered a restrictive lung disease/condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following options, which condition is considered a restrictive lung disease/condition?

      Your Answer: Early cystic fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Severe scoliosis

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Lung Diseases and their Spirometry Patterns

      Scoliosis and Lung Function
      Severe scoliosis can affect the respiratory muscles and the natural movements of the thoracic cage, leading to a restrictive pattern in pulmonary function tests. This can prevent the lungs from expanding correctly, compromising their function.

      Cystic Fibrosis and Lung Function
      In early stage cystic fibrosis, the presence of inflammation and thick secretions in the airways can cause an obstructive pattern in spirometry tests. As damage to the lung tissue occurs, a restrictive component can also develop, resulting in a combined obstructive and restrictive pattern.

      Emphysema and Lung Function
      Emphysema is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by abnormal and irreversible enlargement of air spaces and alveolar wall destruction. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.

      Asthma and Lung Function
      Asthma is an inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes hyperresponsiveness and constriction of the airways in response to various stimuli. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.

      Bronchiectasis and Lung Function
      Bronchiectasis is characterized by abnormal and irreversible dilatation of the bronchial walls, leading to accumulation of secretions and recurrent inflammation of the airways. This produces an obstructive pattern in pulmonary function tests.

      In summary, different types of lung diseases can affect lung function in various ways, leading to different spirometry patterns. Understanding these patterns can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old woman had a anterior myocardial infarction (MI) three weeks ago and...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman had a anterior myocardial infarction (MI) three weeks ago and has been prescribed various drugs by the cardiology team.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to decrease this patient’s mortality post-MI?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Cardiovascular Conditions

      Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker that specifically targets the heart, reducing strain by decreasing pre-load and after-load. It has been found to be effective in reducing mortality after a heart attack, especially in patients with heart failure.

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic drug that can be used to prevent irregular heartbeats. However, it does not improve mortality rates in post-heart attack patients.

      Isosorbide mononitrate is a medication that helps lower blood pressure and can alleviate chest pain in stable angina. It does not improve mortality rates and should be used with caution when taken with sildenafil.

      Nicorandil works by dilating the coronary arteries, reducing chest pain in stable angina. While it does not improve prognostic outcomes, it can improve symptoms.

      Patients who have experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) should be started on a combination of medications to improve their outcomes. The following medications are recommended for post-MI patients:

      1. Statin: This medication helps to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.

      2. ACE inhibitor: This medication helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart failure.

      3. Beta blocker: This medication helps to reduce the workload on the heart and improve its function.

      4. Aspirin: This medication helps to prevent blood clots and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.

      Other medications may be used to relieve symptoms, such as ISMN and nicorandil, but they do not offer any mortality benefit. It is important for post-MI patients to take their medications as prescribed and to follow up with their healthcare provider regularly to monitor their progress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of vision problems. Upon examination, a left inferior...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of vision problems. Upon examination, a left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia is observed. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Right optic nerve

      Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      A visual field defect known as left homonymous hemianopia indicates a loss of vision to the left side, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. Homonymous quadrantanopias, which affect the parietal-inferior and temporal-superior areas, are also a type of visual field defect. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by lesions in the optic radiation or occipital cortex.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects refer to the loss of vision in certain areas of the visual field. One common type of visual field defect is left homonymous hemianopia, which means that there is a visual field defect to the left due to a lesion of the right optic tract. Another type is homonymous quadrantanopias, which can be remembered using the acronym PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior). Incongruous defects indicate an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest a lesion of the optic radiation or occipital cortex. A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.

      Homonymous hemianopia can also be caused by a lesion of the optic tract, with macula sparing indicating a lesion of the occipital cortex. Homonymous quadrantanopias can be caused by a lesion of the inferior optic radiations in the temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop) for superior defects, and a lesion of the superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe for inferior defects.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion of the optic chiasm. An upper quadrant defect that is greater than the lower quadrant defect suggests inferior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a pituitary tumor. Conversely, a lower quadrant defect that is greater than the upper quadrant defect suggests superior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a craniopharyngioma. It is important to note that while this information is useful for exams, actual studies suggest that the majority of quadrantanopias are caused by occipital lobe lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of proximal muscle weakness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of proximal muscle weakness. She has a significant history of alcohol and smoking. Her blood tests reveal macrocytosis, abnormal liver function tests, elevated TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) and normal free thyroxine (fT4) levels.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms & blood results?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with alcohol excess, elevated liver function tests, macrocytosis, and compensated hypothyroidism

      Chronic excess alcohol consumption can lead to a variety of health problems, including liver disease, neurological damage, and endocrine dysfunction. In this case, the patient presents with elevated liver function tests and macrocytosis, which are consistent with alcohol excess. The thyroid function tests show compensated hypothyroidism, which can also be caused by alcohol-related liver damage. However, the proximal myopathy is not typical of hypothyroidism, which usually causes muscle weakness in a more diffuse pattern. Cushing’s syndrome, pernicious anaemia, and thyrotoxicosis are less likely diagnoses based on the absence of specific clinical features and laboratory findings. Therefore, the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation is alcohol excess, which may require further evaluation and management to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer is true?

      Your Answer: Gallstone disease is a risk factor

      Correct Answer: High-resolution CT scanning is the diagnostic investigation of choice

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic cancer is best diagnosed through high-resolution CT scanning. Although chronic pancreatitis increases the risk, neither alcohol nor gallstone disease are significant independent risk factors. Radiotherapy is not effective for surgical resection. Unfortunately, most patients are diagnosed with unresectable lesions.

      Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.

      Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

      In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the son (next-of-kin) of one of your middle-aged patients who brings her in for evaluation. The patient appears to be in a state of agitation and is expressing bizarre delusions and paranoid beliefs, causing a disturbance in the surgery by shouting. She is uncooperative during the consultation and frequently pleads to be allowed to leave. Both you and the son agree that urgent psychiatric assessment is necessary.

      Which section of the Mental Health Act (1983) would allow a GP to detain a patient for emergency psychiatric evaluation?

      Your Answer: Section 2

      Correct Answer: Section 4

      Explanation:

      In cases where there is a need for urgent psychiatric assessment, GPs may utilize Section 4 of the Mental Health Act. This can be done with the assistance of an AMHP or NR, and allows for the emergency transfer of the patient. Unlike Section 2, which requires the agreement of two psychiatrists, Section 4 is used when there is a risk of unacceptable delay in the patient’s care. It provides a 72-hour window for assessment, after which it is typically converted to a Section 2. Additionally, the police have the authority under Section 135 and 136 to take a patient to a safe location for psychiatric evaluation.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the clinic. Her mother reports that she...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the clinic. Her mother reports that she has been complaining of a painful right ear for the past 2-3 days. This morning she noticed some 'yellow pus' coming out of her ear. On examination her temperature is 38.2ºC. Otoscopy of the left ear is normal. On the right side, the tympanic membrane cannot be visualised as the ear canal is filled with a yellow discharge. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin + review in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old male patient comes to the GP clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient comes to the GP clinic with a history of lower back pain and stiffness that has been gradually worsening for the past 6 months. He reports that the stiffness is more pronounced in the morning but improves throughout the day and with physical activity. He mentions that his mother has a form of arthritis but cannot remember which type. He denies experiencing any night sweats or weight loss.

      What is a red flag symptom of lower back pain?

      Your Answer: Age of onset <20 years

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      One of the warning signs of lower back pain is when it starts before the age of 20 or after the age of 50. Morning stiffness may indicate an inflammatory cause for the pain, but it is not a definitive symptom. The presence of arthritis in the family may be significant, particularly if it is ankylosing spondylitis, which can be inherited through the HLA-B27 gene. However, the specific type of arthritis in the family was not specified. Being male is not considered a warning sign.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double vision and tinnitus whenever he lifts weights. He is a non-smoker and is in good health otherwise. During the examination, there is a difference of 35 mmHg between the systolic blood pressure (BP) in his left and right arms. His cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. His neurological examination is also normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Subclavian Steal Syndrome from Other Conditions

      Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when the subclavian artery is narrowed or blocked, leading to reversed blood flow in the vertebral artery. This can cause arm claudication and transient neurological symptoms when the affected arm is exercised. A key diagnostic feature is a systolic blood pressure difference of at least 15 mmHg between the affected and non-affected arms. However, other conditions can also cause discrepancies in blood pressure or similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate subclavian steal syndrome from other possibilities.

      Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that can cause a sudden onset of chest pain and rapidly deteriorating symptoms. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by vertigo triggered by head movements, but does not involve blood pressure differences or diplopia. Buerger’s disease is a rare condition that can cause blood pressure discrepancies, but also involves skin changes and tissue ischemia. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) can cause syncope when pressure is applied to the neck, but does not explain the other symptoms reported by the patient.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to distinguish subclavian steal syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about experiencing frequent episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about experiencing frequent episodes of dizziness for the past four weeks, lasting about 1 hour each time. He has also noticed a ‘fullness sensation and ringing’ in his right ear.
      Select the SINGLE most probable diagnosis from the options below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Causes of Vertigo: Ménière’s Disease, BPPV, Acoustic Neuroma, Vestibular Neuritis, and Cholesteatoma

      Vertigo is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is Ménière’s disease, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms including fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. On the other hand, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is induced by specific movements and is accompanied by nausea, light-headedness, and imbalance. Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, presents with progressive ipsilateral tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss, facial numbness, and giddiness. Vestibular neuritis, which follows a febrile illness, is characterized by sudden vertigo, vomiting, and prostration, while cholesteatoma tends to be asymptomatic in the early stages and is characterized by a foul-smelling discharge and conductive hearing loss. Management of vertigo includes self-care advice, medication, and referral to an ENT specialist to confirm the condition and exclude sinister causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman is recommended varenicline to aid in her smoking cessation. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is recommended varenicline to aid in her smoking cessation. What is the mechanism of action of varenicline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic receptor partial agonist

      Explanation:

      NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 62-year-old retired construction worker is found to have haematuria during a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old retired construction worker is found to have haematuria during a routine check-up. He has a past history of hypertension, for which he takes medication. An abdominal X-ray shows no signs of renal stones. Blood tests reveal elevated plasma viscosity and mild anaemia, with a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l (reference range 120–160 g/l) and a slightly low ferritin level.
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder cancer

      Explanation:

      Bladder cancer is a prevalent type of urologic cancer that has a high recurrence rate. The most common type is transitional cell carcinoma, which is associated with environmental exposure, particularly smoking and certain occupations. Symptoms include painless gross hematuria, irritative bladder symptoms, and pelvic pain. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy, which allows for biopsy and resection of papillary tumors. Treatment for non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer involves transurethral resection of the bladder tumor, followed by intravesical chemotherapy, intravesical BCG vaccine, and repeat resection and/or cystectomy in persistent or recurrent high-risk disease. Muscle-invasive bladder cancer is treated surgically, possibly with neoadjuvant chemotherapy.

      Chronic urinary tract infections typically present as dysuria or irritative voiding symptoms and are most commonly caused by infection with the original bacterial isolate in young, otherwise healthy women. Women with recurrent symptomatic UTIs can be treated with continuous or post-coital prophylactic antibiotics.

      Interstitial cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract that is not caused by pathogenic organisms. It affects mainly women over the age of 40 and presents as severe lower abdominal pain and polyuria. It is generally a diagnosis of exclusion.

      Analgesic nephropathy is characterized by kidney injury caused by excessive use of analgesic medications such as aspirin and other NSAIDs and paracetamol. This leads to renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis. Most healthy kidneys contain enough physiologic reserve to compensate for this NSAID-induced decrease in blood flow.

      Acute interstitial nephritis is a type of hypersensitivity nephropathy that is often drug-associated. Patients present with an abrupt onset of renal dysfunction, fever, and occasionally a rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      0
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  • Question 31 - A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started 2 hours ago. He describes the pain as radiating to his left arm and jaw. He has no significant past medical history; he drinks alcohol occasionally and admits to sometimes using illegal drugs.

      On examination, he appears sweaty and agitated. His limbs are mildly hypertonic and hyper-reflexive, and his pupils are dilated. His blood pressure is 175/82 mmHg. An ECG shows some QRS widening and QT prolongation, as well as ST depression and T wave inversion in several leads.

      What should be given as part of the acute management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      In the case of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI) caused by cocaine use, the recommended first-line treatment is intravenous benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, to alleviate coronary artery vasospasm. Nitrates can also be administered to relieve chest pain. Atorvastatin, which is used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent future MIs, is not appropriate for immediate treatment. While beta-blockers like bisoprolol are typically used to manage MIs, their use in cocaine-related MIs is controversial due to the potential to worsen coronary vasospasm. Naloxone, which reverses opioid overdose symptoms like respiratory depression and constricted pupils, is not indicated in this case as the patient is intoxicated with cocaine, not opioids.

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      0
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  • Question 32 - You see a 61-year-old man with backache.
    Which ONE of the following may indicate...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 61-year-old man with backache.
      Which ONE of the following may indicate a potentially serious pathology and hence requires referral as an emergency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineal anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Back pain can have various causes, some of which may require urgent medical attention. Perineal anaesthesia, which involves numbness in the perineal, buttock, and inner thigh areas, is a red flag for back pain and may indicate cauda equina syndrome. This condition involves compression or damage to the tail of the spinal cord and requires urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) for diagnosis. Other symptoms of cauda equina syndrome include severe or progressive back pain, new urinary or fecal incontinence, and lower limb weakness. Unilateral leg pain that is worse than low back pain may suggest sciatica, which can be managed conservatively without red flags. Pain radiating to the buttock on one side may also indicate nerve root irritation and can be managed in primary care if there are no red flags. However, new back pain in patients under 20 or over 55 years old should be taken seriously and may require urgent referral for further investigation. Localized neurological signs may indicate nerve root irritation, but do not necessarily require emergency referral. Red flags for back pain, such as constant, non-mechanical pain, thoracic pain, past history of malignant tumor, prolonged use of corticosteroids, and unexplained weight loss, require thorough work-up and consideration of imaging and specialist referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with constipation.
    What is the recommended first line...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with constipation.
      What is the recommended first line treatment for constipation in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrogol (Movicol)

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatment for Constipation in Children: Macrogol (Movicol)

      When a child is diagnosed with constipation and secondary causes have been ruled out, treatment can be initiated. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is macrogol, which is available as Movicol Paediatric Plain or Movicol depending on the child’s age. The dose is escalated until regular and good consistency stools are achieved. However, it is important to check for faecal impaction before starting maintenance treatment. Suppositories and enemas should not be routinely used in primary care. If macrogol is not tolerated or if there is a particularly hard stool, a stool softener such as lactulose can be used. A stimulant laxative such as senna can also be used as an alternative to macrogol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 34 - A 32-year-old man experiences severe facial and tongue swelling following administration of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man experiences severe facial and tongue swelling following administration of the Japanese encephalitis vaccine. He receives 500mcg of intramuscular adrenaline immediately and is placed in a supine position with elevated legs while receiving high-flow oxygen. Despite the initial dose of adrenaline, his facial swelling persists and his blood pressure drops to 82/54 mmHg. How long should the healthcare provider wait before administering a second dose of adrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline can be administered every 5 minutes during the management of anaphylaxis.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 35 - You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a...

    Incorrect

    • You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a history of depression. She has recently gone through a divorce and admits to having thoughts of taking an overdose. She has never attempted suicide before, but feels like she has no other options. She has the pills at home and is considering taking them. She denies any substance abuse. What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to the CRISIS team

      Explanation:

      This scenario requires you to demonstrate your ability to evaluate and handle a patient who is contemplating suicide. The patient in question has several risk factors, including being male, having a history of depression, recently going through a separation, and expressing a desire to end his life in the future. It is crucial to respond appropriately in this situation. The most suitable team to evaluate and manage this patient is the CRISIS team, who can provide urgent assessment and care.

      The other options are not as effective. Transferring the patient to the Emergency Department would only delay the referral to the crisis team. CAMH, which stands for child and adolescent mental health, is not the appropriate team to handle this case. It is not within your professional scope to initiate relationship counseling. Given the patient’s numerous risk factors, it would not be safe to discharge him without a psychiatric evaluation.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 36 - Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sweet’s syndrome is a condition associated with acute myeloid leukemia, also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, but not with diabetes mellitus.

      Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 37 - A 65-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, red rash on his neck, behind his ears, and around the nasolabial folds. He experienced a similar outbreak last year but did not seek medical attention. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease are more likely to experience seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 38 - Amiodarone is known to cause which side effect? Choose ONE option from the...

    Incorrect

    • Amiodarone is known to cause which side effect? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Amiodarone: A Comprehensive Overview

      Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat cardiac arrhythmias. However, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects. Here is a breakdown of some of the most important things to know:

      Hyperthyroidism: Amiodarone can cause both hypo and hyperthyroidism. Patients taking this medication should have their thyroid function checked regularly.

      COPD: While amiodarone is not known to cause COPD, it can lead to pulmonary toxicity, including pneumonitis and fibrosis. Patients should have yearly chest x-rays.

      Drug-induced diabetes mellitus: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of diabetes mellitus.

      Drug-induced pemphigus: Long-term use of amiodarone can cause phototoxicity and skin discoloration. Patients should protect their skin from light during treatment. However, it is not known to cause drug-induced pemphigus.

      Renal calculi: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of kidney disease, including renal calculi.

      Other important side effects of amiodarone include hepatotoxicity, bradycardia, phototoxicity, and development of corneal deposits. If you are taking amiodarone, it is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 39 - A 30-year-old man with a known history of peanut allergy arrives at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with a known history of peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department with facial swelling. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg, pulse is 120 bpm, and he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze. Which type of adrenaline should be administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM

      Explanation:

      Please find below the recommended doses of adrenaline for Adult Life Support (ALS) in different scenarios:

      – Anaphylaxis: 0.5mg or 0.5ml of 1:1,000 adrenaline should be administered intramuscularly.
      – Cardiac arrest: For intravenous administration, 1mg or 10ml of 1:10,000 adrenaline or 1ml of 1:1000 adrenaline is recommended.

      Understanding Adrenaline and Its Indications

      Adrenaline is a type of sympathomimetic amine that has both alpha and beta adrenergic stimulating properties. It is commonly used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. For anaphylaxis, the recommended adult life support adrenaline dose is 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV.

      Adrenaline is responsible for the fight or flight response and is released by the adrenal glands. It acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and causes vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, resulting in a narrow pulse pressure. It also increases cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, while causing vasodilation in skeletal muscle vessels.

      When adrenaline acts on α adrenergic receptors, it inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle. On the other hand, when it acts on β adrenergic receptors, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, stimulates ACTH, and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue.

      In case of accidental injection, the management involves local infiltration of phentolamine. Understanding the indications and actions of adrenaline is crucial in emergency situations, and proper administration can help save lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 40 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of seasonal 'watering eyes' for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of seasonal 'watering eyes' for the past 2 years. His symptoms have worsened this year. He complains of bilateral itchy eyes and difficulty in doing school work due to excessive tearing. There is no history of nasal symptoms, asthma or eczema. On examination, there is conjunctival redness, bulging tarsal conjunctivae and mild eyelid swelling. What is the initial management approach for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antihistamines

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this patient are indicative of allergic conjunctivitis. The initial treatment approach for this condition involves the use of topical antihistamines. In case of additional symptoms like rhinosinusitis, oral antihistamines may also be prescribed.

      Understanding Allergic Conjunctivitis

      Allergic conjunctivitis is a condition that can occur on its own, but is often associated with hay fever. It is characterized by bilateral symptoms such as conjunctival erythema and swelling, as well as itchiness and swelling of the eyelids. Those with a history of atopy may be more prone to developing allergic conjunctivitis, which can be seasonal (due to pollen) or perennial (due to exposure to dust mites, washing powder, or other allergens).

      When it comes to managing allergic conjunctivitis, first-line treatment typically involves the use of topical or systemic antihistamines. If these prove ineffective, second-line treatment options such as topical mast-cell stabilizers like Sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil may be recommended. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for allergic conjunctivitis, individuals can take steps to manage their condition and reduce discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular (1/4) 25%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (2/3) 67%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Haematology/Oncology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
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