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  • Question 1 - An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionnaires' disease. Which...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionnaires' disease. Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of Legionnaires' disease:

      Your Answer: Nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Haemoptysis

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophilais a Gram negative bacterium that is found in natural water supplies and in the soil, transmitted predominantly via inhalation of aerosols generated from contaminated water (direct person-to-person spread of infected patients does not occur). It is the cause of Legionnaires’ disease. Outbreaks of Legionnaires’ disease have been linked to poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas and hot tubs.The clinical features of the pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease include:Mild flu-like prodrome for 1-3 daysCough (usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90%)Pleuritic chest painHaemoptysisHeadacheNausea, vomiting and diarrhoeaAnorexiaLegionella pneumophilainfections can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used.The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) can occur with Legionnaires’ disease and will result in hyponatraemia as is seen in this case.Legionella pneumophilainfections are resistant to amoxicillin but can be successfully treated with macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, or quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, such as doxycycline, can also be used. The majority of cases of Legionnaires’ disease are caused by Legionella pneumophila, however many other species of Legionella have been identified.Legionella longbeachae is another less commonly encountered species that has also been implicated in outbreaks. It is predominantly found in soil and potting compost, and has caused outbreaks of Pontiac fever, the non-respiratory and less severe variant of Legionnaires’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects: ...

    Incorrect

    • Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects:

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Megaloblastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Exposure to nitrous oxide for prolonged periods, either by continuous or by intermittent administration, may result in megaloblastic anaemia as a result of interference with the action of vitamin B12; neurological toxic effects can occur without preceding overt haematological changes. Depression of white cell formation may also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old man treated with antibiotics for a chest infection returns with a profuse, offensive smelling diarrhoea. A diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is made after investigations.The action most effective at minimizing spread to other patients is?

      Your Answer: Hand washing

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.Alcohol hand gel is not effective against Clostridium Difficile spores. Hand washing with soap and water is very essential for healthcare workers who come in contact with it.Wearing an apron and gloves, and isolation to a side room are important contact precautions. They are, however, ineffective if hand washing is neglected.Although oral vancomycin is the first-line treatment for C. difficile associated diarrhoea, it will not limit patient to patient spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 71-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and worsening muscle weakness, and...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and worsening muscle weakness, and blood tests done shows a potassium level of 2.4 mmol/L.Which is NOT a recognised cause of hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Type 4 renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      A plasma potassium less than 3.5 mmol/L defines hypokalaemia.Excessive liquorice ingestion causes hypermineralocorticoidism and leads to hypokalaemia.Gitelman’s syndrome causes metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia. It is an inherited defect of the distal convoluted tubules.Bartter’s syndrome causes hypokalaemic alkalosis. It is a rare inherited defect in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis both cause hypokalaemia Type 4 renal tubular acidosis causes hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      88.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhoea develops a low platelet...

    Correct

    • A patient with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhoea develops a low platelet count and deranged renal function. A diagnosis of haemolytic uraemic syndrome is made.Which of the following organisms is a recognised cause of haemolytic uraemic syndrome? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      E.Colistrain 0157 causes enterohaemorrhagic diarrhoea and can be followed by haemolytic uraemic syndrome (renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - All of the statements regarding vascular tone are correct except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the statements regarding vascular tone are correct except:

      Your Answer: Most endogenous vasodilators act by decreasing levels of cAMP or cGMP.

      Explanation:

      Most vasoconstrictors bind to G-protein coupled receptors. These mediate elevation in intracellular [Ca2+] which leads to vascular smooth muscle contraction. Important vasoconstrictors include noradrenaline, endothelin-1 and angiotensin II. Increased intracellular Ca2+ is as a result of the release of Ca2+from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and depolarisation and entry of Ca2+via L-type voltage-gated Ca2+channels. Most types of vascular smooth muscle do not generate action potentials – instead, the depolarisation is graded, which allows graded entry of Ca2+.sequestration by the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ATPase, removal from the cell by a plasma membrane Ca2+ATPase and Na+/Ca2+exchange decreases intracellular Ca2+, resulting in vasodilation. Relaxation is a result of most endogenous vasodilators when there is an increase in cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) like nitric oxide) or cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) like prostacyclin and beta-adrenergic receptor agonists. These activate protein kinases causing substrate level phosphorylation. Clinically effective vasodilators are L-type Ca2+channel blocker drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the hand. On examination Tinel's test is positive and you diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Regarding the carpal tunnel, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus lie within a single synovial sheath.

      Explanation:

      Free movement of the tendons in the carpal tunnel is facilitated by synovial sheaths, which surround the tendons. All of the tendons of the FDP and FDS are contained within a single synovial sheath with a separate sheath enclosing the tendon of the FPL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      1841.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection and is currently under investigation.Which of the following markers is considered the earliest indicator of acute infection in acute Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B surface antibody

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface Ag

      Explanation:

      HBsAg is the serological hallmark of HBV infection. After an acute exposure to HBV, HBsAg appears in serum within 1 to 10 weeks. Persistence of this marker for more than 6 months implies chronic HBV infection.Anti-HBs is known as a neutralizing antibody, and confers long-term immunity. In patients with acquired immunity through vaccination, anti-HBs is the only serological marker detected in serum.HBcAg is an intracellular presence in infected hepatocyte, thus it is not identified in the serum. During acute infection, anti-HBc IgM and IgG emerges 1–2 weeks after the presence of HBsAg along with raised serum aminotransferase and symptoms. After 6 months of acute infection, anti-HBc IgM wears off. Anti-HBc IgG continues to detect in both patients with resolved HBV infection and chronic hepatitis B.Hepatitis D virus, also known as the delta hepatitis virus, is a defective ssRNA virus that requires HBV for replication. The infection can occur in one of two clinical forms, co-infection or superinfection. In a co-infection, the patient is simultaneously infected with HBV and HDV. In a superinfection, an HDV infection develops in a patient with a chronic HBV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Mannitol is primarily indicated for which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Mannitol is primarily indicated for which of the following:

      Your Answer: Cerebral oedema

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can be used to treat cerebral oedema and raised intraocular pressure. Mannitol is a low molecular weight compound and is, therefore, freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed. It, therefore, increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain-barrier (BBB).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Capillaries are designed with a small diffusion distance for nutrition and gaseous exchange...

    Correct

    • Capillaries are designed with a small diffusion distance for nutrition and gaseous exchange with the tissues they serve. Capillaries come in a variety of shapes and sizes, each with its own function in transcapillary exchange.Which of the following types of capillaries is the least permeable in the human body?

      Your Answer: Continuous capillaries

      Explanation:

      Capillaries are designed with a small diffusion distance for nutrition and gaseous exchange with the tissues they serve. Because oxygen and carbon dioxide are both highly soluble in lipids (lipophilic), they can easily diffuse along a concentration gradient across the endothelial lipid bilayer membrane. In contrast, glucose, electrolytes, and other polar, charged molecules are lipid-insoluble (hydrophilic). These chemicals are unable to pass through the lipid bilayer membrane directly and must instead travel through gaps between endothelial cells.Capillaries are divided into three types: continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoidal. Each of these capillary types contains different sized gaps between the endothelial cells that operate as a filter, limiting which molecules and structures can pass through.The permeability of capillaries is affected by the wall continuity, which varies depending on the capillary type.Skeletal muscle, myocardium, skin, lungs, and connective tissue all have continuous capillaries. These capillaries are the least permeable. They have a basement membrane and a continuous layer of endothelium. The presence of intercellular spaces allows water and hydrophilic molecules to pass across. Tight connections between the cells and the glycocalyx inhibit passage via these gaps, making diffusion 1000-10,000 times slower than for lipophilic compounds. The diffusion of molecules larger than 10,000 Da, such as plasma proteins, is likewise prevented by this narrow pore system. These big substances can pass through the capillary wall, but only very slowly, because endothelial cells have enormous holes.The kidneys, gut, and exocrine and endocrine glands all have fenestrated capillaries. These are specialized capillaries that allow fluid to be filtered quickly. Water, nutrients, and hormones can pass via windows or fenestrae in their endothelium, which are connected by a thin porous membrane. They are ten times more permeable than continuous capillaries due to the presence of these fenestrae. Fenestrated capillaries have a healthy basement membrane.The spleen, liver, and bone marrow all have sinusoidal capillaries, also known as discontinuous capillaries. Their endothelium has huge gaps of >100 nm, and their basement membrane is inadequate. They are highly permeable as a result, allowing red blood cells to travel freely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      21.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (2/4) 50%
Pathogens (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Specific Pathogen Groups (2/3) 67%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Renal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Physiology (1/1) 100%
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