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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that has progressed over six hours. She denies any associated vomiting or diarrhea and last had a bowel movement yesterday. She has a history of alcoholic liver disease and previous admissions for decompensated liver failure. Currently, she is not jaundiced or confused. On examination, she has generalised abdominal tenderness, which is worse towards the epigastrium. A chest X-ray reveals a right-sided pleural effusion, which is aspirated and found to have a protein count of 37 g/l. What is the most likely cause of the effusion?

      Your Answer: Hepatic failure

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis. They are experiencing epigastric abdominal pain and have an exudative pleural effusion, which can be caused by inflammation, infection, or malignancy. However, given their heavy alcohol intake, pancreatitis is the more probable cause. Exudative effusions occur due to increased leakiness of pleural capillaries. The other options, such as metastatic cancer, are less likely. Transudates, on the other hand, are caused by increased venous pressure and can occur in various conditions such as cardiac, renal, or hepatic failure, as well as in Meigs syndrome, hypothyroidism, and fluid overload. To confirm the diagnosis of pancreatitis, serum and fluid amylase tests should be conducted.

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends performing a posterioranterior (PA) chest x-ray and an ultrasound to increase the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and detect pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is also increasingly used to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions. Pleural aspiration should be performed using a 21G needle and 50ml syringe, and the fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can be used to distinguish between a transudate and an exudate, and other characteristic pleural fluid findings can help identify the underlying cause.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should also be placed.

      For patients with recurrent pleural effusions, options for management include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as dyspnea. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines for investigation and management of pleural effusion to ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old South African woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presented to...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old South African woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presented to the hospital with a cough, night sweats, and weight loss over the past three weeks. Despite treatment with amoxicillin by her general practitioner, her symptoms persisted and she developed haemoptysis, leading to admission. The patient had been on maintenance prednisolone and received infliximab four weeks prior for a flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis. Her husband, who usually cared for her, was hospitalized with influenza. She had never smoked and worked as a missionary in South Africa and Zimbabwe. On examination, she appeared cachexic, had a fever of 38.4°C, a blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, and oxygen saturations of 89% on room air. Lung auscultation revealed bronchial breath sounds in the left upper zone, and a chest radiograph showed cavitating left upper lobe consolidation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-primary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Tuberculosis Tests and their Limitations

      The use of tumour necrosis factor (TNF) alpha antagonists in treatment significantly increases the risk of post-primary tuberculosis. However, the Mantoux test, which is commonly used to diagnose tuberculosis, may not be reliable in patients on maintenance steroids. On the other hand, immunosuppressed patients are at risk of pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), but the chest radiograph appearance may not be typical of this condition.

      There are two types of tests used to diagnose tuberculosis: the Heaf test and the Mantoux test. The Heaf test involves the multipuncture of skin using 100,000 tuberculin units/ml and is read after one week. The test is graded based on the coalescence of the puncture dots. The Mantoux test, on the other hand, involves the intradermal injection of 0.1 ml of 1 in 1000 tuberculin units and is read after 48 hours. An induration of less than 5 mm is considered negative.

      It is important to note that both tests have their limitations. The Mantoux test may not be reliable in patients on maintenance steroids, while the Heaf test may not be as sensitive as the Mantoux test. Therefore, it is important to consider the patient’s medical history and other diagnostic tests when diagnosing tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A young couple, Mr and Mrs Y, seek your advice. Mrs Y is...

    Incorrect

    • A young couple, Mr and Mrs Y, seek your advice. Mrs Y is currently six weeks pregnant. Mr Y's sister and her partner had a child with cystic fibrosis. After being screened, Mr Y was found to carry the DF508 mutation for cystic fibrosis. Mrs Y is hesitant to undergo testing. Given that the gene frequency for this mutation in the general population is 1/20, what is the likelihood of their child having cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: 1/160

      Correct Answer: Jan-80

      Explanation:

      The genetic basis of cystic fibrosis (CF) is a crucial factor in understanding this genetic disorder that affects the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. CF is caused by mutations in a single gene located on chromosome 7, which encodes the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. This protein plays a vital role in regulating the movement of salt and water in and out of cells, particularly in the lungs and pancreas.

      The likelihood of being a carrier of the CF gene is relatively high, with a chance of 1 in 20 for the general population. However, the chances of two carriers of the gene having a child with CF are much lower, at 1 in 80. This is because CF is a recessive disorder, meaning that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to develop the disease.

      Understanding the genetic basis of CF is crucial for individuals and families who may be at risk of carrying the gene. Genetic testing and counseling can help identify carriers and provide information about the risks of passing on the gene to future generations. Advances in medical treatments and therapies have improved the outlook for individuals with CF, but ongoing research is needed to develop more effective treatments and ultimately find a cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 52-year-old woman presents to the Medical Admissions Unit with a 2-week history...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to the Medical Admissions Unit with a 2-week history of fever, breathlessness, lethargy, and fatigue. She has a history of poorly controlled asthma, resulting in multiple visits to the Emergency Department over the past 2 years. Despite being started on reducing dose oral prednisolone during her last admission, she was unable to decrease her dose below 10 mg per day due to recurrent breathlessness and wheezing. Four months ago, she was started on montelukast 10mg per day as a steroid-sparing therapy, which allowed her to reduce her prednisolone to 5mg per day and remain well. She has a past medical history of sinusitis and nasal polyposis, for which she has undergone several surgeries. Her current medications include Seretide 500/50 1 puff twice daily, montelukast 10 mg once daily, prednisolone 5mg once daily, and salbutamol via MDI as required. On examination, she has an elevated JVP, bibasal crackles, and diffuse polyphonic wheeze. Her initial investigations reveal abnormal levels of various blood components and urine dipstick results of blood +++ and protein ++. What is the most likely finding on renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) or Churg-Strauss syndrome. EGPA is a rare systemic necrotising vasculitis that progresses through three phases, with renal involvement being common in the final phase. There is an association between the introduction of leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRAs) and the onset of EGPA, possibly due to a subclinical form of the disease being suppressed by corticosteroids. The patient may have had aspirin-sensitive asthma, which has a therapeutic role for LTRAs and may be linked to EGPA.

      Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss Syndrome)

      Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), previously known as Churg-Strauss syndrome, is a type of small-medium vessel vasculitis that is associated with ANCA. It is characterized by asthma, blood eosinophilia (more than 10%), paranasal sinusitis, mononeuritis multiplex, and pANCA positivity in 60% of cases.

      Compared to granulomatosis with polyangiitis, EGPA is more likely to have blood eosinophilia and asthma as prominent features. Additionally, leukotriene receptor antagonists may trigger the onset of the disease.

      Overall, EGPA is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man is referred to the hospital by his GP due to...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man is referred to the hospital by his GP due to a 6-day history of productive cough and shortness of breath. He is able to speak in full sentences without difficulty.

      His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 98 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/79 mmHg, respiratory rate of 27 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 38.2°C.

      Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 125 g/L (normal range: 130-180), a white blood cell count of 18.7 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11), neutrophils of 16.1 ×109/L (normal range: 1.5-7.0), platelets of 479 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400), sodium of 123 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144), potassium of 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9), urea of 8.1 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5), creatinine of 115 μmol/L (normal range: 60-110), and a CRP level of 210 mg/L (normal range: <10).

      Based on the severity index CURB-65, what is the severity of pneumonia demonstrated by this patient?

      Your Answer: Moderate severity

      Explanation:

      The CURB-65 score is based on five parameters:
      C – Confusion (new onset)
      U – Urea >7 mmol/L
      R – Respiratory rate >30
      B – BP <90 mmHg systolic or diastolic <60 mmHg
      65 – Age equal to or greater than 65 years

      A score of 2 indicates moderate severity, while scores of 3-5 indicate high severity. There are no life-threatening or very low severity indexes, and clinical judgment should always be used alongside severity indexes for effective patient management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up appointment regarding...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up appointment regarding his COPD. During his last visit, his medications were increased to include regular inhaled Spiriva (tiotropium bromide), Symbicort (budesonide and formoterol), and salbutamol as needed. He reports experiencing shortness of breath at rest and during physical activity, which is limiting his daily activities. He has had two exacerbations in the past year and has been an ex-smoker for six months.

      Upon examination, the patient is tachypnoeic with oxygen saturation levels of 92% on air. Bilateral wheezing is audible during auscultation, and his heart sounds are normal. The patient's calves are soft and non-tender, with no signs of oedema.

      Arterial blood gas results are as follows:

      pH 7.35 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PaO2 8.2 kPa (11 - 13)
      PaCO2 5.1 kPa (4.7 - 6.0)
      Haemoglobin 135 g/L (135 - 180)

      FEV1 is less than 50% predicted.

      What would be the most appropriate addition to this patient's long-term management plan?

      Your Answer: Roflumilast

      Explanation:

      Respiratory medicine utilizes various drugs to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Salbutamol is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle through its effects on beta 2 receptors. It is commonly used in asthma and COPD treatment. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta receptor agonist, has similar effects. Corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory drugs used as maintenance therapy in the form of inhaled corticosteroids. Oral or intravenous corticosteroids are used following an acute exacerbation of asthma or COPD.

      Ipratropium is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, relaxing bronchial smooth muscle. It is primarily used in COPD treatment, while tiotropium has similar effects but is long-acting. Methylxanthines, such as theophylline, are non-specific inhibitors of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. They are given orally or intravenously and have a narrow therapeutic index. Monteleukast and zafirlukast block leukotriene receptors and are usually taken orally. They are useful in treating aspirin-induced asthma. Overall, these drugs play a crucial role in managing respiratory conditions and improving patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old-female is brought into the emergency room after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure....

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old-female is brought into the emergency room after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Upon examination, she has a Glasgow coma scale of 11 (M4, E3, V4) and her blood pressure is 85/65 mmHg. Her heart rate is 135 bpm and an ECG shows atrial fibrillation. She has a medical history of asthma and is currently taking betamethasone, salbutamol, salmeterol, montelukast, and theophylline. She recently started taking erythromycin for a chest infection and has been consuming 6g of paracetamol per day for the past 3 days to alleviate fever and chest discomfort.

      Fluid resuscitation with 0.9% saline is initiated, and a beta blocker is administered to treat the supraventricular tachycardia. The patient is suspected to have theophylline toxicity and is given repeated doses of activated charcoal. However, her condition continues to worsen.

      What is the appropriate treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Intermittent haemodialysis or charcoal haemoperfusion

      Explanation:

      Charcoal haemoperfusion can be utilized in cases of severe theophylline toxicity.

      The patient is exhibiting various symptoms of theophylline toxicity, including seizures, a decreased Glasgow coma score, and a tachyarrhythmia. The introduction of erythromycin, an enzyme inhibitor, may have contributed to the development of theophylline toxicity.

      Given the severity of the symptoms, haemodialysis or charcoal haemoperfusion may be necessary.

      Activated charcoal may also be beneficial, particularly since many products are slow-release formulations. Administering charcoal more than an hour after ingestion may still be effective, and repeated doses should be considered.

      While the patient has been taking more than the recommended dose of paracetamol (4g/24 hours), their symptoms do not align with paracetamol toxicity.

      Cyanide poisoning can be treated with hydroxocobalamin, while benzodiazepine overdose can be addressed with flumazenil.

      Theophylline and its Poisoning

      Theophylline is a naturally occurring methylxanthine that is commonly used as a bronchodilator in the management of asthma and COPD. Its exact mechanism of action is still unknown, but it is believed to be a non-specific inhibitor of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. Other proposed mechanisms include antagonism of adenosine and prostaglandin inhibition.

      However, theophylline poisoning can occur and is characterized by symptoms such as acidosis, hypokalemia, vomiting, tachycardia, arrhythmias, and seizures. In such cases, gastric lavage may be considered if the ingestion occurred less than an hour prior. Activated charcoal is also recommended, while whole-bowel irrigation can be performed if theophylline is in sustained-release form. Charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable to hemodialysis in managing theophylline poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is seen...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is seen in respiratory clinic for follow-up after initial baseline investigations. He has been experiencing worsening shortness of breath for the past nine months along with a non-productive cough. Despite attempts by his GP to treat him with inhalers and antibiotics, his symptoms have not improved. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, depression, and gout, and is understandably anxious about his prognosis. What is the most effective test for determining prognosis in this case?

      Your Answer: 6-minute walking test

      Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide transfer factor

      Explanation:

      The carbon monoxide transfer factor is the correct answer. The 6-minute walking test is not effective for predicting outcomes, whereas CT is more valuable for identifying the cause.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 47-year-old man with a 20-year history of smoking 20 cigarettes a day...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man with a 20-year history of smoking 20 cigarettes a day is admitted to the hospital with increasing breathlessness, coughing up purulent sputum, and left-sided chest pain. He has also experienced poor appetite and decreased intake of food and water over the past two days. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg once daily. His father died of bronchial carcinoma at age 68, and he works as a plumber while drinking four pints of beer each night. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.5°C, a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute, and an area of bronchial breathing at the left base with associated coarse crackles. Investigations reveal abnormal levels of haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, and serum creatinine. The chest x-ray shows an area of dense consolidation in the left lower zone. Which of the following is not a factor associated with a poorer prognosis in community-acquired pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Platelet count of less than 100 ×109/L

      Explanation:

      Community acquired pneumonia can be severe and increase the risk of death. Predictors of severity include low or high white cell count, comorbidities like renal disease, multi-lobar involvement on CXR, and extreme temperatures. Thrombocytosis is associated with increased mortality. Severity scores like the PSI, Modified American Thoracic Society rule, and CURB-65 score incorporate these predictors. The CURB-65 score is easy to use and based on confusion, urea levels, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of increasing shortness of breath and frank haemoptysis for the past few days. He had recently returned from a trip to Turkey. On admission, he was short of breath at rest and unable to complete full sentences. He also reported increasing orthopnoea for the past few weeks. He had a medical history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and gout, as well as a long history of recurrent epistaxis, rhinitis, and sinusitis. He was taking several medications, including mometasone nasal spray, allopurinol, ramipril, amlodipine, simvastatin, metformin, and gliclazide. He smoked 20 cigarettes per day and did not drink alcohol.

      Upon examination, he appeared very unwell and was in obvious respiratory distress. His respiratory rate was 28/min, his oxygen saturations were 90% on air, his blood pressure was 108/72 mmHg, his heart rate was 129, and his temperature was 37.9 degrees Celsius. His cardiovascular system had normal heart sounds with a JVP of 3cm, while his respiratory system showed the use of accessory muscles with bibasal fine crackles. Examination of the gastrointestinal and neurological systems was unremarkable.

      Initial investigations revealed low Hb, high platelets and WBC, high ESR, low Na+, high K+, high urea, high creatinine, high CRP, and normal glucose. Chest x-ray showed bilateral patchy infiltration, while ECG showed normal sinus rhythm. Urinalysis showed blood and protein, but negative leuc/nit and glucose. ABG on 15 l/min oxygen showed high PaO2, low PaCO2, low HCO3, and high pH.

      Further investigations revealed nil growth in urine MCS and blood culture, normal systolic function and valvular appearances, and no vegetations seen in transoesophageal echocardiogram. C3 and C4 were abnormal, ANA and dsDNA were negative, cANCA was positive, pANCA was negative, and rheumatoid factor was negative.

      Given the likely underlying diagnosis, what is the best next step while awaiting haemodialysis?

      Your Answer: Institute immediate plasma exchange

      Correct Answer: Commence high dose IV methylprednisolone and cyclophosphamide

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from granulomatosis with polyangiitis and has severe pulmonary and renal involvement, necessitating immediate immunosuppression. The most suitable course of action at this point is to administer cyclophosphamide and methylprednisolone. While other options may have some utility, this question specifically asks for the most appropriate next step.

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.

      To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.

      The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-week history of a dry cough, fever and retrosternal discomfort. He has a past medical history of HIV and is poorly compliant with anti-retroviral medications. He has recently returned from a holiday in Mississippi.

      Observations:

      Heart rate 95 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 101/65 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 24/minute
      Spo2 93% on room air
      Temperature 37.3C

      The examination is unremarkable.

      A chest x-ray demonstrates multifocal consolidation that extends to the periphery of the lungs.

      Sputum microscopy reveals yeasts.

      What is the most likely organism responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Histoplasma capsulatum

      Explanation:

      Histoplasma capsulatum is the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. This fungal organism is endemic to the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys and can cause respiratory symptoms such as a dry cough, fever, and chest x-ray evidence of pneumonia. The presence of yeasts on sputum microscopy further supports a fungal infection. Severe histoplasmosis is more common in immunocompromised patients, which is a concern given the patient’s history of poor compliance with HIV medications.

      Coccidioides posadasii is an incorrect answer as it causes coccidioidomycosis, which is not endemic to Mississippi. Legionella pneumophila is also incorrect as it causes a bacterial atypical pneumonia and is not necessarily endemic to Mississippi. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is another potential cause of pneumonia in a patient with HIV, but yeasts would not be seen on sputum microscopy, indicating a fungal rather than bacterial infection.

      Understanding Histoplasmosis

      Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. This infection is commonly found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys. The symptoms of histoplasmosis include upper respiratory tract infection symptoms and retrosternal pain.

      To manage histoplasmosis, pharmacological agents such as amphotericin or itraconazole are used. These agents are considered the best options for treating this infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old female teacher is referred by her general practitioner due to a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female teacher is referred by her general practitioner due to a dry, nocturnal cough that has been present for the past four months. She is a non-smoker and does not produce any sputum. She has not experienced any haemoptysis and has a similar exercise tolerance to her colleagues despite maintaining a steady weight. Upon examination, her chest is clear to auscultation. She is 5' 6 (1.68m) tall and weighs 72 kg (BMI = 26.1 kg/m2). The results of her spirometry are as follows:

      FEV1 2.8 L (Predicted 3.10 L)
      FVC 3.9 L (Predicted 4.00 L)
      FEV1/FVC 0.72 (Predicted 0.77)
      PEFR 420 L/min (Predicted 440 L/min)

      What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Peak flow chart

      Explanation:

      Investigating Nocturnal Dry Cough: Common Causes and Diagnostic Considerations

      Nocturnal dry cough can be caused by various conditions, including asthma, reflux, and post nasal drip. However, when spirometry shows an obstructive picture with an FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 70%, reflux and post nasal drip can be excluded as possible causes. This eliminates the need for oesophageal manometry and nasendoscopy as diagnostic options.

      Obstructive sleep apnoea can also be ruled out as a cause, as it would typically present with a restrictive defect secondary to obesity. Therefore, sleep studies may not be a useful diagnostic tool in this case. While bronchoscopy can be used to investigate a possible bronchial carcinoma, it is a highly invasive investigation and not typically used as a first-line option without any indication of malignancy in the patient’s history.

      Instead, maintaining a peak flow chart can be a useful diagnostic tool. A variation of greater than 25% on the chart, before and after bronchodilator use, would support an initial diagnosis of reversible small airways disease, such as asthma. By considering these common causes and diagnostic options, healthcare professionals can effectively investigate and manage nocturnal dry cough in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old man with a history of recurrent hospital admissions for asthma exacerbations...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man with a history of recurrent hospital admissions for asthma exacerbations presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and cough. Upon examination, he appears dyspnoeic and wheezy, and is becoming exhausted. His respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, his heart rate is 125 bpm (sinus tachycardia), and his PEFR is 30% predicted. An arterial blood gas is taken and the results are as follows: pH 7.43 (7.36-7.44), pO2 7.3 kPa (11.3-12.6), pCO2 5.2 kPa (4.7-6.0). Based on this information, what is the severity of this patient's asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Acute severe exacerbation

      Correct Answer: Life threatening exacerbation

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Life-Threatening Asthma Exacerbation

      A life-threatening exacerbation of asthma can be identified through various symptoms. These include a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of less than 33% of the best or predicted value, oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 92%, arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) below 8 kPa, normal arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) between 4.6-6.0 kPa, a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, or exhaustion leading to an altered level of consciousness. These symptoms are outlined in the British Thoracic Society’s Asthma Guideline as indicators of a severe asthma attack that requires immediate medical attention. By recognizing these signs, individuals with asthma and their caregivers can take prompt action to seek medical help and prevent life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old man, admitted for a routine hernia surgery, was found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man, admitted for a routine hernia surgery, was found to have a pneumothorax on his pre-operative chest X-ray. He has a past medical history of chronic bronchitis and a smoking history of 45 pack-years. The chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm unilateral pneumothorax. Although he is not experiencing shortness of breath, he is experiencing chest discomfort.
      What would be the optimal approach to manage this clinical situation?

      Your Answer: Give the patient 10 litres of oxygen by mask

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Management of Secondary Pneumothorax in a Smoker Over 50 Years Old

      In managing a patient with a secondary pneumothorax, the British Thoracic Guidelines recommend inserting a chest drain with a gauge of 8-14 Fr if the pneumothorax is greater than 2 cm or if the patient is breathless. The intrapleural distance should be measured at the level of the hilum. High-flow oxygen may be used as a treatment option for secondary pneumothoraces less than 1 cm in size, provided the patient is not at risk of oxygen sensitivity. Aspirating the pneumothorax with a 16G cannula should only be attempted if the pneumothorax is between 1 and 2 cm and the patient is not breathless. Admission without intervention can be considered for patients with secondary pneumothoraces less than 1 cm in size and asymptomatic. In this case, the patient can be discharged to an outpatient ambulatory clinic in 2 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 79-year-old man was admitted to the hospital from a residential home due...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man was admitted to the hospital from a residential home due to chest pain. He had a history of ischaemic heart disease and had suffered a myocardial infarction eight years ago. His congestive cardiac failure was well controlled with medication. The only other notable event in his past was a chest injury sustained during his time in the armed services sixty years ago when he was hit by shrapnel while serving in North Africa. He was born and raised in India but had lived in the United Kingdom for his entire adult life, working as a secondary school teacher and later as a headmaster of a boys' boarding school. His ECG showed lateral ST segment elevation and his serum troponin T was elevated. The chest x-ray revealed pleural calcification at the right base. What is the most likely cause of pleural calcification in this patient?

      Your Answer: Occupational exposure to chalk dust

      Correct Answer: Post-traumatic

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pleural Calcification

      Pleural calcification can occur unilaterally or bilaterally, with different causes for each. Unilateral pleural calcification is most commonly a chronic change resulting from pleural infections such as tuberculous empyema, pyogenic empyema, or haemothorax. Asbestos exposure is a rare cause of unilateral pleural calcification. On the other hand, bilateral calcified pleural plaques are usually considered asbestos-related. However, other rarer causes of bilateral disease include radiation exposure, hyperparathyroidism, pulmonary infarction, and pancreatitis.

      In the case of this patient, the most likely explanation for pleural calcification is either old TB empyema or as a result of haemothorax from his war injury. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pleural calcification as it can provide valuable information for diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with progressive shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with progressive shortness of breath over the past three days. The dyspnea worsens with activity but is not accompanied by cough or wheeze. She has a medical history of asthma and HIV, for which she takes antiretroviral medication regularly. Two weeks ago, she was diagnosed with oral candida and prescribed a 2-week course of nystatin and started on dapsone for prophylaxis of pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. She is a non-smoker.

      Upon examination, the patient's lips and nail beds have a bluish tinge, and she is visibly breathless. Her respiratory rate is 26 per minute, and her pulse oximetry readings show saturations of 91% on air both at rest and on exercise. Her temperature is 36.5ºC, and she has not experienced any feverish symptoms. On auscultation, she has vesicular breath sounds with minimal wheeze, and normal heart sounds with no murmurs. There is no ankle edema, and JVP is not raised. There is no evidence of oral candidiasis or lymphadenopathy. Her calves are soft and non-tender.

      A chest x-ray shows clear lung fields with no focal consolidation or lymphadenopathy. ECG is sinus rhythm at 90 beats per minute with normal complexes throughout.

      Arterial blood gas on air:

      pH 7.51
      PaO2 13.7 kPa
      PaCO2 3.34 pka
      HCO3- 22.1 mmol/l
      BE -3.3 mmol/l
      sO2 97%
      Hb 113 g/l
      Na+ 143 mmol/l
      K+ 3.7 mmol/l
      Glu 5.2 mmol/l
      Lac 1.9 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Methemoglobinemia

      Explanation:

      This woman is experiencing difficulty breathing and low oxygen levels as measured by pulse oximetry, but her arterial blood gas shows normal oxygen levels. Additionally, she has a bluish tint to her skin and her chest exam is normal. These symptoms suggest that she may have methemoglobinemia, a known side effect of the medication dapsone that she is taking.

      It is unlikely that her symptoms are due to an asthma exacerbation, as this would typically present with wheezing and low arterial oxygen levels. Carbon monoxide poisoning would result in a cherry red appearance, which is not present in this case. Pulmonary embolism would also be unlikely, as it would typically cause a low arterial oxygen level and a rapid heart rate. Pneumocystis pneumonia is unlikely due to prophylaxis, and would typically present with x-ray changes and a drop in oxygen levels during exercise.

      Understanding Methaemoglobinaemia

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. Normally, NADH methaemoglobin reductase regulates this process by transferring electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, reducing it to haemoglobin. However, when this process is disrupted, tissue hypoxia occurs as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, shifting the oxidation dissociation curve to the left.

      There are congenital causes of methaemoglobinaemia, such as haemoglobin chain variants like HbM and HbH, as well as NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes include drugs like sulphonamides, nitrates (including recreational nitrates like amyl nitrite ‘poppers’), dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine, as well as chemicals like aniline dyes.

      Symptoms of methaemoglobinaemia include ‘chocolate’ cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, and in severe cases, acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma. Despite normal pO2 levels, oxygen saturation is decreased.

      Management of NADH methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency involves ascorbic acid, while acquired methaemoglobinaemia can be treated with IV methylthioninium chloride (methylene blue). Understanding the causes and symptoms of methaemoglobinaemia is crucial in its proper diagnosis and management.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old woman presents to the rapid access chest clinic with a chronic...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to the rapid access chest clinic with a chronic productive cough, progressive shortness of breath, and reduced exercise tolerance over the past 3 months. She also reports experiencing constant pain in her left shoulder for the past month, which is slightly relieved by paracetamol and codeine. The patient has a medical history of moderate COPD, mechanical back pain, and a 15-year pack history. She drinks 1-2 units of alcohol per day. On examination, there is wasting of the hypothenar eminence of the left hand, but clear bilateral chest sounds with no added sounds and present heart sounds 1 and 2 without murmurs.

      What investigation would be most useful to perform following a chest x-ray?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography of the thorax

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms of wasting of the hypothenar eminence, shortness of breath, and cough, the probable diagnosis is lung cancer, specifically a Pancoast tumor. The most effective diagnostic test would be a CT scan of the thorax, as bronchoscopy may not be as helpful since the cancer is often located in a peripheral area.

      Understanding Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

      Non-small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that has three main subtypes: squamous cell cancer, adenocarcinoma, and large cell lung carcinoma. Squamous cell cancer is typically found in the central part of the lung and is associated with the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP), which can lead to hypercalcemia. This subtype is also strongly associated with finger clubbing and cavitating lesions are more common than other types. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) is also a common feature of squamous cell cancer.

      Adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is typically found in the peripheral part of the lung and is the most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers. However, the majority of patients who develop lung adenocarcinoma are smokers. Lastly, large cell lung carcinoma is also found in the peripheral part of the lung and is anaplastic, poorly differentiated tumors with a poor prognosis. This subtype may also secrete β-hCG.

      Understanding the different subtypes of non-small cell lung cancer is important in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients. Early detection and diagnosis can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman presented to the outpatient clinic with a complaint of cough...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presented to the outpatient clinic with a complaint of cough and shortness of breath that had been going on for four weeks. She reported producing 500 ml of frothy mucoid sputum per day due to the severity of her cough. Although she had noticed a decrease in appetite, she had not experienced any weight loss. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bronchoalveolar Cell Carcinoma: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma is a rare type of bronchial carcinoma that can cause progressive breathlessness and excessive production of sputum, known as bronchorrhoea. This type of cancer spreads through the alveolar walls and can fill the alveoli with mucin. It accounts for only 1% of all bronchial carcinomas.

      When a patient presents with these symptoms, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as heart failure, persistent pneumonia, alveolar proteinosis, and cryptogenic organizing pneumonia. However, pulmonary Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis X and lymphangitis carcinomatosis may also cause progressive breathlessness and cough, but they do not typically present with bronchorrhoea.

      In summary, bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma should be considered in patients with progressive breathlessness and excessive sputum production. However, it is important to rule out other potential diagnoses before making a definitive diagnosis.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old man presents to the Emergency department after being found unconscious by...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the Emergency department after being found unconscious by his girlfriend. He has a history of anxiety and depression and is currently taking benzodiazepines and tricyclic antidepressants. According to his girlfriend, he ingested 50mg of diazepam and 500mg of amitriptyline, and left a suicide note and an empty bottle of vodka next to his body. He also has a history of well-controlled asthma with high dose inhaled corticosteroids.

      On examination, the patient is drowsy with a Glasgow coma score of 7. His vital signs are as follows: temperature of 34.8°C, pulse of 120 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg. Bronchial breath sounds are heard over the right upper zone, and a chest x-ray reveals right upper lobe consolidation.

      Arterial blood gases on 15 L of oxygen per minute via a reservoir bag mask show a pH of 7.2, PaCO2 of 9.5 kPa, PaO2 of 12.0 kPa, and HCO3 of 27.3 mmol/L.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue with high flow oxygen and fast bleep the on-call anaesthetist for an ETT

      Explanation:

      Intubation as the Only Option for a Patient with Ventilatory Failure

      Intubation is the only viable option for a patient with ventilatory failure whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is less than 8 and has an unprotected airway. The patient’s condition is a result of several factors, including reduced consciousness, respiratory suppressant drugs, and aspiration pneumonia. It is important to note that the patient is not a chronic CO2 retainer and requires high concentration oxygen until intubation is performed.

      Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended in this case since the patient is not protecting their airway. Additionally, flumazenil is contraindicated due to the tricyclic antidepressant drugs the patient has taken, which significantly reduce their seizure threshold. Therefore, intubation is the only correct option to ensure the patient’s airway is protected and to provide adequate ventilation.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 25 year-old patient presents to the Acute Medical Unit with a 4-week...

    Correct

    • A 25 year-old patient presents to the Acute Medical Unit with a 4-week history of increasing cough and breathlessness. The cough was generally non-productive but he had coughed up a small amount of blood on 3 occasions. His past medical history consisted only of asthma which was well controlled with a salbutamol inhaler. There was no family history of venous thromboembolism. His recent travel history included a trip to Sierra Leone 3 months ago. He was a non-smoker and drank 20 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination, his temperature was 37.6oC, heart rate 80 beats per minute, blood pressure 124/88 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute and oxygen saturations 92% on room air. He was able to talk in full sentences. A few bibasal crackles were evident on auscultation of the chest. His JVP was not elevated and heart sounds were normal.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Mebendazole

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of eosinophilic pneumonia caused by a parasite infection, also known as Loeffler’s syndrome. The most probable culprit is the roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides, which can trigger Loeffler’s syndrome during its pulmonary migration phase. While idiopathic pulmonary eosinophilia or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis could also be considered based on the clinical features and eosinophilia, the suggested treatment for both conditions (corticosteroids) is not listed as an option. The chest x-ray results and normal ECG make pulmonary embolism less likely as a diagnosis.

      Pulmonary eosinophilia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of eosinophils in the airways and lung tissue, often accompanied by a blood eosinophilia. This condition can be caused by various factors, including Churg-Strauss syndrome, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, Loeffler’s syndrome, eosinophilic pneumonia, hypereosinophilic syndrome, tropical pulmonary eosinophilia, and certain drugs such as nitrofurantoin and sulphonamides. Less commonly, it may be associated with Wegener’s granulomatosis. Loeffler’s syndrome, which is thought to be caused by parasites such as Ascaris lumbricoides, typically presents with a fever, cough, and night sweats lasting less than two weeks and is generally self-limiting. Acute eosinophilic pneumonia is highly responsive to steroids, while tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is associated with Wuchereria bancrofti infection.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 62-year-old man with a 35 pack per year smoking history visits his...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man with a 35 pack per year smoking history visits his doctor complaining of fatigue and difficulty concentrating, which is affecting his ability to work. His wife reports that he frequently falls asleep in front of the TV. During the examination, his heart rate is 86 bpm and his blood pressure is 140/92 mmHg. He has a normal cardiovascular exam, and mild expiratory wheezing is heard upon auscultation of the lungs, with oxygen saturation at 92%. He is 178 cm tall, weighs 118 kg, and has a neck circumference of 43 cm. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Overnight continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a common sleep disorder that can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. The following are treatment options for OSA:

      1. Overnight continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP): This is the first-line treatment for moderate to severe OSA. CPAP has been shown to be effective in reducing OSA symptoms, but it does not prevent cardiovascular mortality associated with OSA.

      2. Intra-oral device to prevent snoring: This may be useful for mild OSA, but not in cases of daytime sleepiness.

      3. Long-term oxygen therapy: This can be used as an adjunct to CPAP therapy or in cases where patients are unable to adhere to CPAP. However, it should not be offered as first-line in preference to CPAP.

      4. Modafinil: This is a daytime stimulant used in the treatment of narcolepsy. It is not used in the management of OSA, but has been shown to have beneficial effects in use with CPAP.

      5. Nocturnal lorazepam: This is an inappropriate treatment option for OSA as benzodiazepines are contraindicated and can lead to respiratory failure.

      Patients with OSA should also alter their lifestyle appropriately, with weight loss and alcohol and smoking cessation as first-line treatment. Long-term oxygen therapy has not been shown to have any long-term benefit in OSA patients.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 38-year-old woman with a history of tuberous sclerosis presents to the respiratory...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with a history of tuberous sclerosis presents to the respiratory clinic with worsening dyspnea. Her primary care physician ordered a chest x-ray which revealed significant alterations. What is the complication that has arisen?

      Your Answer: Lymphangioleiomyomatosis

      Explanation:

      The CT scan reveals numerous small, uniform cysts spread throughout the lungs, which is a characteristic indication of lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM). This condition can occur independently or in conjunction with tuberous sclerosis.

      Tuberous sclerosis (TS) is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is similar to neurofibromatosis in that most of the features seen in TS are neurocutaneous. The condition is characterized by various cutaneous features such as depigmented ‘ash-leaf’ spots that fluoresce under UV light, roughened patches of skin over the lumbar spine (Shagreen patches), adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas) that are distributed like a butterfly over the nose, fibromata beneath nails (subungual fibromata), and café-au-lait spots. Neurological features include developmental delay, epilepsy (infantile spasms or partial), and intellectual impairment. Other features of TS include retinal hamartomas, rhabdomyomas of the heart, gliomatous changes that can occur in the brain lesions, polycystic kidneys, renal angiomyolipomata, and lymphangioleiomyomatosis, which is characterized by multiple lung cysts.

      It is important to note that while café-au-lait spots are more commonly associated with neurofibromatosis, a study conducted in 1998 found that 28% of patients with TS also had café-au-lait spots. When comparing neurofibromatosis and TS, it is important to note that while they are both autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorders, there is little overlap between the two conditions.

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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man comes to the respiratory clinic through the 2-week rule due...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the respiratory clinic through the 2-week rule due to haemoptysis and a persistent cough. During the examination, you notice that his clothing is loosely fitted. Upon chest percussion, you detect dullness in the left upper zone. A chest X-ray confirms the presence of a mass in the left upper zone. After consulting with your supervisor, you arrange for an urgent staging Computerised Tomography (CT) scan, which unfortunately reveals a large mass in the left upper zone, mediastinal lymph node involvement, and hepatocellular metastases. The patient's performance status is 1, and hyponatraemia is detected in the blood tests you ordered during the examination.

      Na+ 126 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 7.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 91 µmol/l

      Given the most probable diagnosis and staging, what would be the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Radiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical information provided, the expected diagnosis is small cell lung carcinoma, which is commonly associated with hyponatremia caused by syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Unfortunately, small cell lung carcinoma has a poor prognosis. According to NICE guidelines, chemotherapy may be offered as a treatment option for patients with extensive disease after a multidisciplinary team discussion, provided the patient is deemed fit enough. Surgical resection is not recommended for small cell carcinoma, but radiotherapy may be an option for those with limited disease.

      Small Cell Lung Cancer: Characteristics and Management

      Small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that usually develops in the central part of the lungs and arises from APUD cells. This type of cancer is often associated with the secretion of hormones such as ADH and ACTH, which can cause hyponatremia and Cushing’s syndrome, respectively. In addition, ACTH secretion can lead to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and hypokalemic alkalosis due to high levels of cortisol. Patients with small cell lung cancer may also experience Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is characterized by antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels causing a myasthenic-like syndrome.

      Management of small cell lung cancer depends on the stage of the disease. Patients with very early stage disease may be considered for surgery, while those with limited disease typically receive a combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Patients with more extensive disease are offered palliative chemotherapy. Unfortunately, most patients with small cell lung cancer are diagnosed with metastatic disease, making treatment more challenging.

      Overall, small cell lung cancer is a complex disease that requires careful management and monitoring. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes, but more research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms of this type of cancer.

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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old ex-shipyard laborer presents with progressive shortness of breath. Pulmonary function tests...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old ex-shipyard laborer presents with progressive shortness of breath. Pulmonary function tests reveal the following results:
      Test Predicted Actual
      FEV (L) 4.2 3.3
      FVC (L) 4.7 3.8
      TLCO (mmol/min/kPa) 9.8 6.5
      KCO (mmol/min/kPa/L) 1.8 2.1
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asbestosis

      Explanation:

      Asbestosis and its Associated Pulmonary Disorders

      Asbestosis is a type of pneumoconiosis caused by inhaling asbestos fibers, which leads to slowly progressive, diffuse pulmonary fibrosis. A patient with reduced FVC and FEV1, but raised KCO, is likely to have a restrictive defect caused by either pulmonary fibrosis or extrapulmonary disease such as pleural disease. However, the raised KCO suggests extrapulmonary disease with unimpaired gas transfer, which is not consistent with pulmonary fibrosis.

      The patient’s occupational history is crucial in determining the cause of his condition, as he is at risk of both mesothelioma and asbestosis. Asbestosis is characterized by diffuse pulmonary fibrosis, while the spectrum of pulmonary disorders associated with asbestos exposure includes pleural disease and malignancies such as non-small cell and small cell carcinoma of the lung, as well as malignant mesothelioma.

      Other causes of raised KCO include pulmonary hemorrhage, polycythemia, left to right shunts, and neuromuscular weakness. It is important to consider all possible causes and conduct further tests to accurately diagnose and treat the patient’s condition.

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  • Question 25 - A 57-year-old man presents with worsening shortness of breath and haemoptysis over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with worsening shortness of breath and haemoptysis over the past ten days. He is currently coughing up an estimated 200 ml of fresh red blood daily. He experiences night sweats and feels cold and sweaty at times. He has not lost any weight and was previously healthy.

      The patient has mild COPD and takes fostair twice a day with no exacerbations in the past 5 years. He moved to the UK 15 years ago but lived 10 years in Louisiana as a mining operator extracting minerals with exposure to bats and birds during this time. He drinks 10 units of alcohol a week and was born in Syria where he received a BCG vaccine as a child. He has not been around any ill contacts and lives with his wife and two children. There is no recent foreign travel and he keeps no pets.

      On examination, he has crepitations in the right side mid and upper zones. He has palpable lymph nodes in his axillae and neck but his abdomen is non-tender with no hepatosplenomegaly. He is breathing rapidly and appears cachectic. His observations show temperature 38.3ºC, respiratory rate 28/min, heart rate 98/min, saturations 88% in air. An arterial blood gas has not been done.

      Hb 110 g/l Na+ 139 mmol/l
      Platelets 450 * 109/l K+ 3.4 mmol/l
      WBC 13 * 109/l Urea 4.1 mmol/l
      Neuts 9.8 * 109/l Creatinine 78 µmol/l
      Lymphs 0.78 * 109/l CRP 130 mg/l
      Eosin 0.1 * 109/l
      HIV serology negative

      Sputum culture no acid-fast bacilli or other growth seen
      Chest x-ray bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with patchy right upper zone consolidation
      Beta-D-glucan strongly positive

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspergillosis

      Correct Answer: Histoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acute respiratory failure and his condition is deteriorating. While there are several possible causes, HIV-related pneumocystis is unlikely as the patient is not HIV positive. Lung carcinoma typically presents with a slower onset, making it less likely in this case. Additionally, the patient has been vaccinated against tuberculosis. The presence of raised Beta-D-glucan levels suggests a fungal infection. Given the patient’s history of exposure to bats and their droppings in the Mississippi area, it is possible that he has developed invasive histoplasmosis. This fungal infection is known to present many years after initial exposure to the fungus.

      Understanding Histoplasmosis

      Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. This infection is commonly found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys. The symptoms of histoplasmosis include upper respiratory tract infection symptoms and retrosternal pain.

      To manage histoplasmosis, pharmacological agents such as amphotericin or itraconazole are used. These agents are considered the best options for treating this infection.

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  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old man presents to the hospital with symptoms of severe flu for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the hospital with symptoms of severe flu for the past week. He now reports a cough that produces green sputum and shortness of breath. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe and the formation of pneumatoceles. What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcal Pneumonia: A Dangerous Complication of Influenza

      Staphylococcal pneumonia is a serious condition that can occur as a result of influenza infection. Patients who develop pneumonia following influenza should be treated with anti-staphylococcal antibiotics to prevent further complications. This type of pneumonia can be particularly severe and has a high mortality rate. The toxins produced by the bacteria can cause tissue necrosis, leading to the formation of cavities, pneumatoceles, and pneumothoraces. It is important to monitor patients closely for signs of staphylococcal pneumonia and to administer appropriate treatment promptly to prevent further complications. With proper care and treatment, patients can recover from this condition, but early intervention is key to a successful outcome.

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  • Question 27 - A 26-year-old woman attends the respiratory clinic for a review of her asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman attends the respiratory clinic for a review of her asthma treatment. The patient reported that overall, her symptoms of asthma had been well controlled in the 6 months since her last review. She had not suffered any significant exacerbations of her asthma in that time and felt she was required to use her salbutamol inhaler only around once per week (which represented a significant improvement over her normal control).

      The patient also reported that she was now 3 months pregnant, and had just had an unremarkable 12-week ultrasound. While she had not been planning to have a baby, the patient reported being very happy about it, and she was keen to maximise her health during this time.

      The patient had a long-standing diagnosis of asthma, with her first presentations during early childhood. While the illness had only caused mild symptoms between the ages of 10 and 15 years, the patient had suffered several severe exacerbations of asthma in her late teenage years, coinciding with the time when the patient had become a regular smoker.

      The patient did not report any other significant on-going health problems or past medical history. In particular, she denied a history of seizures, high blood pressure or mental health problems.

      The patient's current asthma treatment was a salmeterol-fluticasone combination inhaler (Seretide Accuhaler 250), one puff twice daily. She was also prescribed a metered-dose salbutamol inhaler for use as required. The patient had no history of drug allergies.

      The patient reported that she continued to be a regular cigarette smoker. Since finding out she was pregnant, she had managed to reduce her regular intake to 12 cigarettes per day, reduced from her previous typical intake of 20 cigarettes per day.

      The patient was motivated to use her pregnancy as a motivating factor to stop smoking permanently, and during the clinic asked about medication to assist her with quitting.

      What is the most appropriate drug treatment strategy to assist this patient in quitting smoking?

      Your Answer: Varenicline

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement patch with short-acting nicotine replacement

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by their partner. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by their partner. They have been experiencing a persistent cough for the past week and have been using their blue inhaler more frequently. Normally, they are prescribed a fluticasone/salmeterol combination inhaler, 250 μg/50 mg BD, and montelukast, 10 mg daily. Their partner is unsure if they have registered with a healthcare provider and is concerned that they may not have filled their prescription.

      Upon admission to the Emergency Department, the patient's respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, their PEFR is 240 l/min (predicted 590 l/min), and their O2 saturation is 90%. Oxygen therapy is initiated, and the patient is given a bolus of IV hydrocortisone and a nebuliser containing salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 500 μg. The salbutamol nebuliser is repeated three times by the nursing staff.

      Later in the evening, the patient's clinical features on oxygen reveal a respiratory rate of 15 breaths per minute, a PEFR of 230 l/min, a pH of 7.35 (normal range 7.35-7.45), a pO2 of 7.7 kPa (normal range 10.5-13.5 kPa), and a pCO2 of 5.8 kPa (normal range 4.6-6.0 kPa).

      What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Review by an ITU physician

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Severe Asthma

      When managing a patient with acute severe asthma, it is important to take the appropriate steps to prevent respiratory arrest. In this case, despite therapy, the patient’s peak flow has deteriorated, and there is evidence of hypoxia with hypercapnia on arterial blood gas testing. Therefore, the most appropriate next step would be review by an ITU physician to assess the need for ventilatory support.

      While IV magnesium therapy is recommended in the management of acute severe asthma, it may not reverse the current deterioration in symptoms. IV salbutamol therapy gives limited advantage versus continuous nebuliser therapy and increases the risk of atrial arrhythmia. IV aminophylline therapy is no longer considered a first-line therapy for acute asthma due to limited additional beta agonist efficacy versus continuous nebulisers, against a risk of significant arrhythmia.

      Continuous nebulised salbutamol is appropriate in this case, but review by the ITU outreach team is crucial for better outcomes. It is important to take the necessary steps to manage acute severe asthma and prevent respiratory arrest.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man has been experiencing progressive dyspnoea for the past 2 years...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been experiencing progressive dyspnoea for the past 2 years and has recently been diagnosed with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. His latest FVC reading shows that it is 55% of predicted. What is the typical life expectancy for a patient with this condition after being diagnosed?

      Your Answer: 12-18 months

      Correct Answer: 3-4 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of pleuritic chest...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of pleuritic chest pain and exertional dyspnea. There is no history of trauma. Upon examination, a standard erect PA chest radiograph reveals a 4 cm apical pneumothorax. The chest physician determines that a chest drain is necessary and should be inserted promptly. What is the most suitable technique for this procedure?

      Your Answer: Insertion of a small bore chest drain using a Seldinger technique in the mid-axillary line

      Explanation:

      Benefits of Small Bore Drains and Appropriate Chest Drain Insertion Point

      Small bore drains are just as effective as large bore drains but are less painful when in place. When it comes to chest drain insertion, the most suitable point is in the safe triangle located in the mid-axillary line. This reduces the risk of damaging internal organs such as the liver, spleen, muscle, and internal mammary artery. Additionally, scarring from insertion is less noticeable than in the second intercostal space and mid-clavicular line, which is particularly important for women.

      In cases where there is a loculated apical pneumothorax, a posteriorly sited (suprascapular) apical tube may be used to drain it. However, this is not recommended in this scenario. If a CT scan shows that the pneumothorax is loculated, a more posterior insertion site may be chosen. Nonetheless, this is not the case with this patient.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 31 - A 70-year-old man is referred to the hospital by his GP with a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is referred to the hospital by his GP with a suspected case of pneumonia. He is able to converse appropriately in complete sentences.

      His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 98, blood pressure of 110/79 mmHg, respiratory rate of 27, and a temperature of 38.2°C.

      The results of his laboratory tests are as follows: hemoglobin level of 125 g/L (normal range: 130-180), white blood cell count of 18.7 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11), neutrophil count of 16.1 ×109/L (normal range: 1.5-7.0), platelet count of 479 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400), sodium level of 123 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144), potassium level of 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9), urea level of 8.1 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5), creatinine level of 115 μmol/L (normal range: 60-110), and CRP level of 210 mg/L (normal range: <10).

      Based on the above information, what is his predicted mortality rate according to the current BTS guidelines?

      Your Answer: 9%

      Explanation:

      The inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. In order for a child to inherit CF, both parents must be carriers of the mutated gene. However, the chance of one or both parents having CF is low as the ability to reproduce in affected adults is extremely low. Therefore, it is safe to assume that both parents are carriers if one of their children is affected.

      If a child is phenotypically normal at the age of 8, it means that they do not have CF as the symptoms would have become apparent by now. However, the child could still be a carrier of the mutated gene. In this case, the chance of the child being a carrier is 2 out of 3.

      It is important to note that for autosomal recessive disorders like CF, the child of an affected individual has a 100% chance of being a carrier. The inheritance of CF is crucial for genetic counseling and family planning.

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  • Question 32 - A 65-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic for evaluation of his chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic for evaluation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) symptoms. He has been referred by his primary care physician due to increasing shortness of breath. Despite his diagnosis, he continues to smoke ten cigarettes per day. He reports a history of childhood asthma and a positive response to oral steroids in the past. His most recent forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) is 40% of predicted, and he can only walk 50 m to the local bus stop. He currently takes a salbutamol inhaler as needed and carbocisteine. On examination, his blood pressure is 135/82 mmHg, pulse is 78 bpm and regular, and he has signs of right heart failure. What is the most appropriate intervention to decrease the risk of future exacerbations?

      Your Answer: LTOT

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for COPD

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive respiratory disease that requires careful management to prevent exacerbations and improve outcomes. There are several treatment options available, each with its own benefits and risks.

      LABA and high-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is a combination that has been shown to reduce the frequency of exacerbations in patients with asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness. However, it also increases the risk of pneumonia.

      LABA and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) is the preferred intervention for patients with symptomatic COPD who do not have features of asthma or steroid responsiveness.

      Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) may improve symptoms, but it does not have a positive impact on outcomes in COPD.

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) improves mortality by reducing the progression of right heart failure and pulmonary hypertension, but it is less desirable in patients who continue to smoke due to the risk of fire.

      Theophylline may improve symptoms, but it does not improve mortality in COPD and increases the risk of atrial arrhythmias in patients who take it. Inhaled beta agonists are the preferred option.

      In conclusion, the choice of treatment for COPD depends on the patient’s individual characteristics and needs. A careful evaluation of the benefits and risks of each option is necessary to determine the most appropriate intervention.

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  • Question 33 - A 64-year-old man presents with a 6-week history of anorexia, malaise and breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man presents with a 6-week history of anorexia, malaise and breathlessness which he relates to rapidly worsening asthma. He takes NSAIDs for osteoarthritis of his knees, paroxetine and also inhalers for mild asthma. He was on lithium carbonate 2–5 years ago. Examination reveals mild peripheral oedema, bilateral pleural effusions and a skin rash. He is hypertensive at 210/100 mmHg. Investigations show abnormal results for haemoglobin, eosinophils, corrected calcium, phosphate, urea, creatinine, potassium, and urinalysis. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s elevated eosinophil count and serum IgE levels suggest a diagnosis of eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), a condition characterized by asthma, blood eosinophilia, and eosinophilic vasculitis. This can lead to renal disease, with symptoms including non-selective proteinuria, haematuria, and red cell casts on microscopy. Amyloidosis, chronic analgesic nephropathy, lithium nephrotoxicity, and membranous glomerulonephritis are all incorrect diagnoses, as they do not present with the same symptoms or laboratory findings as EGPA.

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  • Question 34 - A 75-year-old woman presents with a one stone weight loss and lethargy over...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with a one stone weight loss and lethargy over the past four months. She has a persistent cough and has been coughing up blood. She used to smoke 20 cigarettes a day but quit four months ago when her symptoms began. She had a history of pulmonary tuberculosis 15 years ago but is unsure of the treatment she received. Her lab results show a low white cell count, positive Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins, and a solid lesion on her left lung apex. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      Aspergilloma in a Tuberculous Cavity: A Potential Cause of Haemoptysis

      The lesion found in the left apex is most likely an aspergilloma that has developed in an old tuberculous cavity. Although aspergillomas may not cause any symptoms, they can lead to haemoptysis in up to 75% of patients. In some cases, haemoptysis can be severe and even fatal. Patients may also experience systemic symptoms such as weight loss, lethargy, and fever, although these are less common.

      On a chest X-ray, an aspergilloma appears as a solid opacity within a cavity, often accompanied by a rim of air. However, these features are more clearly visible on computed tomography. To confirm the diagnosis, precipitating antibodies are often present in 95% of cases.

      In summary, an aspergilloma in a tuberculous cavity can be a potential cause of haemoptysis and other symptoms. It is important to diagnose and manage this condition promptly to prevent severe complications.

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  • Question 35 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of weight gain and purplish stripes on...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of weight gain and purplish stripes on his abdomen, along with a history of community-acquired pneumonia. His recent chest x-ray shows resolution of the pneumonia but a suspicious right hilar mass. He has a 40 pack-year smoking history and has been diagnosed with hypertension and borderline diabetes. What type of lung cancer is most likely in this patient?

      Your Answer: Small cell lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome can be caused by small cell lung carcinoma that secretes ACTH. In this case, the patient’s history of smoking and suspicious mass on the repeat chest x-ray suggest the possibility of lung cancer. It is important to follow up with a chest x-ray 6 weeks after community-acquired pneumonia to check for resolution and any underlying lesions.

      The patient’s symptoms, including central adipose deposition, ‘moon face’, new hypertension, and impaired glucose tolerance, are consistent with Cushing’s syndrome, which is a paraneoplastic phenomenon seen in small cell lung cancer due to the tumor secreting ACTH.

      If the lesions were metastatic, the chest x-ray would show multiple lesions rather than a solitary hilar mass.

      Mesothelioma is a cancer of the pleura that is caused by asbestos exposure. However, there is no indication in the vignette that the patient has been exposed to asbestos. Questions that may be relevant to asbestos exposure usually involve the patient’s occupation, such as being a plumber or builder.

      Adenocarcinoma of the lung is associated with gynaecomastia, while squamous cell lung cancers can secrete parathyroid hormone-related peptide, which causes hypercalcemia.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

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  • Question 36 - A 45-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for review. He has...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for review. He has a medical history of asthma, which was diagnosed during his childhood. As an adult, he has been admitted to the hospital multiple times due to asthma exacerbations, which tend to occur during the summer months. He reports experiencing a nocturnal cough up to three times per week, along with rhinorrhoea and dry eyes since the weather became warmer. He works in construction and finds that his symptoms worsen when he is outside. Three weeks ago, he was admitted to the hospital for an asthma exacerbation and was treated with salbutamol nebulisers and a short course of prednisolone. On examination, he has mild end expiratory wheeze in the upper posterior zones bilaterally. His vital signs are normal, and there is no pedal oedema.

      The patient's drug history includes salbutamol metered dose inhaler when required, salmeterol 50 micrograms/fluticasone propionate 500 micrograms - two puffs twice daily, and levetiracetam 500 mg twice daily. His laboratory results show an elevated IgE level of 500 UI/ml (normal range 150-300 UI/ml). Aspergillus precipitins are negative, and his chest x-ray is normal.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Add in omalizumab

      Explanation:

      Omalizumab is a suitable treatment for patients with allergic asthma and elevated IgE levels, such as this gentleman who has poorly controlled asthma despite treatment, a history of atopy, and elevated IgE levels. According to GINA guidelines, he is on step 4 of the asthma treatment ladder and may benefit from add-on therapy such as anti-IgE therapy with omalizumab. Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to free IgE and prevents its interaction with mast cells, reducing the risk of asthma exacerbations. Other options such as theophylline, additional prednisolone, or voriconazole are not as appropriate for this patient’s presentation and medical history.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regimen, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

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  • Question 37 - A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath on exertion. His symptoms have been progressing for two weeks, and he now finds it difficult to take a full breath. He has no chest pain and has not been coughing but he has been feeling increasingly fatigued. He has a past medical history of HIV. He has been struggling to take his tablets recently. He is unsure of the names of any tablets, but he knows that he is supposed to take one tablet each day at the same time and to take two tablets twice a day on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays. He has no other medical problems.

      On examination, auscultation shows normal breath sounds.

      Observations:
      Saturations 93%
      Respiratory rate 22/min
      Blood pressure 136/71 mmHg
      Heart rate 91/min
      Temperature 37.6°C

      On mobilisation, his saturations reduce to 88%.

      What investigation is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer: Broncho-alveolar lavage

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate method to detect PCP characteristic cysts with silver staining is broncho-alveolar lavage. This is highly suggestive of PCP, especially in a patient who is poorly compliant with HIV medication and is on PCP prophylaxis, indicating a low CD4 count. The patient also has tachypnea, low saturations on mobilizing, and a clear chest X-ray, all of which are indicative of PCP. If the patient had a productive cough, sputum could be collected instead of performing a broncho-alveolar lavage. Although imaging can suggest PCP, it is not as reliable as broncho-alveolar lavage. ECG and echocardiogram are not useful in diagnosing PCP.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia in HIV Patients

      Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV. The organism responsible for this infection is an unicellular eukaryote, which is classified as a fungus by some and a protozoa by others. Symptoms of PCP include dyspnea, dry cough, fever, and few chest signs. Pneumothorax is a common complication of PCP, and extrapulmonary manifestations are rare.

      To diagnose PCP, a chest x-ray is typically performed, which may show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates or other findings such as lobar consolidation. Sputum tests often fail to show PCP, so a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) may be necessary to demonstrate the presence of the organism. Treatment for PCP involves co-trimoxazole or IV pentamidine in severe cases. Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment, but it is less effective and carries a risk of pneumothorax. Steroids may be prescribed if the patient is hypoxic, as they can reduce the risk of respiratory failure and death.

      It is recommended that all HIV patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm³ receive PCP prophylaxis. This infection can be serious and potentially life-threatening, so prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial.

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  • Question 38 - A 32-year-old with asthma is currently using a salbutamol inhaler on an as-needed...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old with asthma is currently using a salbutamol inhaler on an as-needed basis and budesonide 200 μg inhaler twice per day, but their symptoms are not well controlled. What would be the recommended treatment escalation based on the latest NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Increase budesonide to 800 μg BD

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      When asthma is uncontrolled in adults on a low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) as maintenance therapy, the 2017 NICE guidelines recommend adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) such as montelukast. If patients fail to gain control on multiple agents, including ICS, long-acting beta-agonist, and montelukast, oral cromoglicate may be considered for asthma prophylaxis by inhalation 3-4 times a day. Increasing the dose of budesonide to 800 μg BD may be an option, but a long-acting beta-agonist should be tried before using a high-dose steroid. If asthma is still not controlled, oral theophylline (modified release) may be added. Tiotropium, a long-acting anti-muscarinic, is licensed for maintenance treatment for COPD and for the treatment of asthma in patients not controlled on inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting beta-agonist.

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  • Question 39 - A 40-year-old man presents with a chronic productive cough that has been affecting...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a chronic productive cough that has been affecting him for several years. He has a history of recurrent otitis media as a child but takes no regular medications. He has never smoked, has no history of passive smoking, and works as a lawyer. He has no pets at home and is not aware of any mold. On examination, there is finger clubbing, he appears underweight, and there are coarse late-inspiratory crepitations and a mild wheeze. Additionally, his heart sounds are louder on the right side, and his apex beat is only present on the right. What further investigation would most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ciliary function tests

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate test to confirm a diagnosis of primary ciliary dyskinesia is ciliary function tests. These tests typically involve the use of saccharin, which is placed behind the inferior turbinate. If the patient cannot taste the sweetness within 20 minutes, it indicates that the cilia are not functioning properly. Cilia are responsible for clearing mucus and debris from the upper respiratory tract, including the eustachian tubes. In primary ciliary dyskinesia, there is a lack of coordination or reduced movement of the cilia.

      In this case, the patient presents with a chronic productive cough, bilateral late inspiratory crepitations, and clubbing, which are indicative of bronchiectasis. However, the history of otitis media, dextrocardia, and young age suggest primary ciliary dyskinesia as a possible diagnosis. Other conditions such as cystic fibrosis, tuberculosis, fungal infection, and immunological disorders are less likely based on the absence of relevant symptoms and signs.

      Understanding the Causes of Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the airways due to chronic inflammation or infection. There are various factors that can lead to this condition, including post-infective causes such as tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, and pneumonia. Cystic fibrosis, bronchial obstruction caused by lung cancer or foreign bodies, and immune deficiencies like selective IgA and hypogammaglobulinaemia can also contribute to bronchiectasis. Additionally, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), ciliary dyskinetic syndromes like Kartagener’s syndrome and Young’s syndrome, and yellow nail syndrome are other potential causes. Understanding the underlying causes of bronchiectasis is crucial in developing effective treatment plans for patients.

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  • Question 40 - A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician three weeks after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician three weeks after experiencing an infective exacerbation of COPD. He is currently feeling well but is worried that this is his second exacerbation this winter. He is currently taking fostair, tiotropium, and salbutamol as needed. He has a mild cough but has attended his recent COPD review.

      Upon examination, his chest is clear with no wheezing or crepitations. His JVP is not raised, and there is no edema. His oxygen saturation is 94% in air, and he has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. He is currently able to do his gardening and walk his dog up to half a mile each day without experiencing breathlessness at night. He has been discharged from chest physio and is performing well.

      FEV1 (% predicted) is 40%, and FVC (% predicted) is 80%. A chest x-ray reveals several bullae and a hyperexpanded chest with no consolidation. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and a right bundle branch block.

      What additional intervention should be considered for this patient's current management?

      Your Answer: Roflumilast

      Explanation:

      As per the recent GOLD guidance, the patient had multiple exacerbations.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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  • Question 41 - A typically healthy 31-year-old black woman presents with a persistent fever and fatigue...

    Correct

    • A typically healthy 31-year-old black woman presents with a persistent fever and fatigue for the past few weeks. During the examination, she has a temperature of 38.2ºC, blood pressure of 115/70 mmHg, pulse of 75/min, and respirations of 18/min. Upon further examination, multiple non-tender cervical and axillary lymph nodes are found, and lung auscultation reveals fine crackles throughout bilaterally. A chest x-ray shows hilar lymphadenopathy with diffuse interstitial infiltrates, and a subsequent lymph node biopsy confirms non-caseating granulomas.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is indicated for corticosteroid treatment in cases of parenchymal lung disease, uveitis, hypercalcemia, and neurological or cardiac involvement. The patient’s symptoms are consistent with sarcoidosis, which is typically asymptomatic and detected through an abnormal chest x-ray showing bilateral symmetrical hilar adenopathy and/or parenchymal infiltrates. In this case, the patient has met the criteria for starting steroid treatment, as other medications have not been proven effective for this level of sarcoidosis.

      Managing Sarcoidosis: Indications for Steroid Treatment

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Although the cause of sarcoidosis is unknown, it is more common in young adults and people of African descent.

      When it comes to managing sarcoidosis, steroid treatment may be necessary for certain patients. Specifically, patients with chest x-ray stage 2 or 3 disease who are experiencing symptoms should receive steroid treatment. Additionally, patients with asymptomatic and stable stage 2 or 3 disease who have only mildly abnormal lung function do not require treatment. However, steroid treatment is indicated for patients with hypercalcaemia, eye, heart, or neuro involvement.

      Overall, the decision to use steroid treatment for sarcoidosis should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the patient’s symptoms and disease progression. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage sarcoidosis and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 42 - A 32-year-old man weighing 225 kg was referred for investigation of breathlessness before...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man weighing 225 kg was referred for investigation of breathlessness before his gastropexy operation. He reported feeling short of breath after walking just 100 yards and also complained of a non-productive cough upon waking each morning. The patient had a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and childhood asthma and rhinitis. He smoked 20 cigarettes per day and consumed at least 10 units of alcohol every evening. He lived with his father who had kept pigeons for the past five years. Full pulmonary function tests were conducted, and the results are shown below. Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of his breathlessness?

      Actual % predicted
      FVC (l) 3.72 61
      FEV1(l) 3.05 64
      FRC (l) 1.42 34
      RV (l) 1.01 45
      TLC (l) 4.94 60
      DLCO (ml/m/mm Hg) 29.13 61
      DLCO/VA 4.95 94

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans

      Correct Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Obesity on Lung Capacity

      Obesity can lead to extra-thoracic restriction, which is consistent with the results of lung capacity tests. Generally, for obesity to cause a decrease in total lung capacity (TLS), the ratio of weight (in kilograms) to height (in centimeters) must exceed 1. However, even lesser degrees of obesity can result in reductions in functional residual capacity (FRC), vital capacity (VC), and residual volume (RV). Despite these reductions, gas transfer returns to normal when alveolar volume (AV) is taken into account, indicating that pulmonary gas exchange is not affected. The low DLCO (diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide) observed in obese individuals is likely due to basal hypoventilation, which is a direct consequence of obesity.

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  • Question 43 - A 50-year-old man with poorly-controlled type 2 diabetes and a 40-pack-year smoking history...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with poorly-controlled type 2 diabetes and a 40-pack-year smoking history presents to the clinic with a two-month history of dry cough following treatment for right middle lobe pneumonia. What is the most appropriate investigation to request during his consultation?

      Your Answer: Repeat chest radiograph

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that all cases of pneumonia undergo a repeat chest X-ray approximately six weeks after clinical resolution. This is particularly important for patients with persistent symptoms, physical signs, or those at higher risk of malignancy such as smokers or older adults over 50 years old. Depending on the results of the repeat chest radiograph, further investigation may be necessary to rule out other conditions including malignancy. It is important to note that patients may take three to six months to fully recover from pneumonia, so a chest radiograph should be the first step before considering other radiological tests.

      Arterial blood gas measurement is useful in determining chronic hypoxemia in patients with chronic lung disease. Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) may be offered to improve survival in these patients. However, in this case, the patient does not have a diagnosis of chronic lung disease and continues to smoke, making oxygen therapy a fire hazard.

      Pulmonary function tests, such as spirometry, may be offered to patients who smoke and have symptoms such as breathlessness, chronic cough, significant sputum production, wheeze, and frequent chest infections. However, in this case, it is more important to ensure that the pneumonia has resolved and that lung cancer is not missed.

      A CT thorax may be appropriate for patients with persistent changes on a repeat chest radiograph or those with a normal chest radiograph but persistent symptoms. However, due to the high radiation dose involved, a chest radiograph should be repeated before considering a CT.

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB 65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 44 - A 53-year-old man with no prior medical history presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old man with no prior medical history presents to the Emergency Department with a dry cough, shortness of breath, abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and headache. He recently returned from a convention in Spain. On examination, he has bi-basal crackles, is pyrexial, and has a blood pressure of 123/67 mmHg, a pulse of 92/min, and a respiratory rate of 22/min. Investigations reveal a high white cell count, low sodium and potassium levels, elevated creatinine and C-reactive protein levels, and protein and blood in his urine. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophila is a bacterium that typically affects middle-aged or older men, with a higher severity in smokers. The incubation period is between 2 to 10 days, and the male to female ratio is 2:1. Symptoms include moderate leucocytosis, hyponatremia, deranged liver function tests, proteinuria, haematuria, and myoglobinuria. The infection is commonly acquired from infected water-based air-conditioning systems, which is why it was linked to a convention in Spain. Treatment options include fluoroquinolones, clarithromycin, and rifampicin for severe cases. Chlamydia pneumoniae is another type of pneumonia that has a more subacute course and is often seen in patients who keep or are in close proximity to birds. Streptococcal pneumoniae is less likely to cause hyponatremia or gastrointestinal upset, and the attendance at a convention is a stronger indicator of Legionnaire’s disease. Mycoplasma pneumoniae tends to have a more subacute course with pleuritic chest pain and a dry cough, and the appearance on chest X-ray may indicate a more severe pneumonia than initially thought. Viral pneumonia is more likely to cause generalised crackles on chest auscultation and a lesser rise in CRP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 45 - A 28-year-old teacher with breast cancer presents to the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old teacher with breast cancer presents to the emergency department complaining of chest pain, cough, and difficulty breathing. She recently completed her last round of chemotherapy and is not currently on any treatment. She has no known allergies and no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, the patient is visibly struggling to breathe and has a fever of 38.5°C. Pulse oximetry reveals her oxygen saturation to be 92%. Chest examination shows dullness on percussion in the left lower lung region, increased vocal resonance, and crackles on auscultation. To confirm the suspected diagnosis, a transbronchial biopsy is performed. The specimen stains positive for Gomori methenamine silver and haematoxylin & eosin stains, and galactomannan testing is positive.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Invasive aspergillosis

      Explanation:

      Invasive aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus fumigatus that primarily affects the lungs. It can lead to five main syndromes, including asthma, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), aspergilloma, invasive aspergillosis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA). Invasive aspergillosis is characterized by fever, cough, dyspnea, and pleuritic chest pain in patients with prolonged neutropenia or immunosuppression. The CXR shows consolidation, and the patient experiences rapidly progressing and worsening hypoxemia. The definitive diagnosis of invasive aspergillosis depends on the demonstration of the organism in tissue. GMS stain is used to identify fungi and Pneumocystis jirovecii, but it would not be expected to stain a tumor. While Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia does stain with GMS, it typically occurs as an opportunistic infection in patients with HIV. The absence of symptoms such as weight loss or night sweats and the positive galactomannan testing direct us towards aspergillus as the diagnosis. Sarcoidosis is unlikely as there is no mention of symptoms such as erythema nodosum or bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, nor of non-caseating granulomas on biopsy, which are the hallmark of the disease.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 46 - A 65-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of frequent wheezy...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of frequent wheezy exacerbations. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and is an ex-smoker with a 35 pack-year history. He takes salbutamol as needed and denies any history of asthma or atopy. He does not consume alcohol.

      During the examination, the patient appears comfortable at rest, and a mild expiratory wheeze is audible in the midzones. The jugular venous pulse is not elevated, and there is no peripheral edema.

      The patient's blood tests reveal normal levels of Hb, platelets, WBC, Neuts, Lymphs, Mono, Na+, K+, Urea, and Creatinine. Previous investigations did not show significant variation in FEV1 over time or substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      What medication should be added to the patient's regimen?

      Your Answer: Long acting beta agonist (LABA) and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

      Correct Answer: Long acting beta agonist (LABA) + long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 47 - A 36 year old chronic alcoholic male presents with severe epigastric pain and...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old chronic alcoholic male presents with severe epigastric pain and is found to have significantly raised amylase levels. Despite treatment for severe pancreatitis, his condition worsens over the next 48 hours and he develops acute kidney injury and severe respiratory distress requiring mechanical ventilation. Initial chest X-rays show bilateral infiltrates. What is the most effective therapy for reducing overall mortality in ARDS?

      Your Answer: Implementing a low tidal volume ventilation protocol

      Explanation:

      Prone positioning has been shown to improve survival in patients with ARDS by improving oxygenation and reducing ventilator-induced lung injury.
      The use of corticosteroids in ARDS remains controversial, with conflicting evidence regarding their efficacy in improving outcomes.
      Low tidal volume ventilation has been shown to significantly reduce mortality in patients with ARDS compared to higher tidal volumes, with an NNT of 11-15 to prevent one death.
      Nitric oxide can improve the PaO2/FiO2 ratio in ARDS patients, but there is no evidence to suggest that it improves survival.
      Diuretics are not effective in treating ARDS as the primary cause of the condition is inflammation. Overuse of diuretics can also lead to hemodynamic compromise and worsen oxygen delivery to tissues.

      Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a serious condition that has a mortality rate of around 40% and can cause significant morbidity in those who survive. It is caused by the increased permeability of alveolar capillaries, leading to fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which is known as non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. ARDS can be caused by various factors such as infection, trauma, smoke inhalation, and Covid-19. The clinical features of ARDS are typically of an acute onset and severe, including dyspnoea, elevated respiratory rate, bilateral lung crackles, and low oxygen saturations. Key investigations for ARDS include a chest x-ray and arterial blood gases.

      The American-European Consensus Conference has established criteria for the diagnosis of ARDS, which include an acute onset within one week of a known risk factor, pulmonary oedema with bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, non-cardiogenic pulmonary artery wedge pressure, and pO2/FiO2 < 40 kPa (300 mmHg). Due to the severity of the condition, patients with ARDS are generally managed in the intensive care unit. Treatment involves oxygenation/ventilation to treat hypoxaemia, general organ support such as vasopressors as needed, and treatment of the underlying cause such as antibiotics for sepsis. Certain strategies such as prone positioning and muscle relaxation have been shown to improve outcomes in ARDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 48 - A 63-year-old man presents with a persistent cough that has lasted for two...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a persistent cough that has lasted for two months. The cough is unproductive and does not wake him from his sleep. He has also experienced mild breathlessness on exertion, lost some weight, and has a reduced appetite. He has been a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day since he was 18 years old. Additionally, he has been constipated for the past two weeks.

      During examination, there were no remarkable findings. He did not have clubbing nor lymphadenopathy. Breath sounds were vesicular with no added sounds. Investigations revealed a haemoglobin level of 126 g/L (130-180), a white cell count of 10.5 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 160 ×109/L (150-400), serum sodium of 149 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium of 4.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea of 9.4 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), serum creatinine of 120 µmol/L (60-110), and serum corrected calcium of 3.26 mmol/L (2.2-2.6). The chest x-ray showed right hilar lymphadenopathy.

      What is the recommended next investigation?

      Your Answer: Bronchoscopy

      Correct Answer: CT chest

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnoses for Hilar Lymphadenopathy and Hypercalcaemia

      There are several possible diagnoses for a man presenting with hilar lymphadenopathy and hypercalcaemia, including bronchial carcinoma, sarcoidosis, and lymphoma. However, the most likely diagnosis in this case is squamous cell bronchial carcinoma. Hilar involvement is often a result of metastatic spread to the hilar nodes.

      To confirm the diagnosis, the next investigation of choice is a CT chest scan. This will help identify any further nodal involvement and allow for planning of an approach to histological confirmation of the tumour. It is important to accurately diagnose the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 49 - A 50-year-old man presents with a 4 day history of cough, feeling hot...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a 4 day history of cough, feeling hot and facial pains. He is generally healthy but currently takes sertraline for anxiety and depression. He reports a cough that produces pale yellow sputum. He also experiences difficulty breathing through his nose and facial pain, especially when coughing while leaning forward.

      During the examination, he is alert, with a pulse rate of 84/min, a temperature of 37.3º, and a respiratory rate of 16/min. His blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg. Chest auscultation reveals no abnormalities. He experiences tenderness over the maxilla.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral amoxicillin + review in 3-4 days if not improving

      Correct Answer: Advise paracetamol for symptoms + review in 3-4 days if not improving

      Explanation:

      In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 50 - A 50-year-old HIV-positive American woman presents with fever, cough, and fatigue following her...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old HIV-positive American woman presents with fever, cough, and fatigue following her recent holiday. Despite receiving oral co-amoxiclav, her symptoms persist and a normal chest radiograph is obtained. Upon undergoing a bronchoscopy, Histoplasma capsulatum is identified in her bronchial washings. What is the most effective treatment to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amphotericin

      Explanation:

      Histoplasmosis is a respiratory condition caused by the rare fungus Histoplasma capsulatum, which is more likely to affect immunocompromised patients in the United States. The recommended pharmacological treatments for this condition are amphotericin or itraconazole. While caspofungin is an antifungal drug, it is better suited for treating Aspergillus infections, and fluconazole is more appropriate for Candida infections. Ivermectin, on the other hand, is an anti-parasitic drug that is better suited for treating other infections like Strongyloides and Norwegian scabies.

      Understanding Histoplasmosis

      Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. This infection is commonly found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys. The symptoms of histoplasmosis include upper respiratory tract infection symptoms and retrosternal pain.

      To manage histoplasmosis, pharmacological agents such as amphotericin or itraconazole are used. These agents are considered the best options for treating this infection.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 51 - A 13-year-old girl with a known nut allergy was brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl with a known nut allergy was brought to the Emergency department after accidentally eating a peanut butter sandwich.

      Upon examination, she displayed audible wheezing and appeared to be struggling to breathe. Her blood pressure was 80/60 mmHg, oxygen saturation was 88% on room air, and her respiratory rate was 28 breaths per minute. Her pulse was weak.

      What is the best course of immediate action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Urgent Treatment for Anaphylactic Shock

      Anaphylactic shock is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate treatment with adrenaline. It is important to administer adrenaline intramuscularly rather than subcutaneously as it is absorbed more quickly. In cases where the patient is experiencing peripheral shutdown, waiting to obtain intravenous access could be fatal. While hydrocortisone and antihistamine therapy are also necessary for this condition, they take several hours to work and do not have any effect on shock. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the administration of adrenaline in the treatment of anaphylactic shock.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 52 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of shortness of breath. He is started on non-invasive ventilation for a suspected exacerbation of COPD. However, despite full maximal therapy, he fails to improve. What is the probable reason for his lack of improvement?

      Your Answer: Mask leak

      Explanation:

      If there is a significant air leak from the mask, it can hinder the achievement of adequate pressures during non-invasive ventilation. This can be observed in a patient with a clear COPD exacerbation who fails to improve despite starting non-invasive ventilation. The presence of an audible hiss of air from the mask and the inability of the machine to attain the set pressures are indicative of poor mask application or facial dysmorphia, which can result in a poor seal to the face and air leakage. The patient’s elevated respiratory rate suggests that their deterioration is unlikely to be due to reducing consciousness secondary to CO2 narcosis. Additionally, there are no indications of pneumothorax, which typically presents as a deterioration rather than a failure to improve. The patient appears comfortable and is not exhibiting signs of dyssynchrony, where they would be fighting the machine. Furthermore, sudden desaturation, which is not observed in this case, is usually associated with a large mucous plug.

      Guidelines for Non-Invasive Ventilation in Acute Respiratory Failure

      Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) is a technique used to support breathing without the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Royal College of Physicians have published guidelines on the use of NIV in acute respiratory failure. The key indications for NIV include COPD with respiratory acidosis, type II respiratory failure due to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease or obstructive sleep apnoea, cardiogenic pulmonary oedema unresponsive to CPAP, and weaning from tracheal intubation.

      The BTS guidelines recommend using NIV in patients with a pH of 7.25-7.35, but caution that more monitoring and a lower threshold for intubation should be used in patients with a pH below 7.25. The recommended initial settings for bi-level pressure support in COPD include an expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) of 4-5 cm H2O, an inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) of 12-15 cm H2O (BTS) or 10 cm H2O (RCP), a back-up rate of 15 breaths/min, and a back-up inspiration:expiration ratio of 1:3.

      Overall, these guidelines provide healthcare professionals with a framework for the safe and effective use of NIV in acute respiratory failure.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 53 - A 55-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic with a three-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic with a three-month history of weight loss, drenching night sweats, and a productive cough. He reports producing approximately 1 cup of green sputum daily and has lost 4 kgs during this time. He has a 40-year history of smoking 20 cigarettes a day and last traveled abroad 2 years ago to visit family in North America.

      The GP has conducted routine blood tests, which are unremarkable, and a negative HIV test. Several sputum samples have been sent for routine microscopy, culture & sensitivities (MC&S), growing only normal respiratory flora. After a normal chest X-ray, a high-resolution CT (HRCT) scan is performed, revealing right middle lobe and left lower lobe bronchiectasis with multiple nodules in both lungs.

      What other initial investigations would you conduct to aid in reaching a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sputum for acid fast bacilli (AFB)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nontuberculous Mycobacteria

      Nontuberculous mycobacteria (NTM) are a group of mycobacterial species that are distinct from those belonging to the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex. These organisms are commonly found in the environment and are typically free-living. The most common cause of NTM is the M. avium complex (MAC) organisms.

      NTM can present in various ways, including pulmonary disease, cavitating lesions, nodular/bronchiectatic disease, and disseminated disease. These presentations can be severe and may require medical intervention. It is important to understand the nature of NTM and its potential impact on human health.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 54 - A 50-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and breathlessness that has been going on for the past four weeks. He reports a productive cough with haemoptysis and admits to fevers and weight loss over this time.

      His medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus. He currently smokes 20 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 60 units per week.

      Upon examination, an unkempt, cachectic man is observed with bronchial breath sounds in the right upper zone.

      The chest X-Ray shows right upper lobe consolidation with a 'bulging fissure sign'. What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumonia

      Explanation:

      The bulging fissure sign is a classic indication of Klebsiella pneumonia, although it is becoming increasingly rare. This sign is caused by the displacement of the adjacent fissure due to large volumes of consolidation, typically in the right upper lobe. Other symptoms that support a diagnosis of Klebsiella pneumonia include a history of alcohol excess and haemoptysis, often described as ‘red currant jelly sputum’.

      While tuberculosis is an important differential diagnosis to consider, it seldom causes such dense consolidation to cause this sign. Radiologically, tuberculosis and aspergillosis usually appear as cavities. Klebsiella can also cause an isolated cavitating pneumonia.

      Both Streptococcal pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus can appear radiologically as the bulging fissure sign, but other symptoms in the question would be present to point towards these diagnoses. Questions relating to Streptococcal pneumoniae often describe a cough that produces rusty-coloured sputum and a preceding herpes labialis. Questions relating to Staphylococcus aureus commonly report a preceding flu-like illness with subsequent rapid deterioration into a bacterial pneumonia.

      Cavitating Lung Lesion: Possible Causes

      A cavitating lung lesion is a hollow space or cavity in the lung tissue that can be seen on a chest x-ray. There are several possible causes of this condition, including abscesses caused by bacterial infections such as Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella, and Pseudomonas. Squamous cell lung cancer, tuberculosis, and Wegener’s granulomatosis are also potential causes.

      Other conditions that can lead to cavitating lung lesions include pulmonary embolism, rheumatoid arthritis, and fungal infections such as aspergillosis, histoplasmosis, and coccidioidomycosis. It is important to determine the underlying cause of the cavitating lung lesion in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

      When a cavitating lung lesion is detected on a chest x-ray, further testing such as a CT scan or biopsy may be necessary to determine the cause. Treatment options will depend on the underlying condition and may include antibiotics, chemotherapy, or surgery. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent further damage to the lungs.

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  • Question 55 - A 45-year-old patient presents with a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity for the past few weeks. He has no personal medical history, but his mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at a young age. He has a history of smoking for 15 pack-years. During examination, he has a chest that appears to be hyper-expanded and bi-basal wheezing can be heard upon auscultation.

      The spirometry results are as follows:
      Investigation Result
      FEV1 60% predicted
      FVC 78% predicted
      Residual volume (RV) 120% predicted
      TLCO 70% predicted
      KCO 68% predicted

      What is the most likely diagnosis based on the above results?

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Possible title: Differential Diagnosis for a Young Smoker with Obstructive Spirometry

      Emphysema, lymphangitis carcinomatosis, asthma, thoracic cage deformity, and slowly expanding pneumothorax are among the possible differential diagnoses for a young smoker with obstructive spirometry and reduced alveolar function. The raised residual volume suggests air trapping, which is more consistent with emphysema than with lymphangitis carcinomatosis or thoracic cage deformity. The short history and poor spirometry make a rapidly progressive disease such as emphysema in a smoker with α1-antitrypsin deficiency more likely than asthma. The absence of a restrictive pattern of PFTs also makes lymphangitis carcinomatosis and slowly expanding pneumothorax less likely. Therefore, α1-antitrypsin testing should be considered in all patients under the age of 35 years presenting with COPD. Additionally, the patient’s cirrhosis increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 56 - A 40-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a dry cough,...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a dry cough, fever, and fatigue that have persisted for three weeks. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medications. She has not traveled abroad recently. During the clinical examination, inspiratory crepitations are detected in the left upper and right lower zones. Her oxygen saturation is 91% on room air. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral peripheral pulmonary infiltrates.

      The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 110 g/L
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 78 fL
      - White blood cell count (WCC): 13 x 10^9/L
      - Neutrophils: 8 x 10^9/L
      - Lymphocytes: 1 x 10^9/L
      - Eosinophils: 3.1 x 10^9/L
      - Platelets: 560 x 10^9/L
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 115mg/l

      What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is eosinophilic pneumonia, which is identified by subacute respiratory symptoms, alveolar and/or blood eosinophilia, and peripheral pulmonary infiltrates visible on imaging. Treatment with oral corticosteroids results in a quick relief of symptoms, and the prognosis is positive. Tuberculosis is typically linked with upper lobe consolidation, and eosinophilia is not a common feature. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and community-acquired pneumonia are less likely as they are not usually associated with eosinophilia.

      Pulmonary eosinophilia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of eosinophils in the airways and lung tissue, often accompanied by a blood eosinophilia. This condition can be caused by various factors, including Churg-Strauss syndrome, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, Loeffler’s syndrome, eosinophilic pneumonia, hypereosinophilic syndrome, tropical pulmonary eosinophilia, and certain drugs such as nitrofurantoin and sulphonamides. Less commonly, it may be associated with Wegener’s granulomatosis. Loeffler’s syndrome, which is thought to be caused by parasites such as Ascaris lumbricoides, typically presents with a fever, cough, and night sweats lasting less than two weeks and is generally self-limiting. Acute eosinophilic pneumonia is highly responsive to steroids, while tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is associated with Wuchereria bancrofti infection.

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  • Question 57 - A 52-year-old woman presents to the chest clinic with a history of recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to the chest clinic with a history of recurrent chest infections and occasional wheezing. She reports experiencing frequent flushing attacks and suspects she may be going through menopause. She has a history of smoking 10 packs of cigarettes per year.

      Upon examination, a chest x-ray was ordered by her GP and the results indicate right upper lobe collapse. No masses were identified in the remaining lung fields and the heart appears normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Lady with Recurrent Chest Infections and Right Upper Lobe Collapse

      This lady may have an obstructive lesion causing her recurrent chest infections and right upper lobe collapse. The likely diagnosis is bronchial carcinoid, a type of neuroendocrine tumor that arises from the large bronchi and secretes serotonin. While they can be asymptomatic, growing masses in the airway can cause obstructive symptoms such as wheezing, haemoptysis, and recurrent chest infections. Systemic symptoms may occur if there are metastases in the liver, known as carcinoid syndrome. However, this can also occur in rare cases of localised bronchial carcinoid as the bronchial tree drains into the systemic circulation.

      COPD is less likely given the history of flushing and lobar collapse. Phaeochromocytoma may account for the flushing, but it does not explain the other symptoms. Lymphoma can also cause obstructive lesions, but one would expect enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes and palpable lymphadenopathy.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 58 - A 20-year-old student came to the clinic complaining of sudden onset of left-sided...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old student came to the clinic complaining of sudden onset of left-sided chest pain and difficulty breathing. He had a history of cardiac surgery during childhood and smoked ten cigarettes a day. He denied any use of alcohol or illicit drugs. He had recently returned from a trip to Thailand ten days ago.

      During the examination, the patient appeared tall and thin with no signs of clubbing or lymphadenopathy. He did not show any signs of cyanosis, but had a resting tachycardia and an audible click during expiration. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Marfan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Causes of Sudden Chest Pain and Breathlessness

      Sudden chest pain and breathlessness are common symptoms that can be caused by a variety of conditions. However, two of the most likely causes are a pulmonary embolism (PE) or pneumothorax. A PE occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks blood flow, while a pneumothorax is a collapsed lung. Both conditions can cause sudden onset chest pain and difficulty breathing.

      In addition, a unique sign that may be present in cases of mediastinal emphysema or left apical pneumothoraces is Hamman’s sign, also known as the ‘crunch.’ This is a crunching systolic sound that can be heard over the sternal edge. It is important to note that the presence of Hamman’s sign may be dependent on the patient’s position when auscultating.

      Overall, sudden chest pain and breathlessness should always be taken seriously and evaluated by a medical professional to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 59 - A woman comes to the clinic during her ninth week of pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A woman comes to the clinic during her ninth week of pregnancy. She is worried about her husband's family history of cystic fibrosis, as her husband's brother has the condition and her husband is a confirmed carrier. The patient does not want to know her own risk of developing CF and is hesitant to be tested, but is concerned about the health of her baby. They are not related by blood and grew up in an area with a 1:20 prevalence of CF carriers. What is the likelihood of their child having cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive disease

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Calculating the Risk of Cystic Fibrosis in Offspring Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disease that requires two abnormal alleles to be present for the disease to manifest. If one parent is a carrier (with one abnormal gene), they have a 1:2 chance of passing the abnormal gene to their offspring. Assuming the other parent is of the same genetic stock as those in the area of their birth, the chance of the child receiving an abnormal allele from both parents is calculated by multiplying the male risk (1/2), the female carrier risk (1/20), and the female risk of passing a gene on (1/2), resulting in a 1/80 chance of the child having CF. Other answer options include a 1/4 risk if both parents are confirmed carriers, a 1/40 risk if one partner is a homozygote for the abnormal gene and the carrier frequency is 1 in 20, a 1/160 risk if the carrier frequency is 1 in 40, and a 1/320 risk if the carrier frequency is 1 in 80.

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  • Question 60 - An 85-year-old man presents to the hospital with an infective exacerbation of COPD....

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man presents to the hospital with an infective exacerbation of COPD. He complains of increasing shortness of breath, dry cough, and an episode of rigors. Despite being started on salbutamol and ipratropium nebulisers and steroids, he fails to improve clinically. Non-invasive ventilation is offered and he tolerates it well, but 36 hours later, he starts to become more breathless. On examination, he has crackles and wheeze on the right hemithorax, and the left hemithorax has reduced air entry throughout. There are no added sounds, no JVP or leg oedema that can be seen, but there is accessory muscle use. He is tired and feels 'absolutely awful'. The non-invasive ventilation is currently set at IPAP 26 cm H2O and EPAP 6 cm H2O. A repeat chest x-ray is pending.

      What is the likely cause of this deterioration?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      When a patient undergoes high pressure non-invasive ventilation, there is a risk of developing pneumothorax. In this case, the patient’s respiratory condition worsened despite initial improvement on NIV. While it is important to rule out dyssynchrony or non-compliance, there is no evidence to suggest these factors are contributing to the deterioration. Aspiration is also unlikely as there is no history of vomiting or excessive secretions. Upon examination, the patient’s symptoms are consistent with a left-sided pneumothorax rather than hospital-acquired pneumonia. It is important to note that pneumothorax is a known complication of NIV, especially when higher inflation pressures are used. In this case, the patient was on significantly higher pressures than the initial 12 cm H20 IPAP and 4 cm H2O EPAP.

      Pneumothorax: Characteristics and Risk Factors

      Pneumothorax is a medical condition characterized by the presence of air in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This condition can occur spontaneously or as a result of trauma or medical procedures. There are several risk factors associated with pneumothorax, including pre-existing lung diseases such as COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis, lung cancer, and Pneumocystis pneumonia. Connective tissue diseases like Marfan’s syndrome and rheumatoid arthritis can also increase the risk of pneumothorax. Ventilation, including non-invasive ventilation, can also be a risk factor.

      Symptoms of pneumothorax tend to come on suddenly and can include dyspnoea, chest pain (often pleuritic), sweating, tachypnoea, and tachycardia. In some cases, catamenial pneumothorax can be the cause of spontaneous pneumothoraces occurring in menstruating women. This type of pneumothorax is thought to be caused by endometriosis within the thorax. Early diagnosis and treatment of pneumothorax are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 61 - A 57-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with a Glasgow Coma...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 5. He was found by a friend this morning unconscious and purple with no response. He had been unwell the previous days with an exacerbation of his COPD in which he was developing severe pleuritic chest pain. He had recurrent exacerbations of his COPD and had been hospitalised three times this year with one admission to ITU for intubation and ventilation.

      In addition, he had hypertension, hypothyroidism and chronic regional pain syndrome. His medications include fostair, ventolin, gabapentin, codeine, paracetamol, amlodipine, ramipril, levothyroxine and morphine sulfate. He had taken extra doses of oramorph to control his pleuritic pain. He has started a rescue pack of amoxicillin and prednisolone one day prior.

      On examination, he does not open his eyes which have 2mm pupils bilaterally that are reactive. He groans to pain but there is no motor response. His chest has some wheeze across and his respiratory rate is 9 breaths per minute. He is saturating at 88% on 4 litres oxygen via nasal cannulae and there is no accessory muscle use. He has mild pitting oedema and is centrally cyanosed. He has a capillary refill of two seconds and there are no murmurs.

      Hb 160 g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l
      Platelets 310 * 109/l K+ 5.1 mmol/l
      WBC 9.0 * 109/l Urea 7.8 mmol/l
      Neuts 7.8 * 109/l Creatinine 110 µmol/l
      Lymphs 1.0 * 109/l CRP 30 mg/l

      ABG (on arrival)
      pH 7.25
      pO2 7.91 kPa
      pCO2 7.6 kPa
      HCO3 31 mmol/l

      What is the initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic respiratory disease may experience respiratory failure when exposed to opioids.

      In this case, the patient is experiencing type 2 respiratory failure. While there are several options for treatment, the priority is to identify the quickest solution. While intravenous antibiotics may be helpful, the patient is currently stable and not showing signs of sepsis. Nebulized salbutamol can improve air entry, but the patient’s increased use of opioids and sedatives, along with pinpoint pupils and slow breathing, suggest that a stat dose of naloxone may be the most effective way to quickly restore respiratory drive and allow for recovery without the need for other interventions.

      Causes of Respiratory Acidosis

      Respiratory acidosis occurs when the lungs cannot remove enough carbon dioxide from the body, leading to an increase in acidity in the blood. This condition can be caused by various factors, including COPD, which is a chronic lung disease that makes it difficult to breathe. Other respiratory conditions such as life-threatening asthma and pulmonary edema can also lead to respiratory acidosis. Neuromuscular diseases that affect the muscles used for breathing can also contribute to this condition. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome, which occurs in people who are severely overweight, can also cause respiratory acidosis. Additionally, sedative drugs such as benzodiazepines and opiate overdose can slow down breathing and lead to respiratory acidosis. It is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of respiratory acidosis to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 62 - A 70-year-old man comes to the medical clinic for a check-up. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the medical clinic for a check-up. He has been diagnosed with COPD for five years and is currently taking a combination budesonide and formoterol fumarate inhaler and salbutamol inhaler as needed. He reports experiencing frequent coughing episodes and a decrease in his exercise tolerance.

      The patient's medical history includes macular degeneration, osteoarthritis, mild memory impairment, and diverticulosis. He has noticed that he can no longer walk the full distance to the local shop, which is approximately one mile away, and has to stop halfway to catch his breath.

      What diagnostic test would be most beneficial in assessing the severity of his COPD?

      Your Answer: FEV1/FVC

      Correct Answer: FEV1% of predicted

      Explanation:

      Investigating and Diagnosing COPD

      To diagnose COPD, NICE recommends considering patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. The following investigations are recommended: post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and BMI calculation. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with Stage 1 being mild and Stage 4 being very severe. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. It is important to note that the grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%.

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  • Question 63 - A 56-year-old man presents with a confirmed right adenocarcinoma of the bronchus. He...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a confirmed right adenocarcinoma of the bronchus. He reports weight loss over the past few months and a persistent cough, but is still able to work and care for his family. The following investigations were conducted:

      Haemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
      White cell count (WCC): 6.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
      Platelets (PLT): 180 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      Sodium (Na+): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine (Cr): 110 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 μmol/l)

      Which of the following tests would be most useful in determining his eligibility for surgery?

      Your Answer: PET/CT combined scan

      Explanation:

      The Best Imaging Modality for Determining Lymph Node Involvement in Bronchial Carcinoma

      When it comes to determining lymph node involvement in bronchial carcinoma, the PET/CT combined scan is the best imaging modality available. While pulmonary function testing can also impact suitability for surgery, it is likely that a patient with a good functional status and who cycles to work will have adequate lung function for pneumonectomy. CT thorax can provide information on tumour staging, but not lymph node involvement. Elevated serum calcium may not necessarily be a contraindication to surgery, as there are other reasons for hypercalcaemia. Finally, a CT head is of limited value if there is no indication of cerebral metastases.

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  • Question 64 - A 19-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain....

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain. He has no medical history to report.

      Upon examination, there are no notable findings.

      A chest x-ray shows a visible pleural edge with a distance of around 1.1 cm from the pleural edge to the lung margin at the hilum level.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, what guidance should he receive regarding air travel?

      Your Answer: He can fly 1 week post treatment with a chest x-ray demonstrating resolution

      Explanation:

      If a chest x-ray shows resolution, the patient with a small PTX < 2 cm and no history of lung disease can fly one week after treatment and be suitable for discharge and outpatient review. This is the correct advice. The previous advice of waiting six weeks post-treatment has been replaced. It is important to have chest x-ray evidence of resolution before flying, so advising the patient to fly immediately upon clinical improvement is not appropriate. There is no indefinite ban on flying for patients with a prior history of resolved PTX. The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

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  • Question 65 - A 29-year-old woman came to the Respiratory Outpatients Department complaining of a persistent...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman came to the Respiratory Outpatients Department complaining of a persistent cough and shortness of breath that had been worsening over the past 3 years. Despite taking numerous courses of antibiotics, her symptoms persisted. Although she had quit smoking 4 years ago, she had previously smoked 5 cigarettes a day for 5 years. Upon respiratory examination, her chest was hyper-inflated, and a mild wheeze was heard throughout. Lung function tests revealed an FEV1 of 50% predicted, FVC of 80% predicted, TLCO of 68% predicted, KCO of 71% predicted, and an increased RV:TLC ratio. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is a rare genetic disease that can cause premature emphysema, particularly in the lower parts of the lungs. This occurs due to an imbalance between neutrophil elastase and α1-antitrypsin, which normally protects against the destruction of elastin. Symptoms include shortness of breath, weight loss, and later on, cor pulmonale and polycythemia. Lung function tests show an obstructive pattern and gas trapping. Treatment involves alpha1-antitrypsin replacement and smoking cessation, and in advanced cases, lung transplantation may be necessary. This disease is more likely than other conditions such as cystic fibrosis, COPD related to smoking, asthma, or bronchiectasis, based on the patient’s history and lung function pattern.

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  • Question 66 - A 47-year-old man presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath. He is a Saudi Arabian national who arrived in the UK for a business trip three days ago. Over the past two days, he has experienced a dry cough, runny nose, myalgia, and fever. He denies any history of productive cough, haemoptysis, or gastrointestinal symptoms. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, which are controlled with metformin and captopril. He denies any contact with domestic animals or unwell contacts.

      On examination, the patient appears unwell and diaphoretic. His respiratory rate is mildly elevated, and his oxygen saturation is low. Chest x-ray shows no focal consolidation or mass lesions. Nasopharyngeal swab RT-PCR detects MERS-CoV RNA.

      What is the appropriate medical management for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: In-patient supportive treatment to relieve symptoms and prevent or treat complications

      Explanation:

      Understanding Middle East Respiratory Syndrome

      Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a respiratory illness caused by the MERS-CoV betacoronavirus. Currently, the virus is only found in the Arabian Peninsula and its neighboring countries. However, due to its incubation period of 2-14 days, individuals who have traveled to this region may present with MERS in other parts of the world. The primary risk factor for contracting MERS-CoV is contact with camels, including their products such as milk. The symptoms of MERS vary from mild to severe, with some cases resulting in life-threatening multi-organ failure. It is essential to understand the symptoms and risk factors associated with MERS to prevent its spread and ensure prompt treatment for those affected.

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  • Question 67 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath when he exerts himself. His symptoms have been getting worse over the past three months, and he is now worried because he can't walk through the park without stopping to catch his breath. He has also noticed a new, raised lesion on his chin. He has had a few unexplained fevers in the past week and has mild joint pain. He assumed the latter was arthritis, but he has never had it before. He has a medical history of hypertension, glaucoma, and was hospitalized for pneumonia within the last year.

      During the examination, a 1 cm wide, raised lesion on his chin is observed, which is purple in color with some telangiectasia. He does not currently have a fever, and all of his vital signs are within normal limits. There is no finger clubbing. Bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy is present, and auscultation reveals bibasal fine inspiratory crackles that do not shift with coughing. A chest X-ray is ordered. What is the most likely result of the X-ray?

      Your Answer: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, which is a common finding in sarcoidosis. The patient’s symptoms and signs, such as progressive exertional dyspnoea, arthralgia, unexplained pyrexia, and fine inspiratory crepitations that do not shift on coughing, are typical of sarcoidosis. Bronchiectasis is less likely due to the absence of a cough, crepitations that do not shift, and the absence of clubbing. The skin lesion described is likely to be lupus pernio. While pleural effusions can occur in sarcoidosis, it is not supported by the examination findings. Apical fibrosis is less likely as the crepitations are basal, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is a more common radiological sign.

      Investigating Sarcoidosis

      Sarcoidosis is a disease that does not have a single diagnostic test, and therefore, diagnosis is mainly based on clinical observations. Although ACE levels may be used to monitor disease activity, they are not reliable in diagnosing sarcoidosis due to their low sensitivity and specificity. Routine blood tests may show hypercalcemia and a raised ESR.

      A chest x-ray is a common investigation for sarcoidosis and may reveal different stages of the disease. Stage 0 is normal, stage 1 shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), stage 2 shows BHL and interstitial infiltrates, stage 3 shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates only, and stage 4 shows diffuse fibrosis. Other investigations, such as spirometry, may show a restrictive defect, while a tissue biopsy may reveal non-caseating granulomas. However, the Kveim test, which involves injecting part of the spleen from a patient with known sarcoidosis under the skin, is no longer performed due to concerns about cross-infection.

      In addition, a gallium-67 scan is not routinely used to investigate sarcoidosis. CT scans may also be used to investigate sarcoidosis, and they may show diffuse areas of nodularity predominantly in a peribronchial distribution with patchy areas of consolidation, particularly in the upper lobes. Ground glass opacities may also be present, but there are no gross reticular changes to suggest fibrosis.

      Overall, investigating sarcoidosis involves a combination of clinical observations, blood tests, chest x-rays, and other investigations such as spirometry and tissue biopsy. CT scans may also be used to provide more detailed information about the disease.

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  • Question 68 - A 65-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of cough and dyspnoea...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of cough and dyspnoea on exertion. He reports having the cough for over 2 years, but it has worsened recently along with increasing shortness of breath. He denies any haemoptysis, chest pain or leg swelling. The patient has a smoking history of 60 pack-years and drinks a moderate amount of alcohol. His vital signs are stable with a temperature of 37.2ºC, blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg, pulse of 80/min, and respirations of 20/min.

      On chest x-ray, there are prominent bronchovascular markings and mild diaphragmatic flattening. Pulmonary function tests reveal a forced expiratory volume in 1 second of 67% of predicted, forced vital capacity of 95% of predicted, and an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65. Carbon monoxide diffusion capacity is 100% of predicted value.

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chronic bronchitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s PFT results indicate obstructive lung disease, with a normal DLCO suggesting intact alveolar and capillary structure. Given the patient’s chronic smoking, productive cough, dyspnea on exertion, and decreased FEV1/FVC ratio, COPD is a likely diagnosis. COPD encompasses several chronic disorders, including emphysema and chronic bronchitis. Patients with predominant emphysema typically have severe dyspnea, a hyperinflated chest, decreased vascular markings, decreased DLCO (due to alveolar destruction), and moderate oxygen desaturation. In contrast, patients with predominant chronic bronchitis have a chronic productive cough and prominent bronchovascular markings, a mildly flattened diaphragm, and a normal DLCO (as seen in this patient). Restrictive lung diseases, which cause reduced lung volumes, a normal FEV1/FVC ratio, decreased FVC, and low DLCO, are not likely diagnoses. Panacinar emphysema, which is typical for α-1-antitrypsin deficiency, usually causes a low DLCO, while centriacinar emphysema is more characteristic of smoking-induced COPD.

      Understanding the Differences between Obstructive and Restrictive Lung Diseases

      Obstructive and restrictive lung diseases are two distinct categories of respiratory conditions that affect the lungs in different ways. Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a reduction in the flow of air through the airways due to narrowing or blockage, while restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a decrease in lung volume or capacity, making it difficult to breathe in enough air.

      Spirometry is a common diagnostic tool used to differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In obstructive lung diseases, the ratio of forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) to forced vital capacity (FVC) is less than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to exhale air. In contrast, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by an FEV1/FVC ratio greater than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to inhale air.

      Examples of obstructive lung diseases include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), chronic bronchitis, and emphysema, while asthma and bronchiectasis are also considered obstructive. Restrictive lung diseases include intrapulmonary conditions such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, and drug-induced fibrosis, as well as extrapulmonary conditions such as neuromuscular diseases, obesity, and scoliosis.

      Understanding the differences between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. While both types of conditions can cause difficulty breathing, the underlying causes and treatment approaches can vary significantly.

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  • Question 69 - A 25-year-old woman from New York with no significant medical history is on...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman from New York with no significant medical history is on a backpacking trip in Nepal. She is a non-smoker. After trekking above 4000 m, she complains of a headache, nausea, and vomiting. She also feels fatigued and has trouble sleeping. As the expedition medic, you note her respiratory rate is 20/min and her pulse is 95/min. Her chest is clear on auscultation. No investigations are available as the nearest hospital is over 50 km away.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute mountain sickness

      Explanation:

      Altitude Sickness: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Altitude sickness is a condition that can occur when a person ascends to high altitudes too quickly. There are three types of altitude illness: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE), and high-altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE). AMS is the most common and is characterized by non-specific symptoms such as headache, gastrointestinal issues, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and difficulty sleeping. Diagnosis can be made using the criteria named in ‘The Lake Louise Score’. If left untreated, AMS can progress to HACE, which is characterized by ataxia and drowsiness. Treatment for altitude sickness is immediate descent, oxygen, and intravenous dexamethasone. Acetazolamide may be used for prevention and treatment of AMS. It is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that causes intracellular acidosis and has a diuretic effect. Migraine, exhaustion, hangover, and hypothermia are possible differential diagnoses, but they are less likely in the context of altitude sickness.

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  • Question 70 - A 35-year-old woman has just started a new job as a hairdresser. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has just started a new job as a hairdresser. She reports experiencing more frequent episodes of shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing during the workweek. However, she notices that her symptoms improve over the weekends and during a recent vacation to Hawaii. When examined on a Monday morning, there is no wheezing present, and her peak flow is 450 (480 predicted).

      What is the most appropriate initial step to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Review of the worker's work pattern and removal of exposure to potential allergens

      Correct Answer: 2-hourly peak flow recordings during the week, comparing work to rest periods

      Explanation:

      To evaluate potential occupational asthma in a hairdresser, it is important to monitor peak flow recordings during work and rest periods. This helps establish the relationship between peak flow deterioration and work periods, which may be caused by exposure to allergens such as flour dust. The optimal therapy for occupational asthma is to remove exposure to the potential allergen, which requires cooperation from the employer.

      A chest x-ray is not useful in evaluating bronchoconstriction related to asthma. A trial of salbutamol is inappropriate in this case, as it is more important to remove exposure to potential allergens. Bronchial provocation testing should only be done in specialized centers with appropriate support, and only when there is doubt about the underlying trigger. Patch testing is rarely useful in evaluating occupational asthma.

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  • Question 71 - A 35-year-old woman who is currently prescribed highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART) presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is currently prescribed highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART) presents to the clinic with concerns about exposure to tuberculosis. She has been working in a nursing home where a resident was recently diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient reports feeling well.
      Upon examination, her blood pressure is 118/70 mmHg, pulse is 76/min and regular, and she is afebrile. Her chest is clear, and her BMI has been stable at 24 for the past six months. Her CD4 count is 380, and an interferon gamma screen for TB is positive.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's potential exposure to tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: Dual anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin and isoniazid for three months

      Correct Answer: Monotherapy with isoniazid for six to nine months

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Latent TB in HIV Patients: A Comparison

      Latent tuberculosis (TB) is a common problem in HIV patients, and anti-tuberculous chemotherapy is often considered. Here, we compare different treatment options for a patient with latent TB and HIV who has a stable lifestyle.

      Monotherapy with isoniazid for six to nine months is the recommended regimen as per the WHO guidelines. However, poor compliance can be an issue.

      Dual anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin and isoniazid for three months is a commonly used option, but it has a high incidence of harmful drug interactions with HAART.

      Quadruple anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, and isoniazid for six months is the intervention for patients suffering from active TB.

      Dual anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin and pyrazinamide for two months is not widely used due to reported cases of hepatotoxicity.

      Monotherapy with isoniazid for one year is not a commonly recognized regimen.

      In conclusion, monotherapy with isoniazid for six to nine months is the best option for this patient, given his stable lifestyle. It will give him the best chance of treating latent TB and avoiding dangerous drug interactions with HAART.

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  • Question 72 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department with a severe asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department with a severe asthma exacerbation. The medical team administers nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide along with 15 L oxygen. The patient's pre-treatment and post-treatment results are as follows: PO2 (kPa) 6.6 and 7.9, PCO2 (kPa) 3.4 and 3.5, pH 7.35 and 7.32, and PEFR (L/min) 100 and 160. Based on BTS guidelines, what is the next step in managing this patient's asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium

      Correct Answer: Intravenous hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      BTS Guidelines for Acute Exacerbations of Asthma

      When it comes to acute exacerbations of asthma, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines recommend that all patients receive steroids in appropriate doses. While the effects of this treatment may not be immediately visible, it is crucial to initiate this step as soon as possible. Other treatments may also be necessary, but the BTS guidelines prioritize the use of steroids. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the most effective and evidence-based care for their asthma exacerbations. It is important to note that the use of steroids should always be done under the guidance of a healthcare professional and in accordance with the patient’s individual needs and medical history. By adhering to these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help manage acute exacerbations of asthma and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 73 - An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest...

    Correct

    • An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He reports noticing swelling in his left leg a week ago but did not seek medical attention. He has a history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide. He has never smoked. On examination, he is dyspnoeic at rest with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, pulse of 110 beats per minute, and oxygen saturations of 86% on room air. A loud second heart sound is heard over the right second intercostal space. Arterial blood gas analysis on air shows a pH of 7.35, PaO2 of 7.0 kPa, PaCO2 of 3.8 kPa, and standard HCO3 of 24 mmol/L. A CT pulmonary angiogram reveals a large saddle embolism in the pulmonary trunk. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Urgent thrombolysis

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Submassive Pulmonary Embolism

      In cases of submassive pulmonary embolism accompanied by shock, the recommended treatment is thrombolysis and oxygen therapy. Thrombolysis is particularly indicated when the patient is experiencing hypotension, acidosis, or other signs of shock. However, it is important to note that thrombolysis can be risky for elderly patients, with mortality rates of up to 5% reported in some studies.

      It is important to avoid certain treatment options in cases of submassive pulmonary embolism. Endarterectomy should never be performed in the acute setting, and an IVC filter is not an appropriate management strategy. Additionally, unfractionated heparin is not more effective than LMW heparin and is associated with a higher risk of hemorrhage. Overall, the best course of action for submassive pulmonary embolism is thrombolysis and oxygen therapy, with careful consideration of the patient’s age and other risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      29.6
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  • Question 74 - A 25-year-old woman from New York, with no significant medical history, traveled to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman from New York, with no significant medical history, traveled to Nepal for a hiking trip in the Himalayas. She is a non-smoker. After reaching an altitude of 4000 m, she developed a severe headache, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. She also felt fatigued and complained of difficulty sleeping. Her respiratory rate was 20/min and her pulse was 95/min. The rest of the physical examination was unremarkable. No medical tests are available as the nearest hospital is over 150 km away. By the next morning, she was disoriented and had difficulty walking steadily, and by the following day, she was lethargic and confused.

      What would be the appropriate course of treatment for this woman?

      Your Answer: Immediate transfer down the mountain

      Explanation:

      The woman in this scenario is suffering from acute mountain sickness, which is a type of altitude illness that can lead to cerebral edema. The cause is unknown, but it is more common in people who live at low altitude. Symptoms include headache, gastrointestinal issues, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and difficulty sleeping. If the condition worsens and the patient develops ataxia and drowsiness, it may be considered end-stage AMS. Aspirin is not a suitable treatment for mountain sickness. Acetazolamide may be used for prevention and treatment, but further ascent would be dangerous for this patient. Dexamethasone and immediate antibiotics are also not appropriate treatments for AMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      14.6
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  • Question 75 - A 26-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain that started two hours ago. He reports no difficulty in breathing and his oxygen saturation level is at 96% without supplemental oxygen. A chest x-ray is ordered and a CT1 notices a small apical pneumothorax measuring 1.8 cm. Based on current guidelines, what is the recommended intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: Discharge with advice to return if symptoms worsen and follow up chest x ray in 48 hours

      Correct Answer: Discharge with advice to return if symptoms worsen and follow up chest x ray in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Management of Pneumothorax According to BTS Guidelines

      Pneumothorax is a condition that requires prompt management to prevent complications. There are different types of pneumothorax, and the management approach varies depending on the type and severity of the condition. According to the current British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines, a patient with a small spontaneous pneumothorax and no underlying lung disease can be considered for early discharge if they are not breathless and the rim of air is less than 2 cm. In such cases, a repeat chest x-ray is recommended after two weeks.

      On the other hand, a secondary pneumothorax always requires intervention. Aspiration may not be effective in this case, and if it fails or does not meet the above criteria, a chest drain needs to be inserted. The Seldinger technique using a 16G is the preferred method for this. It is important to note that the management of pneumothorax should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and the severity of their condition. Early recognition and prompt management can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      44.9
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  • Question 76 - What is the most appropriate course of action for the continued treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate course of action for the continued treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue intravenous ceftriaxone, azithromycin and commence intravenous hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Cease intravenous ceftriaxone, azithromycin and commence intravenous hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      A neutrophilia is typically observed in the BAL analysis of patients with ARDS. Prompt treatment is crucial for acute eosinophilic pneumonia, as delayed identification can lead to fatal outcomes.

      The patient was administered 200mg of intravenous hydrocortisone during the emergency, possibly due to suspicion of severe community acquired pneumonia. It is important to note that there is increasing evidence supporting the use of steroids for severe community acquired pneumonia. The inadvertent administration of hydrocortisone may have contributed to the patient’s rapid recovery and successful extubation.

      The optimal dose and duration of corticosteroid therapy for such patients remains a topic of debate. While some sources recommend methylprednisolone for critically ill patients, followed by a transition to oral prednisolone for up to 4 weeks after stabilization, there is no consensus on the matter.

      Pulmonary eosinophilia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of eosinophils in the airways and lung tissue, often accompanied by a blood eosinophilia. This condition can be caused by various factors, including Churg-Strauss syndrome, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, Loeffler’s syndrome, eosinophilic pneumonia, hypereosinophilic syndrome, tropical pulmonary eosinophilia, and certain drugs such as nitrofurantoin and sulphonamides. Less commonly, it may be associated with Wegener’s granulomatosis. Loeffler’s syndrome, which is thought to be caused by parasites such as Ascaris lumbricoides, typically presents with a fever, cough, and night sweats lasting less than two weeks and is generally self-limiting. Acute eosinophilic pneumonia is highly responsive to steroids, while tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is associated with Wuchereria bancrofti infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      13.1
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  • Question 77 - A 60-year-old man with known severe emphysema presents to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with known severe emphysema presents to the emergency department with breathlessness and is diagnosed with a non-infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. This is his 4th exacerbation this year. He mentions that he has been referred by his respiratory team for lung volume reduction surgery and is waiting for an appointment. What factors would disqualify him as a candidate for this surgery?

      Your Answer: Predominantly upper lobe emphysema and low exercise capacity.

      Correct Answer: Non-upper lobe emphysema and high exercise capacity.

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      23.6
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  • Question 78 - A 67-year-old man presents with two episodes of mild haemoptysis in the past...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with two episodes of mild haemoptysis in the past 4 months. He has also lost 6 kilograms of weight in the past 4 months. He is a smoker with a 55 pack years history and a social drinker. He is actively mobile and has no significant past medical history.

      On clinical examination, there are no abnormalities except for clubbing.

      A contrast-enhanced CT chest reveals a 4 cm mass in the right upper lobe periphery close to the chest wall and enlarged right hilar (2 cm) and subcarinal (2 cm) lymph nodes. A positron emission tomography (PET) scan is performed, which shows a standard uptake value (SUV) max of 20 for the lung mass. The ipsilateral hilar and subcarinal lymph nodes are also found to be FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose) avid. There is no evidence of distant metastasis.

      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Endobronchial ultrasound (EBUS) guided mediastinal lymph node sampling

      Explanation:

      Investigating Lung Cancer: Methods and Findings

      When investigating suspected lung cancer, there are several methods that doctors may use to obtain a diagnosis. The first investigation is often a chest x-ray, which can reveal abnormalities in the lungs. However, it is important to note that in around 10% of patients subsequently diagnosed with lung cancer, the chest x-ray was reported as normal. Therefore, if lung cancer is still suspected, a CT scan is the investigation of choice. This method provides a more detailed view of the lungs and can help identify any abnormalities that may have been missed on the chest x-ray.

      If a biopsy is needed to obtain a histological diagnosis, a bronchoscopy may be performed. This procedure allows doctors to take a tissue sample from the lungs for further analysis. In some cases, endobronchial ultrasound may be used to aid in the biopsy process.

      In non-small cell lung cancer cases, a PET scan may be done to establish eligibility for curative treatment. This method uses 18-fluorodeoxygenase, which is preferentially taken up by neoplastic tissue. PET scanning has been shown to improve diagnostic sensitivity of both local and distant metastasis spread in non-small cell lung cancer.

      Finally, blood tests may also be done to help diagnose lung cancer. Raised platelets may be seen in some cases. By using a combination of these methods, doctors can obtain a more accurate diagnosis of lung cancer and determine the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 60-year-old man presents with a four-week history of pleuritic chest pain, shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a four-week history of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and dry cough. He has also experienced a weight loss of nearly 10 kg in the past six months. The patient had a myocardial infarction 20 years ago but has not experienced any exertional chest pain since. He lives alone and has not seen his general practitioner in two years, but has recently visited twice for mild recurrent pain in his left knee. He is an ex-smoker of 15 cigarettes per day and quit smoking 10 years ago. He takes only aspirin. On examination, his chest has reduced expansion, a dull percussion note, and decreased breath sounds on the right. A chest x-ray confirms a right-sided pleural effusion. Analysis of a pleural aspirate reveals a pleural fluid protein content of 42 g/L and pleural fluid glucose of 2.0 mmol/L. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Pleural Fluid Analysis

      Pleural fluid analysis is a diagnostic test used to determine the cause of pleural effusion, which is the accumulation of fluid in the space between the lungs and the chest wall. The protein level in the pleural fluid is a key factor in determining whether the effusion is an exudate or transudate. If the pleural fluid protein is greater than 35 g/L, it is an exudate and excludes cardiac failure as the cause. If the protein level is between 25-35 g/L, Light’s criteria are used to determine whether the effusion is an exudate or transudate.

      The criteria for an exudate include a pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein greater than 0.5, pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) divided by serum LDH greater than 0.6, and pleural fluid LDH greater than 2/3rds upper limits of normal serum LDH. A low pleural glucose level, less than 3.3 mmol/L, is found in various conditions such as empyema, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, malignancy, oesophageal rupture, and tuberculosis. Rheumatoid effusions and empyema have the lowest pleural glucose levels, with rheumatoid effusions rarely being above 1.6 mmol/L.

      Based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis is malignancy, and further tests such as cytology should be ordered. There is no history of rheumatoid arthritis or exposure to tuberculosis to suggest these as the underlying causes. Mesothelioma is a possibility, but no exposure to asbestos has been mentioned. pleural fluid analysis is crucial in determining the cause of pleural effusion and guiding appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      32.2
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  • Question 80 - A 57-year-old woman with a history of asthma attends her respiratory clinic appointment....

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman with a history of asthma attends her respiratory clinic appointment. She has been hospitalized twice in the past year due to exacerbations and also has hypothyroidism and angina. Her current medications include tiotropium, fluticasone, levothyroxine, simvastatin, aspirin, and GTN spray. During her last appointment, she was prescribed theophylline at a standard dose and completed a course of ciprofloxacin for a mild exacerbation. She is a smoker and has allergies to pollen.

      Upon examination, she presents with a dry cough but is able to speak in full sentences. Her chest shows scattered wheezing throughout.

      Lab results show a Na+ level of 145 mmol/l, K+ level of 3.9 mmol/l, urea level of 4.2 mmol/l, creatinine level of 56 µmol/l, and a theophylline level of 6 mcg/ml (normal range 10-20). Additionally, her chest x-ray shows hyperexpanded lung fields and her TSH level is 5.2 mU/l.

      What could be the possible reason for her subtherapeutic theophylline level?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Individuals have varying requirements for theophylline/aminophylline due to differences in liver metabolism. The concentration of these drugs depends on the rate of metabolism, which can be affected by factors such as statins, ciprofloxacin, and alcohol consumption. These factors can increase sensitivity to theophylline and increase the risk of toxicity at lower doses. However, smoking is known to induce liver enzyme activity, which means that smokers may require higher starting doses. The patient’s slightly hypothyroid state, as indicated by the TSH, is not expected to significantly affect drug metabolism.

      Aminophylline infusions are utilized to manage acute asthma and COPD. In patients who have not received xanthines (theophylline or aminophylline) before, a loading dose of 5mg/kg is administered through a slow intravenous injection lasting at least 20 minutes. For the maintenance infusion, 1g of aminophylline is mixed with 1 litre of normal saline to create a solution of 1 mg/ml. The recommended dose is 500-700 mcg/kg/hour, or 300 mcg/kg/hour for elderly patients. It is important to monitor plasma theophylline concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      18.4
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  • Question 81 - A 57-year-old lady presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of palpitations and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old lady presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of palpitations and shortness of breath. She has a history of mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is currently taking salbutamol, ipratropium bromide, and beclomethasone inhalers. On examination, she is dyspnoeic with a blood pressure of 154/88 mmHg and a pulse rate of >100/min (AF). Her echocardiography 6 months ago showed normal ventricular function and no structural abnormality. The admission arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal a pH of 7.35, pa(O2) of 8.1 kPa, pa(CO2) of 6.2 kPa, and bicarbonate (HCO3-) of 28 mmol/l. After starting the patient on 28% oxygen and nebulisers (salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 0.5 mg) and repeating the blood gases after 30 minutes, the pH is 7.36, pa(O2) is 9.6 kPa, pa(CO2) is 5.8 kPa, and bicarbonate (HCO3-) is 29 mmol/l. However, the patient still reports palpitations. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals multi-focal atrial tachycardia (MAT) with a rate of 118/min, and her blood pressure has fallen to 110/70 mmHg. How would you control this arrhythmia?

      Your Answer: Observation only

      Correct Answer: Start verapamil

      Explanation:

      In a patient with obstructive airways disease who is critically ill, multi-focal atrial tachycardia (MAT) may occur due to hypoxia and hypercapnia. MAT is characterized by varying P-wave morphologies and intervals. The primary goal is to improve both pa(O2) and pa(CO2). Verapamil can be given in small boluses of 5 mg intravenously and then as an oral dose of 40–120 mg TDS to control tachycardia symptoms. DC cardioversion is not recommended as it may lead to more serious rhythm disturbance. Metoprolol should not be used acutely as it may worsen COPD reversibility. Increasing inspired oxygen to 40% is not appropriate as it does not address the underlying arrhythmia and may worsen hypercapnia. Observation only is not recommended as the arrhythmia has caused a drop in blood pressure in an unstable patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 75-year-old patient with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented to the Emergency Department with symptoms of cough, purulent sputum, and shortness of breath that had been ongoing for three days. The paramedic team reported administering oxygen and nebulized bronchodilator therapy during transport to the hospital.

      Upon examination, the patient was alert but had a carbon dioxide retention flap. Vital signs were as follows: temperature of 37.9°C, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 99% on air, and a pulse rate of 110 beats per minute. Heart sounds were normal with no audible murmurs, and chest radiograph showed hyperinflated lung fields without focal consolidation. Abdominal examination was unremarkable.

      Arterial blood gas results on 10 liters of oxygen were as follows: pH of 7.25 (normal range: 7.36-7.44), PaO2 of 14.0 kPa (normal range: 11.3-12.6), PaCO2 of 9.4 kPa (normal range: 4.7-6.0), standard bicarbonate of 34 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28), and base excess of +4 mmol/L (normal range: <2).

      What is the most appropriate course of management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence non-invasive ventilation

      Correct Answer: Change his oxygen mask to a 24% venturi mask and re-check ABGs in 1 hour

      Explanation:

      Oxygen Therapy in COPD Patients

      Patients with COPD can be highly sensitive to uncontrolled oxygen therapy, which can lead to type II respiratory failure and increased mortality and morbidity. Paramedics are unable to provide controlled oxygen therapy, which can be a challenge for COPD patients. However, with proper management, patients can improve with controlled oxygen therapy and bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may also be necessary if the patient does not respond to initial treatment.

      It is important to note that Hudson face masks are less precise than venturi masks and should not be used in hypercapnic or type II respiratory failure cases. Additionally, if the flow rate is less than 5 L/min, there is a risk of CO2 accumulation due to rebreathing of CO2. Aminophylline is no longer recommended in acute COPD exacerbations due to the significant risk of generating arrhythmias and hypokalaemia without significant additive benefit. Overall, proper management and monitoring of oxygen therapy is crucial for COPD patients to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      61.3
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  • Question 83 - A 62-year-old Nepalese woman who recently moved to the United Kingdom presents to...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old Nepalese woman who recently moved to the United Kingdom presents to her GP with a known multinodular goitre that has been untreated. Her daughter, who acts as a translator, reports that her mother has been experiencing a sensation of tightness in her neck, as if she is being strangled. This sensation is worse in the mornings and her daughter has noticed that her mother's face appears puffy. The patient denies any weight loss, fevers, or night sweats. On examination, a large multinodular goitre is observed, measuring 15-20 cm in width and occupying a significant portion of the neck. Although there is no audible stridor, several neck veins are visible. When asked to stretch her hands up high, the patient complains of worsening tightness. Chest sounds are quiet and clear, but dull percussion is noted under the top third of the sternum. Laboratory results reveal a TSH of 0.07 mU/L (normal range 0.05-5.0), T4 of 10 pmol/L (normal range 9-50), and T3 of 4.0 pmol/L (normal range 3.5-7.8). D-dimer is 0.15 (normal range 0-0.25), and a chest x-ray shows a widened mediastinum with no focal lung lesion. What is the likely cause of the patient's new symptoms?

      Your Answer: Multinodular goitre

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava obstruction can be caused by an enlarged goitre, which is a rare occurrence. The patient’s symptoms, particularly the worsening when lifting her hands up, indicate a positive Pemberton’s test. The next step is to determine the underlying cause. While lung carcinoma is a possibility, the patient’s non-smoking status and lack of cough or weight loss make it less likely. Thoracic artery aneurysm would typically present with a widened mediastinum and may be associated with connective tissue disease or uncontrolled hypertension. Lymphoma causing SVC obstruction would typically show mediastinal lymphadenopathy on chest x-ray. SVC thrombus is unlikely given the negative D-dimer result.

      Understanding Superior Vena Cava Obstruction

      Superior vena cava obstruction is a medical emergency that occurs when the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, is compressed. This condition is commonly associated with lung cancer, but it can also be caused by other malignancies, aortic aneurysm, mediastinal fibrosis, goitre, and SVC thrombosis. The most common symptom of SVC obstruction is dyspnoea, but patients may also experience swelling of the face, neck, and arms, headache, visual disturbance, and pulseless jugular venous distension.

      The management of SVC obstruction depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s individual circumstances. Endovascular stenting is often the preferred treatment to relieve symptoms, but certain malignancies may require radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy instead. Glucocorticoids may also be given, although the evidence supporting their use is weak. It is important to seek advice from an oncology team to determine the best course of action for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 84 - A 55-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic with a gradual onset...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic with a gradual onset of shortness of breath. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Despite being on regular atorvastatin, salbutamol, and symbicort, he still smokes 5 cigarettes daily and has a 40 pack-year history. He lives with his wife and can only tolerate exercise for approximately 30 yards.

      During the clinical examination, the patient's chest is barrel-shaped, and there is hyper-resonance to percussion bilaterally. Auscultation reveals moderate harsh-sounding wheeze, and his fingertips are stained with nicotine. However, there is no clubbing, no peripheral edema, and the jugular venous pulse is not raised. The heart sounds are normal, and the pulse is regular.

      Lung function tests show that the patient's FEV1 is 35% (predicted), FVC is 68% (predicted), and FEV1/FVC is 51.4%. Blood tests reveal that his Hb is 154 g/L, platelets are 211 * 109/L, WBC is 7.2 * 109/L, Na+ is 133 mmol/L, K+ is 4.4 mmol/L, urea is 5.3 mmol/L, creatinine is 99 µmol/L, bilirubin is 14 µmol/L, ALP is 91 u/L, ALT is 34 u/L, γGT is 66 u/L, D-dimer is 333 ng/ml, albumin is 36 g/L, CRP is 4 mg/L, and BNP is 88 pg/ml.

      A plain radiography of the chest shows generalized increased lucency bilaterally but clear lung fields. Based on the patient's clinical history, what is the appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Add a long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      21.9
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  • Question 85 - A 68-year-old man with a history of COPD presents to the clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of COPD presents to the clinic with complaints of persistent breathlessness during physical activity. He denies any significant coughing. Upon pulmonary function testing, his SpO2 is at 90%, FVC is at 2.8L, FEV1 is at 1.47 (40% predicted), and FEV1/FVC ratio is at 53%. His medical records indicate that there has been significant diurnal variation (>20%) in his peak flows. Currently, he is taking a short-acting beta-2 agonist and a combination inhaler containing a long-acting beta-2 agonist and corticosteroid. What would be the most appropriate additional medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Inhaled tiotropium

      Explanation:

      If a patient with COPD is experiencing breathlessness even after using SABA/SAMA and a LABA + ICS, it is recommended to include a LAMA in their treatment plan.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 26-year-old pregnant woman who is 28 weeks along suddenly experiences shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old pregnant woman who is 28 weeks along suddenly experiences shortness of breath and slight left-sided chest pains. She has no cough or haemoptysis and no history of long flights or leg swelling. On examination, she appears anxious with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, pulse rate of 92/min, and respiratory rate of 26/min. Her abdomen is distended, and fetal movements are seen. Investigations reveal a low probability of pulmonary embolism (PE) on a V/Q scan, but her D-dimer levels are elevated. What would be the most appropriate step in her immediate management?

      Your Answer: Commence low-molecular weight heparin

      Correct Answer: Arrange for her discharge

      Explanation:

      Management of a Pregnant Patient with Low-Probability V/Q Scan

      When a pregnant patient presents with a low-probability V/Q scan, it is important to consider other potential causes for their symptoms. In this case, the slightly elevated pH and normal oxygen levels, along with low CO2, suggest mild hyperventilation and anxiety rather than pulmonary emboli (PE). Therefore, it is safe to arrange for the patient’s discharge.

      There is no indication for anticoagulation or anti-platelet therapy based on the V/Q scan result. Warfarin is not advised during early or late pregnancy. Thrombolysis and thoracotomy with embolectomy are not appropriate interventions for this patient.

      Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s clinical presentation and diagnostic results is crucial in determining the appropriate management for pregnant patients with suspected PE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 87 - A 72-year-old man is receiving treatment for an empyema in a medical ward....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving treatment for an empyema in a medical ward. Following the insertion of a chest drain under ultrasound guidance and the initiation of antibiotics, there has been a marked improvement in his clinical condition.

      During the daily morning ward round, the medical team reviews the chest drain and notes that it is on suction. However, there has been minimal drainage output over the past 24 hours, and bubbling is observed when the patient coughs.

      What is the significance of this bubbling?

      Your Answer: Bronchopleural fistula

      Explanation:

      When a chest drain inserted to drain an empyema bubbles, it is a sign of an air leak. This suggests that a bronchopleural fistula has developed, given the patient’s medical history. Therefore, this is the correct answer.

      The answer that suggests the chest drain is blocked is incorrect, as bubbling indicates that the drain is not blocked.

      If the chest drain is displaced outside of the chest and on suction, it can also cause bubbling. To differentiate between a bronchopleural fistula and a displaced chest drain, a simple test is to ask the patient to cough. If the bubbling increases with coughing, it suggests a bronchopleural fistula. If the bubbling is constant and unrelated to coughing, it suggests a displaced chest drain.

      Bubbling from a chest drain is not normal and indicates an issue. Swinging of the drain is normal with changes in intrathoracic pressure, but bubbling suggests air is entering the drain. The most common cause is a displaced drain, but in this case, a bronchopleural fistula is the likely diagnosis due to the changes on coughing.

      The bubbling of the chest drain does not necessarily indicate an unresolved empyema, as this would not cause bubbling. The drain is functioning correctly, as indicated by the bubbling increasing with coughing, and the low drain output. Further imaging may be necessary to determine if the drain is located correctly within the empyema.

      Chest Drain Insertion and Management

      A chest drain is a tube that is inserted into the pleural cavity to allow the movement of air or liquid out of the cavity. It is indicated in cases of pleural effusion, pneumothorax, empyema, haemothorax, haemopneumothorax, chylothorax, and some cases of penetrating chest wall injury in ventilated patients. However, insertion of a chest drain is relatively contraindicated in patients with INR > 1.3, platelet count < 75, pulmonary bullae, or pleural adhesions. To insert a chest drain, the patient should be positioned in a supine position or at a 45º angle, and the area should be anaesthetised using local anaesthetic injection. The drainage tube should then be inserted using a Seldinger technique and secured with either a straight stitch or an adhesive dressing. Positioning can be confirmed by aspiration of fluid from the drainage tubing or on chest x-ray. Complications that may occur during chest drain insertion include failure of insertion, bleeding, infection, penetration of the lung, and re-expansion pulmonary oedema. Patients should be advised of these complications during the consent process. In the event of concerns regarding re-expansion pulmonary oedema, the chest drain should be clamped, and an urgent chest x-ray should be obtained. The removal of the chest drain is dependent upon the indication for insertion. In cases of fluid drainage from the pleural cavity, the drain should be removed when there has been no output for > 24 hours and imaging shows resolution of the fluid collection. In cases of pneumothorax, the drain should be removed when it is no longer bubbling spontaneously or when the patient coughs and ideally when imaging shows resolution of the pneumothorax. Drains inserted in cases of penetrating chest injury should be reviewed by the specialist to confirm an appropriate time for removal.

      Overall, chest drain insertion and management should be approached on an individual case basis, with consideration of the patient’s specific circumstances and potential contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 88 - A 27-year-old female patient has come for a follow-up on her asthma management....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient has come for a follow-up on her asthma management. She reports that her asthma control has deteriorated lately and she is using her Ventolin inhaler once or twice a week. She confirms that she is not taking any other medication for asthma control. She denies any recent sickness, but she does mention that her symptoms worsen in colder temperatures and during physical activity. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Inhaled beclometasone dipropionate

      Explanation:

      For an adult with uncontrolled asthma despite the use of a short-acting beta agonist, the recommended course of action is to introduce a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. This is particularly relevant for those with mild intermittent asthma.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regimen, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 89 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of feeling unwell for...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of feeling unwell for the past few days. She reports having had a cold for the last four days. She has a dry cough, headache, fever, malaise, and muscle pains.
      Upon examination, she appears unwell with a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg, pulse of 88 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. Her oxygen saturation is 96% on air. Crackles are heard in both lung fields upon auscultation. Her cardiovascular and abdominal examinations are normal.
      The following investigations are conducted:
      s
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 120 g/l 135 - 175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.5 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 320 × 109/l 150 - 400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 133 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 98 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 80 - 100 fl
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 92 mg/l < 10 mg/l
      Blood film Fragmented red cells, reticulocytosis
      Coombs’ test +
      What would be the appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically presents with a dry cough and flu-like symptoms. Cold-agglutinins may cause autoimmune haemolytic anaemia with positive Coombs’ test. Flucloxacillin is an option for post-influenza pneumonia, while ciprofloxacin could be used in combination with vancomycin for community-acquired pneumonia in penicillin-allergic patients. Gentamicin is mainly reserved for severe Gram-negative infections, and rifampicin is used in dual therapy for severe legionella infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 90 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the Accident & Emergency department with a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the Accident & Emergency department with a sudden episode of dizziness and collapse while walking her dog. She denied any history of tongue biting or incontinence and there were no witnesses to the collapse. However, she did admit to feeling increasingly breathless on exertion and fatigued. She had no known family history of respiratory disease as she was adopted at birth. The patient also disclosed recreational drug use, including ecstasy.

      Upon examination, the patient appeared mildly cyanosed in the center. She was alert and oriented, with a regular pulse of 90 beats per minute, a temperature of 36.5°C, blood pressure of 100/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 88% on room air. Auscultation of her chest revealed a loud P2, a pansystolic murmur at the left sternal edge, and an early diastolic murmur at the second left space. An Electrocardiogram showed sinus tachycardia.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mixed Aortic Valve disease

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension

      Pulmonary arterial hypertension is a condition characterized by symptoms such as dyspnoea, fatigue, weakness, and syncope. It is often associated with the use of drugs such as appetite suppressants and amphetamines. Physical signs of the condition include a left parasternal heave, loud second pulmonary sound, a pansystolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation, and an early diastolic murmur of pulmonary insufficiency. While an ECG may not be inconsistent with pulmonary arterial hypertension, it is not a definitive diagnostic tool.

      It is important to note that while a pulmonary embolism may be a possible diagnosis, the symptoms of pulmonary arterial hypertension are more suggestive of a chronic condition. Other conditions such as epilepsy, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and mixed aortic valve disease are not consistent with the presentation or clinical signs of pulmonary arterial hypertension. the symptoms and physical signs of this condition can aid in its early diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 91 - A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough that has been ongoing for...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough that has been ongoing for three days. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath over the past two days and reports feeling weak and lethargic. He also has a fever and rigors. His wife brought him to the emergency department as she is concerned about his rapid deterioration.

      Upon examination, his heart rate is 125 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, Sa02 is 90% on room air, temperature is 38.9º, and blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg. Although he appears distressed, he is not confused.

      Initial investigations reveal a Hb of 134 g/l, platelets of 550 * 109/l, and WBC of 18 * 109/l. His electrolyte levels are within normal range, with Na+ at 141 mmol/l and K+ at 3.7 mmol/l. His urea level is 9.2 mmol/l and creatinine is 130 µmol/l. A chest x-ray shows left lower zone consolidation.

      What is his CURB-65 score based on the given information?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB 65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 92 - A 25-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with acute shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with acute shortness of breath. She is unable to provide a clinical history due to her breathing difficulties. Her current medications include Cetirizine 10mg orally once daily and Clobetasone butyrate (Eumovate) topically.

      Upon examination, bilateral widespread polyphonic wheezes are heard. Her pulse rate is 102 beats per minute, blood pressure is 128/75 mmHg, and respiration rate is 33. Oxygen saturations are 96% on 4L/min via face mask. A dry flaking rash is observed in her elbow flexures with signs of excoriation.

      Blood tests reveal a Hb of 11.2 g/dl, platelets of 204*10^9/l, WBC of 10.3 *10^9/l, eosinophil of 0.56 *10^9/l, CRP of 65, Na+ of 135 mmol/l, K+ of 4.4 mmol/l, urea of 7.6 mmol/l, and creatinine of 101 µmol/l. Chest x-ray is clear, and peak expiratory flow is 200 L/min (expected 402).

      The patient is treated with nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, oral prednisolone 40mg, and oxygen 4L/min. Upon re-examination 30 minutes later on the Admissions Unit, symmetrical quiet breath sounds and quiet bilateral wheezes are heard. Her pulse rate is 80 beats per minute, blood pressure is 103/68 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 18 with oxygen saturations of 94% on 6L/min via face mask. Peak expiratory flow is 120 L/min.

      A repeat arterial blood gas on 6L/min oxygen via face mask reveals a pH of 7.33, pCO2 of 6.2kPa, pO2 of 13 kPa, HCO3 of 20 mmol/l, and lactate of 2.2 mmol/l. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Referral to intensive care

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition was worsening, as evidenced by a decrease in respiratory rate indicating exhaustion, worsening hypoxia, hypercapnic acidotic ABG, and deteriorating PEF. IV Magnesium may be considered, but given the deteriorating picture, immediate referral to the ITU is necessary. Reducing oxygen levels is not the appropriate course of action as CO2 retention is likely due to exhaustion rather than oxygen therapy. IV Salbutamol is not recommended in current guidelines. The correct answer is to refer the patient to intensive care as they have near-fatal asthma with worsening symptoms despite nebulisers and steroids.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 93 - A 72-year-old woman in the ICU is extubated eight hours after a Hartmann's...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman in the ICU is extubated eight hours after a Hartmann's procedure. The nurse calls you one hour later to evaluate the patient as she has developed stridor. She has a medical history of chronic asthma. What is a known risk factor for post-extubation stridor (PES)?

      Your Answer: More than 60 years of age

      Correct Answer: Female gender

      Explanation:

      Post-Extubation Stridor: Causes and Risk Factors

      Post-extubation stridor (PES) is a common complication that occurs in 2-16% of intubation cases. It is caused by inflammation and swelling of the larynx due to damage to the mucosa. This damage is caused by pressure and lack of blood flow, leading to an inflammatory response. In severe cases, laryngeal edema can cause acute respiratory distress, requiring emergency reintubation.

      Female gender is a significant risk factor for both laryngeal edema and PES. This may be due to the female mucous membrane being thinner and more susceptible to trauma than that of men. Other risk factors include intubation lasting more than 36 hours, excessive cuff pressure, large tube size, and tracheal infection. However, age and asthma are not known to be risk factors for PES. It is essential to identify these risk factors to prevent and manage PES effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 94 - A 65-year-old female smoker presents with a 3-day history of loss of sensation...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female smoker presents with a 3-day history of loss of sensation of both her lower legs. She also reports a 1-stone (6.53 kg) weight loss and unresolving cough over the last month. Her chest X-ray shows a large hilar mass, not seen on a chest X-ray from 2 months ago. She has no other past medical history and is not on any medication.

      On examination, she has loss of light touch and pain sensation in a stocking distribution, reduced air entry in her right chest, palpable supraclavicular lymph node and a large craggy liver edge.

      Investigations reveal the following:

      Investigation Result Normal Value
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 116 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Platelets (PLT) 347 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 65-year-old female smoker?

      Your Answer: Small-cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Lung Cancer Symptoms

      Possible diagnoses for a patient with lung cancer symptoms include small-cell carcinoma, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, adenocarcinoma, sarcoid, and squamous cell carcinoma. Small-cell carcinoma is the most likely diagnosis due to the rapid progression and spread of the pathology, as well as the probable paraneoplastic peripheral neuropathy. This type of lung cancer is closely associated with smoking and often presents with unilateral hilar enlargement, a perihilar or mediastinal mass, or a central lesion with satellite lesions elsewhere in the thorax. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma may also be a possibility, as the rapid spread of disease would be associated with an abnormal full blood count. Adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma are both slower growing and typically present as a peripheral or central mass lesion on chest X-ray. Sarcoid, while it could cause the neurology seen, would present with a smooth, enlarged granulomatous liver and widespread generalised lymphadenopathy rather than the craggy liver edge and isolated palpable supraclavicular lymph node noted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 95 - A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe shortness of breath. He has a medical history of COPD, type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Upon examination, he appears very breathless and drowsy, with bilateral crackles and wheeze audible on auscultation. Despite treatment with nebulisers, steroids, antibiotics and fluids, he remains in type 2 respiratory failure with acidosis.

      Arterial blood gas on admission:
      pH 7.32
      pO2 7.3kPa
      pCO2 8.1kPa
      HCO3- 25 mmol/L

      Arterial blood gas at two hours:
      pH 7.30
      pO2 8.2kPa
      pCO2 9.6kPa
      HCO3- 26mmol/L

      He is started on non-invasive ventilation with a bi-level positive airway pressure. What initial settings would be most appropriate for IPAP and EPAP?

      Your Answer: IPAP 15cmH2O and EPAP 3cmH2O

      Explanation:

      According to the British Thoracic Society, the recommended starting IPAP for BiPAP in COPD is 15cmH2O. However, if the patient’s pH is less than 7.25, the IPAP should be increased to 20cmH2O. For neuromuscular disease requiring NIV, a starting IPAP of 10cmH2O is appropriate.

      The recommended starting EPAP is 3cmH2O, unless obstructive sleep apnea is expected. However, it is common practice to start with an IPAP of 10cmH2O and an EPAP of 4cmH2O. In either case, the IPAP should be gradually increased to a maximum of 20cmH2O or as high as the patient can tolerate.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 96 - A 65-year-old man is admitted with an infective exacerbation of COPD. He normally...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is admitted with an infective exacerbation of COPD. He normally has a productive cough but has been bringing up large quantities of sputum and estimates about 1 cup of yellow sputum with streaks of blood being produced a day.

      He takes steroid nose drops and had endoscopic surgery for recurrent sinusitis 5 years ago. He lives alone independently and drives a car. He can usually walk 50-100 metres on the flat.

      He arrives to the emergency department in extremis. There is accessory muscle use and widespread coarse crepitations in both lungs. His heart sounds are normal with no signs of cardiac failure. He is started on antibiotics, steroids, aminophylline and back to back nebulisers. He continues to produce lots of phlegm and the nurses suction to clear a yellow mucoid substance from his mouth. He responds to commands, his eyes open to voice. and he is talking in normal words but his thoughts are incoherent. He is started on non invasive ventilation and tolerates the mask. He continues to cough producing a 20ml plug of sputum with dried clot whilst given his first nebuliser. The respiratory registrar decides that NIV should be stopped.

      Na+ 139 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 4.3 mmol/l
      Creatinine 76 µmol/l
      CRP 189 mmol mg/l

      Hb 90 g/l
      Platelets 178 * 109/l
      WBC 23 * 109/l

      ABG (in air)
      pH 7.39
      pCO2 7.37 kPa
      pO2 6.9 kPa
      HCO3 25 mmol/l
      Lactate 2.3 mmol/l

      Chest x-ray bilateral alveolar shadowing

      What is the contraindication to non invasive ventilation in this case?

      Your Answer: Level of consciousness

      Correct Answer: Copious secretions

      Explanation:

      Non-invasive ventilation should not be used in patients with copious secretions. Before considering non-invasive ventilation, it is important to carefully evaluate for contraindications. The patient must be awake and able to protect their airway, which this man appears to be able to do with a Glasgow Coma Score of 13. Although the patient is on maximal medical therapy, there are limited additional agents that would be beneficial. While the patient had ENT surgery in the past, there is no current head or neck trauma that would prevent the use of non-invasive ventilation. However, the patient is producing large amounts of sputum/secretions, which could potentially compromise their airway. It is unclear from the question whether the patient has capacity, but given their good premorbid function, active treatment would likely be in their best interest.

      Guidelines for Non-Invasive Ventilation in Acute Respiratory Failure

      Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) is a technique used to support breathing without the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Royal College of Physicians have published guidelines on the use of NIV in acute respiratory failure. The key indications for NIV include COPD with respiratory acidosis, type II respiratory failure due to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease or obstructive sleep apnoea, cardiogenic pulmonary oedema unresponsive to CPAP, and weaning from tracheal intubation.

      The BTS guidelines recommend using NIV in patients with a pH of 7.25-7.35, but caution that more monitoring and a lower threshold for intubation should be used in patients with a pH below 7.25. The recommended initial settings for bi-level pressure support in COPD include an expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) of 4-5 cm H2O, an inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) of 12-15 cm H2O (BTS) or 10 cm H2O (RCP), a back-up rate of 15 breaths/min, and a back-up inspiration:expiration ratio of 1:3.

      Overall, these guidelines provide healthcare professionals with a framework for the safe and effective use of NIV in acute respiratory failure.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 97 - A 37-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic with a 6-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic with a 6-week history of progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough. She has a recent diagnosis of asthma and is taking regular salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers, but reports little improvement in her symptoms. She denies any fever or weight loss and has no history of smoking or allergies.

      During examination, diffuse expiratory wheeze is noted, but no audible crackles. Cardiovascular examination is unremarkable.

      Laboratory tests reveal a Hb of 136 g/L (115 - 160), platelets of 201 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC of 9.1 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), lymphocytes of 1.6 * 109/L (1.5 - 4.5), neutrophils of 5.5 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.5), eosinophils of 1.2 * 109/L (0 - 0.4), and a CRP of 12 mg/L (< 5). Aspergillus IgE is raised.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is the likely diagnosis for this patient, presenting with symptoms similar to asthma such as dyspnoea, dry cough and wheeze. ABPA is often misdiagnosed as asthma, but standard asthma treatments are ineffective. Blood tests show raised eosinophil count and IgE level, which support the diagnosis of ABPA. Oral prednisolone is the preferred treatment to clear pulmonary infiltrates. Intravenous amphotericin B is not routinely given for Aspergillus infections, and intravenous co-trimoxazole and methylprednisolone are used for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP), which is unlikely in this patient’s case. Increasing the dose of inhaled corticosteroids or adding a leukotriene antagonist is not appropriate for ABPA.

      Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a condition caused by an allergy to Aspergillus spores. Patients with ABPA often have a history of bronchiectasis and eosinophilia. The symptoms of ABPA include bronchoconstriction, which can cause wheezing, coughing, and difficulty breathing. Patients may have previously been diagnosed with asthma. ABPA can also cause bronchiectasis in the proximal airways.

      To diagnose ABPA, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a flitting chest X-ray, a positive radioallergosorbent (RAST) test to Aspergillus, and a positive IgG precipitins test. Patients with ABPA may also have elevated levels of eosinophils and IgE.

      The treatment for ABPA typically involves oral glucocorticoids, which can help reduce inflammation in the airways. In some cases, itraconazole may be introduced as a second-line agent. With proper treatment, most patients with ABPA can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

      Overall, ABPA is a condition that can cause significant respiratory symptoms and complications. However, with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 98 - A 57-year-old man with severe asthma presents with two days of shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with severe asthma presents with two days of shortness of breath and tightness in his chest. He has a history of multiple exacerbations and was intubated four months ago for a severe exacerbation. He is currently taking montelukast, beclometasone and salbutamol.

      Upon arrival, he is cyanosed and his oxygen saturation is at 92% in air. He is using accessory muscles and is unable to speak beyond groans. His respiratory rate is 22/min and there is a quiet wheeze heard bilaterally in his chest. Despite nebulisers, steroids and magnesium sulfate, he has not responded. He is scheduled for intubation and the initiation of aminophylline.

      What is the essential recording to make when administering aminophylline?

      Your Answer: Cardiac monitor

      Explanation:

      Cardiac monitoring is necessary when administering a loading dose of aminophylline.

      Aminophylline is a type of methylxanthine that functions as a phosphodiesterase inhibitor and adenosine receptor antagonist. As a result, it can have the opposite effect of adenosine on the heart and cause tachyarrhythmias. Therefore, when administering a loading dose of aminophylline, it is essential to have a cardiac monitor in place. If the patient is already taking theophylline, aminophylline levels may need to be checked to ensure maintenance levels are appropriate. Although aminophylline can cause hypokalaemia, cardiac monitoring takes precedence over monitoring for this side effect. While aminophylline can also affect the liver, monitoring of liver function tests is typically not necessary.

      Aminophylline infusions are utilized to manage acute asthma and COPD. In patients who have not received xanthines (theophylline or aminophylline) before, a loading dose of 5mg/kg is administered through a slow intravenous injection lasting at least 20 minutes. For the maintenance infusion, 1g of aminophylline is mixed with 1 litre of normal saline to create a solution of 1 mg/ml. The recommended dose is 500-700 mcg/kg/hour, or 300 mcg/kg/hour for elderly patients. It is important to monitor plasma theophylline concentrations.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 99 - A 30-year-old man presents to the respiratory ward with acute chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the respiratory ward with acute chest pain and difficulty breathing. He has no significant medical history. Upon examination, there is decreased air entry in the left lung and hyper-resonance upon percussion. A chest x-ray confirms the suspected diagnosis, and he undergoes pleural aspiration and is observed for 24 hours.

      During his hospital stay, the patient's symptoms resolve, and his vital signs return to normal. A follow-up chest x-ray shows no abnormalities, and he is deemed medically fit for discharge. However, the patient mentions that he has a trip planned to Brazil in two days and asks if it is safe to travel.

      What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer: Able to fly in 1 week

      Explanation:

      If a chest x-ray shows resolution, patients with pneumothorax can fly 1 week after treatment according to current guidance from the British thoracic society. This patient’s clinical history, examination, and investigation findings suggest a spontaneous, primary pneumothorax, which may require needle aspiration if large enough. Pleurodesis is not necessary for this patient as their chest x-ray shows resolution. Patients with traumatic pneumothorax should wait 2 weeks after chest x-ray confirmation of resolution before flying. Previous guidelines recommended waiting 6 weeks before air travel, but this has since been updated to 1 week.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 20-year-old Caucasian male presents with a two-day history of epigastric pain accompanied...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old Caucasian male presents with a two-day history of epigastric pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. He was admitted under the surgical team for management of acute pancreatitis due to an elevated serum amylase level. The surgical team has requested a medical consult as the patient reports a worsening productive cough.

      During your assessment, the patient reports that this is his third presentation with acute pancreatitis. He does not consume alcohol, and an ultrasound of the abdomen did not reveal any gallstones. The cough has been present for several months, initially dry but now productive of green sputum with no haemoptysis. He denies fever, chills, chest pain, and dyspnoea. Three weeks ago, he received a course of oral antibiotics from his General Practitioner after presenting with nasal congestion and mild facial pain. He states having had multiple courses of antibiotics in the past for similar presentations.

      There is no significant past medical history or family history.

      The patient takes no regular medications and has been receiving simple analgesia and intravenous crystalloid fluids under the surgical team's care. He is a lifelong non-smoker and works full time in administration.

      On examination, the patient's height was 178cm with a weight of 58kg, heart rate 90/minute, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, temperature 37.2ºC, respiratory rate 16/min, and oxygen saturation 94% on room air. Respiratory examination revealed early clubbing, no cervical lymphadenopathy, a central trachea, normal chest expansion, mild coarse inspiratory crepitations that improved somewhat after coughing at both posterior bases. Abdominal examination revealed mild epigastric tenderness but no signs of peritonism. Remaining clinical examination was unremarkable.

      Lab results showed Hb 130 g/l, Na+ 136 mmol/l, Platelets 400 * 109/l, K+ 4 mmol/l, WBC 12 * 109/l, Urea 6 mmol/l, Neuts 10 * 109/l, Creatinine 65 µmol/l, Lymphs 1 * 109/l, and CRP 30 mg/l. Chest x-ray was normal.

      Sputum microscopy and culture results revealed Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous ceftazidime and nebulised tobramycin for 14 days

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that some patients with cystic fibrosis (CF) may not be diagnosed until they are over 18 years old. With improved diagnosis and treatment, the median age of survival for CF patients has increased to around 40 years, which means that healthcare professionals may encounter adult patients with CF during their clinical practice.

      Patients who were born before neonatal screening became widely available may present with CF in adulthood. These patients may have a milder form of the disease and may not have received medical attention earlier in life. As a result, they may present with other CF complications, such as pancreatitis, sinusitis, intestinal obstruction, or male infertility.

      Chronic infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a major concern for CF patients, as it can lead to a more rapid loss of lung function, frequent pulmonary exacerbations, and a shorter median survival. Once chronic infection has been established, it is difficult to eradicate Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Therefore, it is important to try to eradicate the organism as soon as it is first isolated, which requires aggressive treatment. In the case of a new diagnosis of CF, it should be assumed that any sputum isolate of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is new.

      There is no consensus on the best antimicrobial strategy for eradicating Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Options include a 14-day course of intravenous anti-pseudomonal antibiotics plus inhaled aminoglycoside or a prolonged course of oral Ciprofloxacin (e.g., 6 weeks).

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      115
      Seconds

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