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  • Question 1 - A 6-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a 4-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a 4-day history of fever. She has no medical history, allergies, is developing normally and is up-to-date on her immunizations.

      Vital signs:
      - Respiratory rate: 18
      - SpO2: 97%
      - Heart rate: 95
      - Cap. refill time: 2 sec
      - BP: 112/80 mmHg
      - AVPU: Alert
      - Temperature: 39.2ºC

      During the examination, a rough-textured maculopapular rash is found to be widespread. Her tongue is swollen, red, and covered with white papillae, and her tonsils are erythematosus. All other system examinations are normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever

      Explanation:

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      38.3
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  • Question 2 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Incorrect

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: On fourth day of life

      Correct Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.1
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  • Question 3 - You come across an 11-year-old boy with asthma who has been using a...

    Incorrect

    • You come across an 11-year-old boy with asthma who has been using a salbutamol inhaler for the past year. He reports needing it when he plays sports outside, especially in colder weather. His mother is worried as he has been using it more frequently in the last 6 months and has had to use it at night. She has also noticed that he sometimes wakes up coughing and his wheezing is worse in the morning. On average, he uses his inhaler 3-4 times a week. After examining the patient and finding no abnormalities, what would be the most appropriate next step to step up his treatment?

      Your Answer: Start a paediatric moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroid

      Correct Answer: Start a paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - What is the most frequent location for osteoclastoma to occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent location for osteoclastoma to occur?

      Your Answer: Distal end of the femur.

      Correct Answer: Lower end of femur

      Explanation:

      Distribution and Characteristics of Giant Cell Tumours

      Giant cell tumours, also known as osteoclastomas, are commonly found in the knee area, specifically at the distal femur and proximal tibia. The proximal humerus and distal radius are also common sites for these tumours. In fact, approximately 50% of giant cell tumours are located in the knee area.

      These tumours are usually solitary, with less than 1% being multicentric. It is important to note that giant cell tumours can be benign or malignant, and their treatment depends on their location, size, and aggressiveness. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and ensuring a better prognosis for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - The ward doctor is requested to assess a 24-hour-old neonate, born at 35...

    Correct

    • The ward doctor is requested to assess a 24-hour-old neonate, born at 35 weeks gestation to a healthy mother via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. Upon examination, the neonate appears comfortable. Auscultation of the heart reveals a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left-sided thrill. The apex beat is palpable and appears to be heaving. A widened pulse pressure is observed, but there is no visible cyanosis. An echocardiogram is performed and confirms the diagnosis while ruling out other cardiac issues.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management at this stage, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Indomethacin given to the neonate

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the findings is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). To prompt duct closure in the majority of cases, the appropriate action is to administer indomethacin to the neonate in the postnatal period, not to the mother during the antenatal period. If another defect was present, prostaglandin E1 may be preferred to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Referral for surgery is not necessary at this time. While percutaneous closure may be an option for older children, it is not suitable for neonates.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A mother brings her child to the pediatrician's office concerned about her child's...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her child to the pediatrician's office concerned about her child's development. Her child is 20 months old and has been slow to meet all developmental milestones. Her health visitor advised that she come to see you. You learn that the child has experienced feeding difficulties throughout her life.

      During the examination of the child, you observe that she is drooling and is making lots of slow, writhing movements of her hands and feet. The mother tells you that this is common and that her daughter struggles to hold onto objects such as toys.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ataxic cerebral palsy

      Correct Answer: Dyskinetic cerebral palsy

      Explanation:

      The child in the stem is displaying symptoms of dyskinetic cerebral palsy, which is a subtype of cerebral palsy characterized by athetoid movements and oro-motor problems. The slow writhing movements of the child’s hands and feet and difficulty in holding objects are indicative of athetoid movements, while drooling is a sign of oro-motor problems. Ataxic cerebral palsy, Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, and hydrocephalus are incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the symptoms presented in the stem.

      Understanding Cerebral Palsy

      Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.

      Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.

      Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine 7-week check-up. The baby appears happy and responsive during the assessment. During the examination, you observe weak femoral pulses on both sides. The rest of the examination is normal.

      What is the most suitable course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely to paediatrics

      Correct Answer: Same day discussion with paediatrics

      Explanation:

      If a baby’s femoral pulses are absent or weak during their 6-8 week check, it is important to discuss this immediately with paediatrics. Any signs of a critical or major congenital heart abnormality should also be seen urgently by a specialist. Advising the mother that these findings are normal would be inappropriate, as they are abnormal. While safety netting is important, the child should still be seen urgently by the appropriate specialist. Taking the child to the emergency department is not the best option, as they may not be equipped to deal with this issue and will likely refer to the paediatrics team themselves. Referring routinely to paediatrics or making an appointment in 2 weeks would waste valuable time in a potentially unwell child who needs urgent referral.

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.3
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  • Question 8 - At what age should the oral rotavirus vaccine be administered as part of...

    Incorrect

    • At what age should the oral rotavirus vaccine be administered as part of the NHS immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer: 2 months + 4 months

      Correct Answer: 2 months + 3 months

      Explanation:

      The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Illness and Mortality

      Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. This vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.

      The rotavirus vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%. It is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70% and provides long-term protection against rotavirus. This vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood illness and mortality, particularly in developing countries where access to healthcare may be limited. By ensuring that children receive the rotavirus vaccine, we can help to protect them from this dangerous and potentially deadly virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      593.2
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  • Question 9 - A premature neonate is born at 32 weeks’ gestation and is noted to...

    Incorrect

    • A premature neonate is born at 32 weeks’ gestation and is noted to have low Apgar scores following birth. During a comprehensive review by the neonatology team, an echocardiogram demonstrates very poor right ventricular function. The mother has a history of hypertension and bipolar disease requiring lithium therapy.
      Which one of the following maternal medical complications may have contributed to the infant’s condition?

      Your Answer: Maternal hypertension requiring captopril use

      Correct Answer: Long-standing bipolar disorder therapy

      Explanation:

      Potential Risks and Management of Medical Conditions and Medications During Pregnancy

      Ebstein’s Anomaly and Lithium Use:
      Ebstein’s anomaly, a condition where the tricuspid valve is displaced towards the apex of the right ventricle, is often associated with lithium use. Management includes procainamide and surgical options. It is important to discuss the risk of lithium transmission through breast milk if a patient is taking lithium.

      Maternal Hypertension and Captopril Use:
      Captopril use during pregnancy can affect the fetal renal system and lead to oligohydramnios. It is important to monitor maternal hypertension and consider alternative medications if necessary.

      Heavy Tobacco Use:
      Smoking during pregnancy is associated with growth retardation and placental abruption. It is important to encourage smoking cessation and provide support for patients who are struggling to quit.

      Prior Deep Venous Thrombosis and Warfarin Use:
      Warfarin use during pregnancy is associated with bone abnormalities such as epiphyseal stippling and nasal hypoplasia. Alternative anticoagulation options should be considered during pregnancy.

      Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and Doxycycline Use:
      Doxycycline and other tetracyclines are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their effects on fetal tooth development. However, they have no impact on cardiac development. It is important to consider alternative antibiotics for the treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease during pregnancy.

      Managing Medical Conditions and Medications During Pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A baby boy born 3 weeks ago has been experiencing persistent jaundice since...

    Correct

    • A baby boy born 3 weeks ago has been experiencing persistent jaundice since 72 hours after birth. His parents have observed that he is hesitant to breastfeed and his urine appears dark. During your examination, you confirm that the infant is jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. Upon reviewing his blood work, you find that he has conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. His serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and electrophoresis are normal, and the neonatal heel prick test conducted at birth was negative. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Early surgical treatment

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is the primary cause of prolonged jaundice in this infant, which occurs due to an obstruction in the flow of bile within the extrahepatic biliary system. To confirm the diagnosis, bilirubin levels, liver function tests, and abdominal ultrasound are performed, while alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency and cystic fibrosis are excluded as differential diagnoses. The Kasai procedure, a surgical intervention, is the preferred treatment option to restore bile flow and prevent further hepatic damage. Postoperative management may involve IV antibiotics to manage complications such as ascending cholangitis, while ursodeoxycholic acid may be used to augment weight gain and decrease episodes of cholangitis. Optimizing feeds is also important, but not the primary management option in this case, as the heel prick test has excluded CF. Infusion of alpha-1 antitrypsin is not necessary, as the infant’s serum levels are normal.

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.

      To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.

      Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a 3-day-old boy with respiratory distress due to meconium aspiration. The mother is visibly upset and asks if there was anything she could have done to prevent this.

      After reviewing the medical history, you find that the baby was conceived through in vitro fertilization, there were no complications during the pregnancy, but he was delivered via C-section at 41 weeks with a birth weight of 2.6kg.

      What is the most significant risk factor for meconium aspiration in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Female

      Correct Answer: Post-term delivery

      Explanation:

      Post-term delivery is a major risk factor for meconium aspiration, which is why women are induced following term. Placental insufficiency, not low birth weight, is a consequence of meconium aspiration. The sex of the child and assisted reproduction are not considered independent risk factors. While meconium aspiration may cause distress during labor and potentially result in a Caesarean section, it is not a risk factor on its own.

      Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

      Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.

      There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.

      Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 10-week-old baby is admitted to the Paediatric Ward by her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old baby is admitted to the Paediatric Ward by her General Practitioner (GP). She was born at term via normal vaginal delivery after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Her birthweight was 2900 g. Her 20-week anomaly scan was unremarkable. Her parents inform you that a heart murmur was noted at her 8-week check, for which she is awaiting routine outpatient assessment. Her parents report that, over the last week, she has had episodes of going blue during feeds and friends have remarked that she looks ‘off colour’. She had a similar episode while with her GP, and oxygen saturation was recorded at 88% peripherally. As a result, the GP called 999 and transferred her to hospital. She is growing along the 25th centile. On examination, she is alert with normal vital signs. Heart sounds reveal a loud systolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge; she had palpable femoral pulses bilaterally and very slight cyanosis. Her chest is clear, without recession or signs of distress. Her liver is not enlarged.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart disease that affects around 3-6 out of every 10,000 births. It is characterized by four heart abnormalities that can cause symptoms such as cyanosis, difficulty with feeding, failure to thrive, and Tet spells. Diagnosis is typically made through echocardiography, and surgical correction is usually performed within the first two years of life.

      Cyanotic heart disease can be divided into two groups: those that present in the first week of life and those that present after the first week. Examples of conditions that present in the first week include total pulmonary atresia, tricuspid atresia, and transposition of the great arteries. Examples of conditions that can present after the first week include tetralogy of Fallot, total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage, and tricuspid regurgitation with right-to-left shunt via atrial septal defect.

      Transposition of the great arteries is a cyanotic congenital heart condition where the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary arteries from the left ventricle. It typically presents with central cyanosis within the first day or two of life and is managed with intravenous prostaglandin E1 and balloon atrial septostomy.

      Total pulmonary atresia is a congenital heart abnormality where the pulmonary valve fails to develop, resulting in disrupted blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk. It can occur with or without a ventricular septal defect and is associated with tetralogy of Fallot.

      Ventricular septal defect is a congenital heart defect located in the interventricular septum that allows mixing of blood between the two sides of the heart. Symptoms depend on the size of the defect and can range from asymptomatic to signs of heart failure.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is the failure of closure of the fetal connection between the descending aorta and pulmonary artery. It is not a cyanotic congenital heart defect and can be treated with intravenous indomethacin, cardiac catheterization, or ligation. Symptoms may include decreased exercise tolerance, pulmonary congestion, a cardiac murmur, or heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A diabetic mother gives birth at term to a healthy infant, without complications...

    Correct

    • A diabetic mother gives birth at term to a healthy infant, without complications during pregnancy, nor the birth. A blood test at approximately 3 hours after birth yields the following result:
      Blood glucose 2.2 mmol/L
      On examination, the infant appears well, with expected behaviour and no abnormal findings. The mother reported no problems with the first breastfeed.
      What would be the most appropriate management plan based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Continue monitoring glucose and encourage normal feeding

      Explanation:

      If the neonate is not showing any symptoms and the blood glucose levels are not significantly low, the recommended approach for neonatal hypoglycaemia is to monitor glucose levels and encourage normal feeding. As the mother is diabetic, the neonate is at a higher risk of developing hypoglycaemia. However, administering oral glucose is not necessary at this stage. Admission to the neonatal unit and dextrose infusion would be necessary if the blood glucose levels drop significantly or if the neonate shows symptoms of hypoglycaemia. Intramuscular glucagon would only be considered if the neonate is symptomatic and unable to receive dextrose through IV access. The guidelines do not recommend exclusively bottle-feeding for the next 24 hours.

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 3-year-old child is brought by her mother to the general practice surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought by her mother to the general practice surgery with a 3-day history of fever, irritability and right ear pain, which suddenly became more severe 12 hours ago and then resolved with the onset of a discharge from the right ear. On examination, you find a tympanic membrane with a central perforation.
      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Advise pain relief only and review after 6 weeks to ensure healing

      Correct Answer: Commence oral antibiotics and review after 6 weeks to ensure the perforation is healing

      Explanation:

      Acute otitis media with perforation is an inflammation of the middle ear that lasts less than 3 weeks and is commonly seen in children under 10 years old. It can be caused by viruses or bacteria, with Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and respiratory syncytial virus being the most common culprits. Symptoms include earache, fever, and irritability, and examination reveals a red, cloudy tympanic membrane that may be bulging or perforated. Complications can include temporary hearing loss, mastoiditis, and meningitis. Treatment involves pain relief and a course of oral antibiotics, with routine referral to ENT only necessary for recurrent symptoms or those that fail to resolve with antibiotics. Gentamicin is contraindicated in the presence of a tympanic perforation due to its ototoxicity, and amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 5-year-old girl, who has been wetting the bed at night attends surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl, who has been wetting the bed at night attends surgery today with her grandfather, as her mother is at work. Her grandfather is worried because it was also an issue for her older sister, who is 10-years-old and she is prescribed desmopressin. The girl in front of you is otherwise well and her bowels open regularly. An examination is unremarkable and she has a soft non-tender abdomen.
      What recommendations would you make?

      Your Answer: Bedtime monitor

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and general advice

      Explanation:

      Reassurance and advice can be provided to manage nocturnal enuresis in children under the age of 5 years.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics occurring before?

      Your Answer: 11 years of age

      Correct Answer: 8 years of age

      Explanation:

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever and bleeding gums. Upon examination of his peripheral blood, multiple blasts were observed, some of which displayed Auer rods. Which congenital condition is most strongly linked to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome)

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

      Explanation:

      Congenital syndromes associated with acute myeloblastic leukemia

      Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) can be associated with various congenital syndromes, including severe congenital neutropenia (Kostmann syndrome), Bloom syndrome, Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan syndrome, neurofibromatosis type 1, and Li Fraumeni syndrome. However, Gardner syndrome, or familial colorectal polyposis, is not linked to AML. Trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome) is a chromosomal abnormality that has a poor prognosis but is not typically associated with AML. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, may increase the risk of breast cancer and germ cell tumors, but the evidence for an association with AML is inconclusive. Haemophilia, a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in clotting factors, does not predispose to AML or mucosal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father. He has noticed a red rash on the flexor aspects of her knees and on the neck and reports she is constantly trying to scratch. On examination the child appears well. There is evidence of excoriation over red patches of dry skin but there is no crusting or evidence of infection. A diagnosis of eczema is made. What is the first line treatment in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Bandages and dressings

      Correct Answer: Topical emollients

      Explanation:

      When managing eczema in children who have just been diagnosed and have not received any treatment, the initial step is to prescribe topical emollients as the first-line treatment. If the symptoms persist, topical steroids can be used in conjunction with emollients, but it is important to ensure that emollients are used before adding steroids.

      Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 6-year-old boy visits his GP with a productive cough and wheeze. During...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy visits his GP with a productive cough and wheeze. During the examination, a 1/6 intensity systolic murmur is detected in the second intercostal space lateral to the left sternal edge. The murmur is not audible when the child lies flat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Innocent murmur

      Explanation:

      The innocent murmur is the correct answer. It is characterized by being soft, systolic, short, symptomless, and varying with position when standing or sitting. In contrast, coarctation of the aorta produces an ejection systolic murmur that can be heard through to the back and does not change with position. This condition is also associated with hypertension in the upper extremities and a difference in blood pressure between the arms and legs. Ventricular septal defect presents as a pansystolic murmur, while atrial septal defect is an ejection systolic murmur that is often accompanied by fixed splitting of the 2nd heart sound.

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.

      An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.

      Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - Which statement regarding ventricular septal defect (VSD) is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding ventricular septal defect (VSD) is correct?

      Your Answer: There is no risk of bacterial endocarditis

      Correct Answer: There may be a diastolic murmur at the apex

      Explanation:

      Ventricular Septal Defects

      Ventricular septal defects (VSDs) are a type of congenital heart defect that can cause a diastolic murmur. This murmur can occur due to aortic incompetence or increased flow across the mitral valve, which can lead to relative mitral stenosis. In some cases, right to left shunting can occur, which can cause cerebral abscesses.

      While large VSDs may be associated with soft murmurs, pulmonary hypertension can occur in association with increased flow across the shunt. However, it may also indicate decreased flow across the shunt and increased pulmonary vascular resistance, which can result in a softer murmur.

      It’s important to note that the risk of bacterial endocarditis is high in individuals with VSDs, even those with haemodynamically trivial lesions. Therefore, it’s crucial to monitor and manage this condition carefully.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. Her...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. Her temperature is 38.5ºC and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute.

      During the examination, you observe that her left leg is warm and swollen with purple discoloration. On the back of her leg, her skin is peeling, and a deep, erythematosus, diffuse, grey soft wound is visible with white discharge.

      When you ask her father about her medical history, he mentions that there was an outbreak of chickenpox at her school. He first noticed the wound on her leg three days ago.

      Her Hb is 115 g/L (110-140), platelets are 140* 109/L (150 - 450), and WBC is 16 * 109/L (5-12 * 109).

      What is the most likely complication?

      Your Answer: Necrotising fasciitis

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox and its Complications

      Chickenpox can lead to various complications, including invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections such as necrotizing fasciitis. This rare complication of the varicella-zoster virus causes painful lesions on the skin and underlying muscles, with systemic symptoms and open wounds. Diagnosis is made by passing a probe or gloved finger below the affected skin, causing it to separate from the underlying tissue.

      Another complication caused by group A streptococcus is cellulitis, which affects the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It presents with erythema, pain, swelling, and warmth, without systemic symptoms. Erysipelas, on the other hand, is a bacterial infection that affects the superficial layer of the dermis and commonly affects superficial cutaneous lymphatics. It presents similarly to cellulitis but has well-defined borders and can be a rare complication of chickenpox.

      Henoch-Schonlein Purpura is an IgA-mediated vasculitis of the small vessels of the skin. It can rarely present as a complication of chickenpox with a widespread rash on the buttocks and lower thigh, abdominal pain, and joint pain. Reyes syndrome is another complication that commonly presents after a recent viral infection such as chickenpox. It is also thought to be triggered by aspirin use, which is often used to treat the symptoms of chickenpox, such as headaches. It presents with tachypnea, tiredness, and in severe cases can cause behavioral changes and coma. However, in this case, the patient only presents with tachypnea, and there is no evidence to suggest the use of aspirin.

      Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.

      Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia

      Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2...

    Incorrect

    • As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2 weeks vaginally and without any complications. The parents of the child have a concern that their child might have achondroplasia as the child's father has been diagnosed with this condition. Apart from measuring the child's length, what other physical characteristic should you look for to determine if the child has achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: Low set ears

      Correct Answer: Trident hand deformity

      Explanation:

      Identifying physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for exam purposes and diagnosis. One such feature of achondroplasia is trident hands, characterized by short, stubby fingers with a gap between the middle and ring fingers. Other physical features include short limbs (rhizomelia), lumbar lordosis, and midface hypoplasia. Fragile X syndrome is associated with low set ears, while Down’s syndrome is characterized by saddle-gap deformity and a single palmar crease. It is important to note that achondroplasia is characterized by macrocephaly with frontal bossing, not microcephaly.

      Understanding Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.

      In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.

      Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 6-year-old boy is discovered to have an incidental murmur. He is healthy...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is discovered to have an incidental murmur. He is healthy and progressing normally. The first heart sound is regular, but the second heart sound appears to be broadly split, and this splitting is unchanging regardless of inhalation or exhalation. A faint mid-systolic murmur is heard over the pulmonary region. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals an rSr' pattern in V1 and prominent P waves. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defects (ASDs) are often asymptomatic and produce fixed splitting of the second heart sound. They are of three types and are often picked up during auscultation. The rSr change on the ECG can be caused by ASDs, right ventricular hypertrophy, or pulmonary embolus. The mechanism resulting in splitting of the heart sounds in ASDs is due to the difference in compliance between the left and right ventricles. The extra flow through the right side due to an ASD causes the splitting to be widened, and the lack of variation with ventilation suggests an intra-atrial connection is the cause. ASDs can lead to right ventricular failure and paradoxical embolisation of venous clots into the systemic circulation.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - Which one of the following is not included in the Apgar score for...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not included in the Apgar score for evaluating a neonate?

      Your Answer: Tone

      Correct Answer: Capillary refill time

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a barking cough. Their parent says they make a loud noise when they breathe in and their symptoms are worse at night. They have a temperature of 38.5 °C.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Inspiratory Stridor and Barking Cough

      Croup is a common respiratory illness in children under 2 years old, characterized by inspiratory stridor and a barking cough. Other symptoms include hoarseness, fever, and dyspnea, which are usually worse at night. The illness can last up to 7 days, with the first 24-48 hours being the most severe.

      Asthma, on the other hand, presents differently with wheezing and chest tightness, rather than inspiratory stridor. While shortness of breath, especially at night, is a common symptom, it does not account for the fever.

      Simple viral cough is a possible differential, but the absence of other systemic symptoms makes croup more likely.

      Whooping cough is not indicated by this history.

      Bronchiolitis usually presents less acutely, with difficulty feeding and general malaise during the incubation period, followed by dyspnea and wheezing. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother reports a 3-day illness with cough and cold symptoms, low-grade fever and increasing difficulty breathing this morning. He has had no similar episodes. The family are all non-smokers and there is no history of atopy. His immunisations are up-to-date and he is otherwise growing and developing normally.
      In the Emergency Department, he was given burst therapy and is now on one-hourly salbutamol inhalers. On examination, he is alert and playing. Heart rate (HR) 150 bpm, respiratory rate (RR) 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on air. There is mild subcostal recession, and his chest shows good air entry bilaterally, with mild wheeze throughout.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Add prednisolone for 3 days

      Correct Answer: Stretch to 2-hourly salbutamol and add 10 mg soluble prednisone for 3 days

      Explanation:

      Management of Viral-Induced Wheeze in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Viral-induced wheeze is a common presentation of wheeze in preschool children, typically associated with a viral infection. Inhaled b2 agonists are the first line of treatment, given hourly during acute episodes. However, for children with mild symptoms and maintaining saturations above 92%, reducing the frequency of salbutamol to 2-hourly and gradually weaning off may be appropriate. Steroid tablet therapy is recommended for use in hospital settings and early management of asthma symptoms in this age group. It is important to establish a personal and family history of atopy, as a wheeze is more likely to be induced by asthma if it occurs when the child is otherwise well. Oxygen via nasal cannulae is not necessary for mild symptoms. Prednisolone may be added for 3 days with a strong history of atopy, while montelukast is given for 5 days to settle inflammation in children without atopy. Atrovent® nebulisers are not typically used in the treatment of viral-induced wheeze but may be useful in children with atopy history where salbutamol fails to reduce symptoms.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 6-week-old baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit with a 2-day history of frequent vomiting and a 5-hour history of no wet nappies. He appears lethargic and weak. However, his mother reports that he still seems hungry and is attempting to breastfeed in between bouts of vomiting. What diagnostic tool should be employed to determine the underlying cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The primary diagnostic tool for pyloric stenosis is an abdominal ultrasound scan. This condition is characterized by projectile vomiting and constant hunger in infants, and ultrasound can reveal a thickened pyloric muscle, often with a target sign. Although it is more common in boys aged 3-6 weeks, it can also occur in older infants of either gender. The treatment is typically Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy, which can be performed laparoscopically. Abdominal X-rays are not as useful for diagnosis, as they do not provide clear visualization of the pylorus. While abdominal examination may reveal an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen, ultrasound is still the preferred diagnostic method. Arterial blood gas tests are important for managing the condition, as vomiting can lead to metabolic alkalosis and electrolyte imbalances.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. For the...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. For the past few days, she has been experiencing pain while walking. Her father is concerned as this has never happened before and he cannot think of any reason for it.
      During the examination, the girl refuses to walk. Her vital signs are stable, except for a temperature of 38ºC. On examining her legs, there is no visible inflammation, but the left hip is tender. When attempting to move the left leg, the child screams in pain. The right leg appears to be normal. She has no medical history and is not taking any medications.
      What is the most appropriate management for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Arrange urgent orthopaedic outpatient appointment

      Correct Answer: Advise to attend the emergency department

      Explanation:

      If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and has a fever, it is important to refer them for same-day assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.

      The correct course of action in this case is to advise the patient to attend the emergency department. Although the patient appears to be well, the presence of a fever raises concerns about septic arthritis, which can cause long-term complications. Further investigations cannot be performed in a general practice setting, making it necessary to seek urgent medical attention.

      Advising the patient to attend a local minor injury unit is not appropriate, as the staff there would most likely transfer the patient to an emergency department, causing unnecessary delays. Similarly, arranging an urgent orthopaedic outpatient appointment is not appropriate in this acute situation.

      Prescribing aspirin and providing a safety net is not a suitable option, as aspirin should never be given to children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. It is also unwise to exclude septic arthritis without further supporting evidence.

      Finally, growing pains are an unlikely diagnosis in this case, as they are typically bilateral and do not interfere with daily activities.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - A 9-year-old boy presents with colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea over...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy presents with colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea over the past 3 days. The child’s mother reports that the diarrhoea is associated with passage of blood and mucous. He also had arthralgia of the knees, elbows, ankles, and wrists. On examination, there is an obvious palpable purpuric rash on his extremities. Investigations revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 120 g/l 115–140 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l 5.5–15.5 × 109/l
      Platelet count 350 × 109/l 150-–400 × 109/l
      BUN (blood urea nitrogen) 6.3 mmol/l 1.8–6.4 mmol/l
      Serum creatinine 89.3 μmol/l 20–80 μmol/l
      Urine analysis shows: Microscopic haematuria and proteinuria 1+
      After a few days the child recovered completely without any treatment.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: A Vasculitis Condition in Children

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as anaphylactoid purpura, is a type of small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects children between the ages of 4 to 7 years. The condition is characterized by palpable purpura, which is usually distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities, as well as arthralgia, gastrointestinal symptoms, and glomerulonephritis.

      Patients with HSP typically experience polyarthralgia without frank arthritis, as well as colicky abdominal pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation. In some cases, patients may also pass blood and mucous per rectum, which can lead to bowel intussusception.

      Renal involvement occurs in 10-50% of patients with HSP and is usually characterized by mild glomerulonephritis, which can lead to proteinuria and microscopic hematuria with red blood cell casts.

      It is important to differentiate HSP from other conditions with similar symptoms, such as acute bacillary dysentery, hemolytic uremic syndrome, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. By ruling out these conditions, healthcare providers can provide appropriate treatment and management for patients with HSP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 7-year-old girl presents with a 7-day history of an itchy rash, initially...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with a 7-day history of an itchy rash, initially on her abdomen and now spreading across the rest of her torso and limbs. She is usually healthy and not taking any medications, and her family members are also well. Upon examination, she appears unwell and has a fever of 38.5 °C. There is a widespread vesicular rash with some papules and crusting, as well as newer papules. The skin is generally red, and there is some discharge from the vesicles. Physical examination reveals tender and swollen lymph nodes. She cries out in pain when you attempt to touch the vesicles as they are very sensitive to the touch.

      What is the next best course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous flucloxacillin and acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chickenpox with Bacterial Superinfection

      Chickenpox is a common viral infection in children that presents with a vesicular rash and fever. While it is usually self-limiting, complications such as bacterial superinfection can arise. In such cases, treatment with antibiotics and acyclovir is necessary. Intravenous flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic in this scenario. Zoster immunoglobulin is only given in specific cases of exposure to varicella-zoster. Calamine lotion and chlorphenamine can provide symptomatic relief but are not treatment options. Oral acyclovir is only recommended for children who present within 24 hours of rash eruption or are at increased risk of complications, but in cases of bacterial superinfection, combination therapy is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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