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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?

      Your Answer: hypercalcemia is commonly seen

      Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
      SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
      Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
      Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
      Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      27.5
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health screen. Which one of the following biochemical findings would be most suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism rather than any other cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Serum PTH concentration within the normal range

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is diagnosed based upon levels of blood calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). In most people with PHPT, both levels are higher than normal. Occasionally, a person may have an elevated calcium level and a normal or minimally elevated PTH level. Since PTH should normally be low when calcium is elevated, a minimally elevated PTH is considered abnormal and indicates PHPT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      30.7
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  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone; however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors.
      The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.5
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E with fever, cough, vomiting and abdominal pain. Examination reveals a dry mucosa, decreased skin turgor and a temperature of 37.8 °C. Chest examination reveals bronchial breathing in the right lower lobe, and a chest X-ray shows it to be due to a right lower zone consolidation. Other investigations show: Blood glucose: 35 mmol/L, Na+: 132 mmol/L, K+: 5.5 mmol/L, urea: 8.0 mmol/L, creatinine: 120 μmol/L, pH: 7.15, HCO3: 12 mmol/L, p(CO2): 4.6 kPa, chloride: 106 mmol/l. Urinary ketones are positive (+++). The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated. Which of the following should not be used while treating him?

      Your Answer: iv Fluids

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate therapy is not indicated in mild and moderate forms of DKA because metabolic acidosis will correct with insulin therapy. The use of bicarbonate in severe DKA is controversial due to a lack of prospective randomized studies. It is thought that the administration of bicarbonate may actually result in peripheral hypoxemia, worsening of hypokalaemia, paradoxical central nervous system acidosis, cerebral oedema in children and young adults, and an increase in intracellular acidosis. Because severe acidosis is associated with worse clinical outcomes and can lead to impairment in sensorium and deterioration of myocardial contractility, bicarbonate therapy may be indicated if the pH is 6.9 or less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      44.8
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  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne....

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic with excessive hairiness and acne. She tells you that she has a period only every few months and when she has one it tends to be very heavy. On examination, she has obvious facial acne. Her BP is 142/78 mmHg, her pulse is 72bpm and regular and her BMI is 30. There is facial hair and hair around her upper chest and breasts. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 11.9 g/dl (11.5-16.0), White cell count 6.0 x 10(9)/l (4-11), Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400), Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 90 µmol/l (79-118), Total testosterone normal, Free androgen index elevated, LH / FSH ratio 2.2. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome:
      Two of the following three criteria are required:
      1. Oligo/anovulation
      2. Hyperandrogenism
      – Clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or
      – Biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
      Other aetiologies must be excluded such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen-secreting tumours, Cushing syndrome, thyroid dysfunction and hyperprolactinaemia.
      Cushing’s is excluded because there would have been marked obesity, hypertension and other related features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26.3
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He is currently managed with metformin 1 g BD and feels that his home blood glucose monitoring has deteriorated over the past few months. There is a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia for which he takes Ramipril 10 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg. On examination, his BP is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 71 and regular. His chest is clear. His BMI is 32. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.9 g/dl (13.5 – 17.7), White cell count 5.0 x109/l (4 – 11), Platelets 180 x109/l (150 – 400), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135 – 146), Potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5 – 5), Creatinine 123 mmol/l (79 – 118), HbA1c 8.0% (<7.0). He would like to start sitagliptin. Which of the following adverse effects would you warn him about?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Sitagliptin-induced pancreatitis can occur at any time after the initiation of therapy, even after several years. Patients taking sitagliptin who present with signs and symptoms of mild or severe pancreatitis should immediately discontinue sitagliptin and use an alternate medication regimen for control of type 2 diabetes.
      In response to pancreatitis reported in post-marketing surveillance through the Adverse Event Reporting System (AERS), the FDA has issued revised prescribing information for sitagliptin stating that cases of acute pancreatitis have been reported with use, to monitor closely for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis, and to use sitagliptin with caution in patients with a history of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      46.6
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  • Question 7 - Regarding the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus, which of the following is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Concordance between identical twins is higher in type 2 diabetes mellitus than type 1

      Explanation:

      Type 1 diabetes is a chronic illness characterized by the body’s inability to produce insulin due to the autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas. Approximately 95% of patients with type 1 DM have either HLA-DR3 or HLA-DR4. Although the genetic aspect of type 1 DM is complex, with multiple genes involved, there is a high sibling relative risk. Whereas dizygotic twins have a 5-6% concordance rate for type 1 DM, monozygotic twins will share this diagnosis more than 50% of the time by the age of 40 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      33.1
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  • Question 8 - A 60–year-old woman comes to the hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 60–year-old woman comes to the hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. On examination, her pulse is 120 bpm and regular and BP is 90/60. Her JVP is not seen, her heart sounds are normal, and her chest is clear. There is evidence of a right mastectomy. Abdominal and neurological examination is normal. Short synacthen test was ordered and the results came as follows: Time (min): 0, 30, 60. Cortisol (nmol/l): 90, 130, 145. Which two of the following would be your immediate management?

      Your Answer: Intravenous dextrose six-hourly

      Correct Answer: Intravenous normal saline 1l in first hour

      Explanation:

      Synacthen test interpretation:
      – Basal Cortisol level should be greater than 180nmol/L
      – 30min or 60min Cortisol should be greater than 420nmol/L (whatever the basal level)
      – The increment should be at least 170nmol/L, apart from in severely ill patients where adrenal output is already maximal.
      The patient’s results show that she has Acute Adrenal Insufficiency
      The guidelines include the following recommendations for emergency treatment:
      Administer hydrocortisone: Immediate bolus injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenously or intramuscularly followed by continuous intravenous infusion of 200 mg hydrocortisone per 24 hours (alternatively, 50 mg hydrocortisone per intravenous or intramuscular injection every 6 h)
      Rehydrate with rapid intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of isotonic saline infusion within the first hour, followed by further intravenous rehydration as required (usually 4-6 L in 24 h; monitor for fluid overload in case of renal impairment and elderly patients)
      Contact an endocrinologist for urgent review of the patient, advice on further tapering of hydrocortisone, and investigation of the underlying cause of the disease, including the diagnosis of primary versus secondary adrenal insufficiency
      Tapering of hydrocortisone can be started after clinical recovery guided by an endocrinologist; in patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, mineralocorticoid replacement must be initiated (starting dose 100 μg fludrocortisone once daily) as soon as the daily glucocorticoid dose is below 50 mg of hydrocortisone every 24 hours

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      64.1
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  • Question 9 - In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?

      Your Answer: Chronic renal failure (CRF)

      Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.
      Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.

      Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.2
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and dyspnoea over the past month. She has a history of toxic multinodular goitre successfully treated with radioiodine. On examination, she has a firm asymmetrical swelling of the thyroid gland. Laryngoscopy demonstrates a right vocal cord paralysis and apparent external compression of the trachea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      Thyroid malignancies are divided into papillary carcinomas (80%), follicular carcinomas (10%), medullary thyroid carcinomas (5-10%), anaplastic carcinomas (1-2%), primary thyroid lymphomas (rare), and primary thyroid sarcomas (rare).
      Hürthle cell carcinoma is a rare thyroid malignancy that is often considered a variant of follicular carcinoma.
      – Papillary and Follicular carcinoma are slow-growing tumours
      – Sporadic cases of Medullary thyroid carcinoma also typically manifest with painless solitary thyroid nodules in the early stages.
      – Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma has the most aggressive biologic behaviour of all thyroid malignancies and has one of the worst survival rates of all malignancies in general. It manifests as a rapidly growing thyroid mass in contrast to a well-differentiated carcinoma, which are comparatively slow-growing. Patients commonly present with associated symptoms due to local invasion. Hoarseness and dyspnoea resulting from the involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and airway occur in as many as 50% of patients.
      – Almost all patients with primary thyroid lymphoma have either a clinical history or histological evidence of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. The risk of primary thyroid lymphoma increases 70-fold in patients with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis compared with the general population. Regional and distant lymphadenopathy is common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      27.6
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with her third urinary tract infection...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with her third urinary tract infection in as many months. She has type-2 diabetes and started Empagliflozin (a sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor) 4 months ago. You suspect recurrent urinary tract infections secondary to her empagliflozin. Where is the main site of action of the drug?

      Your Answer: Early proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Selective sodium-glucose transporter-2 (SGLT2) is expressed in the proximal renal tubules and is responsible for the majority of the reabsorption of filtered glucose from the tubular lumen.
      Empagliflozin; SGLT2 inhibitors reduce glucose reabsorption and lower the renal threshold for glucose, thereby increasing urinary glucose excretion, thus increasing the risk of urinary tract infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      45.4
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  • Question 12 - A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea. Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?

      Your Answer: Luteinising hormone

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.
      Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months; progestin can be added later.

      In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.

      Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.7
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  • Question 13 - A 46-year-old woman was referred to the endocrinology department with hypercalcemia and raised...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman was referred to the endocrinology department with hypercalcemia and raised parathyroid hormone levels. Her blood tests are highly suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism. She has type 2 diabetes controlled by metformin alone. Her albumin-adjusted serum calcium level is 3.5 mmol/litre. Which of the following is the most important reason for her referral?

      Your Answer: Persistent hypercalcaemia over 4 years

      Correct Answer: Albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 3.5 mmol/litre

      Explanation:

      Indications for surgery for the treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism:
      1. Symptoms of hypercalcaemia such as thirst, frequent or excessive urination, or constipation
      2. End-organ disease (renal stones, fragility fractures or osteoporosis)
      3. An albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 2.85 mmol/litre or above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      93.3
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  • Question 14 - A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show: Sodium 115 mmol/L...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show: Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Urine sodium 2 mmol/L, Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
      – In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
      – In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains of lethargy and tiredness. He has recently been discharged from the hospital after being admitted to the intensive care unit following a motorbike accident. His thyroid function testing is : TSH 0.3 IU/l (0.5-4.5), Free T4 8 pmol/l (9-25), Free T3 3.1 pmol/l (3.4-7.2). Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subacute thyroiditis

      Correct Answer: Sick euthyroid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Euthyroid sick syndrome (also known as nonthyroidal illness syndrome) can be described as abnormal findings on thyroid function tests that occurs in the setting of a nonthyroidal illness (NTI), without pre-existing hypothalamic-pituitary and thyroid gland dysfunction. After recovery from an NTI, these thyroid function test result abnormalities should be completely reversible.
      Multiple alterations in serum thyroid function test findings have been recognized in patients with a wide variety of NTIs without evidence of pre-existing thyroid or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. The most prominent alterations are low serum triiodothyronine (T3) and elevated reverse T3 (rT3), leading to the general term low T3 syndrome. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), thyroxine (T4), free T4 (FT4), and free T4 index (FTI) also are affected in variable degrees based on the severity and duration of the NTI. As the severity of the NTI increases, both serum T3 and T4 levels drop, but they gradually normalize as the patient recovers.
      Reverse T3 is used to differentiate between this condition and secondary thyroid failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.9
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  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship. What is the best treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone

      Correct Answer: Adequate diet and observation

      Explanation:

      Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.
      Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.
      Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with sweating and palpitations. His blood pressure during the attacks is around 220/120 mmHg. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of catecholamines

      Correct Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests with the following 4 characteristics:
      – Headaches
      – Palpitations
      – Sweating
      – Severe hypertension

      The Endocrine Society, the American Association for Clinical Chemistry, and the European Society of Endocrinology have released clinical practice guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pheochromocytoma.
      Biochemical testing via measurement of plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines should be performed in patients suspected of having pheochromocytoma.

      Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumour, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l. You advise him to start fibrate therapy. Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?

      Your Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis

      Explanation:

      Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
      Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
      1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
      2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
      3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
      4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
      5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has a painless, firm enlarged thyroid gland. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: It is less common in patients with a history of Type-1 diabetes

      Correct Answer: The condition is more likely in those in whom thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies were positive prior to delivery

      Explanation:

      Up to 10% of postpartum women may develop lymphocytic thyroiditis (postpartum thyroiditis) in the 2-12 months after delivery. The frequency may be as high as 25% in women with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

      Some patients return spontaneously to a euthyroid state within a few months, but most patients experience a phase of hypothyroidism that takes 2 to 6 months to resolve; of this group, some develop permanent hypothyroidism. About 50% of patients, however, will develop permanent hypothyroidism within 5 years of the diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis.

      High titres of anti-TPO antibodies during pregnancy have been reported to have high sensitivity and specificity for postpartum autoimmune thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      27.2
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  • Question 20 - All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?

      Your Answer: It is associated with primary metastatic tumours in the gastrointestinal tract

      Correct Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients

      Explanation:

      For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      68.4
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is correct?

      Your Answer: Patients should be warned that hypoglycaemia is the most common side-effect

      Correct Answer: Do not cause weight gain

      Explanation:

      Several dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are in clinical development; these are orally active and increase levels of active glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which in turn increases insulin secretion and reduces glucagon secretion, thereby lowering glucose levels.
      Sitagliptin and vildagliptin both have a long duration of action, allowing once-daily administration. Both sitagliptin and vildagliptin are safe and tolerable with a low risk of hypoglycaemia. In drug-naïve subjects with type 2 diabetes, both sitagliptin and vildagliptin reduce A1C levels by ,1% as monotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7), White cell count 8.2 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 200 x 109/l (150-400), C reactive protein 9 nmol/l (<10), ESR 15 mm/hr (<20), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 92 µmol/l (79-118), Alanine aminotransferase 12 U/l (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 724 U/l (39-117), Calcium 2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Paget disease is a localized disorder of bone remodelling that typically begins with excessive bone resorption followed by an increase in bone formation. This osteoclastic over activity followed by compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to a structurally disorganized mosaic of bone (woven bone), which is mechanically weaker, larger, less compact, more vascular, and more susceptible to fracture than normal adult lamellar bone.
      Approximately 70-90% of persons with Paget disease are asymptomatic; however, a minority of affected individuals experience various symptoms, including the following:
      – Bone pain (the most common symptom)
      – Secondary osteoarthritis (when Paget disease occurs around a joint)
      – Bony deformity (most commonly bowing of an extremity)
      – Excessive warmth (due to hypervascularity)
      – Neurologic complications (caused by the compression of neural tissues)
      Measurement of serum alkaline phosphatase—in some cases, bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (BSAP)—can be useful in the diagnosis of Paget disease. Elevated levels of urinary markers, including hydroxyproline, deoxypyridinoline, C-telopeptide, and N -telopeptide, may help identify patients with Paget disease.
      Serum calcium and phosphate levels should be within the reference range in patients with Paget disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25
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  • Question 23 - A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair. Blood results are shown below: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1–7), Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9–35). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fragile-X syndrome

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
      Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
      Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
      Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.

      From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
      At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.

      Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
      However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained: TSH < 0.05 mu/l, Free T4 29 pmol/L. Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibodies

      Correct Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
      Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      76.6
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  • Question 25 - Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Correct Answer: Muscular weakness

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s Syndrome, is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
      The common clinical scenarios in which the possibility of primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered include the following:
      – Patients with spontaneous or unprovoked hypokalaemia, especially if the patient is also hypertensive
      – Patients who develop severe and/or persistent hypokalaemia in the setting of low to moderate doses of potassium-wasting diuretics
      – Patients with treatment-refractory/-resistant hypertension (HTN)
      Patients with severe hypokalaemia report fatigue, muscle weakness, cramping, headaches, and palpitations. They can also have polydipsia and polyuria from hypokalaemia-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Long-standing HTN may lead to cardiac, retinal, renal, and neurologic problems, with all the associated symptoms and signs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.2
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields. You are concerned that she may have a prolactinoma. Investigations were done and the results are as shown below: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 4.9 x109/L, PLT 199 x109/L, Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 ىmol/L, Prolactin 1150 mU/l. MRI shows a 7 mm pituitary microadenoma. Which of the following hormones would you expect to be lower than normal?

      Your Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas, benign lesions that produce the hormone prolactin, are the most common hormone-secreting pituitary tumours.
      Based on its size, a prolactinoma can be classified as a microprolactinoma (< 10 mm diameter) or a macroprolactinoma (>10 mm diameter). If the prolactinoma is large enough to compress the surrounding normal hormone-secreting pituitary cells, it may result in deficiencies of one or more hormones (e.g., thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], growth hormone [GH], adrenocorticotropic hormone). However, the patient has microadenoma so it is unlikely to cause compression manifestations.
      Hyperprolactinemia inhibits GnRH secretion from the medial basal hypothalamus and LH release from the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the RET oncogene?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Medullary

      Explanation:

      RET (rearranged during transfection) is a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development of neural crest derived cell lineages, kidney, and male germ cells. Different human cancers, including papillary and medullary thyroid carcinomas, lung adenocarcinomas, and myeloproliferative disorders display gain-of-function mutations in RET.
      In over 90% of cases, MEN2 syndromes are due to germline missense mutations of the RET gene.
      Multiple endocrine neoplasias type 2 (MEN2) is an inherited disorder characterized by the development of medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), parathyroid tumours, and pheochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.9
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  • Question 28 - Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test. Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?

      Your Answer: Weight loss of 5% during the investigation

      Correct Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.

      In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.

      In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
      A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly. Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?

      Your Answer: Oestradiol

      Correct Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol

      Explanation:

      11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.

      In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
      – Increased levels of ACTH
      – Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
      – Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years. On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord. Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema. A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests. Some of these results are shown: Na 144 mmol/L, K 2.2 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L, Glucose 16 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
      – Shortness of breath
      – Cough
      – Bone pain
      – Weight loss
      – Fatigue
      – Neurologic dysfunction
      Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 31 - A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is referred with impotence. He has a history of angina, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Which one of the following drugs that he takes is a contraindication to him being able to receive sildenafil?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil administration to patients who are using organic nitrates, either regularly and/or intermittently, in any form is contraindicated.
      Organic nitrates and nitric oxide (NO) donors exert their therapeutic effects on blood pressure and vascular smooth muscle by the same mechanism as endogenous NO via increasing cGMP concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      45.2
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  • Question 32 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand. What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.
      Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:
      Short stature
      Stocky habitus
      Obesity
      Developmental delay
      Round face
      Dental hypoplasia
      Brachymetacarpals
      Brachymetatarsals
      Soft tissue calcification/ossification
      The goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.
      The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26.6
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  • Question 33 - A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for review. Over the past few months, she has lost increasing amounts of weight and has become increasingly anxious about palpitations, which occur mostly at night. Her TSH is <0.1 IU/l (0.5-4.5). On examination, her BP is 122/72 mmHg, her pulse is 92 and regular. You cannot palpate a goitre or any nodules on examination of her neck. Which of the following investigations can differentiate between self-administration of thyroid hormone and endogenous causes of thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer: Radioactive uptake thyroid scan

      Explanation:

      Once thyrotoxicosis has been identified by laboratory values, the thyroid radio-iodine uptake and scan may be used to help distinguish the underlying aetiology. Thyroid radioiodine uptake is raised in Graves’ disease. It may be normal or raised in patients with a toxic multinodular goitre. It is very low or undetectable in thyrotoxicosis resulting from exogenous administration of thyroid hormone or the thyrotoxic phase of thyroiditis.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 34 - A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8%...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regime. He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning. Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Reduce his nocturnal dose of mixed insulin

      Correct Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime

      Explanation:

      The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
      Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help.

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      • Endocrinology
      23.3
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  • Question 35 - A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty. While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?

      Your Answer: Appearance of axillary hair

      Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume

      Explanation:

      In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement; the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 36 - A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and...

    Correct

    • A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?

      Your Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg

      Explanation:

      The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
      Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
      The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
      The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose.

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      • Endocrinology
      14.6
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  • Question 37 - Raloxifene is used in the treatment of osteoporosis, which of the following best...

    Incorrect

    • Raloxifene is used in the treatment of osteoporosis, which of the following best describes it?

      Your Answer: An oestrogen

      Correct Answer: A selective oestrogen receptor modulator

      Explanation:

      Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen-receptor modulator (SERM) that has been approved for use in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
      A SERM interacts with oestrogen receptors, functioning as an agonist in some tissues and an antagonist in other tissues. Because of their unique pharmacologic properties, these agents can achieve the desired effects of oestrogen without the possible stimulatory effects on the breasts or uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.1
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  • Question 38 - A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of extreme fatigue. He has a history of Graves disease. On examination, his blood pressure is 103/58 mmHg, pulse 64/min and temperature 36.3ºC. The following results are obtained: Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.4 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 42 umol/L, TSH 3.5 mu/l, Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L. You arrange for a random cortisol test, however, whilst awaiting the result he becomes unresponsive. In addition to giving intravenous steroids and fluid, what test is urgent to check first given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium

      Correct Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Addison’s disease as he has a history of autoimmune disease, hyperkalaemia and hypotension.
      It is important to keep an Addisonian crisis on the differential in cases of shock, especially since adrenal crisis can be the patient’s first presentation of adrenal insufficiency.
      Patients with Addison’s disease are prone to developing hypoglycaemia due to loss of the glucogenic effect of glucocorticoids. Given the sudden deterioration, a glucose level must be checked.

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      • Endocrinology
      13.1
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  • Question 39 - A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months. She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone). A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal. Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Correct Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Low body weight. Excessively low body weight — about 10 percent under normal weight — interrupts many hormonal functions in your body, potentially halting ovulation.
      In Polycystic ovaries there is excess weight gain.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 40 - Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteoporosis in...

    Correct

    • Using DEXA, which of the following bone mineral density values indicates osteoporosis in the measured site?

      Your Answer: A T score of -2.6

      Explanation:

      Osteopenia is an early sign of bone weakening that is less severe than osteoporosis.
      The numerical result of the bone density test is quantified as a T score. The lower the T score, the lower the bone density. T scores greater than -1.0 are considered normal and indicate healthy bone. T scores between -1.0 and -2.5 indicate osteopenia. T scores lower than -2.5 indicate osteoporosis.
      DEXA also provides the patient’s Z-score, which reflects a value compared with that of person matched for age and sex.
      Z-score values of –2.0 SD or lower are defined as below the expected range for age and those above –2.0 SD as within the expected range for age.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 41 - Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: It is non-functional in adults

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.
      DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant. Which of the following is most likely to make you ask her to defer pregnancy at this stage?

      Your Answer: Sensory neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Hb A1C 9.4%

      Explanation:

      Pregnancies affected by T1DM are at increased risk for preterm delivery, preeclampsia, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, intrauterine fetal demise, fetal growth restriction, cardiac and renal malformations, in addition to rare neural conditions such as sacral agenesis.
      Successful management of pregnancy in a T1DM patient begins before conception. Research indicates that the implementation of preconception counselling, emphasizing strict glycaemic control before and throughout pregnancy, reduces the rate of perinatal mortality and malformations.
      The 2008 bulletin from the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence recommends that preconception counselling be offered to all patients with diabetes. Physicians are advised to guide patients on achieving personalized glycaemic control goals, increasing the frequency of glucose monitoring, reducing their HbA1C levels, and recommend avoiding pregnancy if the said level is > 10%.
      Other sources suggest deferring pregnancy until HbA1C levels are > 8%, as this margin is associated with better outcomes.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old obese woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old obese woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Which of the following findings is most consistently seen in PCOS?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cysts on ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is based on hyperandrogenism or chronic anovulation in the absence of specific pituitary and/or adrenal disease.
      Pelvic ultrasonography may be very helpful in the evaluation as well, but polycystic ovaries are not specific for PCOS with over 20% of “normal” women having this finding. The number of follicles and ovary volume are both important in the ultrasound evaluation. The criteria for PCOS put forth by Adams et al. are the most often cited: the presence of ≥10 cysts measuring 2–8 mm around a dense core of stroma or scattered within an increased amount of stroma.
      A recent proposal to modify these criteria has been put forth by Jonard et al.: “increased ovarian area (>5.5cm2) or volume (>11 mL) and/or presence of ≥12 follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter (mean of both ovaries)”.
      These criteria have a specificity of 99% and a sensitivity of 75% for the diagnosis of PCOS.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 44 - A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods. She has been treated by her GP for anxiety. Examination reveals a single nodule on the left of her thyroid, about 1.5 cm in diameter. Thyroid scan shows increased uptake within the nodule with reduced activity throughout the rest of the gland. Thyroid function tests showed a free thyroxine of 30 pmol/l (9–25 pmol/l), TSH < 0.05 mU/l (0.5–5). Based on these findings, what would be the definitive treatment?

      Your Answer: High-dose carbimazole therapy with thyroxine replacement

      Correct Answer: Radioactive iodine therapy

      Explanation:

      Patients who have autonomously functioning nodules should be treated definitely with radioactive iodine or surgery.
      Na131 I treatment – In the United States and Europe, radioactive iodine is considered the treatment of choice for Toxic Nodular Goitre. Except for pregnancy, there are no absolute contraindications to radioiodine therapy.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 45 - A 30-year-old lawyer presents with non-specific symptoms of tiredness. Blood tests reveal normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old lawyer presents with non-specific symptoms of tiredness. Blood tests reveal normal thyroid function, cortisol, growth hormone and gonadotrophins. Pituitary MRI reveals a 0.8cm microadenoma. Which of the following represents the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Bilateral sterotactic pituitary irradiation

      Correct Answer: Observation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      The patient has a non-functioning pituitary tumour as her hormone profile is normal.
      Non-functioning pituitary tumours are relatively common. A large number of these tumours are incidentally found pituitary microadenomas (<1 cm) and are usually of no clinical importance.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 46 - A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made. What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
      Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
      – Supportive measures
      If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
      – Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
      – Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
      – Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
      – Antiadrenergic drugs.
      – Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
      High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
      – Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
      – Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
      – Treat the underlying condition.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 47 - A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the third trimester of her second pregnancy. The Examination is unremarkable, with a BP of 110/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80. Her BMI is 24 and she has an abdomen consistent with a 31-week pregnancy. The GP decides to check some thyroid function tests. Which of the following is considered to be normal?

      Your Answer: Decreased total T4

      Correct Answer: Elevated total T4

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, profound changes in thyroid physiology occur to provide sufficient thyroid hormone (TH) to both the mother and foetus. This is particularly important during early pregnancy because the fetal thyroid starts to produce considerable amounts of TH only from approximately 20 weeks of gestation, until which time the foetus heavily depends on the maternal supply of TH. This supply of TH to the foetus, as well as increased concentrations of TH binding proteins (thyroxine-binding globulin) and degradation of TH by placental type 3 iodothyronine deiodinase, necessitate an increased production of maternal TH. This requires an intact thyroid gland and adequate availability of dietary iodine and is in part mediated by the pregnancy hormone human chorionic gonadotropin, which is a weak agonist of the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor. As a consequence, serum-free thyroxine (FT4) concentrations increase and TSH concentrations decrease from approximately the eighth week throughout the first half of pregnancy, resulting in different reference intervals for TSH and FT4 compared to the non-pregnant state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 49 - A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up. The following results are obtained: Urine analysis: Protein+, HBA1c 86mmol/mol (10.0%). What is her average blood glucose level during the past 2 months?

      Your Answer: There is no relation between HbA1c and average blood glucose

      Correct Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      The level of haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), also known as glycated haemoglobin, determines how well a patient’s blood glucose level has been controlled over the previous 8–12 weeks. Recent studies have been made to correlate between HbA1c and average glucose level.
      Using the following formula: Average blood glucose (mmol/l) = (1.98 x 1 HbA1c) – 4.29

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 50 - A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history of diarrhoea. She has had intermittent loose normal-coloured stools 2-3 times a day. She also has up to 10 hot flushes a day but thinks she is entering menopause; her GP has recently started her on hormone replacement therapy. 15 years ago she had a normal colonoscopy after presenting with abdominal pain and intermittent constipation. She has asthma controlled by inhalers, hypertension controlled by ACE inhibitors and hypothyroidism controlled by thyroxine. She smoked 10 cigarettes a day for the last 30 years and drinks alcohol about 14 units/week. On examination, she looks hot and flushed. She is afebrile. Her pulse is regular 92bpm and her BP is 164/82 mmHg. Her respirator rate is 20 breaths/min at rest and she sounds quite wheezy. A widespread polyphonic expiratory wheeze can be heard on chest auscultation. Her abdomen is soft. Her liver is enlarged 4 cm below the right costal margin but not-tender. Results of blood tests show: Na 140 mmol/L, K 4.8 mmol/L, Glucose 9.8 mmol/L, Albumin 41 g/l, ALT 94 U/l, ALP 61 U/l, Bilirubin 18 mmol/L, Ca 2.47 mmol/L, WCC 10.1 × 109/L, Hb 12.2 g/dL, MCV 90.5 fl, Platelets 234 × 109 /l, PT 13 s. Chest X-ray is normal. Ultrasound of the liver shows an enlarged liver containing three ill-defined mass lesions in the right lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid tumours are of neuroendocrine origin and derived from primitive stem cells in the gut wall, especially the appendix. They can be seen in other organs, including the lungs, mediastinum, thymus, liver, bile ducts, pancreas, bronchus, ovaries, prostate, and kidneys. While carcinoid tumours tend to grow slowly, they have the potential to metastasise.
      Signs and symptoms seen in larger tumours may include the following:
      – Periodic abdominal pain: Most common presentation for a small intestinal carcinoid; often associated with malignant carcinoid syndrome.
      – Cutaneous flushing: Early and frequent (94%) symptom; typically affects head and neck.
      – Diarrhoea and malabsorption (84%): Watery, frothy, or bulky stools, gastrointestinal (GI) bleed or steatorrhea; may or may not be associated with abdominal pain, flushing, and cramps.
      – Cardiac manifestations (60%): Valvular heart lesions, fibrosis of the endocardium; may lead to heart failure with tachycardia and hypertension.
      – Wheezing or asthma-like syndrome (25%): Due to bronchial constriction; some tremors are relatively indolent and result in chronic symptoms such as cough and dyspnoea.
      – Pellagra with scale-like skin lesions, diarrhoea and mental disturbances.
      – Carcinoid crisis can be the most serious symptom of the carcinoid tumours and life-threatening. It can occur suddenly or after stress, including chemotherapy and anaesthesia.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 51 - A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He has been married for 15 years and has two children. He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly. Examination reveals an obese man who is phenotypically normal with normal secondary sexual characteristics. Investigations are as follows: Hb 13.4 g/dl (13.0-18.0), WCC 6 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 210 x 109/l (150-400), Electrolytes Normal, Fasting glucose 5.6 mmol/l (3.0-6.0), LFTs Normal, T4 12.7 pmol/l (10-22), TSH 2.1 mU/l (0.4-5), Prolactin 259 mU/l (<450), Testosterone 6.6 nmol/l (9-30), LH 23.7 mU/l (4-8), FSH 18.1 mU/l (4-10). What is the next investigation needed for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound examination of the testes

      Explanation:

      The patient has primary Hypogonadism.
      Since he already had two children, Klinefelter syndrome is excluded and the patient does not need karyotyping.
      His lab results are normal indicating normal pituitary gland functions.
      So the next step is testicular ultrasound as testicular tumour, infiltration or idiopathic failure is suspected.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 52 - A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset....

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset. She has a history of mastectomy for breast cancer. A CT head scan shows multiple cerebral metastases. Her admission biochemistry results are as follows: Sodium 153 mmol/l, Potassium 4.0 mmol/L, Urea 5.0 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 micromol/L, Glucose 5mmol/l. Over the next 24 hours, she has a urinary volume of 4.4 litres and further tests reveal plasma osmolality 320mOsm/kg and urinary osmolality: 254mOsm/kg. Which one of the following treatments should be used?

      Your Answer: Water restriction

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin (DDAVP)

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      – Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      – Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney
      This patient has the central type from metastases.
      In patients with central DI, desmopressin is the drug of choice. It is a synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). It is available in subcutaneous, IV, intranasal, and oral preparations. Generally, it can be administered 2-3 times per day. Patients may require hospitalization to establish fluid needs. Frequent electrolyte monitoring is recommended during the initial phase of treatment.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 53 - In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which of the following is most specific to the disease?

      Your Answer: Anti-TSH receptor stimulating antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies

      Explanation:

      Hashimoto thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid diseases (AITDs) and is characterized by the destruction of thyroid cells by various cell- and antibody mediated immune processes. It usually presents with hypothyroidism, insidious in onset, with signs and symptoms slowly progressing over months to years.

      The diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis relies on the demonstration of circulating antibodies to thyroid antigens (mainly thyroperoxidase and thyroglobulin) and reduced echogenicity on thyroid sonogram in a patient with proper clinical features.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 54 - A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most important aetiological factor causing cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 6 & 11

      Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18

      Explanation:

      It has been determined that HPV infection is the most powerful epidemic factor. This virus is needed, but not sufficient for the development of cervical cancer.
      The WHO’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classified HPV infection as carcinogenic to humans (HPV types 16 and 18), probably carcinogenic (HPV types 31 and 33) and possibly carcinogenic (other HPV types except 6 and 11).
      Tobacco smoking, the use of contraceptives, and the number of births are factors that showed no statistically significant deviations in the studied population compared to other countries in the region, as well as European countries. They have an equal statistical significance in all age groups.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 55 - A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following, except?

      Your Answer: Erectile dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Hypohydrosis

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly occurs due to excessive action of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) after the growth plate cartilage fuses in adulthood.
      It can be an insidious disease. Symptoms, which may precede diagnosis by several years, can be divided into the following groups:
      1. Symptoms due to local mass effects of an intracranial tumour
      Tumour damage to the pituitary stalk may cause hyperprolactinemia (Increased blood prolactin levels associated with galactorrhoea) due to loss of inhibitory regulation of prolactin secretion by the hypothalamus
      2. Symptoms due to excess of GH/IGF-I including:
      – Hyperhidrosis (Not hypohidrosis)
      – Arthritis
      – Peripheral Neuropathies e.g. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 56 - A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for review. He has had...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for review. He has had type-1 diabetes for 30 years. Recently, he has suffered several falls, which he describes as attacks where he feels ‘faint’ and loses his footing. He has suffered from impotence for several years and takes anti-reflux medication. On examination, he has a postural drop of 35 mmHg in his blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Correct Answer: Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Autonomic Neuropathy may involve the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, genitourinary systems and the sweat glands.
      Patients with generalized autonomic neuropathies may report ataxia, gait instability, or near syncope/syncope. In addition, autonomic neuropathies have further symptoms that relate to the anatomic site of nerve damage—gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, bladder, or sudomotor.
      – Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy may produce the following symptoms:
      Dysphagia, abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, malabsorption, faecal incontinence, diarrhoea, constipation.
      – Cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy may produce the following symptoms :
      Persistent sinus tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, sinus arrhythmia, decreased heart variability in response to deep breathing, near syncope upon changing positions from recumbent to standing.
      – Bladder neuropathy (which must be differentiated from prostate or spine disorders) may produce the following symptoms:
      Poor urinary stream
      Feeling of incomplete bladder emptying
      Straining to void
      – Sudomotor neuropathy may produce the following symptoms:
      Heat intolerance
      Heavy sweating of head, neck, and trunk with anhidrosis of lower trunk and extremities
      Gustatory sweating

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 57 - A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old heavy smoker presents with a serum sodium level of 113 mmol/l. A diagnosis of SIADH is confirmed. What is the most appropriate initial management for his fluid balance?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Fluid restriction

      Explanation:

      European guidelines for the treatment of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis include the following recommendations for the management of moderate or profound hyponatremia:
      – Restrict fluid intake as first-line treatment.
      – Second-line treatments include increasing solute intake with 0.25–0.50 g/kg per day or a combination of low-dose loop diuretics and oral sodium chloride.
      – Use of lithium, demeclocycline, or vasopressin receptor antagonists is not recommended.
      Recommendations on the treatment of SIADH from an American Expert Panel included the following:
      – If chronic, limit the rate of correction.
      – Fluid restriction should generally be first-line therapy.
      – Consider pharmacologic therapies if serum Na + is not corrected after 24-48 hr of fluid restriction or if the patient has a low urinary electrolyte free water excretion.
      – Patients being treated with vaptans should not be on a fluid restriction initially.
      – Water, 5% dextrose or desmopressin can be used to slow the rate of correction if the water diuresis is profound.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 58 - A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty,...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old woman is admitted in an unconscious state. On examination in casualty, her temperature is 33 °C and she was in left ventricular failure. Her blood glucose level is 5.7 mmol/l and random cortisol is elevated. Free T4 is 4.4 pmol/l. A CT scan of her brain reveals no focal lesion and a cursory assessment reveals no gross focal neurology. Which diagnosis fits best with this woman’s clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Profound hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients with severe hypothyroidism often present with variable symptoms that may be masked or potentiated by co-morbid conditions. Characteristic symptoms may include fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, hoarseness, constipation, and myalgias. Neurologic symptoms may include ataxia, depression, and mental status changes ranging from mild confusion to overt dementia.
      Clinical findings that may raise suspicion of thyroid hormone deficiency include hypothermia, bradycardia, goitrous enlargement of the thyroid, cool dry skin, myxoedema, delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes, a pericardial or abdominal effusion, hyponatremia, and hypercholesterolemia.

      The patient has a greatly reduced free T4 concentration, is hypothermic, unconscious and has evidence of associated heart failure. All of those support the diagnosis of profound hypothyroidism.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 59 - A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months. She was noted to have a blood sugar of 0.9 mmol/l on finger-prick testing and responded well to intravenous glucose therapy. Venous blood taken at the same showed a markedly raised insulin level, but her C-peptide levels were normal. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Occult administration of sulphonylureas

      Correct Answer: Self-administration of a short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycaemia, but her C-peptide levels are normal. This is strongly suggestive of the fact that she is self-administering insulin.
      In Insulinoma, common diagnostic criteria include:
      – blood glucose level < 50 mg/dl with hypoglycaemic symptoms,
      – relief of symptoms after eating
      – absence of sulfonylurea on plasma assays.
      The classic diagnostic criteria include the demonstration of the following during a supervised fast:
      Increased plasma insulin level
      Increased C peptide level
      Increased proinsulin level
      However, the patient has normal C-peptide levels.
      In type-1 diabetes mellitus, insulin and C-peptide levels are low.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 60 - A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis. On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Investigations show: Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600), Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20), Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20), Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450), Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22), TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.
      In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 61 - Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion

      Explanation:

      Criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes

      1. A1C ≥6.5%. The test should be performed in a laboratory using a method that is certified and standardized.*
      OR
      2. Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dl (7.0 mmol/l). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 h.*
      OR
      3. 2-h plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l) during an OGTT. The test should be performed as described by the World Health Organization, using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.*
      OR
      4. In a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia or hyperglycaemic crisis, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l).
      *In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycaemia, criteria 1–3 should be confirmed by repeat testing.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 62 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. His HbA1c is elevated at 64 mmol/mol despite taking 1g of metformin BD. On examination, his blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg, his pulse is 82 beats per minute and regular. His BMI is 33 kg/m². A decision is made to start him on dapagliflozin. Which of the following would you expect on starting therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased total cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dapagliflozin works by inhibiting sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) and blocking resorption of glucose in the kidney, leading to an increase in urinary glucose excretion and lowering of both plasma glucose levels and body weight.
      All studies with SGLT2 inhibitors have found significant reductions in BP, with greater reductions seen in systolic (1.66 to 6.9mmHg) than diastolic (0.88 to 3.5mmHg) BP.
      While some trials have shown no change in lipid parameters, others have shown a modest but statistically significant increase in both HDL and LDL cholesterol with no effect on triglycerides or the LDL/HDL ratio.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 63 - All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
      The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
      Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 64 - A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a work-up for hypertension. It comes back as 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated and reported as 6.7 mmol/l. He says he feels constantly tired but denies any polyuria or polydipsia. How should these results be interpreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
      Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
      fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
      random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
      If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

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  • Question 65 - A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule is felt in the region of the thyroid gland. She mentions that her mother had kidney stones and died following a tumour in her neck. A surgeon recommends complete thyroidectomy as her treatment of choice. What is the most important investigation to be done before the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24-hour urinary catecholamines

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC).
      Sporadic, or isolated MTC accounts for 75% of cases and inherited MTC constitutes the rest.
      Inherited MTC occurs in association with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2A and 2B syndromes, but non-MEN familial MTC also occurs.
      A 24-hour urinalysis for catecholamine metabolites (e.g., vanillylmandelic acid [VMA], metanephrine) has to be done to rule out concomitant pheochromocytoma in patients with MEN type 2A or 2B, as Pheochromocytoma must be treated before MTC.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 66 - Which one of the following is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in developed countries. In contrast, worldwide, the most common cause of hypothyroidism is an inadequate dietary intake of iodine. This disease is also known as chronic autoimmune thyroiditis and chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis.

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  • Question 67 - A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of acute pancreatitis. On examination, he has a BP of 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is regular 70 bpm and his BMI is 23. There is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on examination of his skin. It was noted that his fasting triglycerides level is 8.5 mmol/l (0.7-2.1) at his follow up appointment although his LDL level is not particularly raised. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Three classes of medications are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations: fibric acid derivatives, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.

      Fibrate is used as a first-line agent for reduction of triglycerides in patients at risk for triglyceride-induced pancreatitis.

      High-dose niacin (vitamin B-3) (1500 or more mg/d) decreases triglyceride levels by at least 40% and can raise HDL cholesterol levels by 40% or more. Niacin also reliably and significantly lowers LDL cholesterol levels, which the other major triglyceride-lowering medications do not.

      Omega-3 fatty acids are attractive because of their low risk of major adverse effects or interaction with other medications. At high doses (>4 g/d), triglycerides are reduced.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 68 - A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night. Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen

      Explanation:

      As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 69 - A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
      Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT.

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  • Question 70 - A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain. He underwent pituitary...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain. He underwent pituitary surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour two years ago. Although he recovered from his pituitary surgery well, he has been found to have complete anterior hypopituitarism. Accordingly he is receiving stable replacement therapy with testosterone monthly injections, thyroxine and hydrocortisone. On examination, there are no specific abnormalities, his vision is 6/9 in both eyes and he has no visual field defects. From his notes, you see that he has gained 8 kg in weight over the last six months and his BMI is 31. His blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg. Thyroid function tests and testosterone concentrations have been normal. A post-operative MRI scan report shows that the pituitary tumour has been adequately cleared with no residual tissue. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      The somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland produce growth hormone (GH).
      GH deficiency in adults usually manifests as reduced physical performance and impaired psychological well-being. It results in alterations in the physiology of different systems of the body, manifesting as altered lipid metabolism, increased subcutaneous and visceral fat, decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, low exercise performance, and reduced quality of life.

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  • Question 71 - A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area. Investigations were as follows: Hb 13.1 g/dL, WCC 8.6 x109/L, PLT 201 x109/L, Na+ 139 mmol/L, K+ 4.5 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 µmol/L, 17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normal. Pelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.
      Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess.
      Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.
      Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 72 - Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 73 - A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhea for the last five years. She is very anxious about her irregular menses and worried as her mother was diagnosed with uterine cancer recently. She is a lawyer and does not want to conceive, at least for the next couple of years. The examination is essentially normal except for coarse dark hair being noticed under her chin and over her lower back. Investigations done during the follicular phase: Serum androstenedione 10.1 nmol/l (0.6-8.8), Serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate 11.6 ىmol/l (2-10), Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone 5.6 nmol/l (1-10), Serum oestradiol 220 pmol/l (200-400), Serum testosterone 3.6 nmol/l (0.5-3), Serum sex hormone binding protein 32 nmol/l (40-137), Plasma luteinising hormone 3.3 U/l (2.5-10), Plasma follicle-stimulating hormone 3.6 U/l (2.5-10). What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined OCP

      Explanation:

      This patient has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Medical management of PCOS is aimed at the treatment of metabolic derangements, anovulation, hirsutism, and menstrual irregularity.
      First-line medical therapy usually consists of an oral contraceptive to induce regular menses. The contraceptive not only inhibits ovarian androgen production but also increases sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) production. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG) recommends the use of combination low-dose hormonal contraceptive agents for long-term management of menstrual dysfunction.
      If symptoms such as hirsutism are not sufficiently alleviated, an androgen-blocking agent may be added. Pregnancy should be excluded before therapy with oral contraceptives or androgen-blocking agents are started.
      First-line treatment for ovulation induction when fertility is desired is clomiphene citrate. Second-line strategies may be equally effective in infertile women with clomiphene citrate–resistant PCOS.

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  • Question 74 - A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with his wife. He is limping and his wife noticed that his ankle was abnormally-shaped after he stepped out of the shower. Examination of his right ankle reveals a painless warm swollen joint. There is crepitus and what appears to be palpable bone debris. X-ray reveals gross joint destruction and apparent dislocation. Joint aspiration fluid shows no microbes. Investigations: His CRP and white count are of normal values. Historical review of HB A1c reveals that it has rarely been below 9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot’s ankle

      Explanation:

      Charcot arthropathy is a progressive condition of the musculoskeletal system that is characterized by joint dislocations, pathologic fractures, and debilitating deformities. It results in progressive destruction of bone and soft tissues at weight-bearing joints. In its most severe form, it may cause significant disruption of the bony architecture.
      Charcot arthropathy can occur at any joint; however, it occurs most commonly in the lower extremity, at the foot and ankle. Diabetes is now considered to be the most common aetiology of Charcot arthropathy.

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  • Question 75 - A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.

      Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
      The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      – Hirsutism
      – Infertility
      – Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      – Diabetes
      – Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Androgen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.

      Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.

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  • Question 76 - A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates. She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity. The following results are obtained: (Time (hours) : Blood glucose (mmol/l)), 0 : 9.2, 2 : 14.2. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
      The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone.

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  • Question 77 - A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show: fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3– 6), sodium 148 mmol/l (137–144), potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5–4.9), calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2–2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia. What could be the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
      The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.

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  • Question 78 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid. TFTs show the following: Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23), Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6), TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5). What is the appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
      The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
      Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2–3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
      Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone.

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  • Question 79 - A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula. Which of the following defines his eye condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
      The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
      1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
      2. Increased vascular permeability.
      3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
      4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
      5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
      The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.

      Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).

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  • Question 80 - A young woman is concerned that she has put on weight since she...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman is concerned that she has put on weight since she was a medical student, as she now no longer finds time to exercise. She decides to try various weight loss tablets temporarily. After 2 months, she is successfully losing weight but also has trouble with increased stool frequency, difficulty in climbing stairs and getting up out of chairs. However, she has no problems walking on the flat. She also has difficulty in sleeping at the moment but puts that down to the increased frequency of headaches for the past 2 months. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her weakness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She is abusing thyroxine tablets

      Explanation:

      Exogenous thyroid hormone use has been associated with episodes of thyroid storm as well as thyrotoxic periodic paralysis.
      It presents with marked proximal muscle weakness in both upper and lower limbs, hypokalaemia and signs of hyperthyroidism.
      Hyperthyroidism generally presents with tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, and cardiac arrhythmias

      Laxatives and diuretics can result in electrolyte abnormalities.
      Medical complications associated with laxatives include chronic diarrhoea which disrupts the normal stool electrolyte concentrations that then leads to serum electrolyte shifts; acutely, hypokalaemia is most typically seen. The large intestine suffers nerve damage from the chronic laxative use that renders it unable to function properly. The normal peristalsis and conduction are affected; the disorder is thought to be secondary to a degeneration of Auerbach’s Plexi. However, it does not cause muscle weakness.

      Insulin tends to cause weight gain, not weight loss.
      Metformin does not cause muscle weakness but can cause headaches.

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  • Question 81 - A 25-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg during a routine medical check. She is otherwise well and her physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests show: Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 2.6 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 31 mmol/L, Urea 3.4 mmol/L, Creatinine 77 µmol/L. Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renin:aldosterone ratio

      Explanation:

      Primary aldosteronism now is considered one of the more common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
      Individuals with primary aldosteronism may present with hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis; however, as many as 38% of patients with primary aldosteronism may be normokalaemia at presentation.
      Routine laboratory studies can show hypernatremia, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis resulting from the action of aldosterone on the renal distal convoluted tubule (DCT) (i.e., enhancing sodium reabsorption and potassium and hydrogen ion excretion).
      Plasma aldosterone/plasma renin activity ratio is used for screening because it is fairly constant over many physiologic conditions.

      The patient is clinically free, so Cushing diseases can be exclude.

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  • Question 82 - A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg. She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 650 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (655 mOsm/kg). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary polydipsia

      Explanation:

      In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI.

      In primary polydipsia, water deprivation results in an increase in urine osmolality, anywhere between 300 – 800 mOsm/Kg (usually up to 600 – 700 mOsm/Kg), without a substantial increase in plasma osmolality, but the increase in urine osmolality is not as substantial as in a normal response.

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  • Question 83 - A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man wants to start a relationship but is concerned about his small phallus. He also has difficulty becoming aroused. On examination, he is slim and has gynecomastia. There is a general paucity of body hair, his penis and testes are small. Which diagnosis fits best with this history and examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has Klinefelter’s syndrome.
      Klinefelter syndrome (KS) refers to a group of chromosomal disorders in which the normal male karyotype, 46,XY, has at least one extra X chromosome. XXY aneuploidy, the most common human sex chromosome disorder. It is also the most common chromosomal disorder associated with male hypogonadism and infertility.
      Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia), gynecomastia in late puberty, hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules, elevated urinary gonadotropin levels, and behavioural concerns.

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  • Question 84 - A 55-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A trial of bladder retraining is unsuccessful. It is therefore decided to use a muscarinic antagonist. Which one of the following medications is an example of a muscarinic antagonist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      A muscarinic receptor antagonist (MRA) is a type of anticholinergic agent that blocks the activity of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. There are six antimuscarinic drugs currently marketed for the treatment of urge incontinence: oxybutynin, tolterodine, propiverine, trospium, darifenacin, and solifenacin.

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      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 85 - Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure

      Explanation:

      Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights.

      congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.

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  • Question 86 - In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to insulin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by the beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas while Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
      Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the culmination of lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. As beta-cell mass declines, insulin secretion decreases until the available insulin is no longer adequate to maintain normal blood glucose levels. After 80-90% of the beta cells are destroyed, hyperglycaemia develops and diabetes may be diagnosed.

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  • Question 87 - A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits you in the paediatric diabetes clinic with her 2-year-old son who has recently been diagnosed by type-1 diabetes. He has an identical twin brother and she is concerned about his risk of developing diabetes. What advice would you give regarding his future risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has a 30–50% future risk of developing type-1 diabetes

      Explanation:

      The frequency of type-1 diabetes is higher in siblings of diabetic parents (e.g., in the UK 6% by age 30) than in the general population (in the U.K. 0.4% by age 30), while disease concordance in monozygotic (identical) twins is about 40% i.e. the risk that the unaffected twin will develop diabetes.

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  • Question 88 - A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying to conceive for the last 3 years without any success. Her prolactin level is 2600 mU/l (normal <360). The Endocrinologist arranges pituitary magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that demonstrates a microprolactinoma. Which two of the following pharmacological agents may be appropriate treatment choices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbergoline

      Explanation:

      Cabergoline, an ergot derivative, is a long-acting dopamine agonist. It is usually better tolerated than Bromocriptine (BEC), and its efficacy profiles are somewhat superior to those of BEC. It offers the convenience of twice-a-week administration, with a usual starting dose of 0.25 mg biweekly to a maximum dose of 1 mg biweekly. Some studies have shown efficacy even with once-a-week dosing. Cabergoline appears to be more effective in lowering prolactin levels and restoring ovulation. Up to 70% of patients who do not respond to BEC respond to cabergoline.

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  • Question 89 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with palpitations and shortness of breath. Recent thyroid function tests on the hospital computer reveal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of <0.05 mU/l and a markedly elevated T4. You arrange blood gas testing. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with Grave’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pa(CO2)

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroid patients show significantly lower resting arterial CO2 tension, tidal volume and significantly higher mean inspiratory flow and pa(O2) than healthy patients. This may of course lead to misdiagnosis of patients with hyperthyroidism as having hyperventilation syndrome.

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  • Question 90 - A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis of his weight-bearing joints. He has recently begun to suffer from symptoms of sleep apnoea. On examination, he has a prominent jawline and macroglossia. His BP is elevated at 155/95 mmHg and there is peripheral visual field loss. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pegvisomant can be used where IGF-1 is not normalised post surgery

      Explanation:

      The patient has Acromegaly.
      Acromegaly is a chronic disorder characterised by growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion, predominantly caused by a pituitary adenoma.

      Random GH level testing is not recommended for diagnosis given the pulsatile nature of secretion. Stress, physical exercise, acute critical illness and fasting state can cause a physiological higher peak in GH secretion.

      Pegvisomant is a US Food and Drug Administration-approved treatment for use after surgery. In a global non-interventional safety surveillance study, pegvisomant normalised IGF-1 in 67.5% of patients after 5 years (most likely due to lack of dose-up titration), and also improved clinical symptoms. Pegvisomant improves insulin sensitivity, and long-term follow-up showed significantly decreased fasting glucose over time, while the first-generation SRL only have a marginal clinical impact on glucose homeostasis in acromegaly. Pegvisomant does not have any direct anti-proliferative effects on pituitary tumour cells, but tumour growth is rare overall.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (38/60) 63%
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