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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old backpacker had embarked on a climbing expedition to Mount Everest. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old backpacker had embarked on a climbing expedition to Mount Everest. He had flown from the United Kingdom the previous day. To avoid the predicted bad weather, he and his team left the base camp the following day. They reached an altitude of 6000 m on day four. He complained of occasional dull headaches and feeling light-headed, which he attributed to his dehydration. The next day, he set off alone, but was discovered by the search party ten hours later. He was found to be confused, unable to walk in a straight line, irritable, and extremely fatigued. His symptoms significantly improved after receiving dexamethasone and resting in a portable hyperbaric chamber.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: High-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for High-Altitude Illness in a Patient with AMS Symptoms

      High-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE) is a serious complication of acute mountain sickness (AMS) that can lead to ataxia, confusion, and even coma. In this patient, the symptoms progressed from mild AMS to HACE, as evidenced by the alleviation of symptoms following dexamethasone and hyperbaric treatment. Hypoglycaemia can mimic HACE symptoms, but the rapid ascent to high altitude and progression of symptoms point to a diagnosis of HACE. Alcohol intoxication can also mimic AMS and HAPE symptoms, but the patient’s response to treatment excludes this differential diagnosis. High-altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE) is another potential complication, but the absence of respiratory symptoms rules it out in this case. Overall, a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat high-altitude illness in patients with AMS symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 2 - An 83-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being discovered in...

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    • An 83-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being discovered in an acute state of confusion. He was lethargic and combative, attempting to strike his caregiver when she visited his home earlier that day. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and continues to smoke 20 cigarettes per day, and is currently undergoing testing for prostatism. Upon examination, he has a fever of 38.2 °C and exhibits coarse crackles and wheezing in both lungs upon auscultation.

      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 231 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urine Blood +

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lower respiratory tract infection

      Explanation:

      Possible Infections and Conditions in an Elderly Man: Symptoms and Management

      An elderly man is showing signs of confusion and has a fever, which could indicate an infection. Upon chest examination, crackles are heard, suggesting a lower respiratory tract infection. A high white blood cell count also supports an immune response to an infection. A chest X-ray may confirm the diagnosis. Antibiotic therapy is the main treatment, and fluid restriction may be necessary if the patient has low sodium levels.

      If an elderly man’s dementia worsens, a fever and high white blood cell count may suggest an infection as the cause. Diabetes insipidus, characterized by excessive thirst and urination, typically leads to high sodium levels due to dehydration. A urinary tract infection may cause confusion, but it often presents with urinary symptoms. Viral encephalitis may cause confusion and fever, but the presence of crackles and wheezing suggests a respiratory infection.

      In summary, an elderly man with confusion and fever may have a lower respiratory tract infection, which requires antibiotic therapy and fluid management. Other conditions, such as worsening dementia, diabetes insipidus, urinary tract infection, or viral encephalitis, may have similar symptoms but different diagnostic features and treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      86.9
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a lateral ankle...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a lateral ankle injury. This injury occurred while playing basketball the previous day. He continued playing but noted some discomfort at the time and thereafter. He is able to weight-bear with minor discomfort. On examination, there is some swelling over the ankle, a small amount of bruising and minimal tenderness on palpation. There is full range of movement in the ankle joint. He has not taken any analgesia.
      What is the best management of this man’s injury?

      Your Answer: Advise rest, ice, compression and elevation of the ankle for one to two days, followed by early mobilisation

      Explanation:

      Managing Ankle Ligament Sprains: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, and Early Mobilisation

      Ankle ligament sprains can be managed conservatively with rest, ice, compression, elevation, and analgesia. For minor sprains, pain-free stretching should be undertaken as soon as possible, followed by progressive weight-bearing and resistance exercises. Severe sprains or ruptures may require backslab immobilisation for ten days, followed by rehabilitation. Ankle X-rays are only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and any of the Ottawa ankle rules findings. Orthopaedic referral is only necessary for dislocations or fractures. Prolonged immobilisation should be avoided, and passive stretches should be commenced as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 4 - A 79-year-old woman presents with recent-onset confusion. She had been in her usual...

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    • A 79-year-old woman presents with recent-onset confusion. She had been in her usual state of health until she was observed to be confused and agitated during dinner yesterday. This morning, she was alert and oriented, but later in the evening, she became completely confused, agitated, and hostile. She was subsequently transported to the Emergency Department by ambulance. Additional history reveals no prior instances of confusion, but she has experienced increased frequency of urination over the past few days.
      What is the probable reason for her confusion?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection (UTI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Delirium in an Elderly Patient: UTI vs. Dementia vs. Pyelonephritis

      When an 89-year-old woman presents with waxing and waning consciousness, punctuated by ‘sun-downing’, it is important to consider the possible causes of delirium. In this case, the patient has normal cognitive function but is experiencing acute global cerebral dysfunction. One possible cause of delirium in the elderly is a urinary tract infection (UTI), which can present with symptoms such as frequency and confusion.

      However, it is important to rule out other potential causes of delirium, such as vascular dementia or Alzheimer’s dementia. In these conditions, cognitive decline is typically steady and progressive, whereas the patient in this case is experiencing waxing and waning consciousness. Additionally, neither of these conditions would account for the patient’s new urinary symptoms.

      Another possible cause of delirium is pyelonephritis, which can present with similar symptoms to a UTI but may also include pyrexia, renal angle tenderness, and casts on urinalysis. However, in this case, the patient does not exhibit these additional symptoms.

      Finally, pseudodementia is unlikely in this scenario as the patient does not exhibit any affective signs. Overall, it is important to consider all possible causes of delirium in an elderly patient and conduct a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 5 - A 31-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department, appearing ill at 2300 after...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department, appearing ill at 2300 after consuming 'a few handfuls' of paracetamol tablets. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that this occurred at approximately 1400 and the patient weighs 80 kgs.
      What is the initial step that should be taken?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) N-acetylcysteine (NAC) STAT

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Paracetamol Overdose: NAC, Naloxone, and Activated Charcoal

      Paracetamol overdose is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The mainstay of treatment is intravenous (IV) N-acetylcysteine (NAC), which replenishes depleted glutathione reserves in the liver and protects liver cells from NAPQI toxicity. NAC should be started if the overdose occurred less than 10-12 hours ago, there is no vomiting, and the plasma paracetamol level is above the concentration on the treatment line. If the overdose occurred more than 8-24 hours ago and there is suspicion of a large overdose, it is best to start NAC and stop if plasma paracetamol levels fall below the treatment line and if INR/ALT return to normal. Naloxone is the mainstay of treatment for opioid overdose, while activated charcoal may play a role in gastrointestinal decontamination in a patient presenting less than 4 hours since an overdose. It is important to monitor observations and treat if deterioration occurs. A plasma paracetamol measurement should be taken to direct treatment, with NAC treatment started immediately if the time of ingestion is more than 8 hours ago and the amount ingested is likely to be more than 75 mg/kg. If the time of ingestion is within 8 hours, the paracetamol level should be checked first and treatment guided accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 6 - When requesting an investigation, it is important to consider the potential benefits and...

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    • When requesting an investigation, it is important to consider the potential benefits and harms to the patient. Among radiographic investigations, which ones are associated with the highest radiation exposure?

      Your Answer: Abdominal X-ray

      Explanation:

      Radiation Doses from Medical X-Rays: A Comparison

      Medical X-rays are a common diagnostic tool used to detect and diagnose various medical conditions. However, they also expose patients to ionizing radiation, which can increase the risk of cancer and other health problems. Here is a comparison of the radiation doses from different types of X-rays:

      Abdominal X-ray: The radiation dose from an abdominal X-ray is equivalent to 5 months of natural background radiation.

      Chest X-ray: The radiation dose from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 10 days of natural background radiation.

      Abdomen-Pelvis CT: The radiation dose from an abdomen-pelvis CT is equivalent to 3 years of natural background radiation.

      DEXA Scan: The radiation dose from a DEXA scan is equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.

      Extremity X-rays: The radiation dose from X-rays of extremities, such as knees and ankles, is similar to that of a DEXA scan, equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.

      It is important to note that while the radiation doses from medical X-rays are relatively low, they can still add up over time and increase the risk of cancer. Patients should always discuss the risks and benefits of any medical imaging procedure with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after smoking excessive amounts of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after smoking excessive amounts of heroin. He is unresponsive and exhibits pinpoint pupils and symptoms of respiratory depression.
      What is the most suitable antidote for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Antidotes for Overdose: Understanding the Correct Treatment for Different Types of Overdose

      Overdose can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate medical attention. Different types of overdose require different antidotes for effective treatment. Here is a breakdown of some common antidotes and their uses:

      Naloxone: This is the first-line treatment for opioid overdose. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and reversing the effects of opioids. Naloxone can be given intravenously, intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or intranasally.

      Vitamin K: This antidote is used for patients with severe bleeding on anticoagulation therapy or those who are vitamin K-deficient. Vitamin K takes time to take effect, with the maximum effect occurring 6-24 hours after administration.

      Lithium: This medication is not used as an antidote for overdose. It is commonly used for mania and bipolar disorder.

      Flumazenil: This is the first-line treatment for benzodiazepine overdose. It works by competing with benzodiazepines for receptor binding sites. Flumazenil should only be given in cases of known benzodiazepine overdose.

      N-acetylcysteine (NAC): This is the first-line antidote for paracetamol overdose. It works by replenishing depleted glutathione reserves in the liver and enhancing non-toxic metabolism of acetaminophen.

      In conclusion, understanding the correct antidote for different types of overdose is crucial for effective treatment. Naloxone for opioid overdose, vitamin K for severe bleeding, flumazenil for benzodiazepine overdose, and NAC for paracetamol overdose are some common examples of antidotes used in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-week history...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-week history of productive cough and fever. She has had no sick contacts or foreign travel. She has a background history of mild intermittent asthma and is a non-smoker. She has been taking paracetamol and salbutamol. On clinical examination, her respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% (on room air), blood pressure 136/82 mmHg and temperature 38.2 °C. On chest auscultation, there is mild expiratory wheeze and coarse crackles in the right lung base.
      What is the most appropriate management of this woman?

      Your Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days

      Explanation:

      Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia in a Woman with a CRB-65 Score of 0

      When managing a woman with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and a CRB-65 score of 0, the recommended treatment is amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days. If there is no improvement after three days, the duration of treatment should be extended to seven to ten days.

      If the CRB-65 score is 1 or 2, dual therapy with amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily and clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for 7-10 days, or monotherapy with doxycycline for 7-10 days, should be considered. However, in this case, the CRB-65 score is 0, so this is not necessary.

      Admission for intravenous (IV) antibiotics and steroids is not required for this woman, as she is relatively well with mild wheeze and a CRB-65 score of 0. A chest X-ray is also not necessary, as she is younger and a non-smoker.

      Symptomatic management should be continued, and the woman should be advised to return in three days if there is no improvement. It is important to prescribe antibiotics for people with suspected CAP, unless this is not appropriate, such as in end-of-life care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty tolerating oral fluids and symptoms of a cold, is referred to the hospital by his primary care physician. The senior Accident and Emergency (A&E) nurse triages him and takes his vital signs, which are mostly normal except for a slightly elevated heart rate (102 bpm). She also performs a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and draws blood for testing, but the results are pending. The nurse suspects that the ECG shows some abnormalities and consults with the A&E senior resident, who confirms that the QRS complexes are widened, P-waves are absent, and T-waves are abnormally large.
      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: The Importance of Calcium Gluconate as a Cardioprotectant

      Hyperkalaemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including suppression of impulse generation and reduced conduction. Therefore, the priority in managing hyperkalaemia is to administer calcium gluconate as a cardioprotectant. This should be followed by the administration of salbutamol nebuliser and Actrapid® with 50% dextrose to shift potassium into the cells. If refractory hyperkalaemia occurs, senior support should be sought, potentially requiring bicarbonate or dialysis. It is important to prioritize the administration of calcium gluconate to prevent potential myocardial infarction. Once interventions have been administered, alerting senior support is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      52.3
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old nurse suddenly falls ill in the break room during her lunch...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old nurse suddenly falls ill in the break room during her lunch break. She has a known severe shellfish allergy. She appears pale and agitated, with a respiratory rate of 60 breaths/minute, audible wheezing, a pulse rate of 130 bpm, and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg. Some of her coworkers are present. Anaphylaxis is suspected.

      What is the initial emergency intervention that should be given by her colleagues?

      Your Answer: 0.5 mg of 1 in 1000 adrenaline intramuscular (IM) injection

      Explanation:

      Treatment Algorithm for Anaphylaxis: Medications and IV Fluids

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The following medications and IV fluids are part of the treatment algorithm for anaphylaxis:

      1. 0.5 mg of 1 in 1000 adrenaline intramuscular (IM) injection: This should be given to treat anaphylaxis, repeated after five minutes if the patient is no better. An IV injection should only be used by experienced practitioners.

      2. Hydrocortisone 200 mg intravenous (IV): Once adrenaline has been administered, IV access should be obtained to administer steroids, fluids and antihistamines.

      3. 1 mg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline im injection: The recommended initial dose of adrenaline is 0.5 mg im of 1 in 1000 strength.

      4. IV fluids through a wide-bore cannula: Once adrenaline has been administered, IV access should be obtained to administer steroids, fluids and antihistamines.

      5. Promethazine 50 mg IV: Once adrenaline has been administered, IV access should be obtained to administer steroids, fluids and antihistamines.

      It is important to note that administration of adrenaline should not be delayed and the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation should be assessed before administering any medication. IV access should also be obtained as soon as possible to administer the necessary medications and fluids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      43
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