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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman, a smoker, presents to the Emergency Department at 28 weeks’ gestation with a swollen left lower leg. She reported experiencing some pain and swelling in both legs in the past week, but woke up this morning with the left leg being tender and red.
Her medical history is unremarkable, but she is feeling short of breath and her vital signs are stable.
Upon examination, there is bilateral lower limb swelling, with the left side being significantly more swollen and painful upon palpation. The skin is also warm to the touch. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows no abnormalities.
What is the initial step in managing this patient's likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ultrasound Doppler of left lower leg
Correct Answer: Commence low-molecular-weight heparin treatment
Explanation:Management of Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, a swollen, erythematosus, and painful leg is treated as a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) until proven otherwise. A risk assessment should be performed at the booking visit to identify factors that increase the likelihood of venous thromboembolism (VTE). If a pregnant patient presents with symptoms suspicious of a DVT, treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin should be administered immediately, provided there are no contraindications. Treatment should not be delayed until investigations are performed, but if a Doppler scan of the deep veins in the legs precludes the diagnosis of DVT, treatment can be discontinued.
If investigations confirm DVT, treatment should continue throughout pregnancy and for 6 weeks postpartum, with a total of at least 3 months of treatment. Contraindications to low-molecular-weight heparin include heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, allergy, haemorrhagic disorders, recent cerebral haemorrhage, peptic ulceration, and active bleeding. A computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the standard method for diagnosing a pulmonary embolus, but due to the risk of radiation to the fetus, a ventilation-perfusion scan is used as first-line in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy, but may be considered as an alternative to heparin in cases where heparin is contraindicated and a VTE is diagnosed, following discussion with the haematology team.
If a leg Doppler confirms a DVT, no further investigation is required, and the patient can continue on treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin. However, if a Doppler shows no evidence of DVT, a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out a cause of shortness of breath such as pneumonia. If the chest X-ray is negative, a ventilation-perfusion scan should be performed to rule out a pulmonary embolus. Ultrasound Doppler is the gold standard for diagnosing DVT and is essential in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with severe back pain that has been ongoing for several hours. He is an ex-smoker with a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, and has undergone multiple surgeries for Crohn's disease in the past. An urgent abdominal ultrasound is ordered, which reveals a 5.1 cm infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Emergency endovascular repair of the aneurysm
Correct Answer: Elective endovascular repair of the aneurysm
Explanation:Options for Treating an Unruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm in a Symptomatic Patient
When faced with an unruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) in a symptomatic patient, there are several treatment options to consider. In this case, the aneurysm is located infra-renally and is not large enough to warrant surgical intervention based on size alone. However, the patient’s symptoms require action.
Elective endovascular repair of the aneurysm is the best option in this scenario. The patient can be sent home with analgesia and scheduled for endovascular repair in approximately one week. This approach is particularly suitable for patients over 70 years old, who tend to have better outcomes with endovascular repair than with open surgery. Additionally, the patient’s history of Crohn’s surgery puts them at risk for abdominal adhesions, which could complicate open surgery.
Emergency repair of the aneurysm, whether endovascular or open, is generally not recommended in this case since the aneurysm has not ruptured. Monitoring the aneurysm with ultrasound scans at 3-monthly intervals is a reasonable option for asymptomatic patients, but surgical intervention is necessary for symptomatic patients.
Overall, elective endovascular repair is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient’s unruptured AAA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old postal worker underwent a routine screening appointment for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and was diagnosed with an AAA measuring 4.2 cm at its widest diameter. What would be the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Three-monthly monitoring with ultrasound scanning
Correct Answer: Annual monitoring with ultrasound scanning
Explanation:Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that affects men aged 65 and over, putting them at risk of developing an enlarged aorta. To manage this condition, different approaches are taken depending on the size of the aneurysm.
Annual Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
Men aged 65 and over are offered screening via ultrasound scanning during the year they turn 65. Patients diagnosed with a small AAA (3.0-4.4 cm in diameter) are invited to return annually for monitoring. They are also given lifestyle advice, including smoking cessation, diet, and exercise.Discharge with Reassurance
Patients with a normal result (measurement of <3 cm in diameter) are discharged and do not require further screening tests as the condition is unlikely to progress to a dangerous extent. Three-Monthly Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
Patients with a medium-sized AAA (4.5-5.4 cm in diameter) are offered three-monthly ultrasound scanning.Referral to a Specialist Surgeon within Two Weeks for Further Assessment
Patients with a large AAA (5.5 cm or more in diameter) are referred to a specialist surgeon to be seen within two weeks to discuss treatment options. Surgical repair is usually advised, as long as there are no contraindications to surgery.Immediate Admission under a Surgical Team for Surgical Repair
Emergency repair is not indicated for an aneurysm measuring 4.2 cm. Emergency repair is usually only indicated if a patient has a leaking or ruptured aortic aneurysm.Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) According to Size
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presented to the clinic with occasional abdominal pain, for which his general practitioner could find no reason. After your assessment, you organise an ultrasound scan of the abdomen to rule out any pathology and incidentally find out that the patient has an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
Which statement best applies to an AAA?Your Answer: Repair is by abdominal aortic aneurysmorrhaphy
Correct Answer: Surveillance is carried out with CT scanning or ultrasound
Explanation:Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Diagnosis, Monitoring, and Treatment
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious medical condition that require careful monitoring and prompt treatment. Diagnosis is typically done through ultrasound screening, with men being invited for screening during their 65th year. Once an AAA is detected, monitoring is done through CT scanning or ultrasound, with the frequency of scans increasing as the aneurysm grows in size. If a leak is suspected, immediate surgical intervention is necessary, although a CT scan may be performed first to assess the extent of the leak. Surgery is typically done when the aneurysm reaches a diameter of 5.5 cm or greater, with repair options including open surgery with a synthetic graft or endovascular repair. Patients may present with central and upper abdominal pain radiating to their back, and misdiagnosis as renal colic can be fatal. Understanding the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of AAAs is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man presents with intermittent claudication. He has a body mass index of 32 kg/m2 and smokes 40 cigarettes a day. He admits that he has an extremely unhealthy diet. There is no family history of cardiovascular disease but his father died of complications of diabetes. His blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg.
What is the most likely cause of the claudication?Your Answer: Buerger’s disease
Correct Answer: Atherosclerosis
Explanation:Atherosclerosis, a disease commonly associated with the elderly, is now being observed in younger patients. This patient exhibits all the risk factors for atherosclerosis, which is the leading cause of intermittent claudication. While diabetes is not a direct cause of limb ischaemia, it is a risk factor for atherosclerosis, which this patient may have. Buerger’s disease, an arthritis that affects young male smokers, is rare and unlikely in this patient who is obese, hypertensive, and has a family history of diabetes. Coarctation of the aorta, which is characterized by hypertension and radiofemoral delay, should be considered in young patients with intermittent claudication, but there are no other signs in this patient. Takayasu’s disease, a rare arthritis that causes claudication and neurological signs, is more common in women and often presents with pulseless upper limbs due to arterial occlusion caused by intimal fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient presents with acute pain in his right calf, from the knee downwards, causing him great difficulty in walking. Of note, pulses are not palpable in the right limb below the knee. While standing, the right limb appears more erythematosus than the left, but this colour quickly fades on laying the patient flat.
Which one of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: Ankle–brachial pressure index measurement would be a useful tool in the above patient
Correct Answer: Chronic arterial insufficiency is likely to be an underlying factor in the above presentation
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Arterial Insufficiency and Acute Limb Ischaemia
Chronic arterial insufficiency can be a contributing factor to acute limb ischaemia, a condition where blood flow to a limb is suddenly blocked. In patients with pre-existing stenotic vessels, an embolus or thrombus can easily occlude the vessel, leading to acute limb ischaemia. While patients with chronic arterial insufficiency may develop collaterals, these may not prevent the symptoms of acute limb ischaemia. Paraesthesiae, or altered sensation, is a common symptom of acute limb ischaemia. While ankle-brachial pressure index measurement can be useful, it is of limited use in diagnosing acute limb ischaemia. A Fogarty catheter can be used for surgical embolectomy, and lumbar sympathectomy may be performed in chronic arterial insufficiency to increase distal blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman had a traditional high tie, strip and avulsion procedure for her varicose veins in the distribution of the long and short saphenous veins. She experienced difficulty walking after the surgery because she could not dorsiflex or evert her foot. The surgeon had warned her beforehand that nerve damage was a possibility.
What nerve was affected during the patient's varicose vein surgery?Your Answer: Lateral plantar nerve
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Understanding Foot Drop: Common Peroneal Nerve Damage
Foot drop, the inability to dorsiflex the foot, is often caused by damage to the common peroneal nerve. This nerve is commonly damaged during varicose vein surgery when the short saphenous vein is avulsed around the head and neck of the fibula. The nerve divides to innervate the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg, and paralysis of these compartments causes foot drop. Patients compensate for the loss of dorsiflexion by adopting a high-stepping gait, resulting in a loud slap with each step. Other nerves, such as the sciatic, medial plantar, lateral plantar, and tibial nerves, may cause different symptoms and pain locations. Understanding the specific nerve damage is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset, searing interscapular back pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes ramipril and amlodipine. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 110 beats per minute, blood pressure (BP) 140/91 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 per minute, oxygen saturation 95% on room air, temperature 37.1°C. Upon examination of the chest, there are no additional positive findings. The lungs expand symmetrically and have normal breath sounds. Heart sounds I and II are present without additional sounds. The initial electrocardiogram (ECG) was normal, and a portable chest X-ray showed a widened mediastinum as the only abnormality. What is the most useful investigation for diagnosing the patient's likely underlying condition?
Your Answer: Coronary angiogram
Correct Answer: CT thorax with intravenous (IV) contrast
Explanation:The sudden onset of intense, searing pain between the shoulder blades is a common symptom of aortic dissection, a condition where the inner layer of the aortic wall separates from the middle layer, creating a false and true aortic lumen. This can cause tachycardia and elevated blood pressure due to increased sympathetic activity. A widened mediastinum on an erect chest X-ray is a classic sign of aortic dissection, but other conditions can also cause this appearance. To diagnose aortic dissection, a CT thorax with IV contrast is recommended for detailed and rapid visualization. Treatment options range from medical management of blood pressure to emergency cardiothoracic surgery, depending on the extent of the dissection. Other diagnostic tests, such as a coronary angiogram, 24-hour ECG, troponin test, and echocardiogram, may not be as effective in diagnosing aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a serious and life-threatening cause of chest pain and can be classified based on the involvement of the ascending aorta and/or the descending aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old man, who is a heavy smoker, was seen in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic, complaining of severe pain in both legs, even at rest. On examination, he had chronic ulceration of his toes.
Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?Your Answer: Buerger’s disease
Explanation:The patient is suffering from Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans. This disease affects medium-sized and small arteries, particularly the tibial and radial arteries, and can extend to veins and nerves of the extremities. It is most commonly seen in heavy cigarette-smoking men, but there has been an increase in cases among women due to changing smoking trends. The disease typically begins before the age of 35 and causes severe pain, even at rest, due to neural involvement. Chronic ulcerations and gangrene can occur as later complications. Abstinence from smoking in the early stages can prevent further attacks. Other possible conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Kawasaki’s disease, polyarteritis nodosa, and Takayasu’s arthritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents with constant abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The pain came on suddenly. Examination of the abdomen reveals a central mass. You note that he has become clinically shocked.
He has a blood pressure of 76/45, heart rate 150, respiratory rate 28.
Which of these is the most important step in the definitive management of this patient?Your Answer: Arrange a computed tomography (CT) scan
Correct Answer: Arrange for surgery
Explanation:Emergency Management of a Ruptured Aortic Aneurysm
When a patient presents with symptoms of a ruptured aortic aneurysm, immediate action is necessary to save their life. The first step is to prepare the patient for surgery by informing the theatre, a vascular surgeon, and an anaesthetist. Without surgery, the mortality rate for a ruptured aneurysm is 100%. During surgery, a Dacron graft is inserted after clamping the aorta above the rupture.
While waiting for surgery, a blood transfusion may be necessary to replace lost blood. However, surgery is the definitive treatment. It is also important to crossmatch blood and transfuse as needed.
A computed tomography (CT) scan may be useful in diagnosing the condition, but it should not be performed until the patient is haemodynamically stable. In the meantime, obtaining an amylase level is necessary to rule out acute pancreatitis, although the presence of a mass suggests an aneurysm.
In summary, emergency management of a ruptured aortic aneurysm requires prompt action to prepare the patient for surgery, administer blood transfusions, and obtain necessary diagnostic tests. Without immediate intervention, the patient’s life is at risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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