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Question 1
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl visits the doctor with her mother, worried about not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has normal female genitalia but bilateral inguinal hernias. Additionally, she has breast buds and minimal pubic and axillary hair. The girl's weight and IQ are both within the normal range for her age. What is the probable underlying reason for her concern?
Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity
Explanation:Primary amenorrhoea can be caused by conditions such as Turner syndrome, where the absence of ovaries and uterus leads to underdeveloped inguinal hernias containing immature testes. Aromatase can cause breast bud development and sparse pubic hair, while the lack of menstruation is due to the absence of reproductive organs. Anorexia nervosa is not indicated in this case, as it typically presents with a low body mass index, distorted body image, and extreme dietary or exercise habits. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a possible cause of secondary amenorrhoea, often seen in patients with a high BMI, irregular menses, hyperandrogenism, and multiple ovarian follicles. If the patient had PCOS, other signs of hyperandrogenism, such as hirsutism or acne, would be expected. Pregnancy is another cause of secondary amenorrhoea.
Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 16-year-old known type 1 diabetic presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and drowsiness. During the examination, you detect a distinct smell of pear drops on her breath. Despite the severity of her condition, she insists on leaving to attend a friend's birthday party. After discussing the potential consequences of leaving, she appears to comprehend the risks and can articulate her decision. However, her parents believe she should remain for treatment. What course of action should you take?
Your Answer: Admit the patient for treatment, seeking legal advice if she continues to refuse treatment
Explanation:This person is below the age of 16 but is considered to have the ability to make decisions. As a result, they have the right to consent to treatment without the need for parental approval. However, if they choose to decline treatment, their best interests must be taken into account. In this case, the patient is suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis, and leaving without treatment would likely result in death. Therefore, it would be reasonable to conclude that it is in their best interests to receive treatment.
According to the General Medical Council’s ethical guidelines, parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person when it comes to treatment that is deemed to be in their best interests. However, if a child lacks the capacity to consent, parental consent can be relied upon. In Scotland, parents are unable to authorize treatment that a competent young person has refused. In England, Wales, and Northern Ireland, the laws regarding parents overriding a young person’s competent refusal are complex.
When a young person refuses treatment, the harm to their rights must be carefully weighed against the benefits of treatment to make decisions that are in their best interests. This is outlined in paragraphs 30-33 of the GMC’s ethical guidance for individuals aged 0-18 years.
Understanding Consent in Children
The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.
For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 7-year-old child is brought to the GP practice for an urgent appointment by their parent. They have a 7 day history of fever and dry cough but in the last 24hrs their parent has become increasingly concerned about their breathing. They also report the child is refusing food and has had very few wet nappies.
The child's observations are oxygen saturation 93% on air, respiratory rate 58 breaths/min, heart rate 160 bpm, blood pressure 85/45 mmHg and temperature 38.1ºC.
On examination, the child's breathing appears rapid with marked intercostal recession and use of accessory muscles. They are also making a grunting noise.
Which of these findings would indicate immediate referral to hospital by ambulance?Your Answer: Grunting
Explanation:Immediate admission would be necessary for a heart rate of 200bpm. A heart rate of 160 bpm would be worrisome and hospital evaluation should be contemplated, but the urgency would vary based on the patient’s clinical state.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 24-hour-old neonate requires a detailed examination on the Postnatal Ward. It was a forceps delivery at 41+3 weeks’ gestation. The detailed examination is normal, except you notice slight reduced tone in the right leg and reduced Moro reflex on the right. The leg is resting in a slightly extended position. The examination is otherwise normal.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Head magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Correct Answer: Refer to physiotherapy
Explanation:Assessing Erb’s Palsy in a Neonate: Appropriate Management and Investigations
Erb’s palsy is a neurological condition that commonly presents as reduced tone and movement in one arm, often due to shoulder dystocia during birth. In neonates, this can be identified by reduced Moro reflex and the arm resting in a waiter’s tip position. While Erb’s palsy is self-resolving, physiotherapy is recommended to strengthen the affected arm.
If there are no other neurological deficits, referral to a Paediatric Neurologist is not necessary. Cranial ultrasound and head MRI are also not appropriate investigations as they do not provide relevant information for this condition. Similarly, a shoulder X-ray is not necessary as the issue is neurological in nature. Overall, appropriate management and investigations for Erb’s palsy in a neonate involve physiotherapy and observation for resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman gives birth to a 37-week gestational age male neonate. Within 6 hours after delivery, the neonate shows signs of excessive respiratory efforts and tachypnoea. There is grunting and intercostal retraction. A chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary oedema with a ground-glass appearance. What antenatal examination findings are most likely to have been observed in the mother?
Your Answer: Fasting blood sugar of 14.0 mmol/l
Explanation:The neonate in question has a fasting blood sugar level of 14.0 mmol/l and is suffering from neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS). This is a common condition in premature infants, and those born to diabetic mothers are at an increased risk due to delayed lung maturation. An elevated total thyroxine concentration is a normal response to pregnancy and is not related to NRDS. Maternal hypocalcaemia also has no relation to NRDS. A positive indirect Coombs’ test indicates a risk of Rh isoimmunisation in the fetus, which can lead to complications such as erythroblastosis fetalis and jaundice, but is not directly related to NRDS. Elevated titres of anti-nuclear and anti-SSA antibodies are associated with maternal systemic lupus erythematosus and fetal conduction heart block, but again, this is not directly related to NRDS unless it leads to preterm birth. Overall, prematurity and maternal diabetes are the major risk factors for NRDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 4-week-old infant, born at term, presents to the Emergency Department with persistent jaundice since birth, pale stools and dark urine. The infant is currently being breastfed.
What is the most probable reason for this infant's jaundice?Your Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Jaundice in Infants
Jaundice in newborns that lasts for more than two weeks is considered pathological and requires medical attention. In this case, the infant is exhibiting signs of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is characterized by jaundice with pale stools and dark urine. This is indicative of biliary atresia, a condition that affects the liver and bile ducts.
Cystic fibrosis is another condition that may present in infants with recurrent respiratory infections, but it is not associated with jaundice. Cholelithiasis, or gallstones, is a common cause of obstructive jaundice, but it is more prevalent in middle-aged individuals. Breastfeeding jaundice occurs due to suboptimal milk intake, but it does not cause conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Physiological jaundice is common in infants and typically lasts for 1-2 weeks. However, if jaundice persists for more than two weeks, it is considered pathological and requires medical attention. It is important to understand the various causes of jaundice in infants to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department with symptoms of feeling generally unwell, being off food, and bleeding from the back passage. The child's mother reports no nausea or vomiting. On examination, the patient appears distressed and is tender in the right lower quadrant. No masses are felt in the abdomen. Vital signs show a heart rate of 170 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 68/37 mmHg, and temperature of 36.2 ºC. The patient has no known medical conditions or regular medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Peutz-Jeghers polyposis
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:The patient does not exhibit any of the typical symptoms associated with appendicitis, such as fever, nausea, vomiting, or loss of appetite. While paroxysmal abdominal colic pain is a common feature of many conditions, an underlying pathological cause has not been identified in this case. The child does not display the sudden onset of inconsolable crying episodes or pallor that is often seen in cases of colic. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a rare genetic disorder that causes hamartomatous polyposis, is unlikely given the patient’s age. Cecal volvulus, which is characterized by sudden onset colicky lower abdominal pain, abdominal distension, and a failure to pass flatus or stool, is also an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A baby born at 32 weeks’ gestation develops sudden abdominal distension and a purpuric rash. The nurses record the passage of blood and mucous per rectum during the first week of life in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit.
Which is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Explanation:Common Neonatal Gastrointestinal Disorders
Necrotising Enterocolitis: A medical emergency affecting formula-fed preterm infants, characterised by acute inflammation in different parts of the bowel, causing mucosal injury and necrosis, and may lead to perforation. Symptoms include diarrhoea, haematochezia, vomiting, abdominal wall erythema/rash, abdominal distension and pain. Treatment involves bowel rest and intravenous antibiotics, with severe cases requiring a laparotomy to remove necrotic bowel.
Haemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn: Associated with vitamin K deficiency, it can cause intracranial haemorrhage and bleeding in internal organs. Managed by vitamin K supplementation, replacement of blood and factor losses, and specialist care.
Gastroschisis: A congenital abnormality resulting in the herniation of portions of the bowel, liver and stomach outside the abdomen, through a para-umbilical defect in the anterior abdominal wall.
Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome: Characterised by acute renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia, it occurs mainly in young children and is commonly associated with infection. Symptoms include profuse diarrhoea, fever, lethargy, acute renal failure, anuria and seizures.
Hirschsprung’s Disease: Caused by the absence of ganglia in the distal colon, it produces a functional bowel obstruction and presents with delayed passage of meconium or chronic constipation from birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. The mother mentions that he had a recent bout of the flu. Upon examination, the boy appears alert with a heart rate of 80 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, temperature of 38.5ºC, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 98% on room air. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Reassure and discharge
Correct Answer: Refer for same-day assessment
Explanation:If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and also has a fever, it is crucial to refer them for immediate assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.
Transient synovitis is often the cause of hip pain in children following a previous illness, such as the flu. However, discharging the patient with oral antibiotics is not recommended as this condition is typically managed conservatively. Antibiotics may only be necessary if there are signs of a septic joint.
Similarly, discharging the patient with pain relief alone is not appropriate. Although a septic joint is unlikely, it cannot be ruled out without a formal assessment by orthopaedics.
Reassuring the patient and discharging them without assessment is also not an option. Given the child’s current fever and recent illness history, it is essential to conduct a thorough evaluation before considering discharge.
It is critical to refer a child with hip pain and a fever for same-day assessment to rule out the possibility of a septic joint. However, routine referral to orthopaedics is not necessary as this may cause unnecessary delays in urgent assessment.
Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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You are observing a doctor on the neonatal ward who is asked to assess a 3-hour-old baby delivered at 40+5 weeks by ventouse. The mother is concerned about the appearance of her baby's head. Upon examination, you notice a soft, puffy swelling at the back of the head with some light bruising from the ventouse cup. The swelling seems to extend across the suture lines. However, the baby appears to be in good health otherwise, and the neonatal hearing screen conducted earlier that morning was normal. What could be the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Caput succedaneum
Explanation:Caput succedaneum is a puffy swelling that occurs over the presenting part during prolonged ventouse delivery and resolves spontaneously. It differs from bulging fontanelle, which is caused by increased intracranial pressure, and cephalohaematoma, which is a swelling caused by fluid collecting between the periosteum and skull. Hydrocephalus is a condition where there is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid around the brain, and subaponeurotic haemorrhage is a rare condition caused by rupturing of emissary veins.
Understanding Caput Succedaneum
Caput succedaneum is a condition that refers to the swelling of the scalp at the top of the head, usually at the vertex. This swelling is caused by the mechanical trauma that occurs during delivery, particularly in prolonged deliveries or those that involve the use of vacuum delivery. The condition is characterized by soft, puffy swelling due to localized edema that crosses suture lines.
Compared to cephalohaematoma, which is a collection of blood under the scalp, caput succedaneum is caused by edema. While cephalohaematoma is limited to a specific area and does not cross suture lines, caput succedaneum can affect a larger area and cross suture lines. Fortunately, no treatment is needed for caput succedaneum, as the swelling usually resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office complaining of nightly coughing fits over the past 2 weeks. She has an inspiratory whoop and noisy breathing, but no signs of cyanosis or other abnormalities during the physical exam. The doctor diagnoses her with whooping cough. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, if a patient has developed a cough within the last 21 days and does not require hospitalization, macrolide antibiotics such as azithromycin or clarithromycin should be prescribed for children over 1 month old and non-pregnant adults. In this case, the patient does not meet the criteria for hospitalization due to their age, breathing difficulties, or complications. Along with antibiotics, patients should be advised to rest, stay hydrated, and use pain relievers like paracetamol or ibuprofen for symptom relief.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A newborn baby, delivered via C-section at term, has been diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) and is being reviewed by cardiology. The mother is feeling anxious and wants to know what risks her son may face. What is the high-risk factor associated with VSD in newborns?
Your Answer: Endocarditis
Explanation:Patients with VSD may require surgical intervention if their defect causes haemodynamic instability, while those with small shunts may not require treatment. However, all patients with VSD are at an increased risk of developing endocarditis, with a rate of 2.4 cases per 1000 patients per year. While pulmonary hypertension is common in patients with VSD, they are not at a higher risk of developing essential hypertension. Although VSD is associated with aneurysms of the ventricular septum, there is no known link to aortic aneurysms, carotid dissection, or papillary muscle atrophy.
Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 6-day-old baby boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his parents due to his projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. You arrange a blood gas reading.
What is the metabolic disorder likely to develop in this patient?Your Answer: Hypochloreamic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Acid-Base Imbalance in Infantile Pyloric Stenosis
Infantile pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes projectile vomiting on feeding in newborns. This condition leads to a specific type of acid-base imbalance known as hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. The loss of hydrochloric acid due to persistent vomiting results in a high pH and bicarbonate level, and a low chloride level.
The initial treatment for this condition involves resuscitation with sodium chloride, followed by surgical management once the chloride level has reached a near-normal level. It is important to note that persistent vomiting would not cause metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, hypochloremic acidosis, hyperchloremic acidosis, or hyperchloremic alkalosis. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in preventing complications associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old Caucasian baby girl is brought to her general practitioner, as her parents are concerned about a skin lump that has appeared on the left side of her neck. It is non-tender and does not seem to bother her, but it is growing in size. She is feeding well and is otherwise healthy. On examination, there is a 2 x 2 cm, firm and well-demarcated lesion in the left posterior triangle of the neck, with visible telangiectasia. There are no other skin lesions. The abdomen is soft, without masses.
What would be the next step in management?Your Answer: Oral Propranolol
Correct Answer: Medical photography and review again in 3 months
Explanation:This child has an infantile haemangioma, a benign lesion caused by abnormal vessel growth in the skin and deeper structures. These lesions usually appear shortly after birth and can grow rapidly in the first 3 months of life, peaking around the fifth month before regressing spontaneously. The haemangioma in this case is located in the posterior neck triangle and is asymptomatic, so medical photography will be taken and the child will be reassessed in 3 months. Treatment is only necessary if the haemangioma is troublesome, symptomatic, or affecting deeper structures. The first-line treatment is oral propranolol, but topical b blockers can be used if necessary. Surgery is reserved for rapidly evolving haemangiomas that are compressing vital structures or affecting essential functions. Topical timolol can also be used with caution if oral b blockers are not tolerated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia?
Your Answer: Syndactyly
Correct Answer: Trident hand
Explanation:Achondroplasia
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that results in disproportionate short stature. This condition is characterized by an enlarged head and short arms and legs when compared to the trunk length. Individuals with achondroplasia typically reach an adult height of about 4 feet, which is significantly shorter than the average height for adults. In addition to short stature, people with achondroplasia may have other physical features, such as short hands with stubby fingers and a trident hand, which is a separation between the middle and ring fingers.
In summary, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects bone growth and development, resulting in disproportionate short stature and other physical features. While there is no cure for achondroplasia, early intervention and management can help individuals with this condition lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding X-linked recessive inheritance?
Your Answer: A female child of a heterozygous female carrier has a 50% chance of being a carrier
Explanation:Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.
In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of bilateral knee pain that has been bothering her for the past 2 months, particularly in the mornings. She has also been feeling generally fatigued, but denies experiencing any fevers, weight loss, or rashes. Her mother has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), but otherwise, her family history is unremarkable. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are within normal limits. There is mild oedema in both knees and ankles, and passive movement of the knee joints elicits tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:The most common presentation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is oligoarticular (or pauciarticular) JIA, which typically affects up to four joints and is mild. The affected joints are usually larger ones like the knee, ankle, or elbow, and common symptoms include pain, stiffness, and fatigue. Other symptoms may include rash, fever, or dry/gritty eyes. Having a family history of autoimmune disease, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, increases the risk of developing JIA.
Ewing sarcoma is a primary bone cancer that usually affects long bones and causes localized pain and swelling. It is unlikely to present symmetrically and typically affects only one side of the body.
Osgood-Schlatter disease is an inflammation of the growth plate at the tibial tubercle, which is caused by traction from the quadriceps. It usually occurs in adolescents who are involved in sports/athletics and can affect both tibias, although it typically presents on only one side. The pain is worse during exercise and is not associated with knee effusions.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic disorder that affects multiple systems and often includes arthritis or arthralgia. However, in this case, the absence of other systemic symptoms or rash suggests that the primary issue is arthritis, despite the family history.
Understanding Pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Pauciarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that affects children under the age of 16 and lasts for more than six weeks. It is characterized by joint pain and swelling, typically in medium-sized joints such as the knees, ankles, and elbows. This type of JIA is called pauciarticular because it affects four or fewer joints. It is the most common type of JIA, accounting for approximately 60% of cases.
In addition to joint pain and swelling, children with pauciarticular JIA may experience a limp. It is also possible for the antinuclear antibody (ANA) test to be positive in cases of JIA, which is associated with anterior uveitis. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the symptoms of pauciarticular JIA and seek medical attention if they suspect their child may be affected. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent long-term joint damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Duodenal atresia
Correct Answer: Ataxic gait
Explanation:Down’s Syndrome and Cognitive Decline
Cerebellar dysfunction is not a characteristic of Down’s syndrome. However, individuals with this condition may experience a decline in memory and cognitive abilities similar to Alzheimer’s disease as they approach their mid-thirties. This syndrome is characterized by a gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. It is important to note that this decline is not universal and may vary in severity among individuals with Down’s syndrome. Despite this, it is crucial to monitor cognitive function in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A five-year-old boy is rescued with his asylum-seeking parents from a boat off the coast. The child is visibly malnourished, and his parents reveal that due to conflict in their home country, he has spent most of his life hidden indoors and in shelters.
Upon skeletal examination, the child displays bossing of the forehead, bowing of his legs, and significant kyphoscoliosis of the spine. What radiological feature is commonly associated with this condition?Your Answer: Ballooning
Correct Answer: Widening of joints
Explanation:The widening of wrist joints in a child may indicate the presence of Rickets, a bone disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. This condition results in poorly mineralized bones during growth and development. Radiologically, Rickets is characterized by excess non-mineralized osteoid at the growth plate, leading to joint widening. Ballooning, osteolysis, periarticular erosions, and sclerotic rims are not associated with Rickets, but rather with other bone conditions such as rare bone malignancies, Paget’s disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.
Understanding Rickets: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition called osteomalacia can occur.
There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and lack of sunlight. Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as the rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, and soft skull bones in early life (known as craniotabes).
To diagnose rickets, doctors may perform tests to measure vitamin D levels, serum calcium levels, and alkaline phosphatase levels. Treatment for rickets typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
In summary, rickets is a condition that affects bone development and can lead to soft and easily deformed bones. It is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D and can be predisposed by several factors. Symptoms include bone and joint pain, limb abnormalities, and swelling at the costochondral junction. Treatment involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A toddler with macrosomia has had a difficult delivery, owing to shoulder dystocia. The obstetrician pulled the child’s head downwards towards the floor to disengage the anterior shoulder from below the pubic bones. When the child is having a check-up prior to discharge, the paediatrician notes that the left upper limb is adducted and medially rotated, with extension at the elbow joint. When questioned, the mother admits that the child has not been moving it.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Erb–Duchenne palsy due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus
Explanation:Differentiating Brachial Plexus Injuries: Causes and Symptoms
The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the spinal cord and supplies the upper limb. Trauma to this network can result in various types of injuries, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some of the common types of brachial plexus injuries and their distinguishing features:
Erb-Duchenne Palsy: This injury occurs due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus, typically during obstructed labor or delivery. The affected muscles include those supplied by the musculocutaneous, radial, and axillary nerves, resulting in adduction and medial rotation of the arm, wrist drop, and sensory loss along the posterolateral aspect of the limb.
Isolated Radial Nerve Injury: This type of injury is associated with paralysis of the wrist and digital extensors, as well as the triceps. However, medial rotation of the humerus is not affected.
Klumpke’s Palsy: This injury is caused by trauma to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, often during difficult delivery or sudden upward stretching of the upper limb. It results in claw hand due to damage to T1, causing paralysis of the short muscles of the hand.
Isolated Axillary Nerve Injury: With this type of injury, the wrist extensors function normally.
Isolated Musculocutaneous Nerve Injury: This injury is not associated with wrist drop.
In summary, understanding the specific symptoms associated with each type of brachial plexus injury can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to see GP by his mom with a seal-like barking cough. His mom is worried as he seems to be struggling with his breathing, especially at night.
On examination, he is alert and engaging, although has mild sternal indrawing and appears tired. His observations are as follows:
Heart rate: 90 bpm
Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg
Oxygen saturation: 98% on air
Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
Temperature: 37.2 C°
You suspect croup. What statement best fits this diagnosis?Your Answer: The treatment is oral dexamethasone for 3 days
Correct Answer: It is more common in autumn
Explanation:Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5˚C, heart rate 170 bpm, respiratory rate 60/min, oxygen saturation 92% on room air, blood pressure 100/65 mmHg, capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Her parents report that she has been eating poorly for the past few days and has had a high temperature for the past 24 hours. A senior clinician has admitted her and started IV antibiotics, IV fluids, and supplemental oxygen. The patient is currently awake and alert.
According to the NICE pediatric traffic light system, which of the following in her presentation is a red flag?Your Answer: Tachycardia
Correct Answer: Tachypnoea
Explanation:The child’s capillary refill time is normal, as it falls within the acceptable range of less than 3 seconds. However, his tachycardia is a cause for concern, as a heart rate over 160 bpm is considered an amber flag for his age. Although reduced skin turgor is not mentioned, it would be considered a red flag indicating severe dehydration and poor circulation according to the NICE traffic light system. As the child is older than 3 months, a temperature above 38˚C would not be considered a red flag.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A mother brings her baby to the GP for a check-up and seeks guidance on her child's developmental milestones. She mentions that her baby was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation. Considering the premature birth, at what age can the baby be expected to display a responsive social smile?
Your Answer: 14 to 16 weeks
Explanation:When assessing milestones for premature babies, their corrected age is used instead of their actual age. The corrected age is calculated by subtracting the number of weeks the baby was born early from 40 weeks. For example, a baby born at 32 weeks gestation would have a corrected age of 8 weeks less than their actual age. The normal age for a responsive smile is 6 to 8 weeks, but for a premature baby, this milestone should be expected at 14 to 16 weeks of corrected age. The corrected age is used until the child reaches 2 years old.
The table summarizes developmental milestones for social behavior, feeding, dressing, and play. Milestones include smiling at 6 weeks, using a spoon and cup at 12-15 months, and playing with other children at 4 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are conducting an 8-month well-baby visit for a boy and his mother. The physical examination is normal, and you proceed to discuss the child's immunizations. The mother expresses concern about recent measles outbreaks and asks when her son should receive the first dose of the MMR vaccine.
When is the MMR vaccine typically administered as part of routine immunizations?Your Answer: At 3 months of age
Correct Answer: At 12-13 months of age
Explanation:The MMR vaccine is administered as a standard practice when a child reaches 12-13 months of age, and then again during the preschool booster at 3-4 years old.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy visits the GP with his father. His father is worried as he has noticed scars on his son's arms and after a lengthy conversation, his son has confessed to self-harming on multiple occasions. The GP has decided to refer the boy to CAMHS (Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services). What is the most appropriate approach to minimize the likelihood of future self-harm?
Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Self-Harm: Psychological Interventions and Care Plans
Self-harm is a serious issue that requires appropriate treatment. While drug treatment is not recommended, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), psychodynamic therapy, and problem-solving therapy can be effective. It is important to offer sessions of a psychological intervention that are specifically structured for people who self-harm, while also tailoring the treatment plan to each individual. Family therapy is not recommended for this particular issue. Developing a care plan with agreed-upon aims for longer-term treatment is also crucial. Overall, a combination of psychological interventions and care plans can help reduce self-harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman brings her 8-week-old baby to an emergency GP appointment. The mother reports that her baby is extremely fussy in the evenings, crying incessantly and pulling up their legs. The baby was delivered vaginally at full term and is exclusively breastfed. The baby's weight is normal and there are no other health concerns. Upon examination, everything appears to be normal. What course of action would you suggest?
Your Answer: Reassurance and support
Explanation:Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, which is often worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, there is no known cure for infantile colic. However, there are some remedies that parents can try to alleviate the symptoms. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise against the use of simethicone or lactase drops, such as Infacol® and Colief®, respectively. These remedies have not been proven to be effective in treating infantile colic.
Parents can try other methods to soothe their baby, such as holding them close, rocking them gently, or using a pacifier. Some parents also find that white noise or music can help calm their baby. It is important to remember that infantile colic is a temporary condition that usually resolves on its own by the time the baby is three to four months old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father after noticing bruising on her arms. The bruising started 2 days ago and has gotten worse. The girl has no significant medical history, but had a mild cold 4 weeks ago. Upon examination, the only notable finding is extensive bruising on her upper limbs and neck. Routine blood tests were conducted and the results are as follows (with age-appropriate reference ranges): Hb 85 g/L (110-140), Platelets 68 * 109/L (150-450), WBC 19.0 * 109/L (5.0-17.0), Neutrophils 0.72 * 109/L (1.5-8.0).
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for a 6-year-old boy presenting with bruising, anaemia, and neutropenia is acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, which is the most common form of childhood leukaemia. Other forms of leukaemia, such as acute myeloid leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, and chronic myeloid leukaemia, are less likely to be found in children and therefore not the best answer. It is important to note that CML is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome and often presents with fatigue and mild anaemia symptoms.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with his respiratory specialist. He has been experiencing more frequent respiratory infections and is seeking advice on how to minimize his risk of contracting further infections.
What is the most suitable answer?Your Answer: Minimise contact with other cystic fibrosis patients
Explanation:To reduce the risk of getting infections, the 23-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis should minimize contact with other patients with the same condition. It is not recommended to introduce a low-calorie diet, but rather to have a high-calorie diet. Exercise and chest physiotherapy are also recommended. While a salbutamol inhaler can provide relief for breathlessness, it will not reduce the risk of infections. Enzyme supplements are useful in treating cystic fibrosis, but they do not reduce the risk of infection.
Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.
Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.
Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.
It is important to note that the standard recommendation for CF patients has changed from high-calorie, low-fat diets to high-calorie diets to reduce the amount of steatorrhea. With a multidisciplinary approach to management, patients with CF can lead fulfilling lives and manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought in by ambulance after her parents awoke in the middle of the night to a harsh coughing episode and noted she had difficulty breathing. She has been coryzal over the last 2 days but has never had any episodes like this before. The paramedics have given a salbutamol nebuliser, to some effect, but she continues to have very noisy breathing. Oxygen saturations are 94% on air, with a respiratory rate of 50.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute epiglottitis
Correct Answer: Croup
Explanation:Pediatric Respiratory Conditions: Croup and Acute Epiglottitis
Croup is a common upper respiratory tract infection in children caused by the parainfluenza virus. It leads to laryngotracheobronchitis and upper airway obstruction, resulting in symptoms such as a barking cough, stridor, and difficulty breathing. Treatment involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or inhaled budesonide, oxygen, and inhaled adrenaline in severe cases.
Viral-induced wheeze and asthma are unlikely diagnoses in this case due to the lack of wheeze and minimal improvement with salbutamol. Inhalation of a foreign body is also unlikely given the absence of a history of playing with an object.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition that presents similarly to croup. It is caused by inflammation of the epiglottis, usually due to streptococci. Symptoms develop rapidly over a few hours and include difficulty swallowing, muffled voice, drooling, cervical lymphadenopathy, and fever. The tripod sign, where the child leans on outstretched arms to assist with breathing, is a characteristic feature.
In conclusion, prompt recognition and appropriate management of pediatric respiratory conditions such as croup and acute epiglottitis are crucial to prevent complications and ensure optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the neonatal unit. After a few hours, the child shows signs of nasal flaring, chest wall indrawing, and appears to have jaundice. The observations show a heart rate of 75/min, a respiratory rate of 68/min, and a temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most common organism responsible for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:The leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is infection by group B streptococcus.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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