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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is currently 35 weeks pregnant...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is currently 35 weeks pregnant and has been admitted to the hospital due to severe pre-eclampsia. The obstetric team is worried about the possibility of eclampsia.

      What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Severe Pre-eclampsia and Eclampsia

      The recommended treatment for severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia is intravenous magnesium sulphate. In addition, antihypertensive treatment is also important, with labetalol being the first line of treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Nifedipine and methyldopa also have a role to play.

      Magnesium sulphate should be administered to patients with severe hypertension and proteinuria, as well as those with mild or moderate hypertension and proteinuria who exhibit symptoms such as severe headache, problems with vision, severe pain just below the ribs or vomiting, papilloedema, signs of clonus, liver tenderness, HELLP syndrome, platelet count falling to below 100 ×109/L, or abnormal liver enzymes.

      The administration of magnesium sulphate involves a 4 g loading dose given intravenously over five minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 g/hr for 24 hours. In the event of recurrent seizures, an additional bolus dose of 2-4 g should be given over five minutes.

      Overall, the treatment for severe pre-eclampsia and eclampsia involves a combination of intravenous magnesium sulphate and antihypertensive medication, with the dosage and administration of magnesium sulphate varying depending on the patient’s symptoms and condition.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman visits your clinic in the third trimester as her foetus...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits your clinic in the third trimester as her foetus is larger than expected for the gestational age. She has pre-existing type 2 diabetes and is taking medication to manage her blood glucose levels. She wants to know which medication is safe to take while breastfeeding.

      Which of the following medications can she continue taking?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking sulfonylureas (such as gliclazide) as there is a potential risk of causing hypoglycemia in newborns. Similarly, exenatide, liraglutide, and sitagliptin should also be avoided during breastfeeding. However, it is safe to use metformin while breastfeeding.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old asthmatic woman has been brought to the emergency department after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old asthmatic woman has been brought to the emergency department after experiencing seizures during her pregnancy. She is currently 35 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with gestational hypertension by her doctor. She is taking oral medication to manage her condition. Upon examination, her urine test shows proteinuria (3+) and her blood pressure is elevated at 170/115 mmHg. As a result, the baby is delivered and the patient's seizures have ceased. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her seizures after delivery, given her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate for 24 hours after delivery/last seizure

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that magnesium sulphate treatment should continue for 24 hours after delivery or the last seizure. This treatment is used to prevent and treat seizures in mothers with eclampsia. In this case, the patient is showing signs of eclampsia due to high protein levels in her urine, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and seizures. Therefore, she needs to be admitted and continue magnesium treatment for 24 hours after delivery or the last seizure. Magnesium helps prevent seizures by relaxing smooth muscle tissues and slowing uterine contractions. Labetalol is not the correct answer as it is used for long-term treatment of hypertension, which may not be necessary for this patient after delivery. Nifedipine with hydralazine may be more suitable for her hypertension as she is asthmatic. Magnesium sulphate treatment for 12 or 48 hours after delivery or the last seizure is not recommended according to guidelines, which suggest 24 hours is the appropriate duration.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for her 41 week check-up with consistently high...

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    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for her 41 week check-up with consistently high blood pressure readings of 140/90 mmHg for the past 2 weeks. Her initial blood pressure at booking was 110/70 mmHg. Labetalol is administered to manage the hypertension. What is the recommended next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Offer induction of labour

      Explanation:

      At 41 weeks gestation, the pregnancy is considered post term. The woman can choose between induction of labour or expectant management. However, the risks to the foetus are higher at this stage, especially for those with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia, who are usually advised to deliver. Medical induction of labour is the recommended option, while caesarean section is only necessary in cases of foetal compromise. Treatment is not required for this level of blood pressure.

      Understanding Post-Term Pregnancy

      A post-term pregnancy is defined by the World Health Organization as one that has gone beyond 42 weeks. This means that the baby has stayed in the womb for longer than the usual 40 weeks of gestation. However, this prolonged pregnancy can lead to potential complications for both the baby and the mother.

      For the baby, reduced placental perfusion and oligohydramnios can occur, which means that the baby may not be receiving enough oxygen and nutrients. This can lead to fetal distress and even stillbirth. On the other hand, for the mother, there is an increased risk of intervention during delivery, including forceps and caesarean section. There is also a higher likelihood of labor induction, which can be more difficult and painful for the mother.

      It is important for pregnant women to be aware of the risks associated with post-term pregnancy and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Regular prenatal check-ups and monitoring can help detect any potential complications early on and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old primigravida woman presents to the maternity centre in labour at 39...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old primigravida woman presents to the maternity centre in labour at 39 weeks. She has been diagnosed with HIV and has been on regular antiretroviral therapy. Her viral load at 37 weeks is as follows:
      HIV Viral Load 35 RNA copies/mL (0-50)
      What delivery plan would be most suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prepare for non-emergency caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Continue with normal vaginal delivery

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman has a viral load of less than 50 copies/mL at 36 weeks, vaginal delivery is recommended. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is to proceed with vaginal delivery. It is not necessary to prepare for a caesarian section as the pregnancy is considered safe without surgical intervention. Re-testing the HIV viral load is not necessary as the current recommendation is to test at 36 weeks. Starting antiretroviral infusion during vaginal delivery is also not necessary as the woman is already on regular therapy and has an undetectable viral load. Antiretroviral infusion is typically used during a caesarean section when the viral load is greater than 50 copies/mL.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.

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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding and acute...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding and acute abdominal pain. She appears to be in distress and a pregnancy test comes back positive. During a vaginal examination, there are indications of tissue being expelled from the uterus. The patient is diagnosed with a miscarriage.
      What type of miscarriage is she experiencing?

      Your Answer: Inevitable miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Types of Miscarriage: Understanding the Differences

      Miscarriage is a devastating experience for any woman. It is important to understand the different types of miscarriage to help manage the situation and provide appropriate care. Here are the different types of miscarriage and their characteristics:

      Inevitable Miscarriage: This occurs when the products of conception are being passed vaginally, and the cervical os is open. It is an inevitable event.

      Complete Miscarriage: This occurs when all the products of conception have been passed, and the cervical os is closed.

      Threatened Miscarriage: This is characterised by vaginal bleeding and cramps, but the patient is not passing tissue vaginally. The uterus is of the right size for dates, and the cervical os is closed.

      Septic Miscarriage: This occurs when there are retained products of conception in the uterus or cervical canal, leading to infection. The cervical os is likely to be open.

      Missed Miscarriage: This is when the fetus dies in utero but is not expelled from the uterus. The uterus is small for dates, and the cervical os is closed.

      Understanding the different types of miscarriage can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support to women experiencing this difficult event.

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  • Question 7 - You review the blood results taken from a 12-week pregnant woman at her...

    Incorrect

    • You review the blood results taken from a 12-week pregnant woman at her booking visit. In addition to the standard antenatal bloods she also had her rubella status checked as she didn't have the MMR vaccine as a child. She is currently in good health.
      Rubella IgG NOT detected
      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise monthly rubella IgM checks + avoid infectious contacts

      Correct Answer: Advise her of the risks and the need to keep away from anyone who has rubella

      Explanation:

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman has recently given birth to a healthy baby without any...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has recently given birth to a healthy baby without any complications. She is curious about iron supplementation and has undergone blood tests which reveal a Hb level of 107 g/L. What is the appropriate Hb cut-off for initiating treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer: 105

      Correct Answer: 100

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.

      If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman is eight weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is eight weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy. She has had clinical hypothyroidism for the past four years and takes 50 micrograms of levothyroxine daily. She reports feeling well and denies any symptoms. You order thyroid function tests, which reveal the following results:
      Free thyroxine (fT4) 20 pmol/l (11–22 pmol/l)
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2.1 μu/l (0.17–3.2 μu/l)
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue on the same dose of levothyroxine at present as the patient is euthyroid

      Correct Answer: Increase levothyroxine by 25 mcg and repeat thyroid function tests in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypothyroidism in Pregnancy: Importance of Levothyroxine Dosing and Thyroid Function Tests

      Hypothyroidism is a common condition in pregnancy that requires careful management to ensure optimal fetal development and maternal health. Levothyroxine is the mainstay of treatment for hypothyroidism, and its dosing needs to be adjusted during pregnancy to account for the physiological changes that occur. Here are some key recommendations for managing hypothyroidism in pregnancy:

      Increase Levothyroxine by 25 mcg and Repeat Thyroid Function Tests in Two Weeks

      As soon as pregnancy is confirmed, levothyroxine treatment should be increased by 25 mcg, even if the patient is currently euthyroid. This is because women without thyroid disease experience a physiological increase in serum fT4 until the 12th week of pregnancy, which is not observed in patients with hypothyroidism. Increasing levothyroxine dose mimics this surge and ensures adequate fetal development. Thyroid function tests should be repeated two weeks later to ensure a euthyroid state.

      Perform Thyroid Function Tests in the First and Second Trimesters

      Regular thyroid function tests should be performed in pregnancy, starting in the preconception period if possible. Tests should be done at least once per trimester and two weeks after any changes in levothyroxine dose.

      Continue on the Same Dose of Levothyroxine at Present if Euthyroid

      If the patient is currently euthyroid, continue on the same dose of levothyroxine. However, as soon as pregnancy is confirmed, increase the dose by 25 mcg as described above.

      Return to Pre-Pregnancy Dosing Immediately Post-Delivery

      After delivery, thyroid function tests should be performed 2-6 weeks postpartum, and levothyroxine dose should be adjusted to return to pre-pregnancy levels based on the test results.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism in pregnancy requires careful attention to levothyroxine dosing and regular thyroid function testing. By following these recommendations, we can ensure the best outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. She missed her last menstrual period and had unprotected sexual intercourse 8 weeks ago. She denies any vaginal discharge or bleeding and has no urinary symptoms. On examination, her abdomen is soft with mild suprapubic tenderness. Her vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg. A pregnancy test is performed and comes back positive. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer for an urgent outpatient transvaginal ultrasound scan this week

      Correct Answer: Arrange immediate referral to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Women with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be referred for immediate assessment to exclude ectopic pregnancy, which could be fatal. Referral should be made even if an ultrasound cannot be arranged immediately, as the patient may require monitoring in hospital before their scan. Serial hCG measurements should not be done in secondary care, and referral to a sexual health clinic alone is not appropriate.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman presents at 28 weeks’ gestation with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents at 28 weeks’ gestation with a 3-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency and mild lower abdominal pain. A urine dipstick was performed, showing 2+ blood, and is positive for nitrites. There is no glycosuria or proteinuria. The patient has previously had an allergic reaction to trimethoprim.
      What is the most appropriate antibiotic for treating this patient's urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Urinary Tract Infections in Pregnancy: A Guide

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in pregnancy and require prompt treatment to prevent complications. When choosing an antibiotic, it is important to consider its safety for both the mother and the developing fetus. Here is a guide to some commonly used antibiotics for UTIs in pregnancy.

      Nitrofurantoin: This is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE guidelines for UTIs in pregnancy. It is safe to use, but should be avoided near term as it can cause neonatal haemolysis. It should also not be used during breastfeeding. Side-effects may include agranulocytosis, arthralgia, anaemia, chest pain and diarrhoea.

      Erythromycin: This antibiotic is not routinely used for UTIs in pregnancy, but is considered safe for both mother and fetus.

      cephalexin: This beta-lactam antibiotic is licensed as second-line treatment for UTIs in pregnancy. It is safe to use and has no documented fetal complications.

      Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic is not used for UTIs in pregnancy, but is safe for both mother and fetus.

      Trimethoprim: This antibiotic is no longer recommended for UTIs in pregnancy due to its interference with folate metabolism. If no other options are available, it can be given with increased folate intake.

      Remember to always consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication during pregnancy.

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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth to her daughter through normal vaginal delivery 12 hours ago. She asks about contraceptive options as she feels her family is complete. She has a clean medical history and had no complications during her pregnancy or labour. She has previously used the intrauterine system (IUS) and wishes to continue with it. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer: She may have the IUS inserted up to 48 hours after delivery if she wishes

      Explanation:

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after a minimum of 4 weeks. However, it is important to note that insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks after delivery should be avoided due to the increased risk of expulsion and lack of data on uterine perforation with newer models. In addition to general contraindications, contraindications to postpartum insertion within 48 hours include peripartum chorioamnionitis, endometritis, puerperal sepsis, or post-partum haemorrhage. Waiting a minimum of 6 weeks or 2 months after delivery is not necessary. If waiting the recommended minimum of 4 weeks, the progesterone-only pill may be used as an interim measure to reduce the risk of pregnancy.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old presents to the GP after a positive pregnancy test. She reports her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and this is her first pregnancy. She has a medical history of SLE and asthma. After discussing vitamin D and folic acid supplements, you advise her to schedule a booking appointment with the midwife. What other advice would be appropriate to provide?

      Your Answer: To stop taking corticosteroid inhaler for duration of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: To take low-dose aspirin from 12 weeks to term of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born via normal vaginal delivery and weighs 3.8 kg. The baby has a normal Newborn and Infant Physical Examination (NIPE) after birth and the mother recovers well following the delivery. The mother wishes to breastfeed her baby and is supported to do so by the midwives on the ward.

      They are visited at home by the health visitor two weeks later. The health visitor asks how they have been getting on and the mother explains that she has been experiencing problems with breastfeeding and that her baby often struggles to latch on to her breast. She explains that this has made her very anxious that she is doing something wrong and has made her feel like she is failing as a mother. When her baby does manage to latch on to feed he occasionally gets reflux and vomits afterward. The health visitor weighs the baby who is now 3.4kg.

      What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Refer her to a midwife-led breastfeeding clinic

      Explanation:

      If a baby loses more than 10% of its birth weight, it is necessary to refer the mother and baby to a midwife for assistance in increasing the baby’s weight.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test, despite having an intrauterine system. She is urgently referred to the emergency department where an ultrasound scan confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a visible heartbeat. The patient has never been pregnant before but desires to have a family in the future. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      For women without other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the preferred first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingostomy. This is the case for a patient with visible foetal heartbeat and pain, as expectant management would be inappropriate and methotrexate is not suitable. Misoprostol is also not appropriate as it is used for incomplete miscarriages, which is not the case for this patient.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal visit. She has a history of unprovoked VTE, and the physician discusses thromboprophylaxis with her. What treatment pathway should be followed based on her risk?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) antenatally + 6 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that causes resistance to the breakdown of Factor V by activated Protein C, leading to an increased risk of blood clots. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.37a) for preventing blood clots in pregnant women with this condition. As this patient has a history of VTE, she is at high risk during and after pregnancy and requires both antenatal and postnatal thromboprophylaxis. It is important to note that postnatal prophylaxis must be given for six weeks following antenatal prophylaxis.

      Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.

      Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.

      In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 18 - You are a FY-1 doctor working in obstetrics. For one day a week...

    Incorrect

    • You are a FY-1 doctor working in obstetrics. For one day a week you are based in the early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU). You are assessing a 28-year-old female with a suspected threatened miscarriage. How does this condition typically manifest?

      Your Answer: Per-vaginal bleeding and an open cervical os

      Correct Answer: Painless per-vaginal bleeding and a closed cervical os

      Explanation:

      A threatened miscarriage is characterized by bleeding, but the cervical os remains closed. Miscarriages can be classified as threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, or missed. Mild bleeding and little to no pain are typical symptoms of a threatened miscarriage. In contrast, an inevitable miscarriage is marked by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Inevitable miscarriages will not result in a continued pregnancy and will progress to incomplete or complete miscarriages.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

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  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, visits her midwife for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, visits her midwife for a check-up. She has a BMI of 33 kg/m² and no other medical conditions. The patient is anxious about gestational diabetes, which she believes is common in larger women. She has one child previously, a boy, who was born after a complicated and prolonged delivery. He weighed 4.6kg at birth and required no additional post-natal care. There is no family history of any pregnancy-related issues. What is the most appropriate test to address her concerns and medical history?

      Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 16-20 weeks

      Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      The preferred method for diagnosing gestational diabetes is still the oral glucose tolerance test.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

    On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

      On examination, her abdomen is non-tender with the uterus an appropriate size for her gestation. There is no visible rash, although she is mildly jaundiced. Her heart rate is 76/min, blood pressure 130/64 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturations are 99% in air, temperature 36.9°C.

      A set of blood results reveal:
      Hb 112g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l Bilirubin 56 µmol/l Platelets 240 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l ALP 360 u/l WBC 8.5 109/l Urea 4.8 mmol/l ALT 86 u/l Neuts 5.9 109/l Creatinine 76 µmol/l γGT 210 u/l Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l Albumin 35 g/l

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which commonly causes itching in the third trimester. This condition is characterized by elevated liver function tests (LFTs), particularly alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), with a lesser increase in alanine transaminase (ALT). Patients may also experience jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, and steatorrhea. Treatment often involves ursodeoxycholic acid. Biliary colic is unlikely due to the absence of abdominal pain. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is rare and presents with a hepatic picture on LFTs, along with nausea, vomiting, jaundice, and potential encephalopathy. HELLP syndrome is characterized by haemolytic anaemia and low platelets, which are not present in this case. Pre-eclampsia is also unlikely as the patient does not have hypertension or other related symptoms, although late pre-eclampsia may cause hepatic derangement on LFTs.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old multiparous woman arrives at 38 weeks gestation in active labour. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old multiparous woman arrives at 38 weeks gestation in active labour. She has recently moved from a low-income country and has not received any prenatal care or screening tests. The patient delivers a healthy 3.5kg baby boy vaginally. However, the newborn develops respiratory distress, fever, and tachycardia shortly after birth. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Group B septicaemia

      Explanation:

      Newborn infants are most commonly affected by severe early-onset (< 7 days) infection caused by Group B streptococcus. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old woman (G1P1) gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman (G1P1) gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a physiological third stage of labor. She notices some brown mucousy vaginal discharge with blood, which amounts to around 120ml of blood. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft but tender, and she has a GCS of 15, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate of 88 bpm, and temperature of 36.6C. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Provide sanitary pads

      Explanation:

      After a vaginal delivery, the loss of blood exceeding 500 ml is referred to as postpartum haemorrhage.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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  • Question 23 - Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with epilepsy and is...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with epilepsy and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has just given birth to a baby boy and is uncertain about breastfeeding. Samantha is worried that her medication may harm her baby if she continues to breastfeed. What guidance would you offer Samantha regarding her antiepileptic medication and breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Switch to lamotrigine, continue breastfeeding

      Correct Answer: Continue carbamazepine, continue breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Mothers often have concerns about the use of antiepileptic medication during and after pregnancy, particularly when it comes to breastfeeding. However, according to a comprehensive document released by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, nearly all antiepileptic drugs are safe to use while breastfeeding. This is because only negligible amounts of the medication are passed to the baby through breast milk, and studies have not shown any negative impact on the child’s cognitive development. Therefore, it is recommended that mothers continue their current antiepileptic regime and are encouraged to breastfeed. It is important to note that stopping the medication without consulting a neurologist can lead to further seizures.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.

      A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

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  • Question 24 - During routine antenatal swabs, a mother is found to be colonised with Group...

    Incorrect

    • During routine antenatal swabs, a mother is found to be colonised with Group B Streptococcus. However, she did not receive adequate intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis and she delivers a healthy baby boy by vaginal delivery. Her baby does not require any resuscitation and remains well in the postnatal ward. The mother is keen to be discharged home. What is the best course of action for her child?

      Your Answer: Intravenous antibiotics for 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Regular observations for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      If a mother is colonized with group B streptococcus, there is a slight risk of early onset sepsis in the newborn. If a newborn has only one minor risk factor for early onset sepsis, they should be kept in the hospital for at least 24 hours and monitored closely. If there are two or more minor risk factors or one red flag, the newborn should receive empirical antibiotic therapy with Benzylpenicillin and Gentamicin and undergo a full septic screen. Red flags include suspected or confirmed infection in another baby in the case of a multiple pregnancy, parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the woman for confirmed or suspected invasive bacterial infection during labor or in the 24-hour periods before and after birth (excluding intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis), respiratory distress starting more than 4 hours after birth, seizures, need for mechanical ventilation in a term baby, and signs of shock.

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of mild left iliac...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of mild left iliac fossa pain that has been present for three days. She reports that she discontinued her oral contraceptives seven weeks ago due to side effects and has not had a menstrual period for approximately two months. During her visit, a pregnancy test is conducted, which returns positive. The possibility of an ectopic pregnancy is suspected, and she is referred to the early pregnancy assessment unit. What is the preferred initial imaging modality to confirm an ectopic pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      A transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation for ectopic pregnancy.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant (G1PO) arrives at the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant (G1PO) arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe lower abdominal pain. She has a history of multiple sexual partners and was recently treated for gonorrhoeae with ceftriaxone. Although she does not take any regular medications, she admits to using illicit drugs such as marijuana and cocaine. During the physical examination, you notice that her uterus is hard and tender. What risk factor in her medical history is likely to contribute to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Cocaine use

      Explanation:

      The risk of placental abruption is increased by cocaine abuse due to its ability to cause vasospasm in the placental blood vessels. Ceftriaxone use, which is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoeae, is not a known risk factor for placental abruption and is therefore a distractor. Although gonorrhoeae can lead to chorioamnionitis, which is a known risk factor for placental abruption, there is no evidence to suggest that this is the case and it is less likely than cocaine use. Primiparity is an incorrect answer as it is actually multiparity that is a risk factor for placental abruption.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department with premature rupture of membranes. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy and is in good health. What is the optimal approach to managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Admit her for at least 48 hours and prescribe steroids only

      Correct Answer: Admit her for at least 48 hours and prescribe antibiotics and steroids

      Explanation:

      At 32 weeks gestation, this woman may be experiencing labor with ruptured membranes. It is important to admit her and administer steroids to promote the baby’s lung development. Antibiotics, such as erythromycin, should also be given to prevent sepsis and post-natal infection. Hospital guidelines should always be consulted, especially if Group B streptococcus is present, in which case penicillin and clindamycin may be used. If labor does not progress, the woman may be able to manage at home with temperature checks every 4-8 hours and returning to the hospital if a fever occurs. Delivery at 34 weeks may be considered if the risk of infection outweighs the risk of prematurity now that the baby’s lungs have matured.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to the early pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain that started yesterday. She has a history of Von Willebrand disease. A trans-vaginal ultrasound scan confirms a missed miscarriage. The patient is currently stable without fever or hemodynamic instability. What is the most suitable initial approach to manage this patient's miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Wait 7-14 days

      Correct Answer: Vaginal misoprostol

      Explanation:

      The recommended medical management for a miscarriage is the administration of vaginal misoprostol, as stated in the 2018 NICE guidelines. This is particularly suitable for patients with a medical history of coagulopathy, such as Von Willebrand disease, as it is a safer option than expectant management. Oral methotrexate is not appropriate for a miscarriage, as it is used for the medical management of ectopic pregnancies. Salpingectomy is a surgical procedure used for tubular ectopic pregnancies, but not for miscarriages. Vacuum aspiration is a surgical option for miscarriages, but medical management is preferred as it is safer and allows the patient to have more control over the process.

      Management Options for Miscarriage

      Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.

      Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.

      Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.

      It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

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  • Question 29 - You are a GP in a local surgery and the next patient is...

    Correct

    • You are a GP in a local surgery and the next patient is a 25-year-old type 1 diabetic who is interested in getting pregnant. She discontinued the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (Microgynon) two weeks ago. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m² and she is only taking insulin as medication. What other advice should you give her?

      Your Answer: Start folic acid 5mg now

      Explanation:

      To prevent neural tube defects, it is recommended that women who are at risk start taking folic acid before conception. The standard dose of 0.4mg should be taken daily until 13 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to start taking folic acid before conception because the neural tube is formed within the first 28 days of embryo development. If a woman waits until after her missed period, any defects may already be present. Women who are at an increased risk of neural tube defects, such as those who have had a previous child with NTD, diabetes mellitus, are on antiepileptic medication, are obese (with a body mass index over 30 kg/m²), are HIV positive and taking co-trimoxazole, or have sickle cell disease, should take an increased dose of 5mg folic acid.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

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  • Question 30 - A 34-year-old multiparous patient has an uncomplicated delivery at 39 weeks gestation. One...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old multiparous patient has an uncomplicated delivery at 39 weeks gestation. One hour following delivery, the patient experiences severe postpartum hemorrhage that is immediately managed in the labor ward. After seven weeks, the patient reports difficulty breastfeeding due to insufficient milk production. What is the most probable explanation for this medical history?

      Your Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical history provided, it appears that the patient may be suffering from Sheehan’s syndrome. This condition is typically caused by severe postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland and subsequent hypopituitarism. Common symptoms of Sheehan’s syndrome include a lack of milk production and amenorrhea following childbirth. Diagnosis is typically made through inadequate prolactin and gonadotropin stimulation tests in patients with a history of severe postpartum hemorrhage. It is important to note that hyperprolactinemia, D2 receptor antagonist medication, and pituitary adenoma are not typically associated with a lack of milk production, but rather with galactorrhea.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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      • Obstetrics
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Obstetrics (14/30) 47%
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