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Question 1
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A 25-year-old G1P0 woman, who missed all previous antenatal appointments, presents to the obstetrics clinic at 34 weeks' gestation for her first antenatal visit. The mother has no significant medical history and is in good health. She is up to date with all her immunisations.
During the examination, the symphyseal-fundal height measures 30cm. An ultrasound scan is conducted, which reveals that the fetus has an abdominal circumference below the 3rd percentile for age, femur length below the 3rd percentile, and head circumference along the 90th percentile. The estimated weight of the baby is below the 10th percentile.
What is the most probable cause of the abnormality observed in this fetus?Your Answer: Maternal smoking
Explanation:Smoking while pregnant has been linked to the birth of a Small for Gestational Age baby. This is indicated by the baby’s birth weight being below the 10th percentile and fetal measurements suggesting asymmetrical intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), with the head circumference being significantly higher than the abdominal circumference and femur length. Maternal smoking is a possible cause of the baby’s small size, as it has been associated with reduced birth weight and asymmetrical IUGR. Multiple gestation is a known risk factor for fetal growth restriction, but singleton gestation is not. Maternal rubella infection and advanced maternal age may also cause small for gestational age babies, but these are less likely causes in this case as the mother’s immunisations are up to date and she is only 23 years old.
Small for Gestational Age (SGA) is a statistical definition used to describe babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age. Although there is no universally agreed percentile, the 10th percentile is often used, meaning that 10% of normal babies will be below this threshold. SGA can be determined either antenatally or postnatally. There are two types of SGA: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical SGA occurs when the fetal head circumference and abdominal circumference are equally small, while asymmetrical SGA occurs when the abdominal circumference slows relative to the increase in head circumference.
There are various causes of SGA, including incorrect dating, constitutionally small (normal) babies, and abnormal fetuses. Symmetrical SGA is more common and can be caused by idiopathic factors, race, sex, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, toxins such as smoking and heroin, and infections such as CMV, parvovirus, rubella, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis. Asymmetrical SGA is less common and can be caused by toxins such as alcohol, cigarettes, and heroin, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, and infections.
The management of SGA depends on the type and cause. For symmetrical SGA, most cases represent the lower limits of the normal range and require fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments to demonstrate normal growth rates. Pathological causes should be ruled out by checking maternal blood for infections and searching the fetus carefully with ultrasound for markers of chromosomal abnormality. Asymmetrical SGA also requires fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments, as well as biophysical profiles and Doppler waveforms from umbilical circulation to look for absent end-diastolic flow. If results are sub-optimal, delivery may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 2
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Which of the following physiological changes does not take place after a tracheostomy?
Your Answer: Work of breathing is increased.
Explanation:HFNC is a popular option for weaning ventilated patients as it reduces work of breathing and humidified air helps to reduce mucous viscosity.
Anatomy of the Trachea
The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that extends from the C6 vertebrae to the upper border of the T5 vertebrae where it bifurcates into the left and right bronchi. It is supplied by the inferior thyroid arteries and the thyroid venous plexus, and innervated by branches of the vagus, sympathetic, and recurrent nerves.
In the neck, the trachea is anterior to the isthmus of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid veins, and anastomosing branches between the anterior jugular veins. It is also surrounded by the sternothyroid, sternohyoid, and cervical fascia. Posteriorly, it is related to the esophagus, while laterally, it is in close proximity to the common carotid arteries, right and left lobes of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid arteries, and recurrent laryngeal nerves.
In the thorax, the trachea is anterior to the manubrium, the remains of the thymus, the aortic arch, left common carotid arteries, and the deep cardiac plexus. Laterally, it is related to the pleura and right vagus on the right side, and the left recurrent nerve, aortic arch, and left common carotid and subclavian arteries on the left side.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the trachea is important for various medical procedures and interventions, such as intubation and tracheostomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with a history of poorly-controlled type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. His daughter reports that he has been complaining of increased thirst and urination over the past few days and has been skipping his insulin injections. On examination, he is dehydrated with a GCS of 3. His vital signs are recorded, and he is intubated and given ventilatory support. An arterial blood gas shows mild metabolic acidosis and his capillary blood glucose is undetectable. What is the next most appropriate step in his treatment?
Your Answer: 0.9% sodium chloride
Explanation:In the ABCDE approach, the patient should be promptly given sodium chloride to restore their intravascular volume and maintain circulatory function. However, insulin is not recommended as an initial treatment for HHS. This is because glucose in the intravascular space helps maintain circulating volume, which is crucial for dehydrated patients. Administering insulin before fluid resuscitation can cause a reduction in intravascular volume and worsen hypotension. It may also worsen pre-existing hypokalaemia by driving potassium into the intracellular space. Potassium chloride should be administered only after fluid resuscitation and guided by potassium levels obtained from an arterial blood gas. Thiamine supplementation is not indicated at the moment as urgent resuscitation should be the priority.
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a serious medical emergency that can be challenging to manage and has a high mortality rate of up to 20%. It is typically seen in elderly patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and is caused by hyperglycaemia leading to osmotic diuresis, severe dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. HHS develops gradually over several days, resulting in extreme dehydration and metabolic disturbances. Symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, and focal neurological deficits. Diagnosis is based on hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, and no significant hyperketonaemia or acidosis.
Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution at a rate of 0.5-1 L/hour, depending on clinical assessment. Potassium levels should be monitored and added to fluids as needed. Insulin should not be given unless blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, so venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended. Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is seen on the geriatrics ward 3 days after a hip replacement surgery for a fractured hip. The doctor decides to initiate a RANK ligand inhibitor for the secondary prevention of osteoporosis.
What medication will be started?Your Answer: Alendronic acid
Correct Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:Denosumab is a medication used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting the development of osteoclasts through RANKL inhibition. It is administered via subcutaneous injection every six months and can also be given in larger doses to prevent pathological fractures in patients with bone metastases. However, denosumab may cause hypocalcaemia, so patients should have their vitamin D levels checked and replaced if necessary before starting treatment. Raloxifene, a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, is another option for osteoporosis management, but it carries an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Bisphosphonates, such as alendronate or risedronate, are typically the first-line treatment for osteoporosis.
Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is referred to the child assessment unit for recurrent urinary tract infections. He is started on antibiotics and sent home with advice on supportive care.
Upon his return a week later, his renal function tests have worsened and an ultrasound scan reveals hydronephrosis in his kidneys, ureters, and bladder. The diagnosis is acute pyelonephritis and further investigations are ordered to determine the underlying cause. A voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) confirms the diagnosis of posterior urethral valves (PUV).
The child and parents are informed of the diagnosis and inquire about treatment options. What is the definitive treatment for PUV?Your Answer: Endoscopic valvotomy
Explanation:The preferred and most effective treatment for a child with posterior urethral valves (PUV) is endoscopic valvotomy. While bilateral cutaneous ureterostomies can be used for urinary drainage, they are not considered the definitive treatment for PUV. Bladder augmentation may be necessary if the bladder cannot hold enough urine or if bladder pressures remain high despite medication and catheterization. However, permanent antibiotic prophylaxis and catheterization are not recommended.
Posterior urethral valves are a frequent cause of blockage in the lower urinary tract in males. They can be detected during prenatal ultrasound screenings. Due to the high pressure required for bladder emptying during fetal development, the child may experience damage to the renal parenchyma, resulting in renal impairment in 70% of boys upon diagnosis. Treatment involves the use of a bladder catheter, and endoscopic valvotomy is the preferred definitive treatment. Cystoscopic and renal follow-up is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An aged woman with malabsorption and weight loss was diagnosed with small bowel amyloidosis. She was initially found to have osteomalacia and hypocalcemia. Despite receiving total parenteral nutrition with sufficient calcium replacement for the past seven days, she remained hypocalcemic. Which electrolyte deficiency is most likely responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Magnesium
Explanation:Magnesium deficiency may occur in patients with malabsorption, even if they receive magnesium through TPN feeds, as it may not be enough to compensate for their losses. Serum calcium levels are not affected by sodium, phosphate, and potassium.
The Importance of Magnesium and Calcium in the Body
Magnesium and calcium are essential minerals in the body. Magnesium plays a crucial role in the secretion and action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on target tissues. However, a deficiency in magnesium can cause hypocalcaemia and make patients unresponsive to calcium and vitamin D supplementation.
The body contains 1000 mmol of magnesium, with half stored in bones and the rest in muscle, soft tissues, and extracellular fluid. Unlike calcium, there is no specific hormonal control of magnesium. Hormones such as PTH and aldosterone affect the renal handling of magnesium.
Magnesium and calcium also interact at a cellular level. A decrease in magnesium levels can affect the permeability of cellular membranes to calcium, leading to hyperexcitability. Therefore, it is essential to maintain adequate levels of both magnesium and calcium in the body for optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 87-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after her husband noticed a facial droop 1 hour ago. She has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia.
Upon examination, there is a facial droop on the right side that spares the forehead. There is also a right-sided hemiparesis and loss of fine-touch sensation, with the right arm being more affected than the right leg. The examination of the visual fields reveals right homonymous hemianopia. Although the patient is conscious, she is unable to speak in full sentences.
Which artery is likely to be occluded?Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Correct Answer: Middle cerebral artery
Explanation:The correct answer is the middle cerebral artery, which is associated with contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, and aphasia. This type of stroke is also known as a ‘total anterior circulation stroke’ and is characterized by at least three of the following criteria: higher dysfunction, homonymous hemianopia, and motor and sensory deficits.
The anterior cerebral artery is not the correct answer, as it is associated with contralateral hemiparesis and altered sensation, with the lower limb being more affected than the upper limb.
The basilar artery is also not the correct answer, as it is associated with locked-in syndrome, which is characterized by paralysis of all voluntary muscles except for those used for vertical eye movements and blinking.
The posterior cerebral artery is not the correct answer either, as it is associated with contralateral homonymous hemianopia that spares the macula and visual agnosia.
Finally, the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is not the correct answer, as it is associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which is characterized by ipsilateral facial pain and contralateral limb pain and temperature loss, as well as vertigo, vomiting, ataxia, and dysphagia.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who has recently moved from India presents to her GP with fever and abdominal pain. She is referred to a general infectious diseases clinic, having returned last week from a trip back to India to visit her family.
On examination the patient has abdominal tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. You suspect this is an acute episode of lymphatic filariasis and prescribe diethylcarbamazine.
Which medication is typically used in combination with diethylcarbamazine to treat this patient's lymphatic filariasis?Your Answer: Pramipexole
Correct Answer: Albendazole
Explanation:Filariasis, a disease caused by certain nematodes, can be effectively treated with a combination of albendazole and ivermectin. This disease is prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa. The World Health Organization recommends different treatment regimens depending on whether onchocerciasis, another type of filariasis caused by Onchocerca volvulus, is co-endemic or not. In areas where onchocerciasis is co-endemic, a single dose of albendazole with ivermectin is recommended. In areas where onchocerciasis is not co-endemic, either a single dose of albendazole plus diethylcarbamazine or DEC alone for 12 days is recommended. Other anti-helminthic medications include praziquantel and niclosamide. Pramipexole is a dopamine-agonist used in Parkinson’s disease, while digoxin is a cardiac glycoside typically used in atrial fibrillation.
Antihelminthic drugs are medications used to treat infections caused by parasitic worms. These drugs work in different ways to eliminate the worms from the body. Bendazoles, for example, bind to B-tubulin, a protein necessary for microtubule assembly, and inhibit its polymerization. This prevents the worms from building their cytoskeleton and inhibits their glucose uptake. Praziquantel, on the other hand, increases the permeability of the worms’ membranes to calcium ions, causing their muscles to contract and leading to their death. Ivermectin activates glutamate-gated chloride channels, which enhances inhibitory neurotransmission and ultimately paralyzes the worms. Pyrantel pamoate is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that causes paralysis of the worms’ muscles. Finally, diethylcarbamazine inhibits arachidonic acid metabolism, which is essential for the worms’ survival. By targeting different aspects of the worms’ physiology, these drugs can effectively eliminate parasitic infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of losing 1 stone in weight over the past three months. Apart from this, he has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, his abdomen is soft, and no palpable masses are detected. A normal PR examination is also observed. The patient's blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 80 g/L (120-160) and an MCV of 70 fL (80-96). What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: CT scan of the abdomen and upper GI endoscopy
Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy
Explanation:Possible GI Malignancy in a Man with Weight Loss and Microcytic Anaemia
This man is experiencing weight loss and has an unexplained microcytic anaemia. The most probable cause of his blood loss is from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, as there is no other apparent explanation. This could be due to an occult GI malignancy, which is why the recommended initial investigations are upper and lower GI endoscopy. These tests will help to identify any potential sources of bleeding in the GI tract and determine if there is an underlying malignancy. It is important to diagnose and treat any potential malignancy as early as possible to improve the patient’s prognosis. Therefore, prompt investigation and management are crucial in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Correct
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In the Vaughan Williams classification of antihypertensives, lisinopril is an example of a:
Your Answer: Class III agent
Explanation:The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics
The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.
Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.
Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.
Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.
Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.
Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.
It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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