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  • Question 1 - A pair is attempting to conceive and would like to learn more about...

    Correct

    • A pair is attempting to conceive and would like to learn more about the initial phases of embryo growth. They have come across information online stating that the embryo begins as a cluster of cells that reorganize to create a complex, layered being.

      What is the term for this procedure?

      Your Answer: Gastrulation

      Explanation:

      During gastrulation, a cluster of cells transforms into a complex organism with multiple layers.

      The morula undergoes compaction, causing the cells to become more tightly packed and less distinguishable.

      Neurulation involves the creation of the neural tube, which is achieved mainly through the folding of the neuroectoderm.

      Early development involves cleavage, which is the process of cell division.

      Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.

      As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.

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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with an ulcerated mass located at...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with an ulcerated mass located at the anal verge. Upon biopsy, the histology reveals squamous cell carcinoma. Which virus infection is most likely to have played a role in the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus 7

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16

      Explanation:

      Contracting human papillomavirus 16 increases the likelihood of developing intra epithelial dysplasia in the anal skin, which in turn raises the risk of developing invasive cancer.

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

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  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia secondary to...

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    • A 29-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, visits the clinic complaining of persistent fatigue and exhaustion despite being prescribed iron supplements. She has a medical history of dyspepsia that is managed with omeprazole.

      What is the reason for the doctor's instruction to discontinue omeprazole?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole inhibits acid secretion which is essential for iron absorption

      Explanation:

      Iron absorption is dependent on the presence of gastric acid, which can be hindered by the use of PPIs that reduce acid production. PPIs do not have a direct impact on iron metabolism or binding, but their inhibition of acid secretion can interfere with iron absorption. While ranitidine works by blocking histamine-2 receptors to reduce acid secretion, omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that operates differently.

      Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion

      Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.

      The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.

      In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.

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  • Question 4 - An 84-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic with progressive memory loss...

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    • An 84-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic with progressive memory loss and difficulty with activities of daily living. He attends the clinic with his son, who provides further collateral history, and a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is made. With the patient's consent, he is recruited to a study investigating the link between Alzheimer's disease and cellular processes. He is randomised to the arm of the trial investigating microtubule dysfunction.

      What is the normal function of these cell components?

      Your Answer: Guide intracellular organelle transport

      Explanation:

      Microtubules play a crucial role in guiding intracellular transport and binding internal organelles. However, their function can be disrupted in neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer’s due to the hyperphosphorylation of tau proteins. Attachment proteins move up and down the microtubules, facilitating the transport of various organelles, making this the correct answer.

      Lysosomes are responsible for breaking down large proteins and polysaccharides, not microtubules.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies and packages secretory molecules, and proteins may be tagged with mannose-6-phosphate for transport to lysosomes.

      The nucleolus is where ribosome production occurs, not the microtubules.

      Microtubules: Components of the Cytoskeleton

      Microtubules are cylindrical structures found in the cytoplasm of all cells except red blood cells. They are composed of alternating α and β tubulin subunits that polymerize to form protofilaments. Microtubules are polarized, having a positive and negative end. They play a crucial role in guiding movement during intracellular transport and binding internal organelles.

      Molecular transport is facilitated by attachment proteins called dynein and kinesin, which move up and down the microtubules. Dynein moves in a retrograde fashion, down the microtubule towards the centre of the cell (+ve → -ve), while kinesin moves in an anterograde fashion, up the microtubule away from the centre, towards the periphery (-ve → +ve).

      In summary, microtubules are essential components of the cytoskeleton that help maintain cell shape and facilitate intracellular transport. Dynein and kinesin play a crucial role in molecular transport by moving up and down the microtubules.

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  • Question 5 - A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of hip protectors in reducing...

    Incorrect

    • A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures among elderly patients residing in nursing homes with an average age of 83 years. 800 patients were randomly assigned to either the hip protector group or the standard care group over a two-year period.

      The findings revealed that out of the 400 patients in the hip protector group, 10 experienced a femoral neck fracture during the two-year period. On the other hand, out of the 400 patients in the control group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture during the same period.

      What is the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old man with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of breathlessness for the past three weeks, despite following his prescribed treatment. He reports difficulty breathing while lying down and has resorted to using three large pillows at night. His current medication includes ramipril, carvedilol, furosemide, and bendroflumethiazide. As a healthcare provider, you are contemplating adding a low dose of amiloride to his current regimen. Can you explain the mechanism of action of amiloride?

      Your Answer: Inhibits Na+ Cl- cotransporter

      Correct Answer: Inhibits epithelial sodium channels

      Explanation:

      Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.

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  • Question 7 - A 14-year-old boy comes to his GP complaining of fatigue and unusual bruising...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to his GP complaining of fatigue and unusual bruising that has been going on for 2 months. During the examination, the doctor notices multiple bruises on the boy's abdomen and arms. The doctor also discovers hepatosplenomegaly during the abdominal examination. The boy is immediately referred to a haematology specialist, who confirms the diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia. What is the genetic abnormality that is most commonly associated with this type of cancer?

      Your Answer: TP53 mutation

      Correct Answer: BCR-ABL translocation

      Explanation:

      The hallmark of chronic myeloid leukaemia is the BCR-ABL translocation, which forms the Philadelphia chromosome by fusing chromosomes 9 and 22. NOTCH1 mutation, T(14:18) translocation, and TP53 mutation are not characteristic of this type of leukemia.

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

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  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old college student comes to you with complaints of fever, lethargy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old college student comes to you with complaints of fever, lethargy, and painful swollen submandibular lymph nodes. After diagnosis, you find out that he has infectious mononucleosis. What advice would you give him?

      Your Answer: It is unlikely that he contracted the virus from sharing a toothbrush

      Correct Answer: He should avoid rugby

      Explanation:

      Patients should refrain from engaging in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture. However, swimming is considered a safe activity. It is important to advise patients accordingly.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

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  • Question 9 - A newborn is found to have ambiguous genitalia. Further examinations indicate the absence...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn is found to have ambiguous genitalia. Further examinations indicate the absence of epididymis, seminal vesicles, and ductus deferens. What is the typical embryonic structure that develops into these organs?

      Your Answer: Allantois

      Correct Answer: Mesonephric duct

      Explanation:

      The male reproductive structures are derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct, while it regresses in females. The allantois regresses and forms the urachus. The pharyngeal arches give rise to the structures of the head and neck. The internal female reproductive structures are derived from the paramesonephric duct. The kidney is formed from the ureteric bud.

      Urogenital Embryology: Development of Kidneys and Genitals

      During embryonic development, the urogenital system undergoes a series of changes that lead to the formation of the kidneys and genitals. The kidneys develop from the pronephros, which is rudimentary and non-functional, to the mesonephros, which functions as interim kidneys, and finally to the metanephros, which starts to function around the 9th to 10th week. The metanephros gives rise to the ureteric bud and the metanephrogenic blastema. The ureteric bud develops into the ureter, renal pelvis, collecting ducts, and calyces, while the metanephrogenic blastema gives rise to the glomerulus and renal tubules up to and including the distal convoluted tubule.

      In males, the mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) gives rise to the seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and ductus deferens. The paramesonephric duct (Mullerian duct) degenerates by default. In females, the paramesonephric duct gives rise to the fallopian tube, uterus, and upper third of the vagina. The urogenital sinus gives rise to the bulbourethral glands in males and Bartholin glands and Skene glands in females. The genital tubercle develops into the glans penis and clitoris, while the urogenital folds give rise to the ventral shaft of the penis and labia minora. The labioscrotal swelling develops into the scrotum in males and labia majora in females.

      In summary, the development of the urogenital system is a complex process that involves the differentiation of various structures from different embryonic tissues. Understanding the embryology of the kidneys and genitals is important for diagnosing and treating congenital abnormalities and disorders of the urogenital system.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 10 - A four-year-old child presents with symptoms of an eye infection four days after...

    Incorrect

    • A four-year-old child presents with symptoms of an eye infection four days after a cold. The child has conjunctivitis with purulent discharge and swollen eyelids. Treatment is initiated promptly to prevent complications.

      What are the two most commonly associated organisms with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Rhinovirus and astrovirus

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      The two main organisms responsible for ophthalmia neonatorum, also known as conjunctivitis of the newborn, are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Adenovirus, varicella-zoster virus, Treponema pallidum, and Staphylococcus aureus are not as commonly associated with this condition. Rhinovirus and astrovirus are not known to cause ophthalmia neonatorum, as they typically cause upper respiratory infections and diarrhea, respectively.

      Understanding Ophthalmia Neonatorum

      Ophthalmia neonatorum is a term used to describe an infection that affects the eyes of newborn babies. This condition is caused by two main organisms, namely Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is important to note that suspected cases of ophthalmia neonatorum should be referred for immediate ophthalmology or paediatric assessment.

      To prevent complications, it is crucial to identify and treat ophthalmia neonatorum as soon as possible. This condition can cause severe damage to the eyes and even lead to blindness if left untreated. Therefore, parents and healthcare providers should be vigilant and seek medical attention if they notice any signs of eye infection in newborns. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, the prognosis for ophthalmia neonatorum is generally good.

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