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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus and stage 4 chronic kidney disease presents to the Emergency Department with vomiting and malaise. What is the probable reason for her presentation based on the given information?
Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing raised anion gap metabolic acidosis, which could be caused by elevated lactate levels. This is a potential risk for the patient due to their use of metformin and stage 3b chronic kidney disease. It is important to discontinue metformin use in patients with an eGFR of less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2. Decompensated respiratory acidosis is unlikely as the patient’s p(CO2) is low and p(O2) is elevated, indicating hyperventilation in response to metabolic acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is a possible differential diagnosis, but less likely due to the absence of starvation or medication use. Pyloric stenosis is an inaccurate diagnosis as the patient is acidotic, and vomiting and malaise are likely secondary to metabolic acidosis. The patient’s elevated anion gap rules out renal tubular acidosis, which would present with a normal anion gap and can be classified as distal, proximal, or type 4. Proximal tubular cellular failure can also result in Fanconi syndrome, which presents with loss of phosphate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old African American man with a history of chronic kidney disease is curious about the factors that may impact the advancement of his renal dysfunction. What modifiable risk factor is most likely to have a significant effect on the progression of his renal impairment?
Your Answer: Smoking
Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:Risk Factors for the Progression of Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition that can be worsened by hypertension, diabetes, and proteinuria. Cardiovascular disease is also a known risk factor for the progression of CKD. To slow the decline in glomerular filtration rate, these risk factors should be actively managed in patients with CKD. However, aspirin usage has been suggested as a possible risk factor for CKD progression, despite being widely used in patients with cardiovascular disease, which is also a risk factor for CKD progression. Smoking and ethnicity (Afro-Caribbean and Asian) are also considered potential risk factors, but the evidence is inconclusive. Obesity, on the other hand, does not appear to affect the progression of CKD. Short-term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can cause a reversible decline in glomerular filtration rate, but chronic use may lead to a progressive and irreversible decline. Finally, urinary tract outflow obstruction is another factor that can contribute to the progression of CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with pain radiating from her left loin to her left groin. She has a past medical history of recurrent urinary tract infections and is on prophylactic nitrofurantoin. There are no similar previous episodes and there is no history of renal tubular acidosis.
Observations:
Heart rate 98 beats per minute
Blood pressure 130/75 mmHg
Respiratory rate 16/minute
Oxygen saturations 97% on room air
Temperature 37.2C
On examination, the patient is restless and in pain. There is no peritonism.
Urinalysis:
Blood +++ (negative)
Protein negative (negative)
Leucocytes + (negative)
Glucose negative (negative)
pH 8.5 (4-8)
What is the probable diagnosis and what is the likely composition of causative pathology?Your Answer: Calcium oxalate
Correct Answer: Struvite
Explanation:The correct answer is struvite. The patient is experiencing symptoms of renal colic and has a urine dipstick indicating blood. Additionally, her urine has a pH of 8.4, indicating alkalinity. Given her history of chronic urinary tract infections, it is likely that her stone is struvite in origin. Struvite stones form in the presence of increased urinary ammonia and alkaline urine (>7.2) due to urease-producing bacteria.
Calcium oxalate is not the correct answer, as it is the most common cause of renal stones but is unlikely in this case due to the presence of alkaline urine and chronic infections. Hypercalciuria is a risk factor for calcium oxalate stones.
Calcium phosphate is also not the correct answer, as these stones are typically associated with renal tubular acidosis, which is not present in this case.
Cystine is not the correct answer, as this type of stone is caused by an inherited disorder and would not be expected to occur for the first time at age 53.
Renal stones can be classified into different types based on their composition. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 85% of all calculi. These stones are formed due to hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and hypocitraturia. They are radio-opaque and may also bind with uric acid stones. Cystine stones are rare and occur due to an inherited recessive disorder of transmembrane cystine transport. Uric acid stones are formed due to purine metabolism and may precipitate when urinary pH is low. Calcium phosphate stones are associated with renal tubular acidosis and high urinary pH. Struvite stones are formed from magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate and are associated with chronic infections. The pH of urine can help determine the type of stone present, with calcium phosphate stones forming in normal to alkaline urine, uric acid stones forming in acidic urine, and struvite stones forming in alkaline urine. Cystine stones form in normal urine pH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30 year old man has been admitted to an inpatient psychiatric hospital under section after experiencing a severe manic episode. He has a history of previous episodes of depression but has never been hospitalized for a mental health issue before. The patient has been started on treatment for bipolar affective disorder with lithium, lorazepam and olanzapine. During routine blood tests, the patient was found to be hyponatraemic and was observed to be passing large volumes of urine by ward staff. Basic investigations were requested following advice from the endocrine team.
Based on the provided laboratory results, what is the most likely cause of the patient's polydipsia?Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus secondary to lithium therapy
Correct Answer: Primary polydipsia
Explanation:Based on the plasma and urine osmolality results, it appears that the patient’s renal response to ADH is normal. Therefore, the most probable cause of the patient’s polydipsia is primary polydipsia. The incorrect stems suggesting SIADH or diabetes insipidus caused by certain drugs are not supported by the test results. Additionally, there are no indications of other biochemical causes such as diuretic medication, diabetes mellitus, hyperthyroidism, or electrolyte abnormalities. Although lithium therapy can cause polydipsia, the patient’s sub-therapeutic serum levels make this unlikely. Furthermore, there is no history of excessive alcohol consumption.
Polyuria, or excessive urination, can be caused by a variety of factors. A recent review in the BMJ categorizes these causes by their frequency of occurrence. The most common causes of polyuria include the use of diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol, as well as diabetes mellitus, lithium, and heart failure. Less common causes include hypercalcaemia and hyperthyroidism, while rare causes include chronic renal failure, primary polydipsia, and hypokalaemia. The least common cause of polyuria is diabetes insipidus, which occurs in less than 1 in 10,000 cases. It is important to note that while these frequencies may not align with exam questions, understanding the potential causes of polyuria can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with facial swelling and ankle edema. He had a flu-like illness with a productive cough two weeks ago. His mother reports that he had a similar episode of swelling five years ago, but it resolved after treatment. His previous U&E results were normal and he did not have a rash.
On examination, there is no fever or rash. He has pitting edema up to his knees.
Initial investigations show:
s
Albumin 32 g/l 35 - 55 g/l
Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 70 μmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
Urinalysis Protein +++
24h urine collection 2.8 g protein
What is the best initial treatment for his likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Loop diuretics and an albumin infusion (for fluid overload management)
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids (high dose, 1 mg/kg)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Childhood Nephrotic Syndrome
Childhood nephrotic syndrome is characterized by urinary protein loss and hypoalbuminemia. The most common cause of this condition is minimal change disease, which has a good prognosis in childhood. The first-line treatment for minimal change disease is high-dose corticosteroids, which are effective in most cases. Cyclophosphamide is not recommended as primary treatment for this condition. Prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary, but treatment may be required for infections. Loop diuretics may be used for fluid overload and blood pressure management, but they are not a curative treatment. Observation only is not appropriate, as minimal change disease responds well to steroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents at the clinic for a check-up. He is currently managing his diabetes with gliclazide 40 mg BD and insulin glargine at night. He has a history of hypertension and microalbuminuria, which is being managed with ramipril 10 mg, amlodipine 10 mg, and indapamide 2.5 mg.
During the examination, his blood pressure is 142/72 mmHg, his pulse is 72 and regular, and his BMI is 28. The investigations reveal that his haemoglobin is 120 g/L (135-177), white cell count is 4.8 ×109/L (4-11), platelets are 198 ×109/L (150-400), serum sodium is 141 mmol/L (135-146), serum potassium is 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine is 320 µmol/L (up from 262 some 6 months earlier) (79-118), bicarbonate is 22 mmol/L (22-30), and HbA1c is 62 mmol/mol (7.8%).
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Continue ramipril 10 mg
Explanation:Managing Progressive Increase in Serum Creatinine in Diabetic Nephropathy
A progressive increase in serum creatinine is a common occurrence in the treatment of diabetic nephropathy. In this case, the increase in creatinine is likely due to the progression of the patient’s intrinsic diabetic renal disease rather than any other pathology. Therefore, it is recommended to continue the ramipril at the maximal tolerated dose as it is still likely to be effective in slowing down the progression of the disease. However, if there were significant hyperkalemia, switching or dose reduction may be necessary. It is important to note that the patient’s potassium levels are normal in this case. Overall, managing the progressive increase in serum creatinine in diabetic nephropathy requires careful consideration of the underlying pathology and appropriate medication management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy to correct a small bowel obstruction. He has a medical history of orthotopic bladder reconstruction due to bladder carcinoma. After 48 hours in the High Dependency Unit, he becomes confused and refuses to consume oral fluids. His vital signs are stable, but his serum biochemistry and blood gas analysis reveal abnormalities. What is the most suitable initial intervention?
Your Answer: Rehydration with 0.9% sodium chloride and correction of blood glucose
Correct Answer: Intravenous infusion of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate and potassium replacement
Explanation:Metabolic Acidosis in Patients with Neobladders
Patients who undergo neobladder formation following radical cystectomy or cystoprostatectomy may experience hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which is a documented complication. This condition is usually mild and improves over time, but severe and persistent metabolic acidosis may occur when patients undergo further surgery for other reasons. Medical staff treating patients with neobladders should be aware of this complication and treat it with intravenous fluids and bicarbonate. Hypokalemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesaemia may also be present as associated electrolyte abnormalities.
In a patient with hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, there is also a mild hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. Lactate concentrations are normal, indicating that the acidosis is not due to organ hypoperfusion. Potassium depletion can be exacerbated by the correction of acidosis, and potassium supplementation alone via a central venous catheter is not sufficient treatment. Rehydration with 0.9% N. saline may worsen the hyperchloraemic state. Breathing into a paper bag is not appropriate treatment for this patient, as they have hyperglycaemia secondary to the metabolic stress response and not ketoacidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with headache, nausea, and vomiting. He had been healthy prior to the onset of symptoms, which worsened over the past 12 hours. Upon admission, he appears slightly confused, has a temperature of 39 degrees Celsius, and exhibits a positive Kernig's sign and a faint purpuric rash on his knees. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and his pulse is 120 beats per minute. A CT head scan and lumbar puncture confirm a diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis, and he is admitted to the intensive care unit and treated with IV cefotaxime 2 g tds and benzylpenicillin 2.4 g qds. His admission is complicated, requiring intubation, ventilation, and hypotensive episodes. On the second day of his admission, his urine output decreases, with an hourly output of approximately 10 ml/hr.
Further investigations reveal:
- Haemoglobin: 167 g/L (115-165)
- White cell count: 16.8 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 100 ×109/L (150-400)
- Serum sodium: 125 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 100 µmol/L (60-110)
- Plasma osmolality: 300 mosmol/Kg (278-305)
- Urine osmolality: 285 mosmol/Kg (350-1000)
- Urine urea: 120 mmol/L
- Urine sodium: 75 mmol/L
Why is this case indicative of acute tubular necrosis rather than pre-renal failure?Your Answer: Her urine:plasma urea ratio is elevated
Correct Answer: Her serum sodium is 125 mmol/L
Explanation:Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN) and Physiological Oliguria
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is a condition that can cause a decrease in urine output. To diagnose ATN, medical professionals typically look for a urine to plasma osmolality of less than 1.1, urinary sodium excretion of more than 60 mmol/L, and urinary urea excretion of less than 160 mmol/L. However, if a patient has physiological oliguria, their urine concentration will still be preserved, and their urinary sodium will be low.
It’s important to note that both ATN and pre-renal failure can present with a decrease in urine output. While urinary urea concentration can vary greatly, it is not typically used as a clinical guide. To better understand renal function and diagnose conditions like ATN, it’s important to consult with a medical professional and undergo appropriate testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year old man with a history of non-small cell lung cancer underwent a right lower lobectomy a year ago. Recently, he had a chest and abdominal CT scan which revealed hepatic mass lesions and hilar lymphadenopathy. He is currently experiencing malaise and fatigue. Upon examination, his urinalysis showed protein +++ and his 24-hour urine protein was 2.7 g/24hr. His serum urea was 30 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) and his serum creatinine was 450 µmol/L (60-110). A renal biopsy revealed focal deposition of IgG and C3 with a granular pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Membranous GN is a kidney disease associated with various factors such as medications, autoimmune diseases, infections, and sickle cell disease. It is characterized by basement membrane thickening and immune complex deposition with IgG and C3. Nephrotic syndrome is the main presentation, and it can lead to ESRF in 30% of cases. Remission occurs in 40% of cases without treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a history of left hip and right Colles' fracture presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She has been prescribed risedronate by her GP for bone protection, but has been experiencing worsening reflux oesophagitis in recent months. Her medical history includes hypertension, previous treatment for thyrotoxicosis with radioiodine, and smoking 10 cigarettes per day. On examination, her BP is 123/82, pulse is regular at 75, and BMI is 21.
Lab results show:
- Na 138 mmol/l (135-145)
- K 4.5 mmol/l (3.5-5.5)
- Creatinine 254 micromol/l (60-90)
- GFR 28 ml/min (70 - 140)
- Calcium 2.25 mmol/ (2.1-2.65)
- Alk phos 90 IU/l (44-147)
- PTH 6.9 pmol/l (1.2-5.8)
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing osteoporosis in this patient?Your Answer: Teriparatide
Correct Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:Treatment options for osteoporosis in patients with renal impairment
Osteoporosis is a common condition that affects bone density and strength, leading to an increased risk of fractures. In patients with renal impairment, treatment options for osteoporosis are limited due to the potential for medication accumulation and toxicity. Among the available options, denosumab is the preferred choice as it is a RANK ligand inhibitor that reduces osteoclast activity and is given by subcutaneous injection every 6 months. However, if denosumab is used in patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) below 30 ml/min, monitoring of calcium and PTH levels is recommended.
Calcium and vitamin D supplementation is marginally effective in treating osteoporosis and is not recommended as a first-line treatment option. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator, is less effective than bisphosphonates and other options in maintaining bone mineral density. Teriparatide should be used with caution in patients with moderate renal impairment or worse, and zoledronate is not recommended in patients with a GFR below 30 ml/min.
In conclusion, denosumab is the preferred treatment option for osteoporosis in patients with renal impairment due to its efficacy and lack of bone accumulation. Other options should be used with caution and only after careful consideration of the patient’s renal function. Regular monitoring of calcium and PTH levels is recommended in patients with a GFR below 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with diabetic renal disease underwent a cadaveric renal transplant. On the fourth day after surgery, his creatinine level was 140 µmol/L (60-110 µmol/L). He is currently taking high dose prednisolone, azathioprine, and ciclosporin for immunosuppression. His urine output was initially good at 60 ml per hour, but decreased to 40 ml per hour on the sixth day. Repeat blood tests showed that his creatinine level had increased to 210 µmol/L (60-110 µmol/L). He has no fever, with a pulse of 80 and a blood pressure of 150/80 mmHg. He appears to be euvolaemic and is not experiencing any abdominal pain.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Get an ultrasound scan of transplanted kidney and renal tract
Explanation:Management of Deterioration in Renal Function after Transplant
There are several reasons why renal function may deteriorate soon after a renal transplant, including hyperacute rejection, acute tubular necrosis, and surgical complications. In such cases, the most sensible management step is to obtain an urgent ultrasound scan to rule out any mechanical obstruction of the renal tract, especially if there is a dropping urine output and rising creatinine.
It is not advisable to perform a biopsy at this stage until mechanical obstruction has been ruled out. While immunosuppressive agents may contribute to renal impairment, there are too many other differential diagnoses to consider, so decreasing the dosage of ciclosporin is not recommended. Increasing the dose of steroid may help if immunological rejection is suspected, but this has not been confirmed as a diagnosis yet.
It is important to note that the patient’s clinical examination shows euvolaemia, so giving a 1 litre fluid bolus would not be necessary. By obtaining an ultrasound scan to exclude mechanical obstruction, healthcare professionals can take the appropriate steps to manage deterioration in renal function after a transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55 year-old man presented with generalised oedema and shortness of breath. Urinalysis revealed nephrotic range proteinuria. A clinical diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome was made.
What is the most common condition associated with nephrotic syndrome?Your Answer: Membranous nephropathy
Explanation:Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by significant proteinuria exceeding 3 g/day, low levels of serum albumin below 25 g/L, and the presence of edema. This condition may also result in hyperlipidemia, venous thromboembolism (including renal vein thrombosis), and heightened vulnerability to bacterial infections.
Numerous factors can trigger nephrotic syndrome, with the most common causes being Minimal Change Disease, Membranous Nephropathy, and Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis, which can be easily remembered using the acronym ‘MMF’.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 13 weeks pregnant presents at the outpatient clinic with a sustained blood pressure reading of 170/92 mmHg. She has no significant medical history and has been feeling well with no symptoms. On examination, there are no abnormalities except for protein (+) and blood (+) in her urine. Fundoscopy shows no abnormalities, and an ultrasound of her kidneys reveals both to be of equal size at 9-10 cm. What is the probable cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer: Fibromuscular dysplasia
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Haematuria and Proteinuria
At 13 weeks of pregnancy, it is unlikely for a patient to present with pre-eclampsia. Dipstick haematuria is not a typical symptom of fibromuscular dysplasia. Membranous GN is associated with a nephrotic syndrome, which means that the patient would have more proteinuria and no haematuria. Reflux nephropathy usually results in enlarged kidneys, which is not the case for this patient. However, IgA nephropathy can present with both haematuria and proteinuria, making it a possible diagnosis for this patient.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for a patient with haematuria and proteinuria includes pre-eclampsia, fibromuscular dysplasia, membranous GN, reflux nephropathy, and IgA nephropathy. Further testing and evaluation are necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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You admit a 49-year-old man who is on daily peritoneal dialysis in his own home. He noticed that his PD fluid looked cloudier than usual this morning.
What is the most effective treatment for the cause of his presentation?Your Answer: Intraperitoneal antibiotics
Explanation:Treatment for PD-Related Peritonitis
PD-related peritonitis can be treated with intraperitoneal antibiotics, which are added to the fluid being instilled into the peritoneal cavity. It is recommended to use broad spectrum antibiotics while waiting for the PD fluid culture results. If the patient’s condition worsens despite intraperitoneal antibiotics or if there is an associated bacteraemia, intravenous antibiotics would be preferable. In case the patient fails to settle, removing the PD catheter should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 27 year-old man presents to his GP with a four week history of bilateral pitting oedema of his legs up to his knees. He reports occasional puffiness around the eyes lasting a couple of hours. He denies any past medical history, rash or musculoskeletal problems. On examination, he has bilateral pitting oedema of the legs up to the knees, facial oedema and mild ascites. Blood tests reveal Na+ 135 mmol/l, K+ 3.4 mmol/l, urea 4.1 mmol/l, creatinine 71 µmol/l, albumin 18 g/l and cholesterol 11.2 mmol/l. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:To confirm the diagnosis of minimal change disease, a renal biopsy is necessary for this patient. The symptoms presented are not indicative of IgA nephropathy, post-infectious glomerulonephritis, or SLE, which typically present with a nephritic picture. While diabetic nephropathy can cause a nephrotic syndrome, the patient’s age and lack of diabetes symptoms make this unlikely.
Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.
The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with alcoholic liver disease and portal hypertension presented with confusion and a distended abdomen. He was taking propranolol, spironolactone, vitamin B12, and thiamine. Intravenous fluids and lactulose were administered, and a renal scan was normal. However, on the fourth day of admission, a ward registrar noted an acute kidney injury based on the following blood results:
- Urea: 8.0 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.0)
- Creatinine: 150 µmol/l (normal range: 60-110)
Additional urine tests revealed:
- Sodium: 60 meq/l
- Protein: 250 mg/24 hours
- Osmolality: 800 mOsm/kg
Microscopic examination of the urine showed granular casts and renal epithelial cells. What is the most likely cause of this patient's acute kidney injury?Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis
Explanation:Granular casts may be present in both acute tubular necrosis (ATN) and hepatorenal syndrome (HRS), but the presence of renal epithelial cells is more indicative of ATN. A normal ultrasound scan can help rule out obstructive urinary system and parenchymal disease, but it may not differentiate between ATN and HRS. A low urinary sodium concentration and high urinary osmolarity are consistent with pre-renal azotemia and HRS, as renal tubular integrity is usually preserved, unlike in ATN. However, these findings are not diagnostic criteria for HRS. It is important to note that this patient was still taking diuretics, which can affect urinary electrolyte measurements and make them difficult to interpret. To diagnose HRS, diuretics should be discontinued for at least 2 days.
The NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify several risk factors, including emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria for AKI include a rise in creatinine, a fall in urine output, or a fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI based on the severity of the creatinine increase or reduction in urine output. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as stage 3 AKI, inadequate response to treatment, or complications of AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man, who is typically healthy, has been referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He is experiencing blurred vision and headaches that have persisted for the past two days. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that he has not been urinating much and has noticed difficulty breathing during physical activity. Although he did fall and injure his leg three days ago, he has not left his house since then and denies any chest pain.
During the examination, the patient's pulse is regular at 110/minute, and his blood pressure is high at 200/120 mmHg. He has a JVP of 5cm, and his heart sounds are normal. Upon auscultation of his chest, fine basal crepitations are heard, and his respiratory rate is 22/minute with a sighing pattern. He has oedema on his right leg and side, but his abdomen is soft and non-tender with no masses. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.
After inserting a urinary catheter, it is discovered that the patient has a residual volume of 50 mls of dark urine. Urinalysis shows blood+++ and protein++. Microscopy reveals no organisms, but scanty hyaline casts with fewer than 10 red blood cells per high-powered field.
Further investigations reveal abnormal levels in the patient's serum sodium, potassium, urea, creatinine, calcium, phosphate, and bicarbonate. Specifically, his serum potassium level is 6.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), which requires immediate treatment.
What is the appropriate treatment to correct the patient's high potassium levels?Your Answer: Intravenous fluids
Correct Answer: Intravenous insulin + dextrose + salbutamol
Explanation:Treatment for Rhabdomyolysis
Rhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that requires immediate treatment. The first step is to correct the patient’s potassium levels, followed by addressing fluid balance and acidosis. The preferred initial treatment is intravenous insulin and dextrose. If the patient’s urine output cannot be improved and potassium levels remain elevated, dialysis may be necessary. While calcium gluconate can stabilize the myocardium, it does not directly affect potassium levels. It is important to note that prompt treatment is crucial in managing rhabdomyolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a patient whose blood test results are as follows:
Sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Creatinine 95 μmol/L (60-110)
ANA negative
cANCA positive
anti-PR3 >100
anti-MPO 3
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a type of vasculitis that is associated with ANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody). Patients with this condition typically have a positive cANCA, and either the anti-PR3 or anti-MPO antibody is strongly positive. The PR3 antibody is usually associated with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, while the MPO antibody is associated with microscopic polyangiitis, which is closely linked. However, there are cases where a patient with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has a positive anti-MPO, and a patient with microscopic polyangiitis has a positive anti-PR3.
In summary, Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a type of vasculitis that is associated with ANCA. The presence of either anti-PR3 or anti-MPO antibodies can help diagnose the condition, with PR3 being more commonly associated with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis. However, there are exceptions to this rule, and a positive anti-MPO can also be seen in some cases of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis. the different antibodies and their association with these conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of patients with vasculitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are reviewing the peak and trough concentrations of gentamicin in a 35-year-old man who is receiving once-daily dosing. Your goal is to reduce the risk of nephrotoxicity associated with the antibiotic.
What is the probable location of renal injury caused by gentamicin?Your Answer: Distal tubule
Correct Answer: Proximal tubule
Explanation:Aminoglycoside related renal damage primarily affects the proximal tubule, where the drug molecules bind to anion phospholipids in the plasma membrane of proximal tubular cells. This leads to their uptake and transportation by lysosomes to the Golgi body, where they act as a mitochondrial poison. Gentamicin specifically impacts cells in the proximal tubule, while cisplatin is toxic for distal tubular epithelial cells. The collecting duct is not affected by aminoglycosides, but water absorption is regulated by aquaporin-2 expression, which can be influenced by bile salts. The loop of Henle is not the primary site of toxicity for aminoglycosides, as it mainly reabsorbs water and ions. Vascular endothelial cells are not damaged by gentamicin, but renoprotective agents like ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and SGLT-2 inhibitors can improve microvascular function and inhibit efferent arteriolar vasoconstriction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 65-year-old male with stable congestive heart failure presents to the clinic. He is currently taking furosemide 80 mg once daily, digoxin 125 mcg once daily, enalapril 20 mg once daily, and ibuprofen 600 mg three times daily (taken for the last month). During his last visit three months ago, his renal function was normal, and his furosemide dose was increased from 40 mg to 80 mg per day. His baseline blood pressure is 125/75, and his current blood pressure is measured at 120/70 mmHg. Upon investigation, his serum sodium is 132 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium is 5.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea is 18 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine is 270 µmol/L (60-110). What is the most likely cause of the deterioration in his renal function?
Your Answer: Interstitial nephritis secondary to NSAIDs
Explanation:The most likely cause of sudden deterioration in renal function is acute interstitial nephritis, which is inflammation of the renal tubulo-interstitium due to a hypersensitivity reaction to drugs, with NSAIDs being the most common cause. Other drugs that can cause this include antibiotics, diuretics, and cimetidine. Symptoms include acute renal failure, fever, arthralgia, and skin rashes, with eosinophilia, raised serum IgE, and eosinophiluria often present. Treatment involves withdrawal of the offending drug and may require dialysis. ACE inhibitors can also cause acute deterioration in renal function, mainly in patients with bilateral renovascular disease, and may increase serum potassium. There is no evidence of urinary tract infection or digoxin as a cause of the deterioration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the hospital with transient dysphasia and left-sided weakness affecting her face and arm. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and end-stage renal failure, and undergoes haemodialysis every Monday, Wednesday, and Friday mornings. A plain CT scan of the brain shows no evidence of an acute infarction or haemorrhage. Further brain imaging is requested by the consultant, and you are asked to coordinate with the radiology department. What statement applies to this patient?
Your Answer: She will need pre-hydration before she receives any contrast
Correct Answer: She should not receive gadolinium-based contrast
Explanation:MRI Scanning in Patients with Renal Failure
In patients with end-stage renal failure, the use of gadolinium for MRI scanning should be avoided due to the risk of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis. However, renal failure itself is not a contraindication to MRI scanning. For dialysis-dependent patients, pre-hydration before contrast administration may lead to fluid overload, making it potentially dangerous. If these patients receive contrast for a CT scan, they may require haemodialysis to remove the contrast, especially if they have some residual renal function that needs to be preserved. This is important as it makes their fluid balance easier to manage between dialysis sessions. On the other hand, MR contrast is generally not nephrotoxic, and haemodialysis is usually unnecessary to remove it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease related to hypertension presents to the clinic. He is managed with a number of anti-hypertensive medications and once-daily insulin to control his blood sugar. He also takes simvastatin and clopidogrel.
On examination, his BP is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 75 bpm and regular. His chest and abdominal examination are unremarkable.
Investigations reveal the following:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 120 g/l 130–170 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 180 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.3 mmol/l 2.2–2.7 mmol/l
Phosphate (PO43-) 1.2 mmol/l 1.12–1.45 mmol/l
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 8.5 pmol/l 0.9–5.4 pmol/l
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Ergocalciferol
Correct Answer: Alphacalcidol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperparathyroidism in Renal Disease
Hyperparathyroidism in renal disease can be managed with various treatment options. One such option is the use of alphacalcidol, which addresses the low levels of 1, 25-OH vitamin D that contribute to increased PTH. If alphacalcidol fails to reduce PTH levels, surgery may be considered. Calcitonin is another option, used for hypercalcaemia or osteoporosis by inhibiting bone resorption and cartilage degradation. Ergocalciferol, or vitamin D2, is used to prevent and treat vitamin D deficiency but is inactive and not recommended. Sevelamer, a phosphate-binding agent, is not recommended in this scenario due to normal phosphate levels and potential side effects. Finally, cinacalcet, a PTH antagonist, is only recommended for patients on dialysis who are not fit for surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Indian man is seen in the renal outpatient clinic. He has been experiencing a gradual decline in his renal function for the past 4 years due to poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. His eGFR is currently at 8 ml/min, but he is still able to pass urine. Recent ultrasound scans have indicated that he is a suitable candidate for a renal transplant. However, given his ethnicity, there is an uncertain wait for organ suitability should he choose to pursue this option. During the consultation, his 17-year-old daughter offers to donate a kidney due to the high likelihood of compatibility, which the patient is interested in exploring.
The patient's blood test results are as follows:
Hb 92 g/l
Platelets 180 * 109/l
WBC 7.0 * 109/l
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 5.5 mmol/l
Urea 19.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 290 µmol/l
pH 7.30
What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?Your Answer: Monitor renal function, discuss renal replacement therapy in 6 months time
Correct Answer: Start preparation for haemodialysis and list for renal transplant on national transplant list
Explanation:The patient’s renal dysfunction is a result of uncontrolled diabetes and is not expected to improve on its own. There are no immediate indications for initiating renal replacement therapy. The appropriate timing for renal transplantation is a topic of debate, as the rate of renal function decline can vary among patients. However, it is generally agreed that once the underlying cause is deemed irreversible and the eGFR drops below 30, transplantation should be considered.
Understanding Renal Replacement Therapy
Chronic kidney disease affects a significant portion of the population, with around 10% of those with CKD developing renal failure. For patients with renal failure, the options are either renal replacement therapy (RRT) or conservative management. RRT involves taking over the physiology of the kidneys, and there are several types available, including haemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, and renal transplant. The decision about which RRT option to choose should be made jointly by the patient and their healthcare team, taking into account various factors such as predicted quality of life, life expectancy, patient preference, and co-existing medical conditions.
Haemodialysis is the most common form of RRT, where the blood is filtered through a dialysis machine in the hospital. Peritoneal dialysis is another option where the filtration occurs within the patient’s abdomen. Renal transplantation involves receiving a kidney from either a live or deceased donor. Each option has its own set of complications, such as site infection, peritonitis, DVT/PE, and more.
Without adequate RRT, the symptoms of renal failure can be severe, including breathlessness, fatigue, insomnia, pruritus, poor appetite, swelling, weakness, weight gain/loss, abdominal cramps, nausea, muscle cramps, headaches, cognitive impairment, anxiety, depression, and sexual dysfunction. It is crucial for patients and their healthcare team to carefully consider the best RRT option for their individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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A 40-year-old accountant presents to the general medical clinic with complaints of erectile dysfunction. He has been experiencing difficulty sustaining an erection since starting a new job. Despite being physically fit and having reduced his BMI from 27 to 23 by cycling to work, he has found his new job somewhat stressful. He denies any mental health problems and has no significant medical history apart from an appendectomy at 19 years old. On examination, his genitalia appears normal with normally sized testicles. Blood tests, including testosterone, HbA1c, and routine blood tests, are ordered. What advice should be given to him?
Your Answer: Advise to try stop cycling
Explanation:Patients who suffer from erectile dysfunction as a result of cycling should be advised to cease cycling if they cycle for more than three hours per week. This patient, who cycles excessively, has developed erectile dysfunction and should therefore try stopping cycling. As the patient is already at a healthy weight, weight loss is not necessary. For elderly men who infrequently experience erectile dysfunction, vacuum erection devices may be considered, while alprostadil may be considered as a second-line treatment, particularly for those with erectile dysfunction caused by spinal cord compression. Additionally, this patient may benefit from a trial of sildenafil.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman with known systemic lupus erythematosus presents with a 3-month history of fatigue, bilateral leg swelling and increasing abdominal distension. On examination, she had periorbital oedema, ascites and pitting oedema to the groin. Her chest was clear, the heart sounds were normal and her jugular venous pressure was not raised. Investigations reveal abnormal results for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, mean corpuscular volume, albumin, sodium, potassium, bilirubin, urea, alkaline phosphatase, creatinine, aspartate transaminase, cholesterol, urinalysis and 24-hour urinary protein excretion. She was commenced on treatment with high-dose diuretics and immunosuppressant therapy. Several weeks later, she was readmitted with abdominal pain. On examination, she had mild pyrexia and was tender in both loins. Repeat investigation reveals abnormal results for haemoglobin, white cell count, creatinine, sodium, potassium, urea, urinalysis and blood. What is the most likely cause for the acute deterioration in renal function?
Your Answer: Renal calculus
Correct Answer: Renal vein thrombosis
Explanation:The patient was initially diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome due to systemic lupus erythematosus, which was later complicated by renal vein thrombosis. This is a common occurrence in patients with nephrotic syndrome, particularly those with membranous glomerulonephritis. The condition is caused by a hypercoagulable state in the patient due to intravascular volume depletion and loss of clotting factors in the urine. Renal vein thrombosis can present gradually or acutely and is diagnosed through Doppler ultrasound, CT/MRI, or venography. Treatment involves mobilization, avoiding volume depletion, and long-term anticoagulation. Bilateral signs and symptoms suggest involvement of both kidneys, which may require more aggressive management, including thrombolysis if necessary. Other conditions such as renal infarction, acute pyelonephritis, renal artery stenosis, and renal calculus were ruled out based on the patient’s clinical presentation and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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A 52 year-old man presents with a ten-hour history of diffuse abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. The severity of the abdominal pain has been increasing and is currently rated at 7/10 on the pain scale with evidence of guarding. The patient is currently undergoing peritoneal dialysis for end-stage renal failure and has noticed cloudy peritoneal bags over the last eight hours. He is taking ramipril, alfacalcidol, erythropoietin and simvastatin. All his vital signs are stable and peritoneal dialysis fluid has been sent for microscopy, culture and sensitivity.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Give intraperitoneal vancomycin + ceftazidime
Explanation:In the case of peritoneal dialysis peritonitis, the recommended treatment is the administration of intraperitoneal vancomycin and ceftazidime. This is due to the fact that common causative organisms include Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus epidermidis, and prompt medical intervention is crucial.
Understanding Peritoneal Dialysis and its Complications
Peritoneal dialysis (PD) is a type of renal replacement therapy that is used as an alternative to haemodialysis or for younger patients who prefer not to visit the hospital frequently. The most common form of PD is Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis (CAPD), which involves four 2-litre exchanges per day.
However, PD is not without its complications. One of the most common complications is peritonitis, which is often caused by coagulase-negative staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus. To treat peritonitis, antibiotics that cover both Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms are recommended. The British National Formulary (BNF) suggests using vancomycin (or teicoplanin) and ceftazidime added to dialysis fluid or vancomycin added to dialysis fluid and ciprofloxacin by mouth. In some cases, aminoglycosides may be used instead of ceftazidime to cover the Gram-negative organisms.
Another potential complication of PD is sclerosing peritonitis. This is a rare but serious condition that causes inflammation and thickening of the peritoneum, which can lead to bowel obstruction and other complications. It is important for patients undergoing PD to be aware of these potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 63-year-old carpenter presents to the clinic with complaints of nausea and fatigue. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking indapamide and amlodipine. On examination, he appears pale with a BP of 150/90 mmHg, a pulse of 75 and regular, and a BMI of 21. Further investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 100 g/L, MCV of 77 fL with basophilic stippling on the film, white cell count of 8.8 ×109/L, platelets of 192 ×109/L, serum sodium of 140 mmol/L, serum potassium of 5.3 mmol/L, creatinine of 198 µmol/L, and 24-hour urinary protein of 1.8 g.
What is the most important management approach for his underlying condition?Your Answer: Recommend a change of occupation
Explanation:Lead Exposure and Occupational Health
Lead exposure is a serious concern for individuals working in certain occupations, such as painters and decorators. Chronic exposure to lead can lead to hypochromic microcytic anaemia with basophilic stippling on the film, as well as chronic renal failure with mild to moderate proteinuria. It is crucial for individuals in these occupations to take steps to remove themselves from lead exposure in order to manage these health risks. In addition to removing lead exposure, hypertension and proteinuria can be managed using ACE inhibitors and an aggressive blood pressure target. It is important for individuals in these occupations to prioritize their health and consider a change of occupation if necessary to avoid further exposure to lead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man presented with acute dyspnoea.
His past medical history includes three vessel coronary artery bypass surgery for ischaemic heart disease and hypertension. Examination revealed widespread expiratory crackles with chest x ray confirming pulmonary oedema. He was treated with intravenous nitrates and furosemide with symptomatic improvement.
Investigations at this stage revealed:
- Serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea 8.7 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine 170 µmol/L (60-110)
- Random plasma glucose 10.1 mmol/L (<11.1)
- Urinalysis Protein++
The following day he was switched to oral furosemide at a dose of 80 mg daily and began captopril 12.5 mg twice daily, increased to 25 mg twice daily.
Repeat investigations one week later revealed:
- Serum sodium 134 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea 15.7 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine 220 µmol/L (60-110)
- Fasting plasma glucose 6.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
Which of the following is most likely to have caused the deterioration in renal function?Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Captopril
Explanation:Renal Artery Stenosis and ACEI-Induced Renal Dysfunction
Patients with coronary artery atheroma may also have renal artery stenosis due to the same underlying pathophysiological mechanism. Therefore, clinicians should be vigilant for signs of renal dysfunction when prescribing medications such as angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) that can affect renal function. If a patient experiences a rise in serum creatinine levels of more than 20% above their baseline after starting an ACEI, the clinician should temporarily discontinue the medication, monitor renal function, and investigate for renal artery stenosis.
It is also important to note that this patient does not have diabetes, as evidenced by their fasting plasma glucose level of only 6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). This information can help guide the clinician’s decision-making process when considering treatment options for this patient. By being aware of the potential for renal artery stenosis and ACEI-induced renal dysfunction, clinicians can take proactive steps to ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A 54-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department referred by his General Practitioner due to abnormal renal profile results. The patient's laboratory results show Na+ 140 mmol/l, K+ 3.4 mmol/l, Urea 25.2 mmol/l, and Creatinine 380 µmol/l. The patient has a medical history of neurofibromatosis type 1, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Despite controlling hypertension and diabetes with diet alone, the patient started taking amlodipine, irbesartan, and metformin two weeks ago. Urinalysis is negative for blood, protein, and nitrites. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:If a patient experiences a sudden decline in kidney function shortly after beginning treatment with an angiotensin-2 receptor blocker, it is important to consider the possibility of renal artery stenosis. Although this association is commonly observed with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, the use of angiotensin-2 receptor blockers also poses a significant risk of worsening renal function in patients with renal artery stenosis. Additionally, there is a link between neurofibromatosis and renal artery stenosis.
Renal vascular disease is primarily caused by atherosclerosis, which affects over 95% of patients. This condition is linked to risk factors such as hypertension and smoking, which lead to the formation of atheroma in other parts of the body. Symptoms of renal vascular disease may include hypertension, chronic renal failure, or sudden pulmonary edema. However, in younger patients, fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) should be considered. FMD is more common in young women and is characterized by a string of beads appearance on angiography. Balloon angioplasty is an effective treatment for this condition.
When investigating renal vascular disease, MR angiography is now the preferred method. CT angiography is also an option, while conventional renal angiography is less commonly used nowadays but may still be useful in surgical planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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A 75-year-old man has been admitted with an ischaemic right limb and the vascular surgical team would like to perform a CT with contrast to investigate. He has a history of diabetes and heart failure. His blood tests are shown below:
Hb 135 g/l
Platelets 270 * 109/l
WBC 6 * 109/l
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4 mmol/l
Urea 6 mmol/l
Creatinine 140 µmol/l
eGFR 65 ml/min/1.73m2
What measures can be taken to prevent acute kidney injury in this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous volume expansion
Explanation:Expanding the volume of the mouth alone is inadequate, and the use of N-acetylcysteine cannot be officially recommended due to the limited evidence of its effectiveness.
Contrast media nephrotoxicity is characterized by a 25% increase in creatinine levels within three days of receiving intravascular contrast media. This condition typically occurs between two to five days after administration and is more likely to affect patients with pre-existing renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, or those taking nephrotoxic drugs like NSAIDs. Procedures that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy include CT scans with contrast and coronary angiography or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Around 5% of patients who undergo PCI experience a temporary increase in plasma creatinine levels of more than 88 µmol/L.
To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride should be administered at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours before and after the procedure. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate may also be used. While N-acetylcysteine was previously used, recent evidence suggests it is not effective. Patients at high risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function returns to normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with end-stage chronic kidney disease presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen right arm. He undergoes dialysis 3 times per week through a fistula in the right arm, but has experienced pain during the last two sessions, causing him to stop 30 minutes early on both occasions. He denies any swelling in other areas of his body, shortness of breath, or fevers. His medical history includes reflux nephropathy and hypertension, and he has been receiving dialysis through the fistula for 2 years. The swelling has been developing over the past 2 weeks.
Upon examination, his heart rate is 83 beats per minute, blood pressure is 157/94 mmHg, temperature is 36.8 ºC, and oxygen saturations are 98% on air. The patient's right arm is diffusely swollen with no erythema, and the fistula site is clean with recent evidence of needle marks and no discharge. There is a palpable thrill and an audible bruit. His chest is clear, and JVP is 2cm. There is no edema in the contralateral arm, but mild edema is present in both feet.
A chest x-ray reveals mild chronic cardiomegaly with clear lung fields. Blood results show a hemoglobin level of 105 g/l, platelets at 170 * 109/l, WBC at 9 * 109/l, neutrophils at 5.5 * 109/l, lymphocytes at 2.2 * 109/l, and CRP at 18 mg/l. His sodium level is 135 mmol/l, potassium level is 5.1 mmol/l, urea level is 21 mmol/l, and creatinine level is 753 µmol/l.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Fistula stenosis
Explanation:This man is experiencing severe pain and swelling in his fistula arm, but there are no signs of infection. Despite the fistula still functioning, dialysis is causing discomfort, indicating a possible stenosis. Normal inflammatory markers make cellulitis unlikely. Superior vena cava obstruction is a more probable diagnosis for someone with a tunnelled dialysis line, which would typically cause swelling in both arms and face, shortness of breath, and a widened mediastinum on x-ray. Lymphoedema of the arm is rare at this stage and is usually a result of axillary lymph node surgery. Although there is no history of thrombosis, it is possible that the fistula is associated with one, but the presence of a thrill and bruit suggests that the fistula is not completely thrombosed.
Understanding Renal Replacement Therapy
Chronic kidney disease affects a significant portion of the population, with around 10% of those with CKD developing renal failure. For patients with renal failure, the options are either renal replacement therapy (RRT) or conservative management. RRT involves taking over the physiology of the kidneys, and there are several types available, including haemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, and renal transplant. The decision about which RRT option to choose should be made jointly by the patient and their healthcare team, taking into account various factors such as predicted quality of life, life expectancy, patient preference, and co-existing medical conditions.
Haemodialysis is the most common form of RRT, where the blood is filtered through a dialysis machine in the hospital. Peritoneal dialysis is another option where the filtration occurs within the patient’s abdomen. Renal transplantation involves receiving a kidney from either a live or deceased donor. Each option has its own set of complications, such as site infection, peritonitis, DVT/PE, and more.
Without adequate RRT, the symptoms of renal failure can be severe, including breathlessness, fatigue, insomnia, pruritus, poor appetite, swelling, weakness, weight gain/loss, abdominal cramps, nausea, muscle cramps, headaches, cognitive impairment, anxiety, depression, and sexual dysfunction. It is crucial for patients and their healthcare team to carefully consider the best RRT option for their individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 32
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized for the last 12 days to treat bronchopneumonia. She has recently experienced chills, fever, and a skin rash over the past 48 hours. A peripheral blood film shows eosinophilia, and her urinalysis indicates ++ proteinuria. She has no prior history of renal disease, and her HbA1c is within normal range. Based on these results, what diagnosis is most likely?
Your Answer: Drug-induced interstitial nephritis
Explanation:The findings suggest drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis, which is characterized by inflammation and edema in the kidneys. It is often caused by exposure to certain medications, including antibiotics, NSAIDs, and antivirals. Classic symptoms include fever, rash, and joint pain, and diagnosis is confirmed through renal biopsy or eosinophiluria. Treatment involves stopping the causative agent and may include corticosteroids. Prognosis is generally good with partial or complete recovery of renal function. Other possible conditions, such as post-streptococcal GN and Berger’s disease, have different presentations and timelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 33
Correct
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A 44-year-old female presents to the hyperacute stroke unit with expressive dysphasia and mild right sided upper limb weakness without sensory disturbance six hours after symptom onset. Despite being outside the thrombolysis window, a hyperacute CT head reveals multiple small infarcts in the left middle cerebral artery territory, while a simultaneous CT angiogram of her extra and intracranial vessels shows a string of beads appearance as reported by the radiologist. What is the most suitable subsequent investigation to request in order to identify the underlying cause of this woman's strokes?
Your Answer: CT angiogram renal arteries
Explanation:Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) is a rare vascular disease that primarily affects the arteries leading to the kidneys, but can also affect other arteries in the body. It is more common in women and can cause high blood pressure, kidney damage, and stroke. FMD patients often have a history of severe or refractory hypertension and may be taking multiple anti-hypertensive medications. While digital subtraction angiography is the preferred diagnostic tool, non-invasive imaging techniques such as CT and MR angiography are more commonly used. The United States Registry for Fibromuscular Dysplasia has reported on the outcomes of the first 447 patients with this condition. Contemporary management of FMD involves a multidisciplinary approach and individualized treatment plans.
Renal vascular disease is primarily caused by atherosclerosis, which affects over 95% of patients. This condition is linked to risk factors such as hypertension and smoking, which lead to the formation of atheroma in other parts of the body. Symptoms of renal vascular disease may include hypertension, chronic renal failure, or sudden pulmonary edema. However, in younger patients, fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) should be considered. FMD is more common in young women and is characterized by a string of beads appearance on angiography. Balloon angioplasty is an effective treatment for this condition.
When investigating renal vascular disease, MR angiography is now the preferred method. CT angiography is also an option, while conventional renal angiography is less commonly used nowadays but may still be useful in surgical planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 34
Correct
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A 25-year-old male presents to renal outpatients with his mother. The patient's father, who has recently started haemodialysis, has been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. The patient's paternal aunt has kidney disease and suffered a subarachnoid haemorrhage, while his paternal grandfather died of 'kidney problems' at the age of 64. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 129/64 mmHg and blood tests and urine dip are unremarkable. The patient and his mother are wondering if screening for polycystic kidney disease is appropriate. Which test should be offered to the patient?
Your Answer: Renal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Diagnosis of Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a genetic disorder that can be diagnosed through renal ultrasound screening. This test has a sensitivity of 100% for PKD1, but false negatives may occur in individuals under the age of 20. If cysts are not detected, the ultrasound should be repeated every five years until the age of 30. Some experts recommend starting screening at a younger age to allow for early diagnosis and management of hypertension, which can slow disease progression.
Abdominal CT is also sensitive for detecting cysts, but its high radiation dose makes it unsuitable for widespread use as a screening test. Genetic testing is only used in specific circumstances, such as when a definite diagnosis is required in a young patient or for potential living donors. However, this method can only identify around 70% of known mutations, and linkage analysis requires the availability of sufficient family members.
Intravenous urography is no longer used in the diagnosis of ADPKD, and magnetic resonance angiography is typically only recommended for patients with a diagnosis of ADPKD who have symptoms of an intracranial aneurysm, a previous ICA, a high-risk job should intracranial haemorrhage occur, or an affected family member with an ICA. Regular screening and early detection are crucial for managing ADPKD and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has been admitted to the renal ward due to deteriorating renal function. Her laboratory results are as follows:
- Sodium: 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium: 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 16 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea: 19.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine: 429 µmol/L (55 - 120)
The renal team has conducted a renal biopsy and found a 'Wire-loop' appearance with endothelial and mesangial proliferation consistent with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. The patient has responded well to high-dose methylprednisolone in terms of her renal function.
What is the most appropriate maintenance treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Mycophenolate
Explanation:When treating lupus nephritis, mycophenolate is the recommended follow-up medication after the initial therapy has shown a response. In this case, a woman with SLE experienced significant kidney dysfunction, likely due to lupus nephritis. Her renal biopsy revealed diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, which is classified as class IV lupus nephritis according to the WHO classification.
The initial treatment for lupus nephritis involves high-dose steroids and either mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide. Mycophenolate is the preferred maintenance treatment, while azathioprine is less preferred due to its higher risk of end-stage renal disease development. Cyclophosphamide can be used with steroids to induce remission, but it is not used for maintenance. Steroids are only used in the initial treatment and are not part of long-term management.
Renal Complications in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can lead to severe renal complications, including lupus nephritis, which can result in end-stage renal disease. Regular urinalysis is recommended for SLE patients to detect proteinuria. Lupus nephritis is classified into six categories, with class IV being the most common and severe form. Renal biopsy shows characteristic findings such as endothelial and mesangial proliferation, a wire-loop appearance, and subendothelial immune complex deposits.
Management of lupus nephritis involves treating hypertension and using glucocorticoids with either mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide for initial therapy in cases of focal (class III) or diffuse (class IV) lupus nephritis. Mycophenolate is generally preferred over azathioprine for subsequent therapy to decrease the risk of developing end-stage renal disease. Regular monitoring and prompt treatment are crucial in managing renal complications in SLE patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 36
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his right forearm. He has a medical history of hypertension and end-stage renal failure and is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine, and doxazosin.
Upon examination, an arteriovenous fistula is observed in the right forearm, with an audible bruit. No other swelling or erythema is present, and there is no pain when the forearm is moved passively. The hand's color appears normal.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: AV fistula stenosis
Explanation:Acute limb pain at the site of the fistula is a common presentation of AV fistula stenosis.
Arteriovenous fistulas are connections between arteries and veins that can occur naturally or be created surgically for haemodialysis access. They are now considered the preferred method due to lower complication rates. It takes around 6 to 8 weeks for an arteriovenous fistula to develop. However, potential complications include infection, thrombosis, stenosis, and steal syndrome. These complications may present with symptoms such as acute limb pain or the absence of a bruit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 37
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to the acute medical unit with a one-day history of rash and fever. He has a medical history of hypertension and osteoarthritis and takes amlodipine and naproxen as needed. He denies smoking or drinking alcohol.
His vital signs are heart rate 92 beats per minute, blood pressure 143/88 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/minute, oxygen saturations 97% on room air, and temperature 37.7ºC.
Upon examination, there is a mild blanching macular erythematous rash on his trunk. Chest auscultation is normal, and there is no meningism. Heart sounds are normal with no added sounds or murmurs. Neurological examination is unremarkable, and he appears euvolemic.
Urinalysis showed leucocytes +++, nitrites -ve, blood -ve, protein +, and glucose -ve. Blood tests reveal Hb 138 g/L, platelets 189 * 109/L, WBC 10.9 * 109/L, Neuts 6.8 * 109/L, Lymphs 3.1 * 109/L, Mono 0.2 * 109/L, Eosin 0.8 * 109/L, Na+ 137 mmol/L, K+ 4.1 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 21 mmol/L, Urea 9.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 155 µmol/L, and CRP 4g/L.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is acute interstitial nephritis, which presents with symptoms similar to an allergic reaction, including elevated urinary white blood cell count, IgE, and eosinophils, as well as impaired kidney function. The patient’s fever, rash, and kidney dysfunction, along with eosinophilia and sterile pyuria, are consistent with this diagnosis, especially given their recent use of NSAIDs. Cholesterol embolism, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis are less likely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.
Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that is responsible for a quarter of all drug-induced acute kidney injuries. The most common cause of this condition is drugs, particularly antibiotics such as penicillin and rifampicin, as well as NSAIDs, allopurinol, and furosemide. Systemic diseases like SLE, sarcoidosis, and Sjögren’s syndrome, as well as infections like Hanta virus and staphylococci, can also cause acute interstitial nephritis. The histology of this condition shows marked interstitial oedema and interstitial infiltrate in the connective tissue between renal tubules. Symptoms of acute interstitial nephritis include fever, rash, arthralgia, eosinophilia, mild renal impairment, and hypertension. Sterile pyuria and white cell casts are common findings in investigations.
Tubulointerstitial nephritis with uveitis (TINU) is a condition that typically affects young females. Symptoms of TINU include fever, weight loss, and painful, red eyes. Urinalysis is positive for leukocytes and protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 38
Correct
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A 87-year-old woman is admitted to the orthopaedic ward after falling and lying on the floor for four hours. She was brought in by ambulance and diagnosed with a left intertrochanteric fractured neck of femur. She underwent surgery eight hours later and had fixation with a dynamic hip screw. During surgery, she received three units of blood.
The following day, the orthogeriatric team assessed her. In the last 24 hours, she has passed 300ml of urine. Her creatinine level from the previous day was 170 umol/l, and her baseline creatinine from three months ago was 50 umol/l. She weighs 60kg.
What is the most appropriate way to describe her current kidney function?Your Answer: Stage III acute kidney injury
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient is stage III acute kidney injury (AKI), based on the increase in her creatinine levels compared to her baseline results. Her creatinine has risen from 45 umol/l to 162 umol/l, indicating a ratio of 3.6, which is indicative of stage III AKI. Although her urine output rate of 0.46ml/kg/hour would suggest a stage II AKI, the staging based on increased creatinine levels is a more significant indicator of her renal function.
According to the KDIGO grading of AKI, the stages are determined by serum creatinine levels and urine output. Stage 1 is characterized by a 1.5-1.9 times increase in baseline serum creatinine levels or an increase of more than 26.5 umol/l, along with a urine output of less than 0.5ml/kg/hr for 6-12 hours. Stage 2 is characterized by a 2.0-2.9 times increase in baseline serum creatinine levels and a urine output of less than 0.5ml/kg/hr for more than 12 hours. Stage 3 is characterized by a 3.0 times increase in baseline serum creatinine levels or an increase of more than 353.6 umol/l, initiation of renal replacement therapy, or anuria for more than 12 hours.
The NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify several risk factors, including emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria for AKI include a rise in creatinine, a fall in urine output, or a fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI based on the severity of the creatinine increase or reduction in urine output. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as stage 3 AKI, inadequate response to treatment, or complications of AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean descent presents to the hospital with a two-week history of fatigue and worsening swelling in her lower limbs. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus six years ago and her creatinine levels have been gradually increasing from 120 µmol/l to 260 µmol/l over the past six months.
During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 180/118 mmHg, and she has significant swelling in her ankles and feet, along with periorbital edema. A urine dip test reveals 4+ protein, and a 24-hour urine collection shows 4.6g protein. A renal biopsy is performed by the renal physicians, which confirms membranous lupus nephritis. Along with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, statins, and anti-hypertensives, what is the most appropriate immediate treatment?Your Answer: Monitor
Correct Answer: IV methylprednisolone and IV cyclophosphamide
Explanation:Lupus nephritis is a common complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and is characterized by the presence of either haematuria or proteinuria on a routine urine dip. In 2004, a classification for lupus nephritis was developed, which includes six classes of possible overlapping histological findings on renal biopsy. The patient in this case has been diagnosed with membranous lupus nephritis, which is classified as class V lupus nephritis and is characterized by thickened glomerular walls and significant subepithelial immune deposits.
The treatment of lupus nephritis is determined by the class of renal histology. While less severe lesions can be treated with oral steroids alone, more severe cases, such as nephrotic syndrome and advanced diffuse severe lupus nephritis, require early and aggressive immunosuppression. The KDIGO guidelines recommend a combination of intravenous methylprednisolone and intravenous cyclophosphamide for these cases. Plasmapheresis is not recommended for the treatment of lupus nephritis. Prompt initiation of appropriate induction therapy followed by maintenance therapy is essential for the best long-term prognosis. Monitoring alone is not sufficient.
Renal Complications in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can lead to severe renal complications, including lupus nephritis, which can result in end-stage renal disease. Regular urinalysis is recommended for SLE patients to detect proteinuria. Lupus nephritis is classified into six categories, with class IV being the most common and severe form. Renal biopsy shows characteristic findings such as endothelial and mesangial proliferation, a wire-loop appearance, and subendothelial immune complex deposits.
Management of lupus nephritis involves treating hypertension and using glucocorticoids with either mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide for initial therapy in cases of focal (class III) or diffuse (class IV) lupus nephritis. Mycophenolate is generally preferred over azathioprine for subsequent therapy to decrease the risk of developing end-stage renal disease. Regular monitoring and prompt treatment are crucial in managing renal complications in SLE patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man, who works as a construction worker, is brought to the Emergency Department after collapsing at work. He attributes it to the hot weather but, upon further questioning, admits to experiencing extreme fatigue and muscle cramps during physical activity for as long as he can remember. His wife, who has come to the Emergency Department with him, confirms that he often complains of lethargy and muscle pains after work.
On examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and regular. He is of average height and his BMI is 25.
The following investigations were conducted:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135 - 175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.0 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 200 × 109/l 150 - 400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.2 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
Bicarbonate (HCO3-) 30 mmol/l 22 - 29 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 90 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
24 hour urinary calcium 2.5 mmol 2.50 - 7.50 mmol
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Bartter syndrome
Correct Answer: Gitelman syndrome
Explanation:Gitelman syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that presents with hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and hypomagnesaemia, leading to severe fatigue and muscle cramps. Unlike Bartter syndrome, Gitelman syndrome is associated with milder disease and presents later in life. To confirm the diagnosis, a diuretic screen and urinary calcium excretion are necessary. Reduced calcium excretion is a characteristic feature of Gitelman syndrome, whereas Bartter syndrome is not.
Cushing syndrome, on the other hand, is associated with hypertension, weight gain, abdominal striae, round facies, fat pad between shoulder blades, muscle wasting, and poor wound healing. Bartter syndrome usually presents in childhood due to failure to thrive, and elevated urinary calcium levels (>6.9 mmol over a 24-hour period) suggest the diagnosis.
Conn syndrome is another condition that presents with hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and hypertension, along with other symptoms such as myalgia, muscle spasms, paraesthesiae, and polyuria. Complications may include stroke, myocardial infarction, and kidney disease.
It is essential to differentiate between these conditions to provide appropriate treatment. Although diuretic abuse may cause hypokalaemia, in this case, it seems unlikely given the patient’s long history and occupation in a doctor’s surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 41
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman goes to a party with some friends to celebrate the end of the semester. The next day, she visits the Emergency department feeling sick. She experiences shortness of breath, nausea, and has excessive diarrhea. She consumed some alcohol at the party and took 1 g paracetamol before going to the emergency department, but it didn't help much. Her blood test results show low hemoglobin, low platelets, high urea, high creatinine, and low bicarbonate levels. Her blood film shows fragmented cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (HUS) Caused by E. coli 0157
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that is commonly caused by Escherichia coli 0157, which is contracted through the consumption of undercooked meat. The illness typically presents with diarrhoea, followed by haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury. Interestingly, the haematological and renal indices tend to worsen as the diarrhoea begins to settle.
Approximately half of all patients with HUS require acute haemodialysis, and the mortality rate is up to 5%. Even after recovery, between 5-10% of patients may experience residual renal or neurological deficits. Overall, HUS is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 50 year old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a complaint of polyuria lasting for the past three months. She reports needing to urinate every 60 to 90 minutes during the day and being woken up at least twice at night. She denies any increased urinary urgency or dysuria. The patient has not made any changes to her fluid intake and consumes minimal caffeine and alcohol. She has also experienced loose stools and a weight loss of 4 Kg over recent weeks.
The patient has no significant medical history except for an appendicectomy in childhood and no previous pregnancies. Her twin sister was diagnosed with coeliac disease five years ago. She is not on any regular medications and has no known allergies. On examination, the patient appears slightly anxious and is slim. Cardiovascular, respiratory, and ocular examination is normal, and there are no skin rashes.
Initial investigations requested by the General Practitioner are as follows:
- Haemoglobin: 12.4 g/dL
- White cell count: 6.5 * 109/L
- Platelets: 329 * 109/L
- Urea: 3.5 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 75 micromol/L
- Sodium: 142 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.7 mmol/L
- Calcium (adjusted): 2.4 mmol/L
- Haemoglobin A1C: 5.3% (reference 4-6)
- Serum glucose (random): 4.7 mmol/L
- Urine dipstick: negative for nitrites, leucocytes, glucose, ketones, protein, and beta-HCG
- Urine microscopy, culture, and sensitivities: white cell count < 10/mm³, no growth
What is the most appropriate next test to diagnose the cause of polyuria?Your Answer: Paired serum and urine osmolality
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:The patient has polyuria without other urinary symptoms, diarrhoea, and weight loss. The most appropriate next test is thyroid function tests to check for hyperthyroidism. Paired serum and urine osmolalities are less likely to detect diabetes insipidus, which is a very rare cause of polyuria. Urodynamic studies are not necessary for pelvic floor dysfunction, and coeliac disease would not explain the patient’s polyuria.
Polyuria, or excessive urination, can be caused by a variety of factors. A recent review in the BMJ categorizes these causes by their frequency of occurrence. The most common causes of polyuria include the use of diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol, as well as diabetes mellitus, lithium, and heart failure. Less common causes include hypercalcaemia and hyperthyroidism, while rare causes include chronic renal failure, primary polydipsia, and hypokalaemia. The least common cause of polyuria is diabetes insipidus, which occurs in less than 1 in 10,000 cases. It is important to note that while these frequencies may not align with exam questions, understanding the potential causes of polyuria can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 43
Correct
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A 48-year-old male presents to the medical team after being referred by his GP in the urgent care centre. He reports experiencing non-specific symptoms for the past 6 months, including fatigue and malaise, with no specific focal symptoms. The patient also notes that his urine appears frothy, and a urine sample reveals 4+ protein and 4+ blood, but no leucocytes or nitrites. During examination, the patient's resting blood pressure is found to be 190/120 mmHg, and bilateral periorbital oedema, a right varicocele, and prominent abdominal veins are noted. There is also significant swelling around both eyes. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use, one previous admission for cellulitis around a groin injection site, positive hepatitis B, and atopic dermatitis. He denies drug use over the past 2 months and any recent infections.
The patient's initial serum results show Hb 105 g/l, platelets 426 * 109/l, WBC 11.2 * 109/l, Na+ 138 mmol/l, K+ 4.3 mmol/l, urea 16 mmol/l, creatinine 230 µmol/l, albumin 19 g/l, and CRP 16 mg/l. An urgent ultrasound of his renal tract reveals a right renal vein thrombus.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Membranous glomerulonephritis is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults, characterized by thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. This results in proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. Patients with this condition often have elevated levels of anti-phospholipase A2 receptor antibodies.
Minimal change disease, on the other hand, is a podocyte pathology that is most commonly found in children. It is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema, but there is no thickening of the glomerular basement membrane.
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is not a specific diagnosis, but rather a histological description that can be caused by primary or secondary disorders. Primary FSGS typically presents acutely or subacutely with renal failure, while secondary FSGS is a consequence of diffuse renal insult and is increased in risk by conditions such as HIV, heroin use, and sickle cell pathology.
Goodpasture’s disease is another condition that can cause acute kidney injury, characterized by antibodies against the glomerular basement membrane.
While right renal vein thrombosis is the correct diagnosis in this case, it does not provide information about the underlying cause of the procoagulant state that led to the thrombosis.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male presents to the Medical Admission Unit with a five-day history of shortness of breath that has progressively worsened. He experiences significant orthopnoea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. His medical history includes angina, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and a transient ischaemic attack three years ago. He has been seeing his GP for poor blood pressure control and was recently started on ramipril. He smokes 40 cigarettes per day and consumes 38 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is short of breath at rest with a respiratory rate of 26/min and oxygen saturations of 92% on air. His blood pressure is 158/78 mmHg and heart rate 54 bpm. Initial investigations reveal bilateral pulmonary oedema, normal heart diameter, and the presence of aortic stenosis with a pressure gradient of 18 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next investigation to determine the cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Coronary angiography
Correct Answer: Renal magnetic resonance angiography
Explanation:This man developed sudden pulmonary edema after starting ramipril, indicating a possible diagnosis of atheromatous renal artery stenosis. He has a history of vascular disease and experienced a decline in renal function despite normal systolic function. To confirm the diagnosis, MR angiography would be the most suitable next step as it is less invasive than renal angiography. While coronary angiography may also be necessary, it would not be the most appropriate next step in investigating the cause of this episode.
Renal vascular disease is primarily caused by atherosclerosis, which affects over 95% of patients. This condition is linked to risk factors such as hypertension and smoking, which lead to the formation of atheroma in other parts of the body. Symptoms of renal vascular disease may include hypertension, chronic renal failure, or sudden pulmonary edema. However, in younger patients, fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) should be considered. FMD is more common in young women and is characterized by a string of beads appearance on angiography. Balloon angioplasty is an effective treatment for this condition.
When investigating renal vascular disease, MR angiography is now the preferred method. CT angiography is also an option, while conventional renal angiography is less commonly used nowadays but may still be useful in surgical planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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You are summoned to the renal ward to assess a 44-year-old male patient who has been causing concern among the nursing staff. The man was admitted two weeks ago with acute renal failure, and subsequent blood tests revealed a positive anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) with a myeloperoxidase (MPO) level of 131. A renal biopsy was performed four days after admission, and the provisional pathology report indicated acute crescentic glomerulonephritis (immuno-fluorescence awaited). Five days into his hospital stay, he experienced frank haemoptysis, which was treated with high flow oxygen and did not require transfusion.
You have been called to see him because he collapsed on his way back from the bathroom. He is tachycardic, and his blood pressure is 85/40 mmHg. He looks pale and complains of generalised abdominal pain, but denies any further haemoptysis. Blood tests reveal a white cell count of 12.6 *109/l, haemoglobin of 67 g/l, platelets of 129 *109/l, adjusted calcium of 2.01 mmol/l, prothrombin time of 14 seconds, and fibrinogen of 1.1 g/dL.
An urgent CT angiogram confirms intra-abdominal bleeding at the site of his kidney biopsy.
Which treatment is most likely to have increased his risk of delayed post-biopsy bleed?Your Answer: Intravenous methylprednisolone
Correct Answer: Plasma exchange
Explanation:Plasma exchange can lead to an increased risk of bleeding due to the depletion of fibrinogen levels and a reduction in platelet count. Therefore, patients who undergo plasma exchange should have their fibrinogen levels monitored daily and replaced with Fresh Frozen Plasma if depleted. Additionally, it is important to note that plasma exchange specifically increases the risk of delayed bleeding following renal biopsy. In this case, the patient had low levels of fibrinogen, low platelets (although they are often high in acute vasculitis), and low calcium, which are all potential side effects of plasma exchange. Aspirin, on the other hand, is not typically stopped prior to renal biopsy despite its potential to increase bleeding risk.
Plasma Exchange: Indications and Complications
Plasma exchange, also known as plasmapheresis, is a medical procedure that involves removing plasma from the blood and replacing it with a substitute solution. This procedure is used to treat various medical conditions, including Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, ANCA positive vasculitis, TTP/HUS, cryoglobulinemia, and hyperviscosity syndrome. Plasma exchange is particularly useful in cases where the patient’s immune system is attacking their own body, as it removes the antibodies responsible for the attack.
However, like any medical procedure, plasma exchange is not without its risks. Complications can include hypocalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, removal of systemic medications, coagulation factor depletion, and immunoglobulin depletion. Hypocalcemia is caused by the presence of citrate, which is used as an anticoagulant for the extracorporeal system. Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to the loss of acid in the plasma. Removal of systemic medications can be a concern, as plasma exchange can remove medications from the bloodstream. Coagulation factor depletion can lead to bleeding, while immunoglobulin depletion can increase the risk of infection. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients undergoing plasma exchange to minimize the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 46
Correct
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A patient in their 60s with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) visits the outpatient clinic to explore the option of a renal transplant.
Which of the following is not a commonly known adverse effect of ciclosporin?Your Answer: Dupuytren's contracture
Explanation:Side Effects of Immunosuppressant Drugs in Transplant Recipients
The use of immunosuppressant drugs in transplant recipients is crucial for the survival of the graft. However, these drugs can have many unwanted side effects, making patient compliance with their medication vital. As part of the pre-transplant counselling process, patients need to be well informed of the likely effects of these drugs.
One commonly used immunosuppressant drug is ciclosporin. While it is not typically associated with the development of Dupuytren’s contracture, it can still cause other issues. Ciclosporin toxicity is a common cause of end-stage renal failure in recipients of other transplanted organs such as the pancreas or liver. Additionally, it may also be associated with chronic failure of a transplanted kidney. Therefore, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks and side effects of immunosuppressant drugs and to work closely with their healthcare team to manage any issues that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with worsening productive cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. He appears confused and dehydrated, with increasing muscle pain. His vital signs show a temperature of 37.7ºC, a heart rate of 102/min, and a blood pressure of 95/65 mmHg. He is currently taking bisoprolol 2.5 mg OD, aspirin 75 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg OD, ramipril 3.75 mg OD, amlodipine 5 mg OD, and allopurinol 300 mg OD. His wife reports that his GP recently prescribed a new medication for his cough.
The patient's blood work shows a hemoglobin level of 104 g/l, platelets at 525 * 109/l, WBC at 16.5 * 109/l, and lymphocytes at 3.2 * 109/l. His sodium level is 131 mmol/l, potassium level is 6.2 mmol/l, and urea level is 21.1 mmol/l. His creatinine level is 365 µmol/l, CRP level is 79 mg/l, and creatinine kinase level is 1325 u/l.
Which recently prescribed medication could explain the abnormal blood picture in this patient?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The co-prescription of clarithromycin and statins can result in rhabdomyolysis. This is because statins are metabolized through the CYP3A4 pathway, which can be inhibited by drugs like macrolide antibiotics. Clarithromycin, in particular, can increase the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. However, it is worth noting that atorvastatin, being a more hydrophilic agent, is less affected by CYP3A4 metabolism and therefore has fewer side effects when combined with clarithromycin.
Understanding Rhabdomyolysis
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that may be presented in an exam as a patient who has experienced a fall or prolonged epileptic seizure and is found to have an acute kidney injury upon admission. This condition is characterized by elevated creatine kinase (CK), myoglobinuria, hypocalcaemia, elevated phosphate, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. The primary cause of rhabdomyolysis is seizure, collapse/coma, ecstasy, crush injury, McArdle’s syndrome, and drugs such as statins (especially if co-prescribed with clarithromycin).
To manage rhabdomyolysis, IV fluids are administered to maintain good urine output, and urinary alkalinization is sometimes used. It is essential to monitor the patient’s creatinine levels, as they may be disproportionately raised, and to address any hypocalcaemia that may occur due to myoglobin binding calcium. Hyperkalaemia may develop before renal failure, so it is crucial to monitor potassium levels. Overall, understanding rhabdomyolysis is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment to patients who may be experiencing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 48
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of diabetes presents to the Emergency Department with sepsis caused by cellulitis in her right calf. She is promptly started on IV co-amoxiclav and receives fluid resuscitation. She quickly recovers and is admitted to the hospital for monitoring. Two days later, you are asked to evaluate her as her morning blood tests show acute kidney injury (AKI). She has no other notable symptoms. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and there are no remarkable findings. Her test results show elevated creatinine levels, positive urine dipstick protein and blood, and eosinophils in urine microscopy. An acute screen is pending, and an abdominal ultrasound scan is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis (ATIN)
Explanation:The patient in this case developed acute tubulointerstitial nephritis (ATIN) due to the use of co-amoxiclav for cellulitis. This type of nephritis is often caused by penicillin-derived antibiotics and is characterized by mild haematoproteinuria and eosinophilia. Treatment involves a short course of high-dose steroids and may require a kidney biopsy for confirmation. Other potential causes of renal failure, such as ANCA-associated vasculitis, acute tubular necrosis, Goodpasture’s disease, and prerenal AKI, were ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 49
Correct
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A 54-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain and a medical history of stage III chronic kidney disease, aspergillosis, type two diabetes mellitus, and peripheral vascular disease. The surgical team orders a contrast CT scan, but the patient is currently taking aspirin, clopidogrel, metformin, paracetamol, amphotericin B, and insulin. His capillary blood glucose level is 8.2mmol/L, and he is given IV 0.9% saline before and after contrast administration. To prevent contrast-induced acute kidney injury, his metformin is discontinued. His blood tests reveal Na+ 139 mmol/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, urea 5.2 mmol/l, and creatinine 145 µmol/l.
What is the most effective additional measure to prevent contrast-induced acute kidney injury in this patient?Your Answer: Stop amphotericin
Explanation:Stopping amphotericin is the best course of action to prevent contrast-induced acute kidney injury (CI-AKI). Although stopping metformin is also appropriate, it is done to avoid lactic acidosis when renal function is deteriorating. While n-acetylcysteine is still frequently prescribed, it is not currently recommended by guidelines, although this may change. There is no need to initiate an insulin sliding scale unless the patient is unable to eat or drink.
Contrast media nephrotoxicity is characterized by a 25% increase in creatinine levels within three days of receiving intravascular contrast media. This condition typically occurs between two to five days after administration and is more likely to affect patients with pre-existing renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, or those taking nephrotoxic drugs like NSAIDs. Procedures that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy include CT scans with contrast and coronary angiography or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Around 5% of patients who undergo PCI experience a temporary increase in plasma creatinine levels of more than 88 µmol/L.
To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride should be administered at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours before and after the procedure. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate may also be used. While N-acetylcysteine was previously used, recent evidence suggests it is not effective. Patients at high risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function returns to normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male with end-stage renal failure due to IgA nephropathy is admitted to the hospital. He was discharged three days ago after being admitted for hyperkalemia-induced collapse. He is now in the medical assessment unit after experiencing rigors during dialysis earlier today.
After dialysis, his blood tests show:
- White blood cell count: 15.2 *109/l
- Sodium: 134 mmol/l
- Potassium: 2.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 10.6 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 400 µmol/l
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 119 mg/dL
What is the most urgent priority in his management?Your Answer: Replace potassium (K+)
Correct Answer: Intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:The patient is currently suffering from sepsis and her greatest risk is infection. It is important to note that post-dialysis blood tests may not accurately reflect the patient’s electrolyte levels as it takes time for the intracellular and extracellular compartments to balance. Based on the patient’s pre-dialysis blood test results, it is likely that she had high-normal levels of potassium, which could explain her recent hyperkalaemia presentation. However, it is important to confirm this with repeat blood tests before making any adjustments to her potassium levels. Overcorrecting potassium levels can be dangerous, so caution is advised. While magnesium is important to correct in cases of hypokalaemia, we do not believe that the patient is truly experiencing low potassium levels. Therefore, treatments such as intravenous calcium gluconate and insulin/dextrose infusion, which are used for hyperkalaemia, are not appropriate in this case.
Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quickSOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.
Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 51
Correct
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A 59-year-old woman presents with vomiting, confusion, and lethargy. She has not sought medical attention for many years, but has a history of using co-proxamol for arthritis and takes a diuretic for hypertension. On examination, she has hyper-reflexia, nystagmus, and clonus, and her blood pressure is 165/85 mmHg. There is also evidence of vaginal bleeding. Her blood tests show elevated levels of urea, creatinine, and potassium. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Uraemic encephalopathy
Explanation:The patient’s vaginal bleeding suggests the possibility of uterine or cervical cancer, which is more likely to cause ureteric obstruction and kidney disease. The neurological symptoms indicate uraemic encephalopathy, which can lead to coma and seizures if not treated with dialysis. However, before initiating dialysis, imaging should be done to determine the extent of any underlying tumor and obstruction. Opiate intoxication is unlikely due to the presence of hyper-reflexia and clonus, which are not typical symptoms. Hypertensive encephalopathy is also unlikely as it is usually preceded by severe headache and not associated with vaginal bleeding. Intracranial metastases and subdural hematoma are not likely explanations given the lack of risk factors and symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with metastatic small cell lung carcinoma is admitted to hospital with vomiting, ankle swelling and pruritus. He recently completed a course of palliative chemotherapy. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and hypertension and is currently taking morphine sulphate (MST) for pain relief.
During examination, he appears cachectic with peripheral oedema and skin excoriations. His heart rate is 96 beats per minute and blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg.
The following tests were conducted:
- Hb: 134 g/l
- Platelets: 185 * 109/l
- WBC: 5.5 * 109/l
- Na+: 146 mmol/l
- K+: 5.4 mmol/l
- Urea: 23 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 420 µmol/l
Urine dip shows blood +, urine osmolality is 350 mOsm/L, urinary sodium is 45 mEq L, and microscopy reveals red cells and casts.
What is the most suitable pain relief option for this patient?Your Answer: Pregabalin
Correct Answer: Fentanyl patch
Explanation:Due to cisplatin chemotherapy, this patient is experiencing acute kidney injury and requires adjustments to their pain management. As they are currently taking regular, long-acting MST, the most suitable alternative would be a fentanyl patch.
While oxycodone can be used for moderate renal failure, it should only be used for breakthrough pain relief and modified release preparations should be avoided. Diamorphine and tramadol are not recommended for patients with renal failure. Pregabalin can be administered at a reduced dose, but it would not be the first choice for substituting MST.
Alfentanil and methadone are safe to use even in severe renal impairment and can be administered subcutaneously. If the patient’s pain is unstable and requires dose titration, alfentanil would be a suitable option.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 53
Correct
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A 33-year-old man with a history of sickle cell anemia presents with left-sided loin pain and hematuria for the past three days. The pain is localized and does not radiate to the groin. He has been in good health for several years since his last crisis. He reports recent knee pain related to exercise, which he has been managing with ibuprofen.
During the examination, the patient is tender in the left loin, and a urine sample shows red coloration with visible pieces. There is no jaundice or scleral icterus, but a palpable spleen is felt 2 cm below the costal margin. Further investigations are carried out.
Sodium: 136 mmol/l
Potassium: 4.6 mmol/l
Urea: 5.2 mmol/l
Creatinine: 89µmol/l
Hemoglobin: 96 g/l
Platelets: 178 * 109/l
White blood cells: 9.7* 109/l
Ultrasound of the renal tract reveals a clubbed appearance of calyces and debris in the renal pelvis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Papillary necrosis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing loin pain and visible haematuria, which are common symptoms of renal papillary necrosis. This condition is often associated with risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia and recent use of NSAIDs. While a renal calculus is a possibility, the patient’s history is more indicative of papillary necrosis. Renal cell carcinoma and retroperitoneal fibrosis are unlikely causes of loin pain, and while a sickle cell crisis is possible, it appears that the disease is limited to the renal tract in this case.
Understanding Renal Papillary Necrosis
Renal papillary necrosis is a condition characterized by the coagulative necrosis of the renal papillae. This condition can be caused by various factors such as severe acute pyelonephritis, diabetic nephropathy, obstructive nephropathy, analgesic nephropathy, NSAIDs, and sickle cell anemia. Phenacetin was once a classic cause of this condition, but it has now been withdrawn.
The symptoms of renal papillary necrosis include visible haematuria, loin pain, and proteinuria. These symptoms can be indicative of the severity of the condition and should be addressed immediately. Understanding the causes and symptoms of renal papillary necrosis is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of this condition. With proper medical attention, patients can manage the symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 54
Incorrect
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You are summoned to attend to a 35-year-old man who experienced haematemesis while on the dialysis ward. His haemoglobin level has decreased from 101g/L to 69g/L. He has a blood pressure of 98/54 mmHg and a heart rate of 100 bpm. The patient is presently waiting for a renal transplant due to end-stage diabetic nephropathy. He has no previous medical history. You arrange for an immediate OGD. What is your plan for managing his anaemia?
Your Answer: Contact the renal team for advice regarding transfusion
Correct Answer: Transfuse and inform the transplant team
Explanation:When patients are waiting for renal transplants, transfusions are typically avoided if possible because of the risk of circulating antibodies that could lead to organ rejection. However, if a patient is experiencing hemodynamic instability, an urgent blood transfusion may be necessary. In such cases, the transplant team should be notified, and the patient should be informed that the transplant will be postponed for at least three months until repeat antibody screening can be performed. Terlipressin should only be used in patients with known oesophageal varices or acute hepatorenal syndrome, and there is no indication for an increased dose of erythropoietin in the acute setting.
Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.
There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.
To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 55
Correct
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A 24-year-old man with coeliac disease and on oral dapsone presents with persistent microscopic haematuria. His initial investigations show red cell casts in urine microscopy and mesangial proliferation in renal biopsy light microscopy. His blood pressure, haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, immunoglobulin levels, electrolytes, liver function tests, and albumin are within normal limits, but his 24-hour urinary protein collection is elevated at 1.8 g/24 h. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin (IgA) nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is a type of glomerulonephritis that is characterized by persistent microscopic or recurrent macroscopic hematuria, often associated with upper respiratory tract infections. It is commonly linked to cirrhosis and coeliac disease, and elevated IgA levels are present in 50% of cases. Treatment is usually unnecessary unless renal function is affected, in which case an ACE inhibitor may be prescribed to control blood pressure. Immunotherapy has not been extensively studied. Dapsone, a medication used to treat leprosy and dermatitis herpetiformis, can cause hemolytic anemia and allergic reactions. Amyloidosis causes proteinuria and the nephrotic syndrome, while cryoglobulinemia is associated with hematological malignancies and connective tissue diseases and presents with cutaneous and articular manifestations. Renal cell carcinoma, which arises from the tubular epithelium, typically presents with painless hematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. For further information, refer to Lai K N et al.’s 2015 article on the treatment of IgA nephropathy in Kidney Disease (Basel).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents to the hospital with lower abdominal pain. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, psoriasis, and high cholesterol. His current medications include methotrexate 10 mg once weekly, bromocriptine 2.5mg BD, atorvastatin 20mg ON, levodopa 200 mg TDS, and entacapone 200 mg OD. Upon admission, his vital signs are heart rate 102 beats per minute, blood pressure 125/62 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturations 97% (room air), and temperature 37.2ºC. On examination, he has bilateral loin tenderness with no evidence of peritonism, and bowel sounds are active. A urine dipstick confirms blood 2+ with no evidence of nitrites or leukocytes. An abdominal x-ray is unremarkable. Which medication is likely to be associated with the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:The appropriate medication for this patient is bromocriptine. He is experiencing retroperitoneal fibrosis, which has led to secondary hydroureters and hydronephrosis. The presence of bilateral loin pain and haematuria is indicative of this condition. Although not observed in this case, there is a link between retroperitoneal fibrosis and inflammatory bowel disease. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but research suggests that it may result from an immune response to antigens found in atherosclerotic plaques.
Bromocriptine, beta-blockers, and methysergide are medications that have been linked to retroperitoneal fibrosis.
Understanding Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
Retroperitoneal fibrosis is a medical condition that is characterized by lower back or flank pain as its most common presenting feature. Patients may also experience fever and lower limb edema. This condition is often associated with other medical conditions such as Riedel’s thyroiditis, previous radiotherapy, sarcoidosis, inflammatory abdominal aortic aneurysm, and the use of certain drugs like methysergide.
Retroperitoneal fibrosis is a rare condition that affects the retroperitoneal space, which is the area behind the abdominal cavity. It is caused by the buildup of fibrous tissue in this area, which can lead to the compression of nearby structures such as the ureters, causing urinary tract obstruction. The condition can be diagnosed through imaging tests such as CT scans or MRIs.
Treatment for retroperitoneal fibrosis typically involves the use of corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and slow down the progression of the disease. In some cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the fibrous tissue and relieve the compression of nearby structures. With proper treatment, most patients with retroperitoneal fibrosis can manage their symptoms and maintain a good quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 57
Correct
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A 54-year-old man presents to the hospital with symptoms of dysuria and frequency. He reports experiencing two episodes of visible haematuria and occasional loin pain with radiation into his flank. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and recurrent urinary tract infections. He also mentions having multiple renal stones in the past but has never seen a urologist. His current medications include candesartan in the morning and cefalexin at night. Relevant investigations reveal a mildly radio-opaque density at the level of the right renal pelvis on abdominal x-ray, and a high urinary ammonia level with a urinary pH of 7.32. What type of renal stone is likely responsible for these findings?
Your Answer: Struvite
Explanation:Struvite stones develop when there is an increase in urinary ammonia and the urine becomes alkaline with a pH greater than 7.2.
The patient’s medical history of frequent urinary infections, elevated urinary ammonia levels, and an alkaline urine pH above 7.2 is consistent with the formation of struvite renal stones. These stones contain magnesium, phosphate, and ammonia, and are one of the few types of renal stones that form in alkaline conditions. They also appear slightly visible on x-ray.
Calcium oxalate stones are not the correct diagnosis as they can form in varying urine acidities, but typically form in urine with a pH around 6. Like struvite stones, calcium oxalate stones are visible on x-ray.
Calcium phosphate stones are associated with renal tubular acidosis types 1 and 3, and form in alkaline urine. These stones are visible on x-ray, but unlike struvite stones, they are not linked to recurrent urinary infections.
Cystine stones form in urine with a normal acidity level of 6.5 and are visible on x-ray due to their sulfur content. These stones are associated with inherited disorders of cystine transport.
Renal stones can be classified into different types based on their composition. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 85% of all calculi. These stones are formed due to hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and hypocitraturia. They are radio-opaque and may also bind with uric acid stones. Cystine stones are rare and occur due to an inherited recessive disorder of transmembrane cystine transport. Uric acid stones are formed due to purine metabolism and may precipitate when urinary pH is low. Calcium phosphate stones are associated with renal tubular acidosis and high urinary pH. Struvite stones are formed from magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate and are associated with chronic infections. The pH of urine can help determine the type of stone present, with calcium phosphate stones forming in normal to alkaline urine, uric acid stones forming in acidic urine, and struvite stones forming in alkaline urine. Cystine stones form in normal urine pH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 19 year-old man presented to his physician complaining of facial puffiness and leg swelling that had developed over the past few weeks. He had no significant medical history and no family history of note. He was not taking any regular medications.
During the physical examination, his pulse was found to be 90 beats per minute and his blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination did not reveal any abnormalities. Urinalysis showed 4+ protein and 1+ blood, but was negative for glucose.
The following laboratory results were obtained:
- Hemoglobin: 138 g/l
- Platelets: 185 * 109/l
- White blood cells: 6.6 * 109/l
- Sodium: 144 mmol/l
- Potassium: 4.0 mmol/l
- Urea: 5.5 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 78 µmol/l
- Serum albumin: 20 g/L
- 24 hour urine protein: 5.1 g (<0.2)
A renal biopsy was performed and showed podocyte fusion on electron microscopy.
What is the most appropriate next step in the treatment of this patient?Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Minimal change disease is the most frequent reason for nephrotic syndrome in a young patient, as seen in this case, due to the typical histological presentation of podocyte fusion. The initial treatment for minimal change disease involves administering prednisolone at a dosage of 1mg/kg/day.
Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.
The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male is being monitored in the renal clinic. His creatinine clearance is 76 ml/min and he has enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts, as seen on a recent renal tract ultrasound. His father also required dialysis at the age of 50 years. During examination, his blood pressure is measured at 149/88 mmHg. Which statement below is false?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin should be prescribed for upper urinary tract infections
Correct Answer: He should be informed of the probable need for dialysis in five years
Explanation:Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic disorder that causes the growth of cysts in the kidneys. Patients with ADPKD usually progress to end-stage renal failure between the ages of 40 and 60 years. The decline in renal function is gradual, with a drop in creatinine clearance of 5/6 ml/min/year. This decline can be slowed down with proper management of blood pressure and regular follow-up of renal function. Patients should also maintain a high fluid intake to prevent the formation of renal stones or blood clots.
Symptoms such as loin pain and hypertension should be treated symptomatically with standard antihypertensive medications. Haematuria should be treated conservatively, and urinary tract infections should be treated with lipophilic drugs such as ciprofloxacin and trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, which have the best penetration into cyst fluid.
ADPKD is an autosomal dominant disease, meaning that the offspring of an affected patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the disease. Genetic counselling should be offered to affected patients, despite the variable clinical course of the disease even between affected family members.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits the nephrology outpatient department for his yearly review appointment. He has a medical history of stage IIIb chronic kidney disease and hypertension. He takes amlodipine, ramipril, and doxazosin. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker who lives alone and works as a non-executive director for a multinational company.
During his visit, his vital signs are heart rate 84 beats per minute, blood pressure 156/88 mmHg, respiratory rate 16/minute, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, and temperature 36.7ºC. Physical examination reveals a well-looking man who is clinically euvolemic. Cardio-respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
The consultant reviews his recent blood tests, which show Hb 124 g/L, platelets 189* 109/L, WBC 9.2 * 109/L, Na+ 137 mmol/L, K+ 4.2 mmol/L, urea 8.9 mmol/L, creatinine 184 µmol/L, CRP 4 mg/L, adjusted calcium 2.01 mmol/L, phosphate 1.81 mmol/L, albumin 38 g/L, ALP 145 IU/L, and parathyroid hormone 7.6 pg/L.
What is the best initial approach to managing his mineral bone disease associated with chronic kidney disease?Your Answer: Phosphate binder
Correct Answer: Low phosphate diet
Explanation:The initial management of CKD-mineral bone disease involves correcting hyperphosphataemia, which can be achieved through dietary changes before resorting to phosphate binders. A low phosphate diet is recommended, and patients can benefit from consulting with a dietician for guidance on modifying their diet. Cinacalcet is not the correct option for initial management, as it is used to treat secondary hyperparathyroidism that is refractory to other measures. A low calcium diet is also not recommended, as correcting vitamin D deficiency and hyperphosphataemia is the route to correcting hypocalcemia. A low potassium diet is not relevant to correcting CKD-associated mineral bone disease.
Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.
Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.
In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with chronic kidney disease due to diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic. He reports no new symptoms and has well-controlled blood sugar levels.
He is currently taking metformin 1g twice daily, aspirin 75mg once daily, and bisoprolol 1.25mg once daily. During the examination, mild peripheral edema is noted, and his blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, which has been confirmed by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.
What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next?Your Answer: Add furosemide
Correct Answer: Add in ramipril 1.25mg OD PO
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful anti-hypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 62
Correct
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A 65-year-old male Jehovah's witness presents to the hospital with increasing fatigue and malaise over the past 4 weeks. He has been bedridden for the past day. The patient has a medical history of stage 5 chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. Despite his kidney disease, he is still able to pass urine without renal replacement therapy, with a baseline creatinine of 260 µmol/l. Upon examination, he appears warm peripherally with conjunctival pallor. His heart sounds are normal, his chest is clear, and his abdomen is soft and non-tender. He has passed 800mls of urine in the last 24 hours. The following are his blood test results:
Hb 80 g/l
Platelets 201 * 109/l
WBC 6.7 * 109/l
Ferritin 4 ng/ml
Transferrin saturation 19%
Na+ 145 mmol/l
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Urea 17.7 mmol/l
Creatinine 276 µmol/l
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Intravenous iron supplement
Explanation:The patient does not require renal replacement therapy as there are no indications of acute kidney injury, such as elevated serum creatinine levels and oliguria for at least 6 hours. However, the patient’s status as a Jehovah’s witness and the resulting need for blood products adds complexity to the situation. The most suitable course of action would be to address the patient’s iron stores, which can lead to significant improvements in renal transplant patients, even if their ferritin and TSAT levels are within normal ranges. It is not advisable to administer erythropoietin (EPO) until after iron replacement therapy has been completed, as depleted iron stores are a common cause of EPO resistance.
Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.
There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.
To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 63
Correct
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A 59-year-old man with a significant psychiatric history presents to the Emergency Department with dehydration and feeling unwell. He recently had a viral illness and has been bedridden for most of the past week. On arrival, he appears mildly confused, and the ambulance report notes that he has been experiencing increased urinary frequency, especially at night, for the past two weeks. He denies any dysuria or fever.
The patient has a history of bipolar affective disorder, which is currently stable on lithium. He also has a history of irritable bowel syndrome, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and migraines. He is currently taking amlodipine 10mg once a day, simvastatin 20mg at night, mebeverine 135mg three times a day, and lithium carbonate 800 mg at night. He has no known drug allergies.
Upon examination, the patient appears dehydrated and unwell. His pulse is 105 bpm and regular, blood pressure 95/65 mmHg, and saturations are 98% on air. Linear scars are visible on both his arms and the tops of his thighs. His mucous membranes are dry, and his JVP is not visible at 45 degrees. His chest is clear, and abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen with no masses or organomegaly and normal bowel sounds.
Blood tests show the following results:
- Na+ 153 mmol/L
- K+ 4.9 mmol/L
- Urea 8 mmol/L
- Creatinine 110 µmol/L
- Hb 160 g/L
- WBC 6.0x10^9/L
- LFTs Normal
- Urine osmolality 180 mOsmol/kg
A chest x-ray shows clear lung fields.
Based on the most likely diagnosis, which of the following treatments is most likely to address the underlying condition?Your Answer: Thiazide diuretic and amiloride
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus is characterized by a low urine osmolality and high plasma osmolality. A woman with a history of bipolar disorder controlled by lithium presents with symptoms of dehydration and hypovolemia after a viral illness. She has been urinating excessively with a very diluted urine osmolality. Her hypernatremia and mild confusion may be due to her condition. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a common side effect of lithium therapy and is usually treated with high doses of desmopressin. However, this patient’s severe dehydration requires a different approach. Fluid restriction and hypertonic saline are not recommended. Instead, thiazide diuretics and amiloride have been shown to be effective in treating her condition. It is important to discuss her case with her psychiatrists and discontinue lithium while encouraging her to drink plenty of fluids.
Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of weight loss and increased frequency of stool over the past four months. He had a severe case of influenza one month ago and has been feeling more stressed at work. He also reports ankle swelling and frothy urine. On examination, he has evidence of pitting edema and a 2 cm firm non-tender liver edge. Investigations reveal low hemoglobin, low MCV, elevated ESR, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. CXR shows bilateral pleural effusions. What is the most important investigation to guide further management?
Your Answer: Urine microscopy
Correct Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome and Related Considerations
Nephrotic syndrome is a medical condition characterized by excessive protein loss through urine, with a daily output of more than 3.5 g in adults and more than 40 mg/h/m2 in children. To determine the underlying cause of this condition, a biopsy may be necessary. In addition to this, there are other factors to consider when dealing with a patient presenting with nephrotic syndrome.
One such factor is C3 nephritic factor, which is an autoantibody that targets the alternative pathway C3 convertase (C3NeF). This factor is commonly found in mesangiocapillary GN type II and partial lipodystrophy. It is important to consider this factor when diagnosing and treating patients with nephrotic syndrome.
Another important consideration is colonoscopy. This procedure is essential in ruling out the possibility of a colonic neoplasm, especially in patients who have experienced weight loss and changes in bowel habits. By conducting a colonoscopy, doctors can identify any potential issues and provide appropriate treatment to the patient.
In summary, nephrotic syndrome is a condition that requires careful consideration and diagnosis. By conducting a biopsy and considering other factors such as C3 nephritic factor and colonoscopy, doctors can provide effective treatment to patients and improve their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman with osteoporosis and hypertension presents to the Emergency department after falling and fracturing her wrist. She has a history of chronic renal failure (CKD stage 2) and is currently taking ramipril, alendronate, Calcichew, and aspirin. Her fracture is treated with a local haematoma block and she is discharged with diclofenac and codeine phosphate. Five days later, she visits her GP complaining of feeling unwell, nauseated, and having decreased urine output. Blood tests reveal a significant increase in creatinine levels and 1+ protein in her urine. What is the most likely mechanism of renal decline in this patient?
Your Answer: Interstitial nephritis
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin related
Explanation:Likely Cause of Renal Decline in Patient
In this scenario, the recent prescription of NSAIDs is the probable cause of the patient’s renal decline. NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins, which dilate the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus, leading to a reduction in blood supply to the kidney and impairment of kidney function. It is essential to be cautious about prolonged prescription of NSAIDs in the elderly or those with existing renal impairment. Therefore, the most likely cause of renal decline is prostaglandin related.
Although NSAIDs can also cause interstitial nephritis, this is often accompanied by a nephrotic syndrome-like picture, which is not the case with this patient. The absence of blood on urinalysis and normal albumin and only 1+ proteinuria suggest that acute glomerulonephritis is not the most likely mechanism. Glomerulonephritis should be considered lower down the differential once more obvious causes such as urinary tract obstruction and medication-related effects can be excluded.
The normal eosinophil count and absence of significant vascular disease history should rule out cholesterol plaque embolism as a cause of renal decline. Additionally, the patient’s lack of significant difference in postural blood pressure makes significant dehydration as a cause of renal impairment highly unlikely. In conclusion, the recent prescription of NSAIDs is the most likely cause of the patient’s renal decline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with diabetic nephropathy has started regular haemodialysis and is attending a routine check-up. He is worried about having anaemia after hearing from his friend on haemodialysis. At what point should this patient be evaluated for anaemia?
Your Answer: If his haemoglobin falls below 120g/L
Correct Answer: If his haemoglobin falls below 110g/L OR he has symptoms suggestive of anaemia
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, patients with chronic kidney disease should be investigated for anaemia if their haemoglobin levels drop below 110g/L or if they exhibit symptoms of anaemia. The first step in this investigation should be to test for iron deficiency using either the percentage of hypochromic red cells or the reticulocyte haemoglobin content. However, it is not recommended to rely solely on transferrin saturation or serum ferritin measurement to assess iron deficiency status in patients with anaemia of CKD.
Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.
There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.
To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the 'well man' clinic due to a family history of his father dying from a heart attack at the age of 61. He has a BMI of 28 kg/m2 and is a smoker of 10-15 cigarettes per day. On examination, his blood pressure is 162/88 mmHg, and fundoscopy shows AV nipping. He is advised to see his general practitioner, who confirms a sustained elevation in blood pressure with recordings averaging 170/94 mmHg. Dipstick urinalysis reveals urine protein (+), and further investigations show elevated levels of creatinine and urea. His total cholesterol and triglyceride levels are also high. Ultrasound of his abdomen shows normal-sized kidneys. What is the most likely cause of his renal impairment?
Your Answer: Chronic glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Hypertensive nephropathy
Explanation:Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Kidney Conditions
The absence of diabetic retinopathy changes in the fundi suggests that diabetic nephropathy is unlikely. However, the presence of hypertension and renal impairment may indicate advanced diabetic nephropathy if that is the diagnosis. It is possible for the patient to have diabetes mellitus even without a family history, as it could have gone undiagnosed in his father. While a raised HbA1c level suggests diabetes mellitus, it is not confirmed by a random glucose level of 10 mmol/L. A diagnosis of diabetes mellitus requires a random glucose level greater than 11.1 mmol/L or a fasting concentration above 7 mmol/L.
Kidneys affected by chronic glomerulonephritis or analgesic nephropathy would be smaller in size. Hypertensive nephropathy can present with a raised creatinine level and proteinuria. If there is asymmetry in kidney size on ultrasound or a reduction in renal size bilaterally, renovascular disease may be considered. these different kidney conditions can help in making an accurate diagnosis and determining the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus managed with insulin on a basal-bolus regimen is admitted to the hospital with an acute, right-sided middle cerebral artery stroke. He is not thrombolysed due to hypertension and is transferred to the Stroke Ward for long-term management and rehabilitation. What is the probable underlying diagnosis based on his medical history and investigations?
Your Answer: Diabetic nephropathy
Correct Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis (RAS)
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI) can have various causes, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. One possible cause is bilateral renal artery stenosis (RAS), which can result from atherosclerotic disease and lead to hypertension and hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) is a rare form of RAS that typically affects young people and presents with intractable hypertension and flash pulmonary oedema. Cholesterol embolism is another common cause of AKI with eosinophilia, often occurring after procedures or drug initiation. Diabetic nephropathy, on the other hand, is a chronic disorder of glomerular injury that causes proteinuria and progressive renal failure. Finally, ramipril toxicity can occur due to the reduction in glomerular pressure and ultrafiltration caused by ACE inhibitors, leading to a moderate rise in creatinine. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to determine the underlying cause of AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 69
Correct
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A 83-year-old woman is admitted to the general medicine ward due to vomiting and diarrhea for 48 hours. She has a medical history of osteoarthritis and hypertension and is taking the following medications:
- Paracetamol 1 g qds po
- Ibuprofen 400 mg tds po
- Ramipril 2.5 mg od po
- Zopiclone 3.75 mg od po
During the examination, she appears unwell with a temperature of 37.2°C, pulse of 95, and blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg. Her oxygen saturation on air is 92%. Her jugular venous pressure is difficult to visualize while lying flat. Her abdomen is soft, and her respiratory examination and chest x-ray are normal.
The nurses report that she has not passed urine four hours into admission. Some of her blood test results are as follows:
- Haemoglobin 13.3 g/dL (13-18)
- White cell count 11 ×109/L (4-11)
- Urea 15 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine on admission 150 µmol/L (60-110)
- Creatinine 3 months ago 80 µmol/L (60-110)
What is the best next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Stop ibuprofen and ramipril and give intravenous fluids over 24 hours and place a urinary catheter to monitor urine output
Explanation:Management of Acute Kidney Injury in Dehydrated Patients
Acute kidney injury is a common presentation in patients who are dehydrated. In this case, an elderly female patient with a history of diarrhoea and vomiting is at risk of exacerbating her renal injury due to her medications, which include ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs. The correct management for this patient is prompt rehydration, guided by urine output, clinical assessment of volaemic status, and regular measurements of urea and electrolytes. Further diuresis could worsen her renal impairment.
It is important to consider Clostridium difficile in elderly patients with diarrhoea, but there is no strong evidence from the question stem that this patient has it. Therefore, it should not be selected as a potential cause. Further abdominal imaging is not necessary at this stage, given the normal CXR and clinical examination. A surgical consult is also not needed as there is no evidence of an acute abdomen.
Overall, the key to managing acute kidney injury in dehydrated patients is prompt rehydration and close monitoring of fluid balance. It is also important to consider potential nephrotoxins and adjust medications accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man attends renal transplant clinic as part of the preliminary workup to be considered as a living kidney donor. The patient's 26-year-old daughter has stage 5 chronic kidney disease secondary to congenital hydronephrosis, and will shortly require dialysis unless she receives a donated kidney. Upon arrival at the appointment, the patient expresses his hopefulness that he will be found to be a suitable kidney donor for his daughter.
What is the one absolute contraindication that would prevent this patient from being a living kidney donor for his daughter?Your Answer: Blood type incompatibility
Correct Answer: Uncontrolled hypertension
Explanation:Living donor kidney transplantation has detailed guidelines that must be followed. While there are few absolute contraindications for donating a kidney, an individual who has failed to control their blood pressure with three different medications would not be eligible to donate. This is due to the increased risk during surgery and the potential for hypertension to worsen after the nephrectomy. Other absolute contraindications include active cancer, chronic infection, proteinuria, bilateral renal artery atherosclerosis, and sickle cell disease.
Relative contraindications must also be considered when assessing the risk of nephrectomy for potential donors. The donor’s pre-operative renal function must be sufficient to provide a minimum expected eGFR of 37.5 ml/min/1.73 m2 at age 80 years. For older donors, pre-operative assessment must be particularly rigorous. Moderate obesity (BMI 30-35 kg/m2) also requires careful pre-operative evaluation.
In the past, transplants had to occur between ABO blood groups and HLA compatible donor and recipient pairs. However, desensitisation techniques are now available to allow immunologically incompatible kidney transplants in some cases.
The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.
Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.
Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.
Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 71
Correct
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A 44 year-old man with a diagnosis of chronic hepatitis C is seen in renal clinic. He was referred via the hepatology clinic due to elevated urea and creatinine levels in his blood. Additionally, a urine sample showed haematuria and proteinuria. A renal biopsy was conducted during his first renal outpatients appointment, which revealed increased mesangial matrix and increased mesangial cellularity in the glomerulus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis, also known as membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, is a type of glomerulonephritis that occurs due to the accumulation of deposits in the glomerular mesangium and basement membrane. This condition is characterized by an increase in mesangial matrix and cellularity.
Chronic viral, bacterial, and protozoal infections are commonly associated with this condition. These include viral hepatitis B and C, bacterial endocarditis, infected ventriculoatrial or jugular shunt, multiple visceral abscesses, and leprosy. Protozoal infections such as malaria and schistosomiasis are also linked to mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis.
Understanding Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, also known as mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis, is a kidney disease that can present as nephrotic syndrome, haematuria, or proteinuria. Unfortunately, it has a poor prognosis. There are three types of this disease, with type 1 accounting for 90% of cases. It is caused by cryoglobulinaemia and hepatitis C, and can be diagnosed through a renal biopsy that shows subendothelial and mesangium immune deposits of electron-dense material resulting in a ‘tram-track’ appearance under electron microscopy.
Type 2, also known as ‘dense deposit disease’, is caused by partial lipodystrophy and factor H deficiency. It is characterized by persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway, low circulating levels of C3, and the presence of C3b nephritic factor in 70% of cases. This factor is an antibody to alternative-pathway C3 convertase (C3bBb) that stabilizes C3 convertase. A renal biopsy for type 2 shows intramembranous immune complex deposits with ‘dense deposits’ under electron microscopy.
Type 3 is caused by hepatitis B and C. While steroids may be effective in managing this disease, it is important to note that the prognosis for all types of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is poor. Understanding the different types and their causes can help with diagnosis and management of this serious kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A GP contacts the renal registrar seeking guidance on a patient. The doctor is treating a 63-year-old man with renal disease caused by type 1 diabetes mellitus. The patient is currently taking enalapril, aspirin, simvastatin, and insulin. He is experiencing pain in his right big toe, and the GP suspects it may be gout but is uncertain about the appropriate medication to prescribe. The patient's vital signs are normal, and routine renal function tests conducted last week have been stable for the past six months. The results are as follows:
Laboratory value Value Normal Range
Serum creatinine 200 µmol/litre 60-110
Which medication should the GP recommend?Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Gout in Patients with Renal Impairment
Given a patient with renal impairment and a diagnosis of acute gout, the best treatment option is a trial of colchicine. This medication is safe to use in patients with renal impairment, but it should be discontinued at the onset of diarrheal symptoms. As long as the patient follows this advice, their renal function should not worsen.
The first line treatment for acute gout is typically a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or colchicine. However, in this case, a NSAID would be contraindicated due to the patient’s renal impairment. Paracetamol may provide some mild pain relief, but it will not treat the underlying gout and is therefore not the best option. Allopurinol should not be started during an acute attack of gout. Prednisolone is a reasonable choice, but it is usually reserved as a second line treatment after NSAID use or colchicine.
In summary, a trial of colchicine is the recommended treatment option for patients with renal impairment and acute gout. It is important to avoid NSAIDs in this population and to discontinue colchicine at the onset of diarrheal symptoms. Other medications, such as paracetamol and prednisolone, may offer some relief but are not the first line treatment for acute gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 73
Correct
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A 21-year-old mentally handicapped man has been brought to your clinic by his carers due to increasing fluid intake. He has a history of epilepsy, treated with carbamazepine, and asthma. Upon baseline investigations, his plasma osmolality was 279 mosmol/Kg (278-305) and urine osmolality was 165 mosmol/Kg (350-1000). After a water deprivation test, his plasma osmolality was 289 mosmol/Kg (278-305) and urine osmolality was 410 mosmol/Kg (350-1000), with no response to intranasal desmopressin. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Compulsive (psychogenic) polydipsia
Explanation:Interpretation of Plasma and Urine Osmolality in Different Conditions
In patients with low normal plasma osmolality and low urine osmolality that increases during the water deprivation test, the condition may be due to compulsive polydipsia. This condition is characterized by prolonged polyuria, which reduces the maximal concentrating ability of the kidney and alters aquaporin 2 function. As a result, desmopressin is unable to elicit its maximal effect of increasing water reabsorption.
On the other hand, carbamazepine causes a syndrome of inappropriate ADH, which is associated with concentrated urine and dilute plasma. In this case, the urine osmolality would not change during the water deprivation test.
In cranial diabetes insipidus, caused by decreased secretion of vasopressin from the posterior pituitary, the plasma osmolality following the water deprivation test would rise dangerously. However, an effect would be seen following administration of desmopressin, which would increase urine osmolality.
In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, caused by renal tubular resistance to vasopressin, the plasma osmolality would rise during the water deprivation test, but the urine would remain dilute even after desmopressin administration.
In summary, interpretation of plasma and urine osmolality can provide valuable information in different conditions, including compulsive polydipsia, syndrome of inappropriate ADH, cranial diabetes insipidus, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. these conditions and their associated changes in osmolality can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 74
Correct
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A 40-year-old man with type 1 diabetes has visited his doctor for his annual check-up. During the examination, his blood pressure is found to be high at 163/72 mmHg. His blood test results reveal a sodium level of 137 mmol/L (137-144), potassium level of 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea level of 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and creatinine level of 125 μmol/L (60-110) with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 58 ml/min/1.73m2. The doctor is concerned about the possibility of diabetic nephropathy leading to chronic kidney disease and wants to accurately measure the patient's proteinuria. What is the most suitable test to suggest in this scenario?
Your Answer: Albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR)
Explanation:The albumin:creatinine ratio is the most appropriate test to detect and quantify proteinuria in patients with diabetes and stable renal function. It is more sensitive than the protein:creatinine ratio and more reliable than a 24 hour urinary collection for protein. Urine dipsticks are not recommended for accurately determining proteinuria. Urine protein electrophoresis may be used if there is a suspicion of a urinary paraprotein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 75
Correct
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You are requested to assess a 26-year-old female patient admitted to the ENT ward. The patient underwent a total thyroidectomy for the management of her Graves' disease. After a few hours of returning to the ward from the operation theatre, she started experiencing arm twitching. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Acute Hypocalcaemia Following Thyroidectomy
Following a thyroidectomy, a patient has developed acute hypocalcaemia. This is likely due to the removal of the parathyroid glands during the surgery, resulting in a deficiency of parathyroid hormone and subsequent hypocalcaemia. The parathyroid glands are notoriously difficult to identify during the operation, and their removal is a recognised complication of thyroidectomy.
It is important to monitor patients closely following thyroidectomy for signs of hypocalcaemia, such as muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and seizures. Treatment may involve calcium and vitamin D supplementation, as well as medications to stimulate the production of parathyroid hormone. In some cases, surgical intervention may be necessary to transplant parathyroid tissue back into the patient. Early recognition and management of hypocalcaemia can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 76
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to your acute medical unit with right flank pain that has been constant for the past 2 weeks. Despite taking paracetamol tablets, the pain has not subsided. He denies experiencing dysuria and is generally in good health, although he is a smoker. He mentions that his sister recently passed away from a subarachnoid haemorrhage caused by a berry aneurysm.
Upon examination, the patient's heart rate is elevated at 110 bpm, but all other observations are normal. A urine dipstick test reveals 2+ blood and nothing else. Blood tests show a sodium level of 141 mmol/l, potassium level of 4.6 mmol/l, urea level of 3.6 mmol/l, creatinine level of 84 mol/l, and CRP level of 34 mg/l. His FBC is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Polycystic kidney disease is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Symptoms of the disease include flank pain, gross haematuria, and palpable kidneys. The pain in the flank area is caused by the stretching of the cysts in the kidneys or pressure on nearby organs. This condition is also associated with the development of berry aneurysms, which can rupture and cause a subarachnoid haemorrhage. In some cases, patients may also have cysts in their liver and pancreas.
Based on the patient’s age, gender, and family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage, it is highly likely that he has polycystic kidney disease. Renal stones typically cause colicky pain that lasts for a shorter duration, while patients with pyelonephritis tend to have elevated inflammatory markers and feel more unwell.
ADPKD, or autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys and other organs. The main features of ADPKD include hypertension, recurrent urinary tract infections, flank pain, haematuria, palpable kidneys, renal impairment, and renal stones. Additionally, there are several extra-renal manifestations of ADPKD, such as liver cysts, which are the most common extra-renal manifestation and can cause hepatomegaly. Berry aneurysms are also a possible complication, occurring in 8% of cases and potentially leading to subarachnoid haemorrhage. The cardiovascular system may also be affected, with mitral valve prolapse, mitral/tricuspid incompetence, aortic root dilation, and aortic dissection being possible complications. Cysts may also form in other organs, such as the pancreas and spleen, and very rarely in the thyroid, oesophagus, or ovary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man, who has been undergoing long-term haemodialysis for end-stage kidney disease due to type 1 diabetes, presents to the clinic with complaints of pain and tingling in his hands, particularly in the early hours of the morning. He also experiences difficulty with dysphagia and indigestion, and an echocardiogram performed for decreased LV function revealed a suspicion of early constrictive pericarditis. During further questioning, he admits to drinking a glass of whisky each evening. On examination, there is weakness of thumb abduction, apposition, and flexion, and some sensory loss is suspected. Based on the investigations provided, what is the most likely cause of his upper limb neurological symptoms?
Your Answer: Beta-2 microglobulin deposition
Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Beta-2 Microglobulin Deposition and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
The presence of GI symptoms, constrictive pericarditis, and thenar weakness with sensory loss suggests beta-2 microglobulin deposition. This deposition can cause disordered gut motility leading to indigestion and reflux. In end-stage kidney disease, beta-2 microglobulin accumulates due to impaired clearance and catabolism. High-flux biocompatible dialysis and renal transplantation can help reduce symptoms, but multi-system disease may make surgical intervention impossible. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common symptom associated with peripheral beta-2 microglobulin deposition. Alcoholic neuropathy, B12 deficiency, diabetic neuropathy, and uraemic neuropathy have different symptoms and causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his GP with a history of recurrent haematuria during upper respiratory tract infections or flu-like illnesses over the past year. On examination, there were no abnormalities detected. A dipstick test revealed micro-haematuria with mild proteinuria, and his urea and electrolytes were normal. The patient's serum IgA levels were elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Correct Answer: Berger disease
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are indicative of Berger disease, also known as IgA nephropathy. This condition can cause micro-hematuria or mild proteinuria, which may occur after recurrent upper respiratory or intestinal infections within 1-2 days. It is important to note that this is different from post-infectious glomerulonephritis, which typically presents with nephritic syndrome and occurs 1-2 weeks after an infection with group A Streptococcus (such as pharyngitis or impetigo). In IgA nephropathy, the presence of hematuria is often associated with an upper respiratory tract infection, known as synpharyngitic hematuria.
Understanding IgA Nephropathy
IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It typically presents as macroscopic haematuria in young people following an upper respiratory tract infection. The condition is thought to be caused by mesangial deposition of IgA immune complexes, and there is considerable pathological overlap with Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). Histology shows mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3.
Differentiating between IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is important. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is associated with low complement levels and the main symptom is proteinuria, although haematuria can occur. There is typically an interval between URTI and the onset of renal problems in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of the condition. If there is isolated hematuria, no or minimal proteinuria, and a normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR), no treatment is needed other than follow-up to check renal function. If there is persistent proteinuria and a normal or only slightly reduced GFR, initial treatment is with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary.
The prognosis for IgA nephropathy varies. 25% of patients develop ESRF. Markers of good prognosis include frank haematuria, while markers of poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria (especially > 2 g/day), hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, and ACE genotype DD.
Overall, understanding IgA nephropathy is important for proper diagnosis and management of the condition. Proper management can help improve outcomes and prevent progression to ESRF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 79
Correct
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You are meeting a 32-year-old woman for the first time at the renal clinic. She recently underwent a renal tract ultrasound scan that revealed adult polycystic kidney disease. She expresses concern about her 8-year-old son possibly having the same diagnosis, as her mother and older sister also have polycystic kidneys. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. During the examination, her blood pressure is 160/89 mmHg, and urinalysis is negative. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Commence antihypertensive medication
Explanation:Managing Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease and Its Risks
Patients diagnosed with adult polycystic kidney disease (APKD) require strict blood pressure control to maintain their renal function for as long as possible. For this reason, antihypertensive medication is necessary for hypertensive patients. Since APKD is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, the patient’s offspring are at risk of developing the disease. However, screening for APKD is not recommended until adulthood. Nevertheless, the patient’s son should have his blood pressure checked annually, and if he becomes hypertensive, it should be managed aggressively. This is true regardless of whether or not ultrasound imaging reveals cysts in his kidneys. Formal urine protein quantification is unnecessary if the urinalysis is negative.
APKD is associated with several other features, including berry aneurysms, cysts in other organs such as the liver, pancreas, and ovaries, and hypertension. Screening for aneurysms is typically only recommended for patients with a personal or family history of intracranial hemorrhage. The cysts in other organs are usually not significant, so checking liver function tests is not helpful in this context.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 80
Correct
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A 63-year-old male presents with confusion. He lives alone and there is no available collateral history. He has a medical history of COPD and heart failure and is currently taking ramipril, spironolactone, and bendroflumethiazide. The following blood results were obtained:
Hb 135 g/l
Platelets 242 * 109/l
WBC 12.8 * 109/l
Neuts 8.8 * 109/l
Na+ 138 mmol/l
K+ 3.9 mmol/l
Urea 10.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 96 µmol/l
Chloride 110 * 109/l
Glucose 5.2 mg/l
Bicarbonate 10 mEq/L
What is the most probable cause of the acidosis?Your Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation:Lactic acidosis is a result of tissue hypoxia, which can occur due to four main mechanisms: hypoxemia (such as respiratory issues), toxicity (such as cyanide poisoning), perfusional issues (such as shock), or severe anemia. The patient in question is experiencing acidosis with a high anion gap, indicating a potential cause of ketoacidosis, uraemia, lactic acidosis, or toxin exposure. However, the patient’s normal glucose levels make diabetic ketoacidosis unlikely. Other potential causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis include hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, and renal tubular acidosis. Given the information provided, lactic acidosis is the most likely cause, and the underlying mechanism should be investigated.
Understanding Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 81
Correct
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A patient in their mid-50s presents to the MAU with worsening dyspnoea. They have a past medical history significant for chronic hepatitis B, which is regularly monitored but currently untreated. Upon further examination, there is widespread oedema with peripheral oedema extending to involve the scrotum and abdominal wall.
Urinalysis
Blood -
Protein +++
Glucose +
White cells -
Blood results:
Hb 9.8 g/dl
Platelets 540 * 109/l
WBC 10.2 * 109/l
ESR 72 mm/hr
Na+ 133 mmol/l
K+ 4.8 mmol/l
Urea 18.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 220 µmol/l
CRP 6 mg/l
Chest X-Ray Normal
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Membranous glomerulnephritis
Explanation:The most prevalent renal disease associated with Hepatitis B infection is membranous glomerulonephritis, followed by membranous nephropathy and focal segmental glomerulonephritis. The deposition of immune complexes containing HbsAg in the glomeruli is believed to be the cause of membranous glomerulonephritis. Nephrotic syndrome, which is linked to a hyper-coagulable state, can result in an elevated platelet count. Additionally, there is a discrepancy between CRP and ESR levels in this condition, with ESR being elevated while CRP remains normal.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 82
Correct
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A 55-year-old man from Ghana received a live-related renal transplant four weeks ago for chronic kidney disease caused by hypertensive nephropathy. He is currently taking ciclosporin, mycophenolate mofetil, prednisolone, cotrimoxazole, ranitidine, amlodipine and atenolol. He experienced no complications after the surgery and his creatinine levels returned to normal a few days later. He is asymptomatic, but his serum creatinine levels were 155 µmol/l two days ago. What is the definitive test that will confirm acute rejection as the issue?
Your Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acute Rejection in Renal Transplant Recipients
Acute rejection is a common complication in renal transplant recipients, occurring in 30-50% of cases within the first three weeks after transplant. Patients on ciclosporin may not exhibit any symptoms, making it important to monitor renal function. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify acute rejection:
1. Renal biopsy: This is the most reliable test for diagnosing acute rejection. Patients with deteriorating renal function and normal ciclosporin levels should undergo percutaneous renal biopsy.
2. 24-hour urine with creatinine estimation: While creatinine estimation alone may not be helpful, a 24-hour urine collection can provide valuable information about renal function in cases of extreme weight or alcoholism.
3. Ciclosporin level: High levels of ciclosporin can cause acute toxicity and affect creatinine levels, but this test alone cannot diagnose acute rejection.
4. Renal ultrasound scan: This test can identify any obstruction or urinary leaks post-transplant, but it cannot diagnose acute rejection.
5. Serum immunoglobulin: There are no characteristic changes in serum immunoglobulins associated with rejection.
In summary, a combination of diagnostic tests may be necessary to diagnose acute rejection in renal transplant recipients. Renal biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female presents with collapse. Her bloods show-
Hb 112 g/l
Platelets 324 * 109/l
WBC 4.2 * 109/l
Na+ 130 mmol/l
K+ 2.4 mmol/l
Urea 8.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 109 µmol/l
CRP 0.5 mg/l
Her blood pressure is 77/38 mmHg and heart rate 121 beats per minute. Her only past medical history is anorexia and self-harm and she is minimally cooperative with any attempt at a history or examination.
What is the most likely cause for her presentation?Your Answer: Pseudohypoaldosteronism
Correct Answer: Furosemide abuse
Explanation:Furosemide abuse is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, including hypotension, tachycardia, acute kidney injury, dehydration, and hypokalaemia. Addison’s disease and pseudohypoaldosteronism are unlikely causes due to their association with hyperkalaemia, while excess aldosterone is more commonly associated with hypertension.
Hypokalaemia: Symptoms and ECG Features
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. It can cause various symptoms, including muscle weakness and hypotonia. Patients with hypokalaemia are also at risk of digoxin toxicity, especially if they are taking diuretics. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing medications to these patients.
In addition to these symptoms, hypokalaemia can also affect the heart’s electrical activity, leading to specific ECG features. These include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, and ST depression. These changes can be useful in diagnosing hypokalaemia and monitoring its progression.
To summarize, hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness and increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. It can also affect the heart’s electrical activity, leading to specific ECG features. Therefore, it is essential to monitor patients with hypokalaemia closely and adjust their treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus attends a routine diabetes clinic review and is diagnosed with low sodium. Which medication is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Ranitidine
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Omeprazole and Hyponatraemia
Omeprazole is a medication that is commonly used to treat acid reflux and other gastrointestinal issues. However, it has been found to have a potential side effect of causing hyponatraemia, which is a condition where there is a low level of sodium in the blood. This is due to the drug-induced syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), which causes the body to retain water and dilute the sodium levels in the blood.
Hyponatraemia can lead to symptoms such as nausea, headache, confusion, seizures, and even coma in severe cases. It is important for patients taking omeprazole to be aware of this potential side effect and to monitor their sodium levels regularly. If any symptoms of hyponatraemia are experienced, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. In some cases, the medication may need to be adjusted or discontinued to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a history of chronic hepatitis C infection presents with bilateral foot drop. He contracted hepatitis C perinatally.
On examination, there is bilateral weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and a purple, painful, non-blanching rash seen in both feet and the fingers of the left hand.
His blood tests show:
- Haemoglobin: 104 g/L (130-180)
- White cell count: 13.4 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 103 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 135 mmol/L (137-144)
- Potassium: 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 23.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 323 μmol/L (60-110)
His urine dipstick reveals 2+ protein, 3+ blood, and 1+ leukocytes. What is the most likely histological appearance on renal biopsy?Your Answer: Crescentic glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Renal Histological Findings in Various Glomerulonephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is a common histological finding in patients with renal involvement. It is characterized by mesangial and endothelial cell proliferation, expansion of the mesangial matrix, and thickening of the peripheral capillary walls. Crescentic changes are associated with ANCA-positive vasculitides or anti-GBM disease. Diffuse membrane thickening is found in membranous glomerulonephritis, which may be primary or secondary to drugs, autoimmune disease, or infections. Podocyte fusion is seen on electron microscopy in minimal change disease, which is more common in children than adults and presents as nephrotic syndrome. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is found in the disease of the same name, which typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, chronic hypertension, or renal failure. These histological findings are important in the diagnosis and management of various glomerulonephritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 86
Correct
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A 29-year-old male presents to the endocrinology outpatient clinic with a 2-month history of weight loss, palpitations, and increasing anxiety. His GP suspects hyperthyroidism and has referred him for further evaluation. The patient has no significant medical history except for a right orchidopexy at the age of 11 and a fibula fracture sustained while playing football at the age of 13. On examination, he appears anxious with bilateral sweaty palms. His BMI is 13.8 kg/m², and a systolic murmur is heard with a sinus tachycardia of 120 beats per minute. No neck swelling is observed or palpated.
The patient's blood tests reveal a Hb of 147 g/l, platelets of 278 * 109/l, WBC of 8.9 * 109/l, Na+ of 141 mmol/l, K+ of 3.8 mmol/l, urea of 4.5 mmol/l, TSH of < 0.01 mu/l, free T4 of 33.3 pmol/l (normal 10-24), and beta HCG of 16000 (normal range < 5 mIU/ml for men).
What is the most appropriate next investigation?Your Answer: Ultrasound testes
Explanation:An ultrasound is the recommended initial investigation for a testicular mass. The patient’s clinical presentation suggests hyperthyroidism, but the fact that he had previously undergone orchidopexy and has a significantly elevated beta HCG level in a male patient are two unusual factors that increase the risk of testicular tumors. Beta HCG is a glycoprotein that is structurally similar to thyroid stimulating hormone, which can suppress TSH centrally while increasing the release of free T4 by the thyroid gland. An ultrasound of the testes is the most effective way to diagnose a testicular germ cell tumor. Choriocarcinoma is a common cause of hyperthyroidism and germ cell tumors in male patients, and it is typically characterized by haemorrhage and necrosis on ultrasound due to its significantly elevated beta HCG levels.
Testicular cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The majority of cases (95%) are germ-cell tumors, which can be further classified as seminomas or non-seminomas. Non-germ cell tumors, such as Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas, are less common. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. Symptoms may include a painless lump, pain, hydrocele, and gynaecomastia.
Tumour markers can be used to diagnose testicular cancer. For germ cell tumors, hCG may be elevated in seminomas, while AFP and/or beta-hCG are elevated in non-seminomas. LDH may also be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for Stage I seminomas and 85% for Stage I teratomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 87
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents to the hospital with sudden onset abdominal pain and vomiting. Upon examination, she displays tachycardia and hypotension with diffuse abdominal tenderness.
Initial blood tests reveal:
- pH 7.25 (7.35 - 7.45)
- pO2 12.1 kPa (11 - 14.4)
- pCO2 5.7 kPa (4.6 - 6.4)
- Sodium 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.5)
- Chloride 99 mmol/L (95 - 108)
- Bicarbonate 13 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Glucose 26.9 mmol/L (4 - 7)
- Lactate 3.9 mmol/L (0.5 -2.2)
- Ketones 5.1 mmol/L (< 0.6)
She is admitted to the endocrinology ward and started on a fixed-rate insulin scale. However, after two days of treatment, she still reports feeling unwell.
A repeat arterial blood gas is taken, revealing:
- pH 7.28 (7.35 - 7.45)
- pO2 11.3 kPa (11 - 14.4)
- pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.6 - 6.4)
- Sodium 150 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.5)
- Chloride 114 mmol/L (95 - 108)
- Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Glucose 6.9 mmol/L (4 - 7)
- Lactate 1.9 mmol/L (0.5 -2.2)
- Ketones 0.5 mmol/L (< 0.6)
What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Sodium chloride administration
Explanation:The sodium chloride solution administered during initial fluid resuscitation is likely responsible for the raised plasma concentrations of sodium and chloride observed in the repeat blood gas. It is important to evaluate the anion gap in patients with metabolic acidosis, and in this case, it is normal. Therefore, renal tubular acidosis type 4, which typically presents with a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, is less likely to be the cause of this patient’s presentation. The use of spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, is also an unlikely cause as there is no indication that the patient is taking this medication, and it does not explain the hypokalaemia. Starvation ketoacidosis is also an unlikely diagnosis as the absence of significantly raised proteins excludes it.
Understanding Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the hospital with a 4-day history of feeling generally unwell, experiencing fatigue, joint pain, and itching. He had recently completed a 7-day course of antibiotics for a respiratory infection but has no significant medical history. On clinical examination, he has a widespread red rash. The following investigations were conducted:
Haemoglobin (Hb): 130 g/l (normal range: 130-170 g/l)
White cell count (WCC): 12.5 × 109/l (with eosinophilia) (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
Platelets (PLT): 380 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
Creatinine (Cr): 710 μmol/l (normal range: 60-110 μmol/l)
Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+): 5.0 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Urea: 20.0 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
Urinalysis: Protein ++, blood +
What is the most crucial investigation to establish the diagnosis?Your Answer: Antistreptolysin-O titre
Correct Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:The patient’s diagnosis is acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis, which can be confirmed through a renal biopsy showing interstitial edema and inflammation, as well as tubular necrosis. This condition is often caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to certain drugs, such as antibiotics and NSAIDs. Eosinophilia and eosinophiluria are common symptoms. Treatment involves withdrawing the offending drug and managing symptoms conservatively, although a short course of corticosteroids may be beneficial. An autoimmune profile may be helpful in diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus, but there is no eosinophilia in this condition. Renal ultrasound can rule out hydronephrosis, and urine microscopy and culture are not necessary in this case. An antistreptolysin-O titre is not relevant as acute glomerulonephritis following streptococcal infection presents differently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 89
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the low clearance renal clinic with a history of chronic kidney disease stage IV due to bilateral ureteric injury during a previous hysterectomy. She reports feeling well except for mild ankle swelling. Her current medications include losartan, alfacalcidol, calcium, cholecalciferol, and sodium bicarbonate. On examination, her blood pressure is 175/91 mmHg, heart rate is 92 beats per minute, and JVP is visible at 4cm with pitting edema to the ankles. Her blood tests reveal a creatinine level of 387 µmol/l and a potassium level of 5 mmol/l. Which medication should be added to manage her hypertension?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:This woman is diagnosed with stage IV chronic kidney disease and has an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of less than 30ml/min.
The initial treatment for hypertension in this population is still an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
However, chronic kidney disease is a unique case where the standard NICE hypertension algorithm does not apply to second-line management. Diuretics are utilized to aid in salt excretion and reduce hypertension. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are the preferred option for patients with an eGFR of less than 30ml/min.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful anti-hypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 90
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and fever. He has a past medical history of end-stage renal failure secondary to type 1 diabetes. His method of renal replacement therapy is peritoneal dialysis. His medications include insulin and atorvastatin. He does not smoke or drink alcohol.
Observations:
Heart rate 101 beats per minute
Blood pressure 120/73 mmHg
Respiratory rate 18/minute
Oxygen saturations 96% on room air
Temperature 38.4°C
Upon examination, there is mild abdominal tenderness. Bowel sounds are present. The dialysate fluid appears cloudy.
What is the appropriate antibiotic choice for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Intraperitoneal vancomycin + ceftazidime
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for peritoneal dialysis peritonitis is intraperitoneal vancomycin + ceftazidime. This is because the patient is presenting with symptoms such as fever, abdominal pain, and cloudy dialysate fluid, which indicate peritonitis. The chosen antibiotics should provide broad coverage against both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms. Intraperitoneal administration of antibiotics is preferred over IV in this scenario due to its safety and effectiveness.
IV benzylpenicillin is not the correct choice as it only covers gram-positive organisms, which is insufficient for this condition.
Intraperitoneal ciprofloxacin and intravenous amikacin is also not the best option as it only provides broad coverage against gram-negative organisms. Although amikacin may have some action against gram-positive organisms, vancomycin is a better choice, and the intraperitoneal route is preferred.
Understanding Peritoneal Dialysis and its Complications
Peritoneal dialysis (PD) is a type of renal replacement therapy that is used as an alternative to haemodialysis or for younger patients who prefer not to visit the hospital frequently. The most common form of PD is Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis (CAPD), which involves four 2-litre exchanges per day.
However, PD is not without its complications. One of the most common complications is peritonitis, which is often caused by coagulase-negative staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis or Staphylococcus aureus. To treat peritonitis, antibiotics that cover both Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms are recommended. The British National Formulary (BNF) suggests using vancomycin (or teicoplanin) and ceftazidime added to dialysis fluid or vancomycin added to dialysis fluid and ciprofloxacin by mouth. In some cases, aminoglycosides may be used instead of ceftazidime to cover the Gram-negative organisms.
Another potential complication of PD is sclerosing peritonitis. This is a rare but serious condition that causes inflammation and thickening of the peritoneum, which can lead to bowel obstruction and other complications. It is important for patients undergoing PD to be aware of these potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old female patient is referred to the hospital by her GP due to ankle and facial swelling, as well as dark urine that has been present for four days. She had visited the practice two weeks ago with pharyngitis. During examination, her blood pressure is found to be 165/100 mmHg, and her urine dipstick shows a strong positive for protein and blood.
Upon admission, the patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury, with a creatinine level of 189 μmumol/l and urea level of 17.8 mmol/l. A renal ultrasound scan reveals normal sized kidneys with no signs of obstruction. After controlling her blood pressure, a renal biopsy is performed.
What are the expected histological features on light microscopy?Your Answer: Crescentic glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Wire-loop lesions
Explanation:Nephritic Syndrome and its Causes
Nephritic syndrome is a medical condition characterized by oliguria, acute renal failure, haematuria, hypertension, proteinuria, and oedema. The most likely cause of this condition is post-infectious glomerulonephritis, which is a diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis that results in the proliferation of capillaries, obliteration of capillary loops, and ‘wire-loop’ lesions on light microscopy. These lesions are capillary loops with immune complex deposition circumferential around the loop and may also be seen in lupus nephritis.
The outcome and treatment of nephritic syndrome depend on renal biopsy. Crescentic glomerulonephritis occurs in IgA nephropathy, small vessel vasculitis, Goodpasture’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), but it is less common in post-infectious glomerulonephritis. Hyalinisation occurs in amyloidosis and not in post-infectious glomerulonephritis. On the other hand, no glomerular abnormalities would be expected in a normal kidney or in minimal change disease.
It is important to note that thrombotic microangiopathy occurs in haemolytic uraemic syndrome and not in post-infectious glomerulonephritis. Therefore, the underlying cause of nephritic syndrome is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old dialysis-dependent woman is brought to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty breathing. Her husband reports that she had chest pains the previous night before going to bed.
Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 28, her JVP is elevated, and coarse crepitations are heard throughout both lung fields. Urgent U&Es show:
- Serum sodium 138 mmol/L (135-146)
- Serum potassium 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Chloride 109 mEq/L (97-107)
- Urea 23.8 mg/dL (10-20)
- Creatinine 812 μmol/L (79-118)
The patient reports not passing any urine, making it impossible to provide a specimen for urinalysis. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and anterolateral ischaemic changes, while a chest x-ray reveals marked interstitial oedema in both lungs.
What is the most appropriate management to address the patient's shortness of breath?Your Answer: Give 300 mg aspirin
Correct Answer: Arrange urgent renal replacement therapy
Explanation:Urgent Treatment for Acute Pulmonary Oedema in Dialysis-Dependent Patient with ACS
This patient is experiencing acute pulmonary oedema, which is likely caused by acute coronary syndrome that occurred the previous evening. As the patient is dialysis-dependent, traditional methods of offloading fluid through the kidneys are unlikely to be effective. Urgent ultrafiltration is necessary to alleviate the fluid buildup. While aspirin is recommended for prognostic benefit, it does not address the immediate issue at hand.
Furosemide and nitrates are not recommended as they rely on functioning kidneys to offload fluid. However, nitrates may provide temporary relief of symptoms. A low dose of morphine may also be administered for symptomatic relief, but extreme caution should be taken and the dosage should be increased incrementally. Overall, urgent ultrafiltration is the most pressing concern for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 93
Correct
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A pediatric unit is aiming to decrease the number of line infections associated with the insertion of temporary dialysis vascular catheters. To achieve this, the unit develops a checklist of infection control measures that must be followed by practitioners during catheter insertion. The unit plans to monitor its infection rate over the next year and conduct routine audits to assess adherence to the infection control checklist. What term can be used to describe compliance with the checklist?
Your Answer: Process measure
Explanation:Types of Measures in Quality Improvement
In quality improvement, there are three types of measures used to determine the success of a project. One of these measures is the process measure, which serves as a proxy for the desired outcome. Adherence to a checklist is an example of a process measure, as it indicates whether the core processes of the project are being carried out.
The second type of measure is the outcome measure, which shows whether the end goal has been achieved. For example, in the case of reducing line infections, the outcome measure would be the actual infection rate.
The third type of measure is the balance measure, which assesses whether any adverse outcomes are being caused as a result of the new change.
It is important to understand these different types of measures in order to effectively evaluate the success of a quality improvement project. By using a combination of process, outcome, and balance measures, healthcare professionals can ensure that their projects are achieving the desired results while minimizing any negative effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 94
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents with generalised oedema. She has a history of excessive alcohol intake and smoking 10 cigarettes per day. She suffers from anxiety and mild eczema and has been experiencing weight loss and fatigue over the past few weeks and months. On physical examination, her BP is 140/80 mmHg, chest and abdominal examination is unremarkable. There is bilateral peripheral leg oedema. BMI is 22.
Initial investigations reveal:
Investigations Result Normal Values
Sodium (Na+) 144 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.2 mmol/l 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 98 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
Albumin 25 g/l 35 - 55 g/l
24-hour urinary protein collection 2.8 g/24 h < 0.2 g/24 h
Renal biopsy Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
What is the most likely association with this disease in this patient?Your Answer: HIV
Explanation:Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) can cause nephrotic syndrome and is linked to HIV, hepatitis B, intravenous heroin use, and obesity. Patients with FSGS and nephrotic syndrome are at risk of thromboembolism, infection (especially pneumococcus), and hyperlipidemia. Treatment options include a low-salt diet, ACE inhibitors, and discontinuation of heroin use. Hepatitis A is associated with acute kidney disease but not FSGS. Chronic alcohol abuse can increase the risk of acute kidney disease and renal papillary necrosis, but it is not linked to FSGS. Cigarette smoking is not associated with FSGS, but it is a risk factor for chronic kidney disease in the community and can worsen renal function in certain conditions. Chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection is strongly linked to glomerular disease, including mixed cryoglobulinemia, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, membranous nephropathy, and polyarteritis nodosa. Other glomerular lesions have also been reported in HCV-infected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease secondary to renovascular disease presents for follow-up. His recent blood work reveals anemia with a hemoglobin level of 102 g/L (130-180) and an MCV of 87 fL (80-96). His eGFR is 15 ml/min/1.73 m2, and he is currently taking oral iron supplements and darbepoetin alfa 60 mg weekly. The patient's ferritin level is 150 μg/L (15-300), and transferrin saturation is 18% (20-40%). C-reactive protein is <5 mg/L (<10). What is the most appropriate course of action to manage his anemia?
Your Answer: Increase dose of erythropoietin
Correct Answer: Intravenous iron therapy
Explanation:Managing Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease Patients
Patients with advanced chronic kidney disease (stage 4 almost stage 5) often experience anaemia, which is closely related to their condition. The target range for haemoglobin in these patients is between 100-120 g/L, and action should be taken to correct the haemoglobin levels when it comes within 5 g/L of either limit of this range. To maximize the effectiveness of erythropoietin in treating anaemia, it is crucial to ensure that patients’ iron statuses are adequately optimized. This means maintaining ferritin levels above 200 μg/L and transferrin saturation above 20%. If oral supplementation is insufficient, intravenous iron therapy may be necessary.
In cases where patients experience severe symptoms of anaemia or have particularly low haemoglobin levels, blood transfusion may be necessary. However, it is best to avoid blood transfusion in patients who may be candidates for transplantation, as the development of antibodies to alloantigens may complicate future transplantation. Before increasing the dose of erythropoietin, it is important to ensure that iron stores have been adequately replaced and that the patient has responded well to this intervention. It is worth noting that anaemia is not an indication for commencing renal replacement therapy.
Some experts suggest that vitamin C supplementation can aid iron absorption and mobilization, promoting effective erythropoiesis. However, there is insufficient evidence to support its use in the setting of anaemia secondary to chronic kidney disease. Overall, managing anaemia in chronic kidney disease patients requires careful monitoring of haemoglobin levels, optimizing iron status, and considering blood transfusion only when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents at the diabetic clinic with ++++ proteinuria and bilateral leg swelling that began one week ago following a minor upper respiratory infection. He has been insulin-dependent for five years but has no signs of neuropathy, and his eye screening reveals no background retinopathy. His random glucose level in the clinic is 5.9. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Correct Answer: Minimal change nephropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Acute Nephrotic Syndrome in Young Patients
Young patients who present with an acute nephrotic syndrome are likely to have minimal change disease, which is responsive to steroids. This condition is often preceded by a minor upper respiratory infection. On the other hand, diabetic nephropathy is less likely to be the cause of an acute nephrotic syndrome, especially in the absence of other microvascular disease. IgA nephropathy is also an unlikely cause of an acute nephrotic syndrome, but it should be considered in the differential diagnosis of asymptomatic proteinuria in a healthy young man. Haematuria is also likely to be present in this case.
The absence of a history of urinary tract infection rules out this possibility. Acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis is also an unlikely cause of an acute nephrotic syndrome. For examination purposes, this condition is typically associated with a rash, recent medication use, and/or eosinophilia in the context of an acute kidney injury. In summary, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to determine the underlying cause of an acute nephrotic syndrome in young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the medical assessment unit with new leg swelling. He has a history of ankylosing spondylitis but has not taken anti-inflammatory treatment. On examination, there is peripheral edema extending to the thighs, and he has reduced sensation in a glove stocking distribution to his knees. His blood tests show low hemoglobin, high platelets, low white blood cells, high urea, high creatinine, low albumin, and high CRP. His urinalysis shows proteinuria. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to make the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal biopsy
Correct Answer: Abdominal fat pad biopsy
Explanation:A biopsy of abdominal fat is the preferred method to confirm amyloidosis in this patient. The patient’s symptoms, including leg swelling, nephrotic syndrome, and peripheral neuropathy, suggest a diagnosis of secondary (AA) amyloidosis, which is associated with chronic systemic inflammation. Biopsy of a surrogate site, such as abdominal fat, is preferred due to its ease and lower risk of complications. Testing for anti-phospholipase A2 receptor antibody and ESR are not specific to amyloidosis and a renal biopsy is not the preferred initial investigation due to increased bleeding risk.
Understanding Amyloidosis
Amyloidosis is a medical condition that occurs when an insoluble fibrillar protein called amyloid accumulates outside the cells. This protein is derived from various precursor proteins and contains non-fibrillar components such as amyloid-P component, apolipoprotein E, and heparan sulphate proteoglycans. The accumulation of amyloid fibrils can lead to tissue or organ dysfunction.
Amyloidosis can be classified as systemic or localized, and further characterized by the type of precursor protein involved. For instance, in myeloma, the precursor protein is immunoglobulin light chain fragments, which is abbreviated as AL (A for amyloid and L for light chain fragments).
To diagnose amyloidosis, doctors may use Congo red staining, which shows apple-green birefringence, or a serum amyloid precursor (SAP) scan. Biopsy of skin, rectal mucosa, or abdominal fat may also be necessary. Understanding amyloidosis is crucial for early detection and treatment of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 98
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is undergoing regular haemodialysis and receiving erythropoietin, but his Hb remains low. He has no history of active or past infection and no other medical conditions besides chronic kidney disease of unknown cause. His BMI is 28 kg/m2, and physical examination is unremarkable. Investigations reveal elevated CRP, high platelet count, and low Hb. What is the recommended next step in his management?
Your Answer: Give IV iron
Explanation:Treatment options for iron-deficiency anemia in chronic kidney disease patients
Iron-deficiency anemia is a common complication in patients with chronic kidney disease. Oral iron supplementation is not effective in these patients, and the gold standard method of replacement is intravenous (IV) iron. The aim is to achieve a ferritin level of >100 mg/l and transferrin saturation (TSAT) level of >20% (or <10% hypochromic red cells). Folic acid supplementation is not necessary unless there is evidence of folic acid deficiency. Checking for antibodies against erythropoietin is not routine. Higher doses of iron tablets are not recommended as they can increase the risk of side effects such as constipation. Transfusion should only be considered with caution due to the risk of fluid overload and sensitization with antibodies, which may make the patient difficult to transplant in the future. Therefore, IV iron is the preferred treatment option for iron-deficiency anemia in chronic kidney disease patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 99
Correct
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A 26-year-old factory worker presents after an accident at work. He suffered a crush injury when a heavy machine fell on his leg, and he was trapped for over an hour. The orthopaedic team cleared him of any fractures, but fasciotomies were performed due to concerns about compartment syndrome. However, his urine output over the last four hours was only 35 mL, despite a mean arterial pressure of 70 mmHg. His blood results showed elevated levels of creatine kinase, potassium, urea, and creatinine, with a normal haemoglobin level and pH of 7.35. What is the most important management plan to initiate?
Your Answer: Aggressive fluid resuscitation
Explanation:Early Fluid Resuscitation for Prevention of Acute Kidney Injury in Rhabdomyolysis
Acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to rhabdomyolysis can be prevented by early fluid resuscitation. This is because injured muscles sequester water, leading to large volume depletion. To prevent this, volumes of up to 10 liters in 24 hours may be required. The target urine output is 3 ml per kilogram per hour or >300 ml per hour.
Furosemide is not appropriate for AKI prevention as fluid resuscitation is the only proven benefit. Mannitol has theoretical benefits but has not been shown to improve outcomes in AKI. Renal replacement therapy is not biochemically indicated at this stage. Urinary alkalisation can be used alongside aggressive fluid resuscitation, but there is no level 1-3 evidence to support its use.
In summary, early fluid resuscitation is crucial in preventing AKI secondary to rhabdomyolysis. Other interventions such as furosemide, mannitol, renal replacement therapy, and urinary alkalisation may not be effective or indicated at this stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency department with left flank pain and bloody urine. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Renal colic
Correct Answer: Renal vein thrombosis
Explanation:This patient developed nephrotic syndrome as a result of her penicillamine treatment for rheumatoid arthritis, which led to renal vein thrombosis. Symptoms of renal vein thrombosis can vary from being asymptomatic to presenting with flank pain and frank haematuria. The presence of ankle swelling, proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and abnormal renal function in the patient’s medical history should indicate the possibility of proteinuria.
Possible Complications of Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to leak protein into the urine. This can lead to a number of complications, including an increased risk of thromboembolism, which is related to the loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen in the urine. This can result in deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and renal vein thrombosis, which can cause a sudden deterioration in renal function.
Other complications of nephrotic syndrome include hyperlipidaemia, which can increase the risk of acute coronary syndrome, stroke, and other cardiovascular problems. Chronic kidney disease is also a possible complication, as is an increased risk of infection due to the loss of urinary immunoglobulin. Additionally, hypocalcaemia can occur due to the loss of vitamin D and binding protein in the urine.
It is important for individuals with nephrotic syndrome to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent further complications from occurring. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to minimize the risk of these complications and improve overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 101
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by his family. He had an 'upset stomach' earlier in the week with profuse diarrhoea. This has now settled but he remains lethargic, and generally feels weak.
His past medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus (diet controlled) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He is maintained on lisinopril 20 mg OD, metformin 1000 mg BD, and salmeterol/fluticasone inhaler BD. He has continued taking his medication during this episode. On examination he is pale and looks unwell.
Gastrointestinal and cardiorespiratory examination are unremarkable besides a resting tachycardia of 100 beats / minute.
His bloods are shown below:
Today Last month Normal Levels
Sodium 140 138 135-146 mmol/L
Potassium 6.5 5.2 3.5-5.0 mmol/L
Chloride 104 100 97-107 mEq/L
Urea 20.2 14.8 10-20 mg/dL
Creatinine 320 190 79-118 μmol/L
What is the most important step in treating his hyperkalaemia?Your Answer: Give 1 litre 0.9% saline stat
Correct Answer: Give 10 units of Actrapid in 50% dextrose
Explanation:Treatment for Life-Threatening Hyperkalaemia
This patient is experiencing life-threatening hyperkalaemia due to acute renal failure, likely caused by dehydration. The immediate treatment for this condition is intravenous insulin, which effectively reduces serum potassium levels. High concentration dextrose is given alongside insulin to facilitate its use. In addition, a high dose salbutamol nebule may be administered to reduce serum potassium levels, although to a lesser extent than insulin.
While rehydration is necessary, it does not actively treat hyperkalaemia. An intravenous fluid bolus may be given to facilitate an increase in glomerular filtration, which will eventually correct potassium levels. However, this process is not quick enough to treat hyperkalaemia.
An urgent ECG may be performed, and if necessary, intravenous calcium gluconate may be administered to stabilize the myocardium. Haemodialysis is a treatment option for hyperkalaemia, but it should be considered only if other treatments, such as insulin infusions, are not effective. Haemodialysis requires a vascular access point, a dialysis machine, and trained nursing staff, so it may take some time before a patient can undergo this treatment.
It is important to note that this patient has acute-on-chronic renal impairment, but this does not necessarily mean that urgent haemodialysis is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 102
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of muscle weakness, fatigue, and increased urination. During her visit, her blood pressure is measured at 90/74 mmHg. Further investigations reveal abnormal levels of serum sodium, potassium, urea, creatinine, chloride, bicarbonate, and magnesium, as well as elevated levels of urine sodium, potassium, and calcium. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Bartter's syndrome
Explanation:The patient has hypochloraemic alkalosis with high urinary sodium and potassium loss. Laxative abuse and thiazide diuretic abuse are ruled out. Liddle’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, and Bartter’s syndrome are considered as possible causes. Bartter’s syndrome is a rare, autosomal recessive disorder with three types of mutations. Type I and II present in infancy with severe symptoms, while type III has a more varied clinical picture. Management involves long term potassium supplementation and avoiding dehydration. The long term prognosis is uncertain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 103
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A 67-year-old man with a lengthy history of hypertension and chronic kidney disease (creatinine 190 μmol/l on admission) is admitted for angiography. He remains in the hospital over the weekend and you are requested to assess him three days after the procedure. The nursing staff has observed a purpuric rash on his feet and suspects that the blood supply to his lower limbs is compromised.
Blood tests show an ESR of 86, eosinophilia, and a creatinine level of 450 μmol/l.
What is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?Your Answer: Cholesterol embolism
Explanation:Understanding Cholesterol Embolism and Differential Diagnosis
Cholesterol embolism is a condition commonly seen in patients with existing arterial disease who have undergone arterial manipulation. Patients may present with a peripheral purpuric rash and dusky lower limbs, and associated laboratory tests include eosinophilia, worsening kidney disease, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and low levels of complement. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment shown to be of benefit.
When considering a differential diagnosis, contrast nephropathy can occur after a contrast load in patients with renal impairment, but it would not account for the eosinophilia in this case. Acute vasculitis is a systemic illness that presents with a palpable purpura that occurs in crops, along with other associated symptoms such as fever, weight loss, fatigue, and joint pains. Renal artery thrombosis can cause renal impairment due to complete occlusion of the renal artery from thromboemboli, atherosclerosis, or fibromuscular disease, but it would not cause an eosinophilia. Renal vein thrombosis, on the other hand, occurs most commonly in patients with nephrotic syndrome with heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hypercholesterolemia, and peripheral edema due to a hypercoagulable state.
In summary, understanding the presentation and associated laboratory tests of cholesterol embolism and considering differential diagnoses can aid in proper diagnosis and management of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 104
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with visible blood in her urine. She reports having a cold a few days ago. Urine analysis shows the presence of blood and protein, but no bacterial growth is detected. Her blood pressure is within normal range. A renal biopsy reveals mesangial IgA deposition and focal proliferative glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?
Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:Understanding IgA Nephropathy
IgA nephropathy is a prevalent form of glomerulonephritis worldwide, characterized by focal proliferative glomerulonephritis with mesangial deposits of IgA. It is believed to occur due to an exaggerated immune response to viral or other antigens, often following respiratory or gastrointestinal infection. Patients may present with asymptomatic microscopic or macroscopic hematuria, and proteinuria occurs in most cases, with 5% progressing to nephrotic syndrome. A good prognosis is associated with normal blood pressure, renal function, and absence of proteinuria at presentation.
Distinguishing IgA nephropathy from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, for example, may have small amounts of IgA present, but significant quantities suggest a different diagnosis. Anti-GBM disease presents with hemoptysis and rapidly progressive kidney disease, with the presence of anti-GBM antibodies and protein and blood in the urine. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is associated with cANCA positivity and ear, nose, and throat symptoms in addition to rapidly progressive kidney disease. Minimal-change disease, on the other hand, is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and does not typically present with hematuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation of her asthma. During her stay, she complains of left flank pain that radiates to her groin and painful urination. The following test results are obtained:
- Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K+): 4.5 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Urea: 5.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
- Creatinine (Cr): 70 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
- Urinalysis: Hexagonal crystals
- Kidney-ureter-bladder (KUB) X-ray: Suspicious area of a renal stone calculus seen in the region of the left vesico-ureteric junction
The patient passes the stone and is diagnosed with cystinuria. She is advised on dietary changes, urine alkalinization, and adequate hydration therapy before being discharged. However, she returns a few weeks later with similar symptoms.
What is the next best course of medical treatment?Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Penicillamine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Cystinuria: A Breakdown of Medications
Cystinuria is a condition that causes the formation of kidney stones due to high levels of cystine in the urine. There are several medications that can be used to treat this condition, each with their own unique benefits and drawbacks.
Penicillamine is an effective treatment for cystinuria, but it is typically only used for patients who continue to experience stones despite other treatments. This is due to concerns about its tolerability.
Allopurinol is another medication that can be used to reduce symptoms of urate nephropathy, which can be a complication of cystinuria.
Furosemide, on the other hand, can actually increase the risk of calcium-containing renal stones by inhibiting calcium reabsorption.
Bendroflumethiazide is a medication that can help reduce urinary calcium excretion, making it a valuable option for patients with recurrent calcium-containing kidney stones.
Finally, desferrioxamine is not typically used in the treatment of cystinuria. Instead, it is primarily used as an iron chelator.
Overall, there are several medications that can be used to treat cystinuria, each with their own unique benefits and drawbacks. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 106
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of SLE is experiencing the nephrotic syndrome. Upon performing a renal biopsy, it is confirmed that she has diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (WHO Class IV). What treatment plan would you recommend for her?
Your Answer: Prednisolone and intravenous cyclophosphamide
Explanation:Treatment for Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (GN) is the most common type of GN in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and has the worst prognosis for progression to renal failure. However, large trials have shown that cyclophosphamide is an effective treatment for this condition. The usual treatment regimen includes high dose steroids and pulses of intravenous cyclophosphamide, initially given monthly for six months and then quarterly. Pulsed intravenous cyclophosphamide is just as effective as oral cyclophosphamide but has lower toxicity. This treatment approach has been proven to be successful in managing diffuse proliferative GN in SLE patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 107
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is seen in an outpatient renal clinic. He has a history of hypertension and has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus for the past 10 years. His eGFR is 20mls/min/1.73m², and it is expected that he will require renal replacement therapy within the next two years.
The patient is currently taking the following medications: Atorvastatin 20 mg nocte, lisinopril 10mg daily, amlodipine 5mg daily, ferrous sulphate 200mg daily, and a basal bolus regimen of insulin. He had previously been taking alfacalcidol and calcium acetate, but they were recently discontinued.
During the examination, the patient presents with some pitting ankle edema up to his mid-tibia, a few bibasal crepitations on examination of his chest, and appears comfortable at rest. There are no signs of uraemia.
The following are the results of the patient's investigations:
- Sodium: 140 mmol/L
- Potassium: 4.8 mmol/L
- Serum corrected calcium: 2.55 mmol/L
- Serum phosphate: 2.1 mmol/L
- Plasma parathyroid hormone concentration: 3.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4)
What would be the most appropriate course of action to correct the patient's phosphate concentration?Your Answer: Sevelamer
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for this patient is a phosphate binder, as there is no need to initiate renal replacement therapy since the patient is currently in good condition without any signs of uraemia. Calcium carbonate is not suitable due to the risk of hypercalcaemia, so the best option would be to use a non-calcium based phosphate binder such as sevelamer.
Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.
Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.
In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 108
Correct
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A 44-year-old man with a 15-year history of osteoarthritis has been referred to the nephrologists due to a serum creatinine level of 210 µmol/l. He was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and essential hypertension one year ago and is currently taking ramipril 10 mg, aspirin 75 mg, diclofenac 150 mg, and atorvastatin 10 mg daily. On examination, his BP was 110/70 mmHg, and systemic examination was normal. Investigations revealed low haemoglobin levels, high urea and creatinine levels, and normal sodium, potassium, corrected calcium, phosphate, albumin, and 24-h urinary protein collection. His echocardiogram was normal, and renal ultrasound scan showed unobstructed echogenic kidneys with the right kidney measuring 9.4 cm and the left kidney measuring 8.8 cm. What is the most likely cause of his renal impairment?
Your Answer: Analgesic nephropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease can have various causes, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In the case of this patient, the cause of chronic kidney disease is likely analgesic nephropathy due to long-term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). This type of renal injury is characterized by renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis, and the severity of the damage is related to the duration and amount of NSAID use. The only treatment for analgesic nephropathy is to avoid NSAIDs.
Other potential causes of chronic kidney disease were ruled out based on the patient’s history and physical examination. Renovascular disease was unlikely due to the absence of bruits and symmetrical kidneys, and hypertensive nephrosclerosis was excluded because the patient had normal blood pressure and no evidence of other end-organ damage. Herbal nephropathy was also unlikely as there was no indication that the patient had been taking over-the-counter herbal medications. Diabetic nephropathy was ruled out due to the normal blood pressure and lack of other end-organ damage, despite the patient’s long history of diabetes.
In conclusion, a differential diagnosis is crucial in determining the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease. In this case, analgesic nephropathy was the likely cause, and other potential causes were ruled out based on the patient’s history and physical examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 109
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening shortness of breath over the last four days. He denies any history of angina or orthopnoea and denies any recent fever. He has a slight cough over the last week and yesterday noted a small amount of blood in his otherwise clear sputum. His past medical history includes type two diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin and gliclazide. On a more detailed systems review, he admits to feeling generally run down over the last week and has noticed he hasn't been passing much urine in the last three days.
On examination, he is breathless at rest with a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min, oxygen saturations of 88% on air and a few scattered crepitations on auscultation. His heart rate is 95 beats/min, his blood pressure 169/102 mmHg and his capillary refill time is less than three seconds. His heart sounds are normal, there is no significant peripheral oedema and his mucous membranes are moist. His abdomen is soft to palpation and there is no organomegaly. After urinary catheterization only a small amount of urine is passed and the nurse reports it only showed protein and blood. A chest x-ray reveals widespread patchy infiltrates.
Hb 105 g/l
Platelets 490 * 109/l
WBC 8.5 * 109/l
Na+ 139 mmol/l
K+ 5.1 mmol/l
Urea 31.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 894 µmol/l
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Plasmapheresis
Explanation:The patient is presenting with acute kidney injury, and based on the history, it is unlikely to be pre-renal failure. Bilateral ureteric obstruction is a possibility, but intrinsic renal failure is more likely due to the rapid onset of symptoms and significantly elevated creatinine levels. The most probable diagnosis is acute glomerulonephritis.
Goodpasture’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that attacks the basement membrane in the glomerulus and lungs, resulting in acute kidney injury, nephritic syndrome, and pulmonary hemorrhage. While haemoptysis is not always present, pulmonary hemorrhage can cause symptoms such as chest pain and breathlessness. Chest x-rays can help differentiate pulmonary hemorrhage from pulmonary edema, which is commonly found in acute kidney injury with volume overload. Plasmapheresis is the primary treatment for removing the antibodies, and high-dose steroids may be used for immunosuppression after initial control. Dialysis or haemofiltration may be necessary, but there is no immediate indication for their use in this case. IV fluids may not be helpful and may increase the risk of pulmonary edema due to the already elevated blood pressure.
Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, previously known as Goodpasture’s syndrome, is a rare form of small-vessel vasculitis that is characterized by both pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This condition is caused by anti-GBM antibodies against type IV collagen and is more common in men, with a bimodal age distribution. Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with HLA DR2.
The features of this disease include pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which can lead to acute kidney injury. Nephritis can result in proteinuria and haematuria. Renal biopsy typically shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane, while transfer factor is raised secondary to pulmonary haemorrhages.
Management of anti-GBM disease involves plasma exchange (plasmapheresis), steroids, and cyclophosphamide. One of the main complications of this condition is pulmonary haemorrhage, which can be exacerbated by factors such as smoking, lower respiratory tract infection, pulmonary oedema, inhalation of hydrocarbons, and young males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 110
Correct
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A 31-year-old man presented to his GP with complaints of persistent headaches and nasal congestion for the past 4 weeks. Despite taking over-the-counter decongestants and flu remedies, his symptoms did not improve. He also experienced recurrent nosebleeds and coughed up fresh blood a few times. Additionally, he had been having night sweats. The patient had no prior medical history and was not taking any regular medications.
The GP was concerned about the patient's symptoms and ordered some blood tests. The results showed a low haemoglobin level, high potassium level, and elevated creatinine level. The GP admitted the patient to the hospital to investigate the cause of the high creatinine level. Further tests revealed protein and blood in the urine, as well as multiple, well-defined lesions in both lung fields on a chest X-ray. The patient tested positive for c-ANCA with high PR3 titres and negative for p-ANCA and Anti-GBM antibodies. Complement levels were normal.
Based on the patient's presentation, what type of glomerulonephritis (GN) would be expected on a renal biopsy?Your Answer: Rapidly progressive GN
Explanation:The clinical scenario involves a vasculitic process affecting the lungs, nasal mucosa, and kidneys. Possible diagnoses include Goodpasture’s disease and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). Immunological tests can differentiate between the two, with a negative Anti-GBM antibody and positive c-ANCA pointing towards GPA. Both diagnoses show rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis on renal biopsy. Low complement levels exclude diffuse proliferative GN and membranoproliferative GN.
Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis: Causes and Features
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in kidney function due to the formation of epithelial crescents in most of the glomeruli. This condition can be caused by various underlying diseases such as Goodpasture’s syndrome, Wegener’s granulomatosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and microscopic polyarteritis.
The features of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis include nephritic syndrome, which is characterized by haematuria with red cell casts, proteinuria, hypertension, and oliguria. Additionally, specific symptoms may be present depending on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, haemoptysis may occur in Goodpasture’s syndrome, while vasculitic rash or sinusitis may be present in Wegener’s granulomatosis.
The images provided show the glomeruli filled with crescents, which is a hallmark of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. It is important to diagnose and treat this condition promptly to prevent further kidney damage and potential kidney failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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