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Question 1
Correct
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As a FY1 in the emergency department, you encounter a mother and her 5-year-old child who is complaining of a rapidly worsening sore throat, high fever, and excessive drooling from the sides of their mouth. The mother admits that the child has missed some vaccinations due to concerns about their negative effects, but is unsure which ones were omitted. Upon examination, the child is sitting on the examination couch, leaning forward and refusing to move. They are pyrexial (38.1C) with overt drooling from the sides of their mouth, and emitting a soft, high-pitched sound on inspiration. What is the most likely causative agent responsible for this child's condition?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B
Explanation:Haemophilus influenzae type B is the primary cause of acute epiglottitis, which is evident in this child’s classic symptoms. It is possible that the child has not received the vaccine for this bacteria, making it a more likely culprit. While Streptococcus pyogenes and other pathogens can also cause this condition, they are less common.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 2-week-old infant is presented to the clinic for evaluation. The baby was delivered at 38 weeks and has been breastfeeding without any issues. The mother reports that the baby seems excessively fatigued. During the assessment, a history is obtained, and some basic observations are documented. What would be an alarming observation?
Your Answer: Heart rate 90 beats per minute and regular
Explanation:For infants to be considered healthy, their respiratory rate should fall within the range of 30-60 breaths per minute. Additionally, their pulse should be regular and fall between 100-160 beats per minute for newborns. Their body temperature should be around 37 Celsius, and they should have regular bowel movements and urination.
Child Health Surveillance in the UK
Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. An ultrasound scan is also performed to detect any fetal abnormalities, and blood tests are done to check for neural tube defects.
After birth, a clinical examination of the newborn is conducted, and a hearing screening test is performed. The mother is given a Personal Child Health Record, which contains important information about the child’s health. Within the first month, a heel-prick test is done to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks.
In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is done at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention.
In preschool, a national orthoptist-led programme for preschool vision screening is set to be introduced. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and attention to promote their health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 4-week old baby is seen by the GP. The baby was born in breech position at 38+4 weeks gestation without any complications during delivery. However, two days after birth, the baby developed jaundice and was treated with phototherapy. The newborn physical examination was normal. The mother has a medical history of anaemia, asthma, and coeliac disease. The baby is currently thriving and is on the 45th centile. What investigations should the GP consider referring the baby for based on their medical history?
Your Answer: Ultrasounds of pelvis
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A toddler is brought to the emergency room with breathing difficulties. The medical team wants to evaluate the child's condition.
At what point should the APGAR score be evaluated?Your Answer: 1 and 5 minutes of age
Explanation:According to NICE, it is recommended that APGAR scores are regularly evaluated at both 1 and 5 minutes after a baby is born. The APGAR score is a measure of a newborn’s overall health, based on their pulse, breathing, color, muscle tone, and reflexes. A higher score indicates better health, with scores ranging from 0-3 (very low), 4-6 (moderately low), and 7-10 (good). If a baby’s score is less than 5 at 5 minutes, additional APGAR scores should be taken at 10, 15, and 30 minutes, and umbilical cord blood gas sampling may be necessary. It is important to note that the correct time for assessing APGAR scores is at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and none of the other options are accurate.
The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 6-week old infant is seen by the health visitor. She was born via breech caesarean section at 36+2 weeks gestation due to suspected chorioamnionitis and received antibiotics post-partum. Her hospital newborn physical examination (NIPE) was normal. She is currently thriving and following the 60th centile. What further assessments should the health visitor arrange for this infant based on her medical history?
Your Answer: Ultrasounds of pelvis in 2 weeks
Explanation:An ultrasound of the pelvis in 2 weeks is the correct answer. This is because infants born in a breech position have an increased risk of DDH and require screening at 6 weeks to ensure there is no hip laxity. Vaginal swabs for group B streptococcus are not necessary if the mother is asymptomatic. Reviewing the infant’s progress along the centiles once or twice weekly is too frequent, as infants are usually weighed no more than once a month up to 6 months of age unless there are concerns about development. A full blood count is unnecessary for a well-looking infant without signs of anaemia or infection.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following a 2-day history of a non-productive cough. Her father denies any recent viral illness.
On examination, the patient has no accessory muscle usage and is afebrile. On auscultation, she is noted to have a left-sided wheeze without crepitations. The patient has been developing normally and has never had any respiratory problems before. She has no significant past medical or family history. Her immunisation records are up to date.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Inhaled foreign body
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Respiratory Symptoms
When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of a short duration of non-productive cough, an audible wheeze, and unilateral wheeze on auscultation, an inhaled foreign body should be considered as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses include croup, bronchiolitis, pneumonia, and asthma.
Croup, caused by a virus such as the parainfluenza virus, is characterized by a barking-seal-like cough and may be accompanied by stridor. Bronchiolitis, on the other hand, typically follows a coryzal period of cough and/or cold and causes respiratory distress as evidenced by accessory muscle usage, nasal flare, and tachypnea. It is also characterized by widespread inspiratory crepitations.
Pneumonia should also be included in the differential diagnosis, but the lack of respiratory distress and fever, as well as the absence of a productive cough, make it less likely. Asthma, which is rarely diagnosed in children of this age, would present with sudden onset respiratory distress and widespread wheezing.
In summary, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and clinical findings is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a cough and noisy breathing after experiencing coryzal symptoms for 2 days. Upon examination, she has intercostal recession, a cough, and harsh vibrating noise during inspiration. Although she is afebrile, her symptoms are concerning. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation:Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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Which condition is frequently associated with plethoric lung fields on radiological imaging?
Your Answer: A large ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Explanation:Types of Congenital Heart Defects and Pulmonary Blood Flow
Congenital heart defects can be classified into different types based on their effects on pulmonary blood flow. Coarctation is a type of defect that is associated with normal pulmonary blood flow. On the other hand, most other types of defects, such as tetralogy of Fallot, pulmonary atresia, and tricuspid atresia, are associated with reduced pulmonary blood flow. The only exception to this is a large ventricular septal defect (VSD), which can also be associated with normal pulmonary blood flow. the different types of congenital heart defects and their effects on pulmonary blood flow is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Proper management of these defects can help improve the quality of life and outcomes for individuals with congenital heart defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is presented to the clinic by his mother who has observed a tiny lesion at the outer corner of his eye. During the examination, a small cystic structure is noticed which appears to have been recently infected. Upon removing the scab, hair is visible within the lesion. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Desmoid cyst
Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst
Explanation:Dermoid cysts typically develop in children and are found at locations where embryonic fusion occurred. These cysts can contain various types of cells. It is improbable that the growth in question is a desmoid cyst, as they rarely occur in this age group or at this location, and do not contain hair. Sebaceous cysts usually have a small opening and contain a cheesy substance, while epidermoid cysts contain keratin plugs.
Dermoid Cysts vs. Desmoid Tumours
Dermoid cysts and desmoid tumours are two distinct medical conditions that should not be confused with each other. Dermoid cysts are cutaneous growths that usually appear in areas where embryonic development has occurred. They are commonly found in the midline of the neck, behind the ear, and around the eyes. Dermoid cysts are characterized by multiple inclusions, such as hair follicles, that protrude from their walls. In contrast, desmoid tumours are aggressive fibrous tumours that can be classified as low-grade fibrosarcomas. They often present as large infiltrative masses and can be found in different parts of the body.
Desmoid tumours can be divided into three types: abdominal, extra-abdominal, and intra-abdominal. All types share the same biological features and can be challenging to treat. Extra-abdominal desmoids are equally common in both sexes and usually develop in the musculature of the shoulder, chest wall, back, and thigh. Abdominal desmoids, on the other hand, tend to arise in the musculoaponeurotic structures of the abdominal wall. Intra-abdominal desmoids are more likely to occur in the mesentery or pelvic side walls and are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli syndrome.
In summary, while dermoid cysts and desmoid tumours may sound similar, they are entirely different conditions. Dermoid cysts are benign growths that usually occur in specific areas of the body, while desmoid tumours are aggressive fibrous tumours that can be found in different parts of the body and can be challenging to treat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since last night she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a temperature of 38.5ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:The latest NICE guidelines classify any infant under 3 months old with a temperature exceeding 38ºC as a ‘red’ feature, necessitating immediate referral to a paediatrician. While some seasoned GPs may opt not to adhere to this recommendation, it is crucial to stay informed about recent examination guidelines.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A neighbor has a grandchild diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot and asks you about this condition.
Which of the following is a characteristic of this condition?Your Answer: Right ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and Acquired Valvular Defects
Congenital heart defects are present at birth and can affect the structure and function of the heart. Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart defect that includes right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, right-sided outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. On the other hand, patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and atrial septal defect (ASD) are not part of the tetralogy of Fallot but are commonly occurring congenital heart defects.
PDA is characterized by a persistent communication between the descending thoracic aorta and the pulmonary artery, while ASD is characterized by a defect in the interatrial septum, allowing shunting of blood from left to right. If left untreated, patients with a large PDA are at risk of developing Eisenmenger syndrome in later life.
Acquired valvular defects, on the other hand, are not present at birth but develop over time. Aortic stenosis is an acquired valvular defect that results from progressive narrowing of the aortic valve area over several years. Tricuspid stenosis, which is caused by obstruction of the tricuspid valve, can be a result of several conditions, including rheumatic heart disease, congenital abnormalities, active infective endocarditis, and carcinoid tumors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 12-hour-old neonate is evaluated in the neonatal unit after a normal vaginal delivery at 35 weeks' gestation. The mother reports no issues thus far. During the examination, a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur is heard, and a left subclavicular thrill is observed. The neonate has a large-volume collapsing pulse. An echocardiogram is performed, revealing the suspected defect but no other anomalies. What is the most suitable course of action at this point?
Your Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis based on the examination findings is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). To close the PDA, indomethacin (or ibuprofen) should be given to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Giving prostaglandin E1 would have the opposite effect and maintain the patency of the duct, which is not necessary in this scenario. Simply observing the neonate over time is not appropriate, and routine or urgent surgical referrals are not needed at this stage. First-line management should be to try medical closure of the PDA using indomethacin, which is effective in most cases.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 16-year-old female visits her GP seeking to begin taking the contraceptive pill. The GP takes into account the Fraser Guidelines before approving the prescription. What is one of the requirements that must be met?
Your Answer: The young person's physical or mental health, or both, are likely to suffer if the contraceptive pill is not prescribed
Explanation:If a young person is denied access to contraception, their physical and mental health may be negatively impacted. While it is not mandatory for them to inform their parents, it is recommended to encourage them to seek support from their parents. The age of 16 is not a requirement for the young person to stop having sex. While providing information leaflets is not a Fraser guideline, it can still be helpful for the young person. It is not necessary to have a relative or friend present when determining the best interests of the young person.
Understanding the Fraser Guidelines for Consent to Treatment in Minors
The Fraser guidelines are a set of criteria used to determine whether a minor under the age of 16 is competent to give consent for medical treatment, particularly in relation to contraception. To be considered competent, the young person must demonstrate an understanding of the healthcare professional’s advice and cannot be persuaded to inform or involve their parents in the decision-making process. Additionally, the young person must be likely to engage in sexual activity with or without contraception, and their physical or mental health is at risk without treatment. Ultimately, the decision to provide treatment without parental consent must be in the best interest of the young person. These guidelines are important in ensuring that minors have access to necessary medical care while also protecting their autonomy and privacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 22-month-old toddler has been hospitalized after experiencing a significant rectal hemorrhage that necessitated a blood transfusion. Despite the bleeding, the child seems calm and free of discomfort.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital disorder that can cause malformation in the small intestine. Although it is often asymptomatic, it can lead to acid release and ulceration of the small intestine. This condition is the most common cause of gastrointestinal bleeding requiring transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years, presenting with symptoms such as bright red rectal bleeding, constipation, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain.
Other conditions that can cause bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract include oesophagitis, which is typically caused by acid reflux and presents with heartburn, and anal fissures, which are often painful or itchy and commonly occur in those who have been constipated. However, these conditions are not typically associated with transfusion.
Necrotising enterocolitis is another condition that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding and severe illness, but it is more common in neonates, particularly those born prematurely. Meckel’s diverticulum remains the most common cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring transfusion in young children.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash. The boy has been experiencing itching for the past 3 days and has developed a fever along with the rash. During the examination, it is observed that the rash consists of macules, papules, crusted lesions, and vesicles that have spread across most of his body. The father has been administering ibuprofen to the boy for relief from fever and discomfort.
What is the probable diagnosis, and why is ibuprofen not recommended in this case?Your Answer: The risk of kidney damage
Correct Answer: The increased risk of necrotising fasciitis
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this patient are consistent with chickenpox, including lesions at various stages of healing, fever, and itching. However, it is important to note that the use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of necrotising fasciitis in chickenpox patients. While ibuprofen is a suitable NSAID for patients of all ages, it is important to avoid aspirin due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome in children with chickenpox. Short-term use of ibuprofen during acute febrile illnesses is unlikely to cause significant gastrointestinal side effects.
Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.
Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia
Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding osteosarcoma is true?
Your Answer: More than 90% of children survive to adulthood
Explanation:Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.
When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 6-week-old baby and their mum come to the hospital for their postnatal baby check. The infant has an asymmetrical skinfold around their hips. The skin folds under the buttocks and on the thighs are not aligning properly.
What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of the hip
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Developmental Hip Dysplasia
Developmental hip dysplasia is a condition that must be detected early for effective treatment. Clinical tests such as Barlows and Ortolani’s manoeuvres can screen for the condition, but an ultrasound scan of the hips is the gold standard for diagnosis and grading of severity. Asymmetrical skinfolds, limited hip movement, leg length discrepancy, and abnormal gait are also clues to the diagnosis. Isotope bone scans have no place in the diagnosis of developmental hip dysplasia. X-rays may be used in older children, but plain film X-rays do not exclude hip instability. Early detection and treatment with conservative management can prevent the need for complex surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor feeding, and cough. The infant has received all routine vaccinations. Upon examination, the baby is alert and responsive, but there is increased work of breathing. Coarse crackles and a wheeze can be heard throughout the chest. The infant's heart sounds and ECG are normal, and a lumbar puncture is performed and reported as unremarkable. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a cardiac arrest. What is the most probable underlying cause of this arrest?
Your Answer: Meningitis
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:The most frequent reason for children’s cardiac arrest is respiratory issues, with bronchiolitis being the most common cause. Bronchiolitis is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and poor feeding, as well as physical examination findings like wheezing, crackles, and increased respiratory effort. Congenital cardiac disease is an incorrect option since the patient has normal cardiac findings and ECG. Croup is also an incorrect option as it causes a distinct barking noise and is more prevalent in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Meningitis is another incorrect option as it typically results in an unwell infant with a fever and rapid breathing, but the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid would show abnormalities, which is not the case for this patient.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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You have just helped deliver a 3 week premature baby and are asked to quickly assess the current APGAR score. The baby has a slow irregular cry, is pink all over, a slight grimace, with a heart rate of 140 BPM and moving both arms and legs freely. What is the current APGAR score?
Your Answer: 8
Explanation:The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary tract infection (UTI) that was treated in the community. He was born at term and has been healthy throughout infancy, without previous history of UTI. There is no significant family history. The child's development is appropriate for his age and there have been no concerns about his growth. The antibiotics took effect after 4 days and he is currently doing well. Physical examination, including vital signs, is unremarkable. The child's height and weight are both at the 50th percentile. The microbiology results confirm a UTI caused by Enterococcus. What is the most suitable imaging approach that should have been taken/ordered?
Your Answer: Routine USS and DMSA; MCUG not indicated
Correct Answer: Urgent USS during the acute infection with routine DMSA and MCUG
Explanation:Guidelines for Imaging in Atypical UTIs in Children
When a child presents with an atypical urinary tract infection (UTI), imaging is necessary to identify any structural abnormalities in the urinary tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines provide recommendations for imaging based on the age of the child and the severity of the infection.
For children under 6 months of age with an atypical UTI, an urgent ultrasound scan (USS) is required during the acute infection. Once the infection has resolved, a routine dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan and a micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) are performed 4-6 months later.
For children older than 6 months with recurrent UTIs, a routine USS and DMSA scan plus MCUG are recommended. However, for children aged 6 months to 3 years with an atypical UTI, an urgent USS followed by a routine DMSA is sufficient. An MCUG is only performed if there is any dilation identified on USS, poor urine flow, family history of vesico-ureteric reflux, or a non-E. coli infection.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate imaging and management of atypical UTIs in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A preteen visits the sexual health clinic complaining of painful urination and penile discharge. He suspects he may have contracted a sexually transmitted infection. Upon further inquiry, you discover that he is just 10 years old, despite appearing older. When you ask about his sexual partner, he refuses to provide any additional details and insists that you keep this encounter confidential from his parents and others. What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Treat his infection and advise him that it's against the law for him to take part in sexual intercourse at his age
Correct Answer: Explain why you are unable to keep it a secret and tell him you will have to inform social services and his parents
Explanation:Referral to social services for investigation is necessary as this may be a case of sexual abuse, particularly since the child involved is under 13 years old and may not have been able to give consent. As per GMC guidelines, it is recommended to share information about such sexual activity involving children under 13.
NICE Guidelines for Suspecting Child Maltreatment
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on when to suspect child maltreatment, which includes physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that should raise suspicion of abuse, with selected features highlighted for each type of abuse.
For neglect, features such as severe and persistent infestations, failure to administer essential prescribed treatment, and inadequate provision of food and living environment that affects the child’s health should be considered as abuse. On the other hand, neglect should be suspected when parents persistently fail to obtain treatment for tooth decay, attend essential follow-up appointments, or engage with child health promotion.
For sexual abuse, persistent or recurrent genital or anal symptoms associated with a behavioral or emotional change, sexualized behavior in a prepubertal child, and STI in a child younger than 12 years without evidence of vertical or blood transmission should be considered as abuse. Suspected sexual abuse should be reported when there is a gaping anus in a child during examination without a medical explanation, pregnancy in a young woman aged 13-15 years, or hepatitis B or anogenital warts in a child aged 13-15 years.
For physical abuse, any serious or unusual injury with an absent or unsuitable explanation, bruises, lacerations, or burns in a non-mobile child, and one or more fractures with an unsuitable explanation, including fractures of different ages and X-ray evidence of occult fractures, should be considered as abuse. Physical abuse should be suspected when there is an oral injury in a child with an absent or suitable explanation, cold injuries or hypothermia in a child without a suitable explanation, or a human bite mark not by a young child.
Overall, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying signs of child maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are in a genetics clinic and explaining to a couple the reason why their daughter has Prader-Willi syndrome. What is the term used to describe the mode of inheritance for Prader-Willi syndrome?
Your Answer: Variable expressivity
Correct Answer: Imprinting
Explanation:Prader-Willi is an instance of imprinting, where the patient does not inherit the gene from their father. Although the mother’s gene may be normal, the phenotype can still occur, resulting in learning difficulties, hypotonia, obesity, and an insatiable appetite.
Autosomal recessive occurs when a person inherits a defective gene from both parents, leading to the development of a particular condition. Cystic fibrosis is an example of this.
Autosomal dominant only requires the inheritance of one defective gene from either parent to develop a condition. Huntington’s disease is an example of this.
Pleiotropy refers to a single gene causing multiple clinical effects that may seem unrelated when defective.
Variable expressivity occurs when an inherited genetic defect results in varying levels of clinical effects.
Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Imprinting Disorder
Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype of the individual depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.
There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome: microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases, and maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome exhibit a range of symptoms, including hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence.
In summary, Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that results from the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. It is an example of genetic imprinting, and the phenotype of the individual depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome exhibit a range of symptoms, and the disorder can be caused by microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 or maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl presents with a 5-day history of fever, increasing irritability, and a rash. Her mother is concerned as she has been giving her paracetamol and ibuprofen but there has been no improvement. During examination, the child's temperature is 39.1°C, respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min, and heart rate is 140 beats/min. Further examination reveals bilateral conjunctivitis without exudate, cervical lymphadenopathy, erythema of the oral mucosa, and a non-vesicular rash that is spreading from her hands and feet. What is the immediate treatment that should be administered?
Your Answer: High dose aspirin and a single dose of intravenous immunoglobulin
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for the child with Kawasaki disease, who meets at least five of the six diagnostic criteria, is a high dose of aspirin and a single dose of intravenous immunoglobulin. The initial dose of aspirin should be 7.5-12.5 mg/kg, given four times a day for two weeks or until the child is afebrile. After that, the dose should be reduced to 2-5 mg/kg once daily for 6-8 weeks. Intravenous immunoglobulin should be administered at a dose of 2 g/kg daily for one dose, and it should be given within 10 days of the onset of symptoms. These recommendations are based on the BNF for Children.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 2-year-old boy is found to have a continuous murmur, with the loudest point at the left sternal edge. No cyanosis is observed, and a diagnosis of patent ductus arteriosus is suspected. What pulse abnormality is commonly linked with this condition?
Your Answer: Collapsing pulse
Explanation:The pulse in patent ductus arteriosus is characterized by being large in volume, bounding, and collapsing.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father due to concerns about her breathing. The father reports that she has had a fever, cough, and runny nose for the past three days, and has been wheezing for the past 24 hours. On examination, the child has a temperature of 37.9ºC, a heart rate of 126/min, a respiratory rate of 42/min, and bilateral expiratory wheezing is noted. The pediatrician prescribes a salbutamol inhaler with a spacer. However, two days later, the father returns with the child, stating that the inhaler has not improved her wheezing. The child's clinical findings are similar, but her temperature is now 37.4ºC. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Child has viral-induced wheeze, treat with short-acting bronchodilator. If not successful, try oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroids.
Understanding and Managing preschool Wheeze in Children
Wheeze is a common occurrence in preschool children, with around 25% experiencing it before they reach 18 months old. Viral-induced wheeze is now one of the most frequently diagnosed conditions in paediatric wards. However, there is still ongoing debate about how to classify wheeze in this age group and the most effective management strategies.
The European Respiratory Society Task Force has proposed a classification system for preschool wheeze, dividing children into two groups: episodic viral wheeze and multiple trigger wheeze. Episodic viral wheeze occurs only during a viral upper respiratory tract infection and is symptom-free in between episodes. Multiple trigger wheeze, on the other hand, can be triggered by various factors, such as exercise, allergens, and cigarette smoke. While episodic viral wheeze is not associated with an increased risk of asthma in later life, some children with multiple trigger wheeze may develop asthma.
To manage preschool wheeze, parents who smoke should be strongly encouraged to quit. For episodic viral wheeze, treatment is symptomatic, with short-acting beta 2 agonists or anticholinergic via a spacer as the first-line treatment. If symptoms persist, a trial of intermittent leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast), intermittent inhaled corticosteroids, or both may be recommended. Oral prednisolone is no longer considered necessary for children who do not require hospital treatment. For multiple trigger wheeze, a trial of inhaled corticosteroids or a leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast) for 4-8 weeks may be recommended.
Overall, understanding the classification and management of preschool wheeze can help parents and healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for children experiencing this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old neonate was discovered to be cyanosed with a PaO2 of 2 kPa on umbilical artery blood sampling. Upon auscultation of the chest, a murmur with a loud S2 was detected, and a chest X-ray revealed a narrow upper mediastinum with an ‘egg-on-side’ appearance of the cardiac shadow. To save the infant's life, a balloon atrial septostomy was performed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Interruption of the aortic arch
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
Explanation:Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a congenital heart condition where the aorta and pulmonary arteries are switched, resulting in central cyanosis and a loud single S2 on cardiac auscultation. Diagnosis is made with echocardiography and management involves keeping the ductus arteriosus patent with intravenous prostaglandin E1, followed by balloon atrial septostomy and reparative surgery. Patent ductus arteriosus is the failure of closure of the fetal connection between the descending aorta and pulmonary artery, which can be treated with intravenous indomethacin, cardiac catheterisation, or ligation. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is a rare condition where the left side of the heart and aorta are underdeveloped, requiring a patent ductus arteriosus for survival. Interruption of the aortic arch is a very rare defect requiring prostaglandin E1 and surgical anastomosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by four heart lesions and symptoms such as progressive cyanosis, difficulty feeding, and Tet spells. Diagnosis is made with echocardiography and surgical correction is usually done in the first 2 years of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness of breath. She is struggling to speak in full sentences and her peak expiratory flow rate is 320 l/min (45% of normal). Her oxygen saturation levels are at 92%. Her pCO2 is 4.8 kPa.
What is the most concerning finding from the above information?Your Answer: Cannot complete sentences
Correct Answer: pCO2 (kPa)
Explanation:Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.
For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 3-month-old boy is presented to surgery with vomiting and poor feeding. The mother reports a strong odor in his urine, indicating a possible urinary tract infection. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer immediately to hospital
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are a junior doctor in paediatrica and have been asked to perform a newborn exam. Which statement is true regarding the Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres?
Your Answer: It tests for anterior dislocation of the hip
Correct Answer: It relocates a dislocation of the hip joint if this has been elicited during the Barlow manoeuvre
Explanation:Understanding the Barlow and Ortolani Manoeuvres for Hip Dislocation Screening
Hip dislocation is a common problem in infants, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Two screening tests commonly used are the Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres. The Barlow manoeuvre involves adducting the hip while applying pressure on the knee, while the Ortolani manoeuvre flexes the hips and knees to 90 degrees, with pressure applied to the greater trochanters and thumbs to abduct the legs. A positive test confirms hip dislocation, and further investigation is necessary if risk factors are present, such as breech delivery or a family history of hip problems. However, a negative test does not exclude all hip problems, and parents should seek medical advice if they notice any asymmetry or walking difficulties in their child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy presents to the GP clinic with symptoms suggestive of a common cold. He is meeting his developmental milestones as expected, enjoys playing soccer, and has no other health concerns. During auscultation of his chest, you notice a soft, low-pitched murmur that occurs early in systole and is most audible at the lower left sternal border. S1 and a split S2 are both audible, with the latter becoming wider during inspiration. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Innocent murmur
Explanation:Innocent Murmurs and Other Heart Conditions in Children
Innocent murmurs are common in children and are considered benign. They are diagnosed through clinical examination and history, and are characterized by a lack of associated symptoms such as feeding difficulties, shortness of breath, and cyanosis. Innocent murmurs are not loud and do not have associated heaves or thrills. They occur in systole and are associated with normal heart sounds. The Valsalva maneuver can reduce their intensity by reducing venous return.
Other heart conditions in children may present with symptoms such as feeding difficulties, shortness of breath, and cyanosis. Abnormal pulses, heaves, and thrills may also be present during examination. Aortic stenosis may be associated with an ejection click and can cause shortness of breath and exertional syncope. Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur and may present with cyanosis or breathing difficulties. Pulmonary stenosis is characterized by a widely split second heart sound and may have an ejection systolic click. Ventricular septal defects produce a harsh pan-systolic sound and may be asymptomatic if small.
the differences between innocent murmurs and other heart conditions in children is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Innocent murmurs are common and benign, while other conditions may require further evaluation and intervention. Clinical examination and history are key in identifying these conditions and determining the appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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