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  • Question 1 - What is the term used to describe the elimination of a drug or...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the elimination of a drug or its metabolite from the body?

      Your Answer: Excretion

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics: How the Body Processes Drugs

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how the body processes drugs. It involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption refers to the uptake of drugs from the gut lumen and their entry into the circulation. Distribution involves the spread of drugs throughout the body, which can affect their ability to interact with their target. Metabolism involves the body’s processes for changing drug molecules, usually by deactivating them in the liver. Excretion involves the removal of drugs from the body.

      Metabolism and excretion are responsible for removing active drugs from the circulation. Metabolism converts drugs into inactive metabolites, while excretion removes drugs or their metabolites from the body. Renal excretion is common, but some drugs are excreted in the bile or feces.

      In summary, pharmacokinetics is the study of what the body does to drugs. these processes is important for determining the appropriate dosage and administration of drugs, as well as predicting their effects and potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old patient, who is four days’ post hemicolectomy for colorectal carcinoma, experiences...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old patient, who is four days’ post hemicolectomy for colorectal carcinoma, experiences a sudden onset of breathlessness.
      On examination, the patient is tachycardic at 115 bpm and his blood pressure is 108/66 mmHg. His oxygen saturations are at 92% on high-flow oxygen – the last reading from a set of observations taken three hours ago was 99% on room air. Chest examination reveals a respiratory rate of 26, with good air entry bilaterally. A pulmonary embolus is suspected as the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Your Answer: Generally has a worse outcome than a thrombus

      Explanation:

      Thrombus vs Embolus: Understanding the Differences

      Thrombus and embolus are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they have distinct differences. A thrombus is an organized mass of blood constituents that forms in flowing blood, while an embolus is an abnormal mass of undissolved material that is carried in the bloodstream from one place to another.

      Ischaemia resulting from an embolus tends to be worse than that caused by thrombosis because the occlusion of the vessel is sudden. Thrombi tend to occlude the vessel lumen slowly, allowing time for the development of alternative perfusion pathways via collaterals.

      A thrombus of venous origin can embolize and lodge in the pulmonary arteries, causing a pulmonary embolus. A massive pulmonary embolus is the most common preventable cause of death in hospitalized, bed-bound patients.

      Post-mortem clots and thrombi have some similarities, but they can be distinguished by their appearance and consistency. A post-mortem clot tends to be soft and fall apart easily, while a thrombus adheres to the vessel wall, may be red, white or mixed in color, and has a typical layered appearance (Lines of Zahn).

      While about 95% of all emboli are thrombotic, other emboli can include solid material such as fat, tumor cells, atheromatous material, foreign matter, liquid material such as amniotic fluid, and gas material such as air and nitrogen bubbles.

      Understanding the differences between thrombus and embolus is crucial in diagnosing and treating conditions related to blood clots and circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      54
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the paediatrics emergency department by his parents....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the paediatrics emergency department by his parents. His parents report that he has had a fever for 2 days with reduced activity and feeding. On examination, he is not smiling, his respiratory rate is 50 breaths/minute (normal range: 30-60 breaths/minute) and his heart rate is 155 beats/minute (100-160 beats/minute). He also has reduced skin turgor and looks pale. A nurse looks up the NICE traffic light system to identify his risk of serious illness.
      What is the most concerning symptom in this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduced activity and feeding

      Correct Answer: Reduced skin turgor

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE traffic light system, reduced skin turgor is a red flag symptom in children. This system is used to identify the risk of serious illness in children. Decreased activity is considered an amber symptom, while age <6 months is not a red flag symptom. Age 3-6 months with a temperature of >=39ºC is an amber flag symptom, and age <3 months with a temperature of >=38°C is a red flag symptom. A respiratory rate of >60 breaths/minute is also a red flag symptom. Finally, a heart rate of >160 beats/minute in children under 12 months is an amber flag symptom.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright red blood during bowel movements. The patient experiences severe pain each time they open their bowels, which has been ongoing for the past two weeks. The patient is now very anxious and avoids opening their bowels whenever possible, but this seems to worsen the pain symptoms. Rectal examination is not possible due to the patient's inability to tolerate the procedure because of pain.
      What is the recommended treatment for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nitroglycerin ointment

      Explanation:

      Anal Fissure: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      An anal fissure is a common condition that can occur at any age, but is most common in individuals aged 15-40. It can be primary, without underlying cause, or secondary, associated with conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease or constipation. Symptoms include severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, bleeding, and itching.

      Treatment options include managing pain with simple analgesia and topical anesthetics, regular sitz baths, increasing dietary fiber and fluid intake, and stool softeners. Topical glyceryl trinitrate ointment may also be used to promote relaxation of the anal sphincter and aid healing. If the fissure remains unhealed after 6-8 weeks, surgical management options such as local Botox injection or sphincterotomy may be considered.

      Antibiotic therapy does not have a role in the management of anal fissures, and band ligation is a secondary care option for the treatment of hemorrhoids, not anal fissures. Incision and drainage would only be indicated if the patient presented with a perianal abscess. Simple analgesia can be offered to manage pain symptoms, but opioid-containing preparations should be avoided to prevent further constipation and worsening of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man comes to you with a severe sunburn-like reaction on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to you with a severe sunburn-like reaction on his face after spending a few hours in the garden the previous day. He was prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection a few days ago. Upon examination, you notice a severe erythematosus reaction with the formation of several vesicles on all sun-exposed areas. The following investigations were conducted:

      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 × 109/l (neutrophils 6.2) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Skin biopsy Necrotic keratinocytes

      Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: cephalexin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced Photosensitivity Reactions and Associated Antibiotics

      Photosensitivity reactions are a common adverse effect of certain medications. There are two main types of drug-induced photosensitivity: an immediate sunburn-type reaction and an allergic dermatitis-type reaction. Trimethoprim is one of the drugs that can cause an acute-type reaction, along with tetracyclines, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, diuretics, vitamin A derivatives, anti-fungals, and others. Adequate sunblock and topical corticosteroids are the main components of treatment for these reactions.

      Amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav, cephalexin, and cefaclor are antibiotics that are more classically associated with different types of allergic reactions. Amoxicillin is associated with an erythematous rash in the context of glandular fever or an allergic reaction causing urticaria, while co-amoxiclav is also associated with an erythematous rash and rare cases of angio-oedema. cephalexin and cefaclor are more commonly associated with an allergic reaction causing urticaria, and in rare cases, angio-oedema, erythema multiforme, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      79.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old obese woman presents with a gradual onset of severe hirsutism and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old obese woman presents with a gradual onset of severe hirsutism and clitoral enlargement. Her voice is deepened, and she has recently noted abnormal vaginal bleeding. Her last menses was three years ago. Her medical history is remarkable for type II diabetes mellitus diagnosed at the age of 45. She is being treated with metformin and glibenclamide. Serum androstenedione and testosterone concentrations are elevated. Ultrasound shows bilaterally enlarged, solid-appearing ovaries without cyst. A simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia is found on biopsy.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sertoli–Leydig cell tumour

      Correct Answer: Ovarian stromal hyperthecosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ovarian Stromal Hyperthecosis and Differential Diagnosis

      Ovarian stromal hyperthecosis is a condition characterized by the proliferation of ovarian stroma and clusters of luteinizing cells throughout the ovarian stroma. This results in increased secretion of androstenedione and testosterone, leading to hirsutism and virilism. In obese patients, the conversion of androgen to estrogen in peripheral adipose tissue can cause a hyperestrogenic state, which may lead to endometrial hyperplasia and abnormal uterine bleeding. Treatment for premenopausal women is similar to that for polycystic ovary syndrome, while bilateral oophorectomy is preferred for postmenopausal women.

      Differential diagnosis for virilization symptoms includes adrenal tumor, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, polycystic ovary cyst, and theca lutein cyst. Adrenal tumors may present with additional symptoms such as easy bruising, hypertension, and hypokalemia. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors are unilateral and more common in women in their second and third decades of life. Polycystic ovary syndrome is limited to premenopausal women, while theca lutein cysts do not cause virilization and can be seen on ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old science teacher is diagnosed with tenosynovitis of the fingers of the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old science teacher is diagnosed with tenosynovitis of the fingers of the left hand, although she is not experiencing any tenderness or swelling of the affected fingers.
      In which one of the following conditions can tendinitis/tenosynovitis present without being swollen and tender?

      Your Answer: Systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Types of Arthritis and Infections that can Cause Tenosynovitis

      Tenosynovitis is a condition where the tendon sheath becomes inflamed, causing pain and swelling. It can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections. Here are some of the most common causes:

      Systemic Sclerosis: This autoimmune disease causes fibrosis of connective tissue, resulting in hard and thickened skin, swollen digits, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Tenosynovitis in systemic sclerosis is non-tender and without swelling of the tendons.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis: Tenosynovitis due to rheumatoid arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons. It usually involves the interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints, and can cause deformities such as swan neck and Boutonnière’s deformity.

      Gout: Gout can cause tenosynovitis, which is very painful and presents with redness and swollen tendons. It typically affects the metatarsophalangeal joints.

      Disseminated Gonococcal Infection: This infection can cause acute migratory tenosynovitis, especially in younger adults. Women may be asymptomatic, while men may present with urethral discharge or dysuria.

      Reactive Arthritis: This type of arthritis causes pain and swelling of tendons, commonly affecting the knees or sacrum. It is an acutely inflammatory process and would therefore be swollen and tender.

      In conclusion, tenosynovitis can be caused by various types of arthritis and infections, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath and dry cough over the past three months. He gets breathless after walking a few hundred metres. He is a non-smoker and takes medication for type II diabetes mellitus. During examination, his pulse is 80/minute and regular, blood pressure (BP) 130/70 mmHg, bilateral clubbing of digits, oxygen saturation (SpO2) in room air is 90%. Auscultation reveals bilateral, fine, late inspiratory crackles, more marked in the mid-zones and at the lung bases. Chest X-ray reveals patchy shadowing at the lung bases. What is the definitive investigation to guide his management?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

      Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest

      Explanation:

      High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is the most reliable test for diagnosing idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). The radiological pattern seen in IPF is called usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP), which is characterized by honeycombing, reticular opacities, and lung architectural distortion. In advanced cases, there may be lobar volume loss, particularly in the lower lobes.

      Antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) tests are not useful for diagnosing IPF, as they are typically normal or only mildly elevated in this condition. These tests may be helpful in diagnosing interstitial lung disease associated with rheumatologic conditions, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid arthritis.

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis can be performed in patients with IPF who are experiencing respiratory distress. This test typically shows type I respiratory failure with low oxygen levels and normal or decreased carbon dioxide levels. However, ABG analysis is not the definitive test for diagnosing IPF.

      Bronchoalveolar lavage may be considered if HRCT chest cannot detect the UIP pattern, but it is not typically necessary for diagnosing IPF.

      Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) can help differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In IPF, PFTs typically show a restrictive pattern, with decreased forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC), and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. While PFTs are a useful initial test for evaluating lung function in patients with suspected IPF, they are not definitive for establishing a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      64.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He is currently taking ramipril, pioglitazone, metformin, simvastatin, and acarbose. During previous examinations, he has been found to have microalbuminuria and a decreasing eGFR. His most recent eGFR measurement was 29 ml/minute/1.73 m2. He has an average build and height.

      Which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Using eGFR to Determine Dose Adjustments in Renal Impairment

      Published information on the effects of renal impairment on drug elimination often uses creatinine clearance as a measure of glomerular filtration rate. However, in patients of average build and height, laboratories may report estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) based on the modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula. This can be used to determine appropriate dose adjustments for medications.

      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends avoiding metformin if the eGFR is less than 30 ml/minute/1.73 m2 due to the risk of lactic acidosis. This is a serious condition that can occur when metformin accumulates in the body due to impaired renal function. By using eGFR to guide dose adjustments, healthcare providers can help prevent adverse drug reactions and ensure safe and effective medication use in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - At what age do children typically begin to play alongside their peers without...

    Incorrect

    • At what age do children typically begin to play alongside their peers without actively engaging with them?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Correct Answer: 2 years

      Explanation:

      The table summarizes developmental milestones for social behavior, feeding, dressing, and play. Milestones include smiling at 6 weeks, using a spoon and cup at 12-15 months, and playing with other children at 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the most prevalent form of colorectal cancer that is inherited?

    Familial...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent form of colorectal cancer that is inherited?

      Familial adenomatous polyposis, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, Fanconi syndrome, and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are all types of inherited colorectal cancer. However, which one is the most common?

      Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis

      Correct Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Genetics and Types of Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a type of cancer that affects the colon and rectum. There are three main types of colorectal cancer: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is the most common type, accounting for 95% of cases. It is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumour suppressor genes.

      HNPCC, also known as Lynch syndrome, is an autosomal dominant condition that accounts for 5% of cases. It is the most common form of inherited colon cancer and is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most commonly affected genes are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of developing other cancers, such as endometrial cancer.

      FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that accounts for less than 1% of cases. It is caused by a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC), which leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. Patients with FAP inevitably develop carcinoma and are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin.

      In conclusion, understanding the genetics behind colorectal cancer is important for diagnosis and treatment. While sporadic colon cancer is the most common type, HNPCC and FAP are inherited conditions that require genetic testing and surveillance for early detection and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use presents with abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use presents with abnormal blood results. His test results show Hepatitis B surface antigen positive, IgG Anti-HBc antibody positive, IgM Anti-HBc antibody negative, and Anti-Hepatitis B surface antibody negative. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Immune due to natural infection

      Correct Answer: Chronically infected with hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Surface Antigen and Antibodies

      The presence of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the host’s cells, whether it is an acute or chronic infection. All patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are markers of acute infection and will no longer be present in chronic infection. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen remain present even after the infection has been cleared.

      Antibodies to the surface antigen develop in vaccinated individuals, providing natural immunity once the infection has cleared. If a patient has developed antibodies to HBsAg, they would be HBsAg negative and would not be a hepatitis B chronic carrier. the presence and absence of these antigens and antibodies is crucial in diagnosing and managing hepatitis B infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her parents due to...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her parents due to concerns about her weight loss. She has been experiencing abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and a poor appetite. She denies having polyuria and her urinalysis results are normal. Upon examination, she is found to be below the 0.4th centile for both height and weight, having previously been on the 9th centile. What series of investigations would be most helpful in confirming a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autoantibodies and CRP

      Explanation:

      Investigating Short Stature in a Child with GI Symptoms

      When a child presents with short stature and symptoms suggestive of gastrointestinal (GI) pathology, it is important to consider chronic disease as a possible cause. In this case, the child has fallen across two height and weight centiles, indicating a potential secondary cause. Autoantibodies such as anti-endomysial and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present in coeliac disease, while a significantly raised CRP would be consistent with inflammatory bowel disease. Further investigation, such as a full blood count and U&E, should also be conducted to exclude chronic kidney disease and anaemia.

      While a glucose tolerance test may be used to diagnose diabetes, it is unlikely to be associated with abdominal pain in the absence of glycosuria or ketonuria. Similarly, an insulin stress test may be used for confirmation of growth hormone deficiency, but this condition would not account for the child’s GI symptoms or weight loss. A TSH test may suggest hyper- or hypo-thyroidism, but it is unlikely to support the diagnosis in this case.

      It is important to consider all possible causes of short stature in children, especially when accompanied by other symptoms. In this case, measuring autoantibodies and CRP can be useful in making a diagnosis, but further investigation may be necessary for confirmation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      48.4
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  • Question 14 - An adolescent recovering from a first-time anaphylactic reaction to shellfish is being discharged.
    What...

    Correct

    • An adolescent recovering from a first-time anaphylactic reaction to shellfish is being discharged.
      What should be done at discharge?

      Your Answer: Discharge with two adrenaline autoinjectors

      Explanation:

      Discharge and Follow-Up of Anaphylactic Patients: Recommendations and Advice

      When it comes to discharging and following up with patients who have experienced anaphylaxis, there are certain recommendations and advice that healthcare professionals should keep in mind. Here are some key points to consider:

      Recommendations and Advice for Discharging and Following Up with Anaphylactic Patients

      – Give two adrenaline injectors as an interim measure after emergency treatment for anaphylaxis, before a specialist allergy service appointment. This is especially important in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack before their specialist appointment.
      – Auto-injectors are given to patients at an increased risk of a reaction. They are not usually necessary for patients who have suffered drug-induced anaphylaxis, unless it is difficult to avoid the drug.
      – Advise that one adrenaline auto-injector will be prescribed if the patient has a further anaphylactic reaction.
      – Arrange for a blood test after one week for serum tryptase, immunoglobulin E (IgE) and histamine levels to assess biphasic reaction. Discharge and follow-up of anaphylactic patients do not involve a blood test. Tryptase sample timings, measured while the patient is in hospital, should be documented in the patient’s records.
      – Patients who have suffered from anaphylaxis should be given information about the potential of biphasic reactions (i.e. the reaction can recur hours after initial treatment) and what to do if a reaction occurs again.
      – All patients presenting with anaphylaxis should be referred to an Allergy Clinic to identify the cause, and thereby reduce the risk of further reactions and prepare the patient to manage future episodes themselves. All patients should also be given two adrenaline injectors in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack.

      By following these recommendations and providing patients with the necessary information and resources, healthcare professionals can help ensure the best possible outcomes for those who have experienced anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      28.2
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  • Question 15 - A 56-year-old woman who underwent Hartmann’s procedure six hours ago has started to...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman who underwent Hartmann’s procedure six hours ago has started to complain of abdominal pain and light-headedness. On assessment, she has a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg, a heart rate of 120 bpm, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 98% and a temperature of 36.7 °C. She appears drowsy and pale, and the radial pulse is difficult to detect. Her abdomen appears rigid and is painful to palpate, and a bleed is suspected.
      What type of shock is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemic

      Explanation:

      Types of Shock and their Causes

      Shock is a medical emergency that occurs when the body’s organs and tissues do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients. There are different types of shock, each with its own causes and symptoms.

      Hypovolaemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood volume, usually more than 20%. This can occur due to trauma, surgery, or internal bleeding. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and confusion. Treatment involves urgent fluid resuscitation and surgical intervention.

      Anaphylactic shock is an allergic reaction to a substance, such as medication, food, or insect venom. Symptoms include swelling of the face and throat, hives, and difficulty breathing. Treatment involves administering epinephrine and seeking emergency medical care.

      Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. This can occur after a heart attack or other cardiac event. Symptoms include low blood pressure, rapid heartbeat, and shortness of breath. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cardiac issue and providing supportive care.

      Neurogenic shock occurs due to damage to the central nervous system or spinal cord. Symptoms include low blood pressure, slow heartbeat, and warm skin. Treatment involves stabilizing the spine and providing supportive care.

      Septic shock occurs as a result of a severe infection that spreads throughout the body. Symptoms include fever, low blood pressure, and confusion. Treatment involves administering antibiotics and providing supportive care.

      In conclusion, recognizing the type of shock a patient is experiencing is crucial for providing appropriate and timely treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 47-year-old man presents to the Hepatology Clinic with mild elevations in levels...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man presents to the Hepatology Clinic with mild elevations in levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and aminotransferases. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity, but denies alcohol use and past drug use. On physical examination, he is found to be obese with hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies show negative results for hepatitis and autoimmune liver disease. His aminotransferase, ALP, and autoimmune liver results are provided. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Weight loss

      Explanation:

      Understanding Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease and Treatment Options

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) is a condition characterized by hepatic steatosis in the absence of alcohol or drug misuse. Patients with NAFLD often have other metabolic conditions such as obesity, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Diagnosis involves ruling out other causes of hepatomegaly and demonstrating hepatic steatosis through liver biopsy or radiology. Conservative management with weight loss and control of cardiovascular risk factors is the mainstay of treatment, as there are currently no recommended medications for NAFLD.

      Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive medication used in the management of autoimmune hepatitis. Before starting a patient on azathioprine, TPMT activity should be tested for, as those with low TPMT activity have an increased risk of azathioprine-induced myelosuppression. Liver transplant is indicated for patients with declining hepatic function or liver cirrhosis, which this patient does not have.

      Naltrexone can be used for symptomatic relief of pruritus in patients with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), but this patient has negative antibodies for autoimmune liver disease. Oral steroids are indicated in patients with autoimmune liver disease, which this patient does not have. Overall, understanding the diagnosis and treatment options for NAFLD is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      174.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old male comes to the rheumatology clinic complaining of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male comes to the rheumatology clinic complaining of lower back pain that extends to his buttocks for the past 3 months. He experiences the most discomfort in the morning, but it gets better with physical activity. Sometimes, he wakes up in the early hours of the morning due to the pain. What is the most probable finding in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bamboo spine on plain x-ray

      Correct Answer: Syndesmophytes on plain x-ray

      Explanation:

      Syndesmophytes, which are ossifications of the outer fibers of the annulus fibrosus, are a common feature of ankylosing spondylitis. This patient is exhibiting symptoms of inflammatory joint pain, which is most likely caused by ankylosing spondylitis given his age, gender, and the nature of his pain. Plain x-rays can reveal the presence of ossifications within spinal ligaments or intervertebral discs’ annulus fibrosus. It is incorrect to assume that his symptoms would not improve with naproxen, as NSAIDs are commonly used to alleviate inflammatory joint pain. A bamboo spine on plain x-ray is a rare late sign that is not typically seen in clinical practice. While ankylosing spondylitis may be associated with apical lung fibrosis, this would present as a restrictive defect on spirometry, not an obstructive one.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 49-year-old woman complains of weakness and difficulty breathing. These symptoms have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman complains of weakness and difficulty breathing. These symptoms have been getting worse over the last three months and have now become so severe that she is unable to work. She has no history of any medical conditions.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale. The only notable finding is a strange involuntary movement of her fingers when she closes her eyes. Her blood film shows the presence of multi-lobed neutrophils.

      What clinical feature might be observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Cerebellar symptoms

      Correct Answer: Retinal haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Dorsal Column Signs

      This patient is presenting with megaloblastic anaemia and dorsal column signs, specifically pseudoathetosis due to loss of proprioceptive input from the hands. These symptoms suggest a possible vitamin B12 deficiency, which may also be indicated by the presence of multilobed neutrophils and retinal haemorrhages. While absent ankle jerks and extensor plantar reflex are common in B12 deficiency, cerebellar symptoms and hemiplegia are not typically associated with this condition. Instead, these symptoms may be indicative of multiple sclerosis, which can also present with dorsal column signs. Glossitis or beefy tongue may be present in B12 deficiency, along with other oral features like angular stomatitis or cheilitis in cases of multiple vitamin deficiencies. While retinal haemorrhage is a rare manifestation of B12 deficiency, other rare features may include optic atrophy, generalized hyperpigmentation, and dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A middle-aged woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED), after being found...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED), after being found unconscious in the town centre by members of the police. She is poorly kept, and a police handover reports that she has no fixed abode. She is well known to various members of ED. On arrival in ED, she is still unconscious. Her airway is patent; she is saturating at 94% on room air, with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. She is haemodynamically stable, with a temperature of 35.6 °C and small, constricted pupils. There appears to be an area of minor external bleeding and a scalp haematoma on the back of her head.
      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: 15 litres of high-flow oxygen, non-rebreather mask

      Correct Answer: Naloxone 400 μg intramuscularly (IM)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Priorities for Opioid Overdose: A Case Vignette

      In cases of suspected opioid overdose, the priority is to address respiratory compromise with the administration of naloxone. The British National Formulary recommends an initial dose of 400 μg, with subsequent doses of 800 μg at 1-minute intervals if necessary, and a final dose of 2 mg if there is still no response. Naloxone acts as a non-selective and competitive opioid receptor antagonist, and is a relatively safe drug.

      In the case of an unkempt man with a low respiratory rate and pinpoint pupils, the priority is to administer naloxone. High-flow oxygen is not necessary if the patient is maintaining saturations of 94%. A CT head scan or neurosurgical referral may be necessary in cases of head injury, but in this case, the priority is to address the opioid overdose.

      Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is not the correct choice for opioid overdose. Benzodiazepine overdose presents with CNS depression, ataxia, and slurred speech, but not pupillary constriction. Naloxone is the appropriate antidote for opioid overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      74.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 4-week old infant comes in with excessive vomiting and constipation. The mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week old infant comes in with excessive vomiting and constipation. The mother reports that the baby has vomited several times, but has been content during feedings. The baby appears visibly dehydrated and a small lump is detected in the abdominal area during examination. What arterial blood gas results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Low bicarbonate, hyperchloraemia, hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Elevated bicarbonate, hypochloraemia, hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The typical result of pyloric stenosis is the development of alkalosis with low levels of chloride and potassium.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      123.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/4) 25%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
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