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  • Question 1 - A 9-month-old baby has become unresponsive in the waiting area of the pediatrician's...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old baby has become unresponsive in the waiting area of the pediatrician's office for an unknown cause. Basic life support for infants is started, and chest compressions are administered. What is the appropriate technique for performing chest compressions in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Two-thumb encircling technique

      Explanation:

      For infants aged younger than one, the recommended technique for chest compression during paediatric BLS is the two-thumb encircling technique. Using one hand to compress the lower half of the sternum or two hands to compress the upper half of the sternum are incorrect methods. Additionally, using two hands to compress the lower half of the sternum or the one-thumb encircling technique are not recognised techniques for providing chest compressions in any circumstance.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 13-year-old girl presented with cystic hygroma and significant oedema. At the age...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presented with cystic hygroma and significant oedema. At the age of 27, she had a short stature, a webbed neck and a broad, shield-like chest. She did not develop secondary sexual characteristics at the appropriate age. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Disorders Affecting Sexual Development

      Turner Syndrome, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Klinefelter’s Syndrome, Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome, and 5-α Reductase Deficiency are genetic disorders that affect sexual development.

      Turner Syndrome is a condition where a woman is missing a whole or part of an X chromosome. This can cause delayed puberty, failure to develop normal secondary sexual characteristics, and cardiovascular abnormalities.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. This can cause ambiguous genitalia at birth and symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome in women, and hyperpigmentation in men.

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where men carry an extra X chromosome. This can cause tall stature, hypogonadism, gynaecomastia, and delayed motor and language development.

      Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is a condition where patients with a male karyotype fail to respond to androgen hormones and thus develop female external genitalia and characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.

      5-α Reductase Deficiency is a condition associated with an inability to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, leading to abnormal sexual development and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36...

    Correct

    • During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36 weeks gestation, a very prominent murmur is heard during systole and diastole, with the loudest point being over the left sternal edge. A chest X-Ray reveals massive cardiomegaly, particularly in the right atrium. The mother of the child has bipolar disorder but is otherwise healthy and has no congenital heart problems. There is no significant family history except for a paternal cousin who developed cardiomyopathy in their early twenties. Based on the given information, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone and is later diagnosed with Down's syndrome. Which of the following features is the least probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Sandal gap

      Correct Answer: Rocker-bottom feet

      Explanation:

      Understanding the features of Down’s syndrome is crucial for clinical practice and final examinations. The correct answer to this question is option 4. While rocker-bottom feet are a characteristic of trisomy 18 or Edward’s syndrome, they are not typically observed in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 2-week-old infant is presented to the clinic for evaluation. The baby was...

    Correct

    • A 2-week-old infant is presented to the clinic for evaluation. The baby was delivered at 38 weeks and has been breastfeeding without any issues. The mother reports that the baby seems excessively fatigued. During the assessment, a history is obtained, and some basic observations are documented. What would be an alarming observation?

      Your Answer: Heart rate 90 beats per minute and regular

      Explanation:

      For infants to be considered healthy, their respiratory rate should fall within the range of 30-60 breaths per minute. Additionally, their pulse should be regular and fall between 100-160 beats per minute for newborns. Their body temperature should be around 37 Celsius, and they should have regular bowel movements and urination.

      Child Health Surveillance in the UK

      Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. An ultrasound scan is also performed to detect any fetal abnormalities, and blood tests are done to check for neural tube defects.

      After birth, a clinical examination of the newborn is conducted, and a hearing screening test is performed. The mother is given a Personal Child Health Record, which contains important information about the child’s health. Within the first month, a heel-prick test is done to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks.

      In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is done at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention.

      In preschool, a national orthoptist-led programme for preschool vision screening is set to be introduced. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and attention to promote their health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A newborn delivered 12 hours ago without any complications is showing signs of...

    Correct

    • A newborn delivered 12 hours ago without any complications is showing signs of jaundice. The mother gave birth at home and has been breastfeeding, but is concerned about the baby's skin color. The baby was born at 38 weeks gestation. What is the recommended course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Referral for paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      Since the infant is just 15 hours old, the jaundice is considered pathological. This implies that it is not related to breastfeeding, and the appropriate course of action would be to promptly seek a paediatric evaluation.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 3-month-old infant with Down's syndrome is presented to the GP by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old infant with Down's syndrome is presented to the GP by his parents due to their worry about his occasional episodes of turning blue and rapid breathing, especially when he is upset or in pain. These episodes have caused him to faint twice. The parents also mention that he has a congenital heart defect. What is the likely diagnosis based on this history?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 4-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents as they...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents as they are concerned about a possible heart condition. The baby was born full-term and has had no major health issues except for a mild cold. After examining the child, the consultant paediatrician suspects the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).

      What is a clinical feature that would indicate the presence of a PDA in this infant?

      Your Answer: Right-to-left shunting

      Correct Answer: Wide pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a condition where the ductus arteriosus fails to close, causing a left-to-right shunt of blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery. This can lead to a spectrum of clinical effects, including a continuous murmur, increased pressure in diastole, and widened pulse pressures. Larger PDAs can cause dilation and cardiac failure, and may be associated with prematurity, female infants, congenital rubella syndrome, and Down’s syndrome. PDAs should be closed if detected to prevent complications such as pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - What is the causative agent of roseola in toddlers? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the causative agent of roseola in toddlers?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 6

      Explanation:

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 4-day-old male infant is presenting with progressive abdominal distension. He has not...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-day-old male infant is presenting with progressive abdominal distension. He has not had a bowel movement since birth. Digital rectal examination results in the expulsion of explosive feces. No additional information is obtained from abdominal examination or blood tests.

      What is the conclusive measure for diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sigmoidoscopy with rectal mucosal biopsies

      Correct Answer: Suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that causes functional intestinal obstruction due to the absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon. Diagnosis of this condition requires specific diagnostic procedures. One such procedure is suction-assisted full-thickness rectal biopsies, which demonstrate the lack of ganglion cells in Auerbach’s plexus. Other diagnostic procedures, such as contrast-enhanced CT scans, ultrasound of the hernial orifices, upper GI fluoroscopy studies, and sigmoidoscopy with rectal mucosal biopsies, are not as effective in diagnosing Hirschsprung’s disease. It is important to accurately diagnose this condition to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned refugee who recently arrived in the United Kingdom and has no medical history.

      Her foster parents have brought her to the clinic as they have noticed that she becomes easily breathless on exertion or after a bath and squats down to catch her breath. During these times, they notice that her lips turn blue.

      Upon examination, you find that she is on the 10th centile for height and weight, her lips are slightly dusky, she has good air entry bilaterally in her chest, and she has a normal heart rate at rest with a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge with an associated thrill.

      A chest x-ray reveals decreased vascular markings and a normal-sized heart. Electrocardiography (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation and deep S waves in V5 and V6.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eisenmenger's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a common cyanotic congenital heart condition characterized by four abnormalities. Symptoms are determined by the degree of shunting of deoxygenated blood from right to left, which is influenced by the degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (RVOTO) and other ways blood can get to the lungs. Squatting can relieve cyanotic episodes by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. The child in question has a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge in keeping with the turbulent flow of blood across the stenosed RVOT. Isolated pulmonary stenosis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the history of squatting is highly suggestive of TOF.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother for an asthma review. She was diagnosed with asthma eight months ago. Since then, she has been using a low-dose clenil (beclomethasone 100 μg BD) inhaler and salbutamol inhaler as needed, both inhaled via a spacer. She has been experiencing a nocturnal cough and has been using her salbutamol inhaler 3–4 times per day due to the cold weather, with good results. On examination, there are no signs of respiratory distress, her oxygen saturation is 98%, and her chest is clear.
      What would be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to paediatrician

      Correct Answer: Add montelukast

      Explanation:

      Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old

      When a child under five years old is suspected to have asthma, the diagnosis can be challenging as they cannot perform objective lung function tests. Therefore, a low threshold for referral is recommended if treatment fails to control symptoms.

      The first step in treatment is a trial of a moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) for eight weeks. If symptoms persist, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. However, if the asthma is still poorly controlled, referral to a paediatrician is advised.

      It is not appropriate to change the short-acting beta agonist (SABA) inhaler, but increasing the dose of the ICS should only be done under specialist advice. If the child needs to use a SABA inhaler regularly, the ICS should be stopped for four weeks, and if symptoms recur, the inhaler should be restarted at a low dose.

      In summary, a stepwise approach is recommended for treating suspected asthma in children under five years old, with a low threshold for referral to a specialist if treatment fails to control symptoms.

      Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 6-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her worried father....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her worried father. He reports that she has had a low-grade fever and a runny nose for the past week, and in the last few days, she has been struggling to breathe and making grunting noises. He is concerned because she is not eating well and her diapers are not as wet as usual. Upon examination, you observe chest retractions, wheezing, and bilateral inspiratory crackles.
      What is the most suitable treatment for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Admit for intravenous (IV) antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Admit for supportive treatment

      Explanation:

      The appropriate action for a child with bronchiolitis is to admit them for supportive treatment, as antibiotics are not necessary. This condition is typically caused by RSV and can be managed with supportive care. However, if the child is experiencing severe respiratory distress and a significant reduction in feeding, they should be admitted to the hospital for treatment. Admitting for IV antibiotics would not be appropriate unless pneumonia or another bacterial infection was suspected. Salbutamol nebulisers are not typically effective for bronchiolitis. Discharging the child home with advice or oral antibiotics would not be appropriate if they are showing signs of potentially serious illness.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 14-year-old girl visits the doctor with her father. She has been skipping...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl visits the doctor with her father. She has been skipping dance practice for the past few weeks and avoiding social events. This is unusual for her, as she was previously very active in her dance group and enjoyed spending time with her friends.
      What is the recommended treatment for social anxiety in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Group or individual cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Social Anxiety in Children

      When it comes to treating social anxiety in children, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended approach. It may also be helpful to involve parents or carers in the therapy process, especially for younger children. However, medication such as fluoxetine or sertraline is not advised for children with social anxiety. Mindfulness-based interventions are also not recommended as the initial treatment, as CBT should be prioritized based on the child’s cognitive and emotional maturity. It’s important to note that over-the-counter remedies like St John’s wort should also be avoided. By following these guidelines, children with social anxiety can receive effective treatment and support.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 3-year-old boy was brought to his GP by his mother, who had...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy was brought to his GP by his mother, who had noticed a slight squint in his left eye. During the examination, the GP observed that the red reflex was absent.
      What is the most accurate description of this child's condition?

      Your Answer: The gene associated with this condition is located on chromosome 16

      Correct Answer: There is a significant risk for secondary malignancy in survivors

      Explanation:

      Retinoblastoma: A Rare Eye Cancer with High Survival Rate but Risk of Secondary Malignancy

      Retinoblastoma is a rare type of eye cancer that primarily affects children under the age of 5. It is characterized by an abnormal reflection in the pupil, appearing white instead of red, known as leucocoria. Most cases are caused by mutations in the retinoblastoma 1 (RB1) gene, located on chromosome 13, with one-third of cases being inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Surgical removal of the tumor, usually through enucleation, is the standard treatment, and the 5-year survival rate is almost 100% if diagnosed and treated promptly.

      However, survivors of retinoblastoma are at risk of developing secondary non-ocular tumors, including malignant melanoma, sarcoma, brain tumors, leukemia, and osteosarcoma. Therefore, regular monitoring throughout life is necessary. Most cases are diagnosed before the age of 5, with 90% of cases being diagnosed before the child’s fifth birthday. It is important to note that retinoblastoma is not a recessive condition, and the RB1 gene is located on chromosome 13, not 16.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 5-year-old boy has been brought in by his worried mother. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy has been brought in by his worried mother. She reports that he is a typical boy, but he has been experiencing difficulty walking and falls frequently. He started walking at 15 months old, and she has observed that he requires assistance getting up from a seated position. Apart from that, he is comparable to his classmates in school and has progressed normally. During the examination, he displays proximal weakness, but his distal muscle strength is intact.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy from Other Neuromuscular Disorders

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects boys and is characterized by progressive muscle weakness. It is important to differentiate DMD from other neuromuscular disorders to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) and progressive muscular atrophy are two conditions that affect the lower motor neurons but are not characterized by proximal weakness, which is a hallmark of DMD. Global developmental delay, on the other hand, is characterized by intellectual and communication limitations, delayed milestones, and motor skill delays, but not proximal weakness.

      Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is another neuromuscular disorder that can be confused with DMD. However, SMA has four types, each with distinct clinical presentations. The scenario described in the prompt does not fit with any of the four types of SMA.

      In summary, understanding the unique clinical features of DMD and differentiating it from other neuromuscular disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 16-month-old boy has been diagnosed with roseola infantum. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old boy has been diagnosed with roseola infantum. What is the most frequent complication associated with this illness?

      Your Answer: Orchitis

      Correct Answer: Febrile convulsions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - What is the most suitable method to confirm a diagnosis of pertussis in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable method to confirm a diagnosis of pertussis in children?

      Your Answer: Throat swab

      Correct Answer: Per nasal swab

      Explanation:

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - You are working at a Saturday morning clinic and a mother brings in...

    Correct

    • You are working at a Saturday morning clinic and a mother brings in her 10-year-old daughter who has developed new pustular, honey-coloured crusted lesions over her chin. She is systemically well with all observations in the normal range and no evidence of lymphadenopathy on examination. She has no allergies to any medications and is normally fit and well.
      You diagnose localised non-bullous impetigo.
      The daughter is due to go on a school trip to the Natural History Museum in London the following day and is extremely excited about this. The mother asks if she is allowed to go on this school trip.
      What is your management plan?

      Your Answer: Prescribe topical hydrogen peroxide 1% cream and advise them that the child should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed

      Explanation:

      Referral or admission is not necessary for this straightforward primary care case, which can be treated with topical antibiotics (with the addition of oral antibiotics containing fusidic acid if resistance is suspected or confirmed). However, it is important to advise the patient that they should not return to school or attend their school trip until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment or until the lesions have crusted and healed.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenzae requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 7-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting, blood in stools, and irritability. During the physical examination, the baby's abdomen is found to be tense, and he draws his knees up in response to palpation.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for this baby?

      Your Answer: Abdominal x ray

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgeons

      Explanation:

      Intussusception in Children: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the intestine slides into another part, causing a blockage. Children with this condition may experience severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. If left untreated, intussusception can lead to bowel perforation, sepsis, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to diagnose and treat this condition promptly.

      When a child presents with symptoms of intussusception, the most appropriate course of action is to refer them immediately to a paediatric surgical unit. There, doctors will attempt to relieve the intussusception through air reduction, which involves pumping air into the intestine to push the telescoped section back into place. If this method fails, surgery may be necessary to correct the blockage.

      Several risk factors can increase a child’s likelihood of developing intussusception, including viral infections and intestinal lymphadenopathy. Therefore, parents should seek medical attention if their child experiences any symptoms of this condition. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, most children with intussusception can make a full recovery.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 4-week old infant comes in with excessive vomiting and constipation. The mother...

    Correct

    • A 4-week old infant comes in with excessive vomiting and constipation. The mother reports that the baby has vomited several times, but has been content during feedings. The baby appears visibly dehydrated and a small lump is detected in the abdominal area during examination. What arterial blood gas results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Elevated bicarbonate, hypochloraemia, hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The typical result of pyloric stenosis is the development of alkalosis with low levels of chloride and potassium.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis?

      Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage

      Explanation:

      Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection

      Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is a condition that causes cyanosis in newborns. It is characterized by an abnormality in blood flow where all four pulmonary veins drain into systemic veins or the right atrium, with or without pulmonary venous obstruction. This results in the mixing of systemic and pulmonary venous blood in the right atrium.

      In contrast, conditions such as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), atrial septal defect (ASD), and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are left to right shunts. Tricuspid atresia is another condition that is typically associated with cyanosis, but mitral regurgitation is not.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions and their effects on blood flow in order to properly diagnose and treat them. Further reading on TAPVC can be found on Medscape.

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  • Question 23 - A 3-year-old girl is presented to the clinic by her mother complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is presented to the clinic by her mother complaining of ear pain and fever. During the examination of the chest, a murmur is detected. Which of the following features is not in line with an innocent murmur?

      Your Answer: Varies with posture

      Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.

      An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.

      Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 6-week-old infant is experiencing projectile vomiting after feeds and is always hungry...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old infant is experiencing projectile vomiting after feeds and is always hungry despite vomiting. What is the most effective approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Pyloromyotomy

      Explanation:

      Medical Procedures and Interventions for Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

      Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that affects male infants more commonly than females, with an incidence of 1-4 per 1000 infants. It presents with projectile, non-bilious vomiting at 4-8 weeks of age, and a palpable pyloric mass in the right upper quadrant in up to 80% of patients. This condition occurs due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pylorus, leading to gastric outlet obstruction and subsequent vomiting. Diagnosis is made via ultrasound, with a hypertrophied muscle having a target lesion appearance and muscle thickness of >3 mm considered abnormal.

      The standard treatment for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, where an incision is made into the pyloric muscle down to the mucosa, which is left intact. This procedure is safe, with a low rate of complications such as gastroenteritis, wound infection, peritonitis, mucosal perforation, and residual stenosis.

      Other interventions for related conditions include positioning the infant in the 30-degree head-up prone position after feeds to reduce gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms, a Billroth-1 operation where the pylorus of the stomach is resected and an anastomosis is formed between the proximal stomach and duodenum, a Negus hydrostatic bag used in oesophageal achalasia to dilate the narrowed oesophagus and overcome the achalasia, and thickening of feeds to reduce symptoms related to gastro-oesophageal reflux.

      In conclusion, infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and related conditions can be effectively treated with various medical procedures and interventions.

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  • Question 25 - As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2...

    Correct

    • As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2 weeks vaginally and without any complications. The parents of the child have a concern that their child might have achondroplasia as the child's father has been diagnosed with this condition. Apart from measuring the child's length, what other physical characteristic should you look for to determine if the child has achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: Trident hand deformity

      Explanation:

      Identifying physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for exam purposes and diagnosis. One such feature of achondroplasia is trident hands, characterized by short, stubby fingers with a gap between the middle and ring fingers. Other physical features include short limbs (rhizomelia), lumbar lordosis, and midface hypoplasia. Fragile X syndrome is associated with low set ears, while Down’s syndrome is characterized by saddle-gap deformity and a single palmar crease. It is important to note that achondroplasia is characterized by macrocephaly with frontal bossing, not microcephaly.

      Understanding Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.

      In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.

      Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.

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  • Question 26 - A child is admitted to the hospital and during a neonatal examination, a...

    Correct

    • A child is admitted to the hospital and during a neonatal examination, a systolic heart murmur is detected. Upon further testing with an echocardiogram, it is revealed that the right atrium is hypertrophied and the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve are attached to the right ventricle. What is the commonly used name for this condition?

      Your Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects some patients and is caused by an additional electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles, leading to an irregular heart rate. If a mother takes lithium during the first trimester of pregnancy, it increases the risk of her child developing Ebstein’s anomaly.

      Understanding Ebstein’s Anomaly

      Ebstein’s anomaly is a type of congenital heart defect that is characterized by the tricuspid valve being inserted too low, resulting in a large atrium and a small ventricle. This condition is also known as the atrialization of the right ventricle. It is believed that exposure to lithium during pregnancy may cause this condition.

      Ebstein’s anomaly is often associated with a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or atrial septal defect (ASD), which causes a shunt between the right and left atria. Additionally, patients with this condition may also have Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome.

      The clinical features of Ebstein’s anomaly include cyanosis, a prominent a wave in the distended jugular venous pulse, hepatomegaly, tricuspid regurgitation, and a pansystolic murmur that is worse on inspiration. Patients may also have a right bundle branch block, which can lead to widely split S1 and S2 heart sounds.

      In summary, Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve and can cause a range of symptoms. It is often associated with other conditions such as PFO or ASD and can be diagnosed through clinical examination and imaging tests.

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  • Question 27 - A 4-year-old patient presents with recurrent chest infections and green sputum production. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old patient presents with recurrent chest infections and green sputum production. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals ring shadows and bronchial wall thickening in both lung bases. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Chest Infections and Bronchiectasis: A Possible Sign of Cystic Fibrosis

      Patients who have a history of recurrent chest infections and x-ray appearances that suggest bronchiectasis may be showing signs of cystic fibrosis. Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways in the lungs become damaged and widened, leading to a build-up of mucous and bacteria. This can cause recurrent chest infections, which can be difficult to treat. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that affects the production of mucous, leading to thick and sticky secretions that can block the airways and cause infections.

      If a patient is showing signs of bronchiectasis, it is important to consider cystic fibrosis as a possible cause. Early diagnosis and treatment of cystic fibrosis can help to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Testing for cystic fibrosis may involve a sweat test, genetic testing, or other diagnostic tests. Treatment may include medications to help clear mucous from the airways, antibiotics to treat infections, and other therapies to manage symptoms.

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  • Question 28 - When do most children begin to say mama and dada? Is there a...

    Incorrect

    • When do most children begin to say mama and dada? Is there a typical age range for this milestone?

      Your Answer: 13-14 months

      Correct Answer: 9-10 months

      Explanation:

      Developmental milestones for speech and hearing are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s progress and identify any potential issues early on. At three months, a baby should be able to quieten to their parents’ voice and turn towards sound. They may also start to squeal. By six months, they should be able to produce double syllables like adah and erleh. At nine months, they may say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they should know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.

      Between 12 and 15 months, a child may know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they should be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. Their vocabulary should be around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old. At three years old, they should be able to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They may also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they may start asking why, when, and how questions. These milestones are important to keep in mind as a child grows and develops their speech and hearing abilities.

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  • Question 29 - Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who was admitted with a fever and disseminated...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who was admitted with a fever and disseminated rash. She had not been previously vaccinated and was in contact with her 2-year-old cousin who had developed a fever and disseminated blisters and vesicles containing clear fluid. After 2 weeks, she began to have a fever and flu-like symptoms. Similar clear-fluid filled vesicles and blisters developed 3 days later and she was admitted for further observation.

      After 3 days of observation, Sarah noticed that one of the lesions on her thigh appeared to be red and becoming hot to touch. An area of skin approximately 3x3cm was erythematosus. The skin was marked and she was commenced on IV flucloxacillin. Over the coming 12 hours, the erythema around this lesion continued to spread. The pain around her leg increased in intensity, requiring morphine to take the edge off the pain. A blueish discolouration began to develop around the rash.

      What is the likely organism that has caused the complication?

      Your Answer: β- haemolytic Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox and Necrotizing Fasciitis

      Chickenpox can increase the risk of developing invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections, including necrotizing fasciitis. Symptoms of chickenpox include the development of fevers, blisters, and vesicles, which can be milder in children but cause significant morbidity in adults. If a rapidly evolving rash with significant pain out of proportion to the rash is observed, along with blueish discoloration of the skin, it could be indicative of necrotizing fasciitis. In such cases, immediate surgical review should be sought.

      Invasive group A Streptococcus is a β-haemolytic Streptococcus that is often the cause of necrotizing fasciitis in patients with chickenpox. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are initially used, with the choices tailored to bacterial sensitivities when known. Staphylococcus aureus can also cause necrotizing fasciitis, but it is more commonly associated with patients who have other underlying medical conditions like diabetes. Enterococcus faecalis is not known to cause skin infections and is often associated with infections like endocarditis. Streptococcus bovis is a gamma-haemolytic Streptococcus that is most often associated with colorectal cancer-associated endocarditis and is not associated with skin infections. Clostridium perfringens can cause necrotizing fasciitis and presents as gas gangrene, which is characterized by crepitus under the skin, a symptom not seen in chickenpox-related necrotizing fasciitis.

      Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.

      Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia

      Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.

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  • Question 30 - A 3-month-old infant is brought in with progressive noisy breathing that is particularly...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old infant is brought in with progressive noisy breathing that is particularly noticeable during feeding. The baby is below average in weight gain and has a poor appetite. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenotonsillar hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      The primary reason for stridor in infants is laryngomalacia, which is characterized by a soft epiglottis that collapses into the airway during inhalation. Although it typically resolves on its own, if the stridor worsens and causes respiratory distress or hinders feeding, surgery may be necessary to enhance the airway.

      Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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