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Question 1
Correct
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You are consulting with a 30-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a committed relationship for 3 years, but this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.
Before providing advice, you proceed to gather a complete psychosexual history. What information from the following list would indicate a physical rather than psychological origin for his condition?Your Answer: A normal libido
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, or mixed, and can also be caused by certain medications. Symptoms that suggest a psychogenic cause include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, problems or changes in a relationship, major life events, and psychological problems. On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause include a gradual onset, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history (cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological), operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs recognized as associated with ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.
For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old swimwear model is hesitant to start a newly prescribed medication due to concerns about potential side-effects. Specifically, she is worried about staining of the teeth, which she read about in the patient information leaflet. As a model, she is worried that this side-effect could impact her work. Which antibiotic is known to cause staining of the teeth?
Your Answer: Carbimazole
Correct Answer: Tetracycline
Explanation:Common Side-Effects of Antibiotics and Anticonvulsants
Antibiotics and anticonvulsants are commonly prescribed medications that can have side-effects. Here are some of the most common side-effects associated with these drugs:
Tetracycline: This antibiotic can cause staining of the teeth, pancreatitis, and benign intracranial hypertension. It should be avoided in younger patients, and patients should be warned about photosensitivity.
Phenytoin: This anticonvulsant can cause gingival hyperplasia, gingivitis, and tooth decay.
Carbimazole: The most common side-effects of this antithyroid medication are haematological, though these are rare.
Azithromycin: This macrolide antibiotic can cause nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort.
Gentamicin: This antibiotic is known for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with worsening perimenopause symptoms. Her periods have become irregular over the past year, and she is experiencing low mood, night sweats, and hot flashes. The patient is interested in treatment options but is worried about the potential risk of breast cancer. Which of the following choices is most likely to increase her risk of developing breast cancer?
Your Answer: Oestrogen only HRT
Correct Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
Explanation:The addition of progesterone to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been found to raise the risk of breast cancer. It is worth noting that taking low doses of progesterone alone, without oestrogen, does not seem to have the same effect on breast cancer risk. If used for less than 10 years, oestrogen-only HRT does not appear to increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer. However, it does increase the risk of endometrial cancer and should be avoided unless the patient has had a hysterectomy.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is seen on the ward round, 5 days after a radical cystectomy and ileal conduit formation surgery for bladder cancer. The patient complains of abdominal bloating and has vomited twice. Upon examination, the patient's abdomen is distended, without signs of flank bruising. The wound dressings are dry, and the stoma appears healthy with good urine output. The patient's observations are within normal limits. Laboratory results show a hemoglobin level of 138 g/L (male: 135-180; female: 115-160), platelets of 380 * 109/L (150-400), a white blood cell count of 18.9 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), and a CRP level of 122 mg/L (<5). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Surgical site infection
Correct Answer: Ileus
Explanation:A 64-year-old man who recently underwent radical cystectomy and ileal conduit formation surgery is experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting. The most probable diagnosis is post-operative ileus, which is a complication of bowel surgery that causes a temporary reduction in intestinal muscle activity, resulting in stasis. The patient’s blood tests show elevated white cells and CRP, which is typical after surgery. Anastomotic leak is a possible differential diagnosis, but the patient’s distended abdomen and normal clinical observations make it less likely than ileus. Bladder distension is not a possible diagnosis since the patient no longer has a bladder. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage is another potential postoperative complication, but it is not described in this scenario, which only mentions abdominal pain, reduced hemoglobin, and bruising on the abdomen as symptoms.
Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.
The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to his doctor with a lump on the back of his right arm that has been getting bigger for the past three months. Recently, the lump has become very painful. The doctor orders a shoulder X-ray, which shows a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right humerus with an 'onion skin' appearance. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Correct Answer: Ewing's sarcoma
Explanation:The correct diagnosis is Ewing’s sarcoma, which is a malignant bone tumour that primarily affects children and adolescents. It is commonly found in the pelvis and long bones and can cause severe pain. X-rays may show an onion skin appearance. Fine-needle aspiration may be performed, and the presence of EWS-FLI1 protein is a key finding in cases of Ewing’s sarcoma.
Chondrosarcoma is an incorrect diagnosis as it is a malignant tumour of cartilage that typically affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-aged individuals.
Giant cell tumour is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is a benign tumour of multinucleated giant cells that is commonly found in the epiphysis of long bones and has a double-bubble or soap bubble appearance on x-ray. It is more commonly seen in patients aged 20-40 years old.
Osteochondroma is another incorrect diagnosis as it is the most common benign bone tumour and typically presents as a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. It is most commonly found in males under 20 years old and is therefore unlikely given the presentation.
Types of Bone Tumours
Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.
Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types
Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.
In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.
While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male comes to your clinic complaining of knee pain. He reports experiencing severe pain in his left knee for the past 5 days, and he describes the joint as feeling very warm. During the examination, you observe redness and swelling of the affected joint. Aspiration of the knee does not show any signs of septic arthritis, but it does reveal deposits of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals.
What is a risk factor for this condition?Your Answer: Hyperuricemia
Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Pseudogout is likely in this patient, and their medical history suggests that they may be at risk due to hyperparathyroidism. This condition can cause a monoarthropathy that affects large joints, with accompanying swelling and erythema. Diagnosis can be confirmed through aspiration of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals. The increased levels of serum calcium resulting from excess parathyroid hormone make hyperparathyroidism a risk factor for pseudogout.
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of weight loss, fatigue, heart palpitations, excessive sweating, and a lump in her throat that has been present for 2 months. After conducting tests, the doctor discovers a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Carbimazole
Explanation:Treatment Options for Thyroid Disorders: Carbimazole, Thyroxine, Carbamazepine, Surgery, and Radionuclide Iodine
Thyroid disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and require different treatment options depending on the diagnosis. Primary hyperthyroidism, caused by a disorder of the thyroid gland itself, is confirmed with raised serum levels of fT3/fT4 and a suppressed/reduced TSH. Symptoms include sweating, weight loss, palpitations, a goitre, hyperactivity, insomnia, emotional lability, reduced libido, heat intolerance, diarrhoea, increased appetite and menstrual irregularities. First-line treatment is with a thionamide such as carbimazole, which inhibits the thyroid peroxidase enzyme involved in the production and release of thyroid hormones. However, carbimazole is associated with serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, angioedema, lymphadenopathy, hepatic disorders and acute pancreatitis.
Thyroxine is prescribed for patients with hypothyroidism, in which case the TSH would be raised and the T3/T4 hormones low. Symptoms of hypothyroidism include weight gain, constipation, oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea, cold intolerance, tiredness, depression, brittle hair and nails, as well as muscle weakness. Thyroxine is contraindicated in patients with hyperthyroidism as it worsens their symptoms and might precipitate a thyroid storm.
Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication used in the treatment of epilepsy. It is a sodium channel blocker that prevents sodium binding and repetitive firing of action potentials. However, one of the most serious side effects associated with the use of carbamazepine is Stevens–Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. It can be licensed for use in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy and treatment of patients with bipolar disorder that is resistant to lithium.
Surgery is not first line for hyperthyroidism unless there is compression or compromise of the airway, medication has failed to control symptoms, or there is a concurrent suspicious or malignant thyroid nodule. Thyroidectomy has complications such as hypocalcaemia due to the removal of the parathyroid glands, vocal cord paralysis and hypothyroidism. Following a thyroidectomy, the patient will need to go on lifelong thyroid replacement therapy.
Radionu
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain. He admits to snorting 'a large amount' of cocaine in the past few hours. What is the most likely feature that his cocaine use will cause?
Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Hyperthermia
Explanation:Understanding Cocaine Toxicity
Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.
Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.
Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.
In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who is a law student has severe anxiety about public speaking and in informal social settings. She avoids situations where she might have to enter into conversations with strangers. She reports that she thinks others are frustrated by her inability in casual social interactions and that she ‘feels stupid and awkward’. Her social problems are also affecting her academic performance. She is considering leaving university for a less stressful environment.
Which is the most appropriate form of psychotherapy for this woman?Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Choosing the Right Treatment for Social Phobia: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
Social phobia is a type of anxiety disorder that can cause panic and avoidance of social situations. For patients with this condition, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is often the best treatment option. CBT can help patients identify and change negative thought patterns that contribute to their anxiety, and it often includes exposure therapy as a component.
Other treatment options, such as vocational counselling or psychoanalytic psychotherapy, may not be as effective for social phobia. Suggesting these options could reinforce the patient’s belief that their symptoms cannot be treated therapeutically. Network therapy is designed for substance abusers, and self-help groups may be helpful for some patients, but only if they can manage their anxiety enough to participate effectively.
In summary, for patients with social phobia, cognitive behavioural therapy is the most effective treatment option. It can help patients overcome their anxiety and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, loss of appetite, and weight gain. Her blood work shows low levels of free T3 and T4, as well as low levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Even after receiving thyrotrophin releasing hormone, her TSH levels remain low. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormones. There are three types of hypothyroidism: primary, secondary, and tertiary.
Primary hypothyroidism is caused by a malfunctioning thyroid gland, often due to autoimmune thyroiditis or burnt out Grave’s disease. In this type, TRH and TSH levels are elevated, but T3 and T4 levels are low.
Secondary hypothyroidism occurs when the anterior pituitary gland fails to produce enough TSH, despite adequate TRH levels. This results in low levels of TSH, T3, and T4, even after a TRH stimulation test.
Tertiary hypothyroidism is rare and occurs when the hypothalamus fails to produce enough TRH. All three hormones are inappropriately low in this type.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a form of autoimmune thyroid disease characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid. It is a form of primary hypothyroidism.
De Quervain’s thyroiditis is a subacute thyroiditis, usually viral, which causes a transient period of primary hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism in addition to a tender thyroid.
Understanding the different types of hypothyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic for follow-up. He has chronic cardiomyopathy with heart failure and is on a medication regimen of furosemide, spironolactone, ramipril, carvedilol, and digoxin. He is currently stable with a blood pressure reading of 120/75 mmHg, no signs of cardiac failure, and an exercise tolerance of 250 m. However, he reports experiencing breast tenderness. Which medication is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Medications and Breast Tenderness: Understanding the Causes
Breast tenderness is a common side effect of some medications. One such medication is spironolactone, even at low doses. However, patients should continue taking spironolactone if they can tolerate the side effect, as it is the only diuretic that has been proven to have a positive effect on cardiac outcomes in patients with moderate to severe cardiac failure. If they cannot tolerate spironolactone, alternatives such as amiloride or eplerenone may be considered. Digoxin can also cause breast tenderness, but the incidence is lower compared to spironolactone. Furosemide is unlikely to cause breast tenderness, while ramipril and carvedilol are not known to cause this side effect. It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 38-year-old female who was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a car accident two years ago. Similar to Steven, Sarah has been experiencing difficulty with sleep since the accident. She frequently wakes up in the middle of the night due to nightmares and struggles to fall back asleep. This has been affecting her daily life as she no longer has the energy to keep up with her young children.
Sarah has undergone several sessions of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), but unfortunately, she has not seen any significant improvement in her symptoms.
What would be the appropriate medication to manage Sarah's condition?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:If CBT or EMDR therapy prove ineffective in treating PTSD, the recommended first-line drug treatments are venlafaxine or a SSRI. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline may also be used under the supervision of a mental health specialist, but they are not currently part of NICE guidance. Diazepam and zopiclone are only recommended for short-term management of severe symptoms or acute exacerbations of insomnia, and do not address the underlying cause of PTSD. Risperidone may be considered for patients with disabling symptoms or behaviors that have not responded to other treatments.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks after a myocardial infarction that was treated with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for a proximal left anterior descending artery occlusion. On examination, he has a loud friction rub over the praecordium, bilateral pleural effusions on chest x-ray, and ST elevation on ECG. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Congestive heart failure
Correct Answer: Dressler's syndrome
Explanation:Dressler’s Syndrome
Dressler’s syndrome is a type of pericarditis that typically develops between two to six weeks after a person has experienced an anterior myocardial infarction or undergone heart surgery. This condition is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response to myocardial antigens. In simpler terms, the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the heart tissue, leading to inflammation of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.
The symptoms of Dressler’s syndrome can vary from person to person, but they often include chest pain, fever, fatigue, and shortness of breath. In some cases, patients may also experience a cough, abdominal pain, or joint pain. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to reduce inflammation and manage pain. In severe cases, corticosteroids may be prescribed to help suppress the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma. He makes a full recovery and is discharged home. Twelve weeks postoperatively the general practitioner performs a full blood count with a blood film. What is the most probable finding?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies
Explanation:After a splenectomy, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, target cells, and irregular contracted erythrocytes due to the absence of the spleen’s filtration function.
Blood Film Changes after Splenectomy
After undergoing splenectomy, the body loses its ability to remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from circulation. This results in the appearance of cytoplasmic inclusions such as Howell-Jolly bodies, although the red cell count remains relatively unchanged. In the first few days following the procedure, target cells, siderocytes, and reticulocytes may be observed in the bloodstream. Additionally, agranulocytosis composed mainly of neutrophils is seen immediately after the operation, which is later replaced by a lymphocytosis and monocytosis over the following weeks. The platelet count is typically increased and may persist, necessitating the use of oral antiplatelet agents in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 16
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman has undergone a radical hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for endometrial carcinoma. She is attending her follow-up clinic to receive her results, and the consultant reports that the tumour was found to involve the right fallopian tube and ovary, but the vagina and parametrial tissue were free of tumour. All nodes submitted were negative for carcinoma. No distant metastases were present. According to the above description, how would you stage the tumour using the TNM 8 classification?
Your Answer: T3a N0 M0
Explanation:Stages of Endometrial Carcinoma: TNM Classification Explained
Endometrial carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. The TNM classification system is used to describe the extent of the cancer and guide treatment decisions. Here are some common stages of endometrial carcinoma:
T3a N0 M0: This stage describes endometrial carcinoma that involves the uterine serosa or adnexae, but has not spread to lymph nodes or other organs.
T3b N0 M0: This stage describes endometrial carcinoma that involves the vagina or parametrial tissues, but has not spread to lymph nodes or other organs.
T1a N0 M0: This stage describes endometrial carcinoma that is confined to the endometrium or has invaded less than half of the myometrium, without lymph node or distal metastases.
T1b N0 M0: This stage describes endometrial carcinoma that is confined to the uterus but has invaded more than half of the myometrium, without lymph node or distal metastases.
T2 N0 M0: This stage describes endometrial carcinoma that involves the cervix but has not spread beyond the uterus, without lymph node or distal metastases.
Understanding the stage of endometrial carcinoma is important for determining the best treatment options and predicting outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which organism causing bacteraemia/sepsis necessitates the combined use of penicillin and an aminoglycoside for effective treatment?
Your Answer: Enterococcus faecalis
Correct Answer: Bacteroides fragilis
Explanation:Antibiotic Treatment for Common Bacterial Infections
Bacterial infections can be treated with antibiotics, but different types of bacteria require different antibiotics for effective treatment. Bacteroides fragilis, for example, requires a combination of penicillin and gentamicin to be adequately treated. On the other hand, Streptococcus pneumoniae can be treated with penicillin alone. Staphylococcus aureus, which can be resistant to certain antibiotics, is treated with flucloxacillin or vancomycin for resistant strains. Similarly, Enterococcus can be treated with a penicillin or vancomycin if it is resistant.
It is important to note that the appropriate antibiotic treatment for a bacterial infection should be determined by a healthcare professional. Taking the wrong antibiotic or not completing a full course of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance, which can make future infections more difficult to treat. Additionally, some antibiotics may have side effects or interact with other medications, so it is important to follow the instructions of a healthcare professional when taking antibiotics. By using antibiotics appropriately, we can effectively treat bacterial infections and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman undergoes a smear test, which reveals an ulcerated lesion on her cervix. The lesion was confirmed to be squamous cell carcinoma.
With which virus is this patient most likely infected?Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Explanation:Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix is often caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly strains 16 and 18. HPV infects the host and interferes with genes that regulate cell growth, leading to uncontrolled growth and inhibition of apoptosis. This results in precancerous lesions that can progress to carcinoma. Risk factors for cervical carcinoma include smoking, low socio-economic status, use of the contraceptive pill, early sexual activity, co-infection with HIV, and a family history of cervical carcinoma. HIV is not the cause of cervical squamous cell carcinoma, but co-infection with HIV increases the risk of HPV infection. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with other types of cancer, but not cervical squamous cell carcinoma. Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium associated with genitourinary infections, while herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes painful ulceration of the genital tract but is not associated with cervical carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 9-month old to her General Practitioner (GP) worried about a raised red mark on the baby's cheek. The mark is now 7 mm in diameter, has a smooth outline, and is a regular circular shape with consistent color all over. It appeared about four months ago and has been gradually increasing in size. The baby was born at full term via normal vaginal delivery and has been generally healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Capillary malformation (port wine stain)
Correct Answer: Infantile haemangioma (strawberry mark)
Explanation:Types of Birthmarks in Children: Characteristics and Considerations
Birthmarks are common in children and can vary in appearance and location on the body. Understanding the characteristics of different types of birthmarks can help parents and healthcare providers determine if further evaluation or treatment is necessary.
Infantile haemangiomas, also known as strawberry marks, are raised and red in color. They typically grow for the first six months of life and then shrink, disappearing by age 7. Treatment is usually not necessary unless they affect vision or feeding.
Café-au-lait spots are flat, coffee-colored patches on the skin. While one or two are common, more than six by age 5 may indicate neurofibromatosis.
Capillary malformations, or port wine stains, are dark red or purple and not raised. They tend to affect the face, chest, or back and may increase in size during puberty, pregnancy, or menopause.
Malignant melanoma is rare in children but should be considered if a lesion exhibits the ABCD rules.
Salmon patches, or stork marks, are flat and red or pink and commonly occur on the forehead, eyelids, or neck. They typically fade after a few months.
By understanding the characteristics and considerations of different types of birthmarks, parents and healthcare providers can ensure appropriate evaluation and treatment if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) after being discovered unconscious in his apartment by his girlfriend. The patient had phoned his girlfriend to inform her that he had consumed a significant amount of different tablets but now regrets doing so. The type of tablets ingested is unknown.
Which of the following toxic drugs is correctly matched with its antidote?Your Answer: Digoxin and calcium
Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol and fomepizole
Explanation:Antidotes for Common Drug Overdoses
In cases of drug overdose, specific antidotes can be administered to counteract the toxic effects of the drug. Here are some examples:
Ethylene glycol and fomepizole: Fomepizole is the preferred treatment for ethylene glycol and methanol poisoning. Ethylene glycol is broken down by alcohol dehydrogenase, but if this enzyme is overwhelmed, toxic metabolites can form. Fomepizole blocks alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing the formation of toxic metabolites.
Paracetamol and bicarbonate: N-Acetylcysteine is used to treat paracetamol overdose, while sodium bicarbonate is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose.
Benzodiazepines and naloxone: Naloxone is the antidote for opiate overdose, while flumazenil can reverse the effects of benzodiazepines.
Digoxin and calcium: Digoxin antibodies (Digibind®) can be used in severe cases of digoxin overdose.
Beta-blockers and adrenaline: Glucagon and cardiac pacing are used to treat beta-blocker overdose.
Knowing the appropriate antidote for a specific drug overdose can be life-saving. It is important to seek medical attention immediately in cases of suspected overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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