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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old individual with a long-standing history of bipolar disorder has been an...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old individual with a long-standing history of bipolar disorder has been an inpatient on an acute admission ward for four months detained under section 2 of the Mental Health Act. Their manic episodes have subsided to their chronic baseline level. Periods of escorted leave have been associated with substance misuse and impulsive behavior including shoplifting and suspected vandalism. What would be the most suitable course of action for their treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Transfer to addictions inpatient unit

      Correct Answer: Transfer to rehabilitation unit

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s improved psychotic symptoms, an extended stay in an acute ward would not be beneficial. However, due to ongoing substance misuse and challenging behaviors, discharge from the hospital is not yet possible. While an addictions admission of transfer to a forensic ward is not necessary, a rehabilitation psychiatry ward would be the most appropriate next step. This would provide the patient with the necessary support to address their substance misuse and challenging behaviors, while also promoting their skills and independence for a successful return to community living.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - For which condition is AChE-I considered an appropriate initial treatment option? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition is AChE-I considered an appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine

      Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.

      NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.

      The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.

      In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'transitional object'? ...

    Correct

    • Who is credited with introducing the idea of the 'transitional object'?

      Your Answer: Winnicott

      Explanation:

      Winnicott: An Overview

      Donald Winnicott, a British paediatrician and psychotherapist, is known for his contributions to the field of child development and psychoanalysis. He introduced several concepts that are still relevant today.

      Good Enough Mother: Winnicott emphasised the importance of being a good enough mother rather than a perfect one. He believed that children needed someone who would attend to them but not immediately so that they could learn to tolerate frustration.

      Holding Environment: This refers to the psychic and physical space between the mother and infant that ensures the mother is there for the child when needed but allows them to explore independently when ready.

      Transitional Object: Winnicott talked about the two separate realities for a child, the ‘me’ and the ‘not me’. The transitional object is one that represents another (e.g. Mother) and is regarded as the first ‘not me’ possession.

      False Self: Winnicott described the situation of ‘not good-enough mothering’ as one in which the mother (consciously of unconsciously) is unable to respond adequately to her infant’s spontaneous behaviour (true self), but tends to impose her own wishes and desires (e.g. for an ‘ideal’ child). This may lead the infant to an adaptation on the basis of ’compliance’ (false self) and later, in adulthood, to the loss of a sense of personal autonomy and integrity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year old woman is brought to the outpatient clinic by her sister...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old woman is brought to the outpatient clinic by her sister who is concerned about her. She reports concern that she has no friends and that even her contact with her family is minimal and superficial. She reports that she has been this way all her life. She is concerned that this is now affecting her ability to work and leave home.
      The woman engages to a limited extent with the interview. She explains that she does not enjoy social contact and avoids socialising where possible, this also includes avoiding the workplace in view of the social demands. She is avoidant of eye contact but is able to maintain reasonable reciprocal conversation. There is no evidence of restrictive of repetitive behaviours.
      You note on interview that she appears aloof and lacking in any emotional expression.
      Which ICD-11 condition is most likely to be present according to this history and assessment?

      Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Personality disorder with detachment

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that there is no indication of impaired reciprocal interaction of restrictive/repetitive behaviors, which would not support a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder. Additionally, Asperger’s and infantile autism are no longer recognized as diagnoses in the ICD-11. Based on the presented case, it appears that the individual may have a personality disorder with detachment, which requires evidence of long standing interpersonal dysfunction and social/emotional distance. It is important to note that while this may share similarities with avoidant personality disorder in the DSM-5, it is not the same diagnosis.

      Personality Disorder: Avoidant

      Avoidant Personality Disorder (AVPD) is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. According to the DSM-5, individuals with AVPD exhibit at least four of the following symptoms: avoidance of occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, unwillingness to be involved unless certain of being liked, restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with being criticized of rejected in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as inept and inferior to others, and reluctance to take personal risks of engage in new activities due to potential embarrassment.

      In contrast, the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for AVPD but instead uses the qualifier of detachment trait. The Detachment trait domain is characterized by a tendency to maintain interpersonal and emotional distance. Common manifestations of Detachment include social detachment (avoidance of social interactions, lack of friendships, and avoidance of intimacy) and emotional detachment (reserve, aloofness, and limited emotional expression and experience). It is important to note that not all individuals with Detachment will exhibit all of these symptoms at all times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most suitable significance test to examine the potential association between...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable significance test to examine the potential association between serum level and degree of sedation in patients who are prescribed clozapine, where sedation is measured on a scale of 1-10?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Logistic regression

      Explanation:

      This scenario involves examining the correlation between two variables: the sedation scale (which is ordinal) and the serum clozapine level (which is a ratio scale). While the serum clozapine level can be measured using arithmetic and is considered a parametric variable, the sedation scale cannot be treated in the same way due to its non-parametric nature. Therefore, the analysis of the correlation between these two variables will need to take into account the limitations of the sedation scale as an ordinal variable.

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 6 - A 25 year old man with a history of needle phobia presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man with a history of needle phobia presents to the clinic. He was hospitalized 8 months ago for mania and was treated effectively with risperidone. He is currently asymptomatic. He experienced a moderate depressive episode lasting 10 months two years ago. He wishes to discontinue risperidone due to sexual dysfunction and is interested in knowing about alternative medications that can prevent future manic episodes. What medication would you suggest as an alternative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      Lithium cannot be considered as a treatment option due to the patient’s needle phobia, as regular blood tests are required. Valproate is a suitable alternative as plasma valproate levels only need to be measured in rare cases of ineffectiveness, poor adherence, of toxicity. Prophylaxis with typical antipsychotics is generally not recommended for bipolar disorder. While atypical antipsychotics, such as olanzapine and quetiapine, show promise and are recommended by NICE if they have been effective for bipolar depression, mood stabilizers remain the preferred treatment option.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - What is true about acamprosate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about acamprosate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It acts as a glutamatergic NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      0
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  • Question 8 - Which statement accurately describes the classification of conduct disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the classification of conduct disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oppositional defiant disorder is a less severe form of conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - Anterior deficits on the SPECT scan are linked to what condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Anterior deficits on the SPECT scan are linked to what condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Anterior deficits in frontotemporal dementia.

      Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - What scenario would be eligible for a sane automatism defense? ...

    Incorrect

    • What scenario would be eligible for a sane automatism defense?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Concussion

      Explanation:

      Concussion is categorized as a sane automatism since it is caused by an external factor.

      Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits

      To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.

      Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses

      A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - The epidemiology of ADHD can be described as follows: ...

    Incorrect

    • The epidemiology of ADHD can be described as follows:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The male to female ratio of ADHD in adults is approximately 1.6:1

      Explanation:

      Primary inattentive features are more commonly observed in females with ADHD, as opposed to hyperactivity and impulsivity which are more prevalent in males.

      ADHD is a prevalent disorder worldwide, with a prevalence of 7% in those under 18 and 3.5% in those over 18. It is more common in males, with a male to female ratio of 2:1 in children and 1.6:1 in adults. While some improvement in symptoms is seen over time, the majority of those diagnosed in childhood continue to struggle with residual symptoms and impairments through at least young adulthood, with an estimated persistence rate of 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 12 - Which statement is false regarding an individual's ability to plead fitness? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false regarding an individual's ability to plead fitness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Someone is unfit to plead if they cannot recall the alleged crime

      Explanation:

      Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process

      Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about complex post traumatic stress disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about complex post traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significant problems in affect regulation are an essential feature in the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Complex PTSD includes all the necessary criteria for PTSD, but it also involves severe challenges in regulating emotions, persistent negative self-beliefs, and ongoing struggles in maintaining relationships. While some individuals with Complex PTSD may also meet the criteria for a personality disorder, it is not considered a personality disorder itself.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a 12 year old boy with mild depression that has failed to respond to group based CBT despite 3 months of therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Individual CBT

      Explanation:

      Depression in Young People: NICE Guidelines

      The NICE Guidelines for depression in young people are limited to those between the ages of 5-18. For mild depression without significant comorbid problems of active suicidal ideas of plans, watchful waiting is recommended, along with digital CBT, group CBT, group IPT, of group non-directive supportive therapy. For moderate to severe depression, family-based IPT, family therapy, psychodynamic psychotherapy, individual CBT, and fluoxetine may be used for 5-11 year olds, while individual CBT and fluoxetine may be used for 12-18 year olds. Antidepressant medication should not be used for initial treatment of mild depression, and should only be used in combination with concurrent psychological therapy for moderate to severe depression. Fluoxetine is the only antidepressant for which clinical trial evidence shows that the benefits outweigh the risks, and should be used as the first-line treatment. Paroxetine, venlafaxine, tricyclic antidepressants, and St John’s wort should not be used for the treatment of depression in children and young people. Second generation antipsychotics may be used for depression with psychotic symptoms, and ECT should only be considered for those with very severe depression and life-threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - What is the most frequent method of suicide among incarcerated individuals? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent method of suicide among incarcerated individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hanging/self-strangulation

      Explanation:

      The predominant method of suicide in prisons is hanging, which makes up approximately 90% of cases. While there have been slight fluctuations in the number of suicides, there was an increase from 63 to 87 between 2013 and 2014, resulting in a rate of 1 suicide per 1000 prisoners in 2014. Overall, the number of suicides has decreased since 2005, which can be attributed in part to efforts to reduce ligature points.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - What is the approximate occurrence rate of schizophrenia among individuals under the age...

    Incorrect

    • What is the approximate occurrence rate of schizophrenia among individuals under the age of 15?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 2000

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia in children is rare compared to adults, with a prevalence estimate of 0.05% for those under 15 years old. There are two classifications based on age of onset: early onset schizophrenia (EOS) when symptoms appear between 13-18 years old, and very early onset schizophrenia (VEOS) when symptoms appear at of before 13 years old. EOS and VEOS have atypical features compared to adult-onset schizophrenia, including insidious onset, more severe neurodevelopmental abnormalities, terrifying visual hallucinations, constant inappropriate of blunted effects, higher rates of familial psychopathology, minor response to treatment, and poorer outcomes. Preliminary data suggests that VEOS and EOS may be due to greater familial vulnerability from genetic, psychosocial, and environmental factors. Poor outcomes are most reliably linked to a positive history of premorbid difficulties, greater symptom severity (especially negative symptoms) at baseline, and longer duration of untreated psychosis. Age at psychosis onset and sex are not consistent predictors of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - What study design would be most suitable for investigating the potential association between...

    Incorrect

    • What study design would be most suitable for investigating the potential association between childhood obesity in girls and the risk of polycystic ovarian syndrome, while also providing the strongest evidence for this link?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cohort study

      Explanation:

      An RCT is not feasible in this situation, but a cohort study would be more reliable than a case-control study in generating evidence.

      Types of Primary Research Studies and Their Advantages and Disadvantages

      Primary research studies can be categorized into six types based on the research question they aim to address. The best type of study for each question type is listed in the table below. There are two main types of study design: experimental and observational. Experimental studies involve an intervention, while observational studies do not. The advantages and disadvantages of each study type are summarized in the table below.

      Type of Question Best Type of Study

      Therapy Randomized controlled trial (RCT), cohort, case control, case series
      Diagnosis Cohort studies with comparison to gold standard test
      Prognosis Cohort studies, case control, case series
      Etiology/Harm RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
      Prevention RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
      Cost Economic analysis

      Study Type Advantages Disadvantages

      Randomized Controlled Trial – Unbiased distribution of confounders – Blinding more likely – Randomization facilitates statistical analysis – Expensive – Time-consuming – Volunteer bias – Ethically problematic at times
      Cohort Study – Ethically safe – Subjects can be matched – Can establish timing and directionality of events – Eligibility criteria and outcome assessments can be standardized – Administratively easier and cheaper than RCT – Controls may be difficult to identify – Exposure may be linked to a hidden confounder – Blinding is difficult – Randomization not present – For rare disease, large sample sizes of long follow-up necessary
      Case-Control Study – Quick and cheap – Only feasible method for very rare disorders of those with long lag between exposure and outcome – Fewer subjects needed than cross-sectional studies – Reliance on recall of records to determine exposure status – Confounders – Selection of control groups is difficult – Potential bias: recall, selection
      Cross-Sectional Survey – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Establishes association at most, not causality – Recall bias susceptibility – Confounders may be unequally distributed – Neyman bias – Group sizes may be unequal
      Ecological Study – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Ecological fallacy (when relationships which exist for groups are assumed to also be true for individuals)

      In conclusion, the choice of study type depends on the research question being addressed. Each study type has its own advantages and disadvantages, and researchers should carefully consider these when designing their studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 18 - Calculate the median value from the following values:
    1, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5,...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the median value from the following values:
      1, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 6

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Measures of Central Tendency

      Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.

      The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.

      The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.

      In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old boy is brought to your outpatient clinic by his parents. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is brought to your outpatient clinic by his parents. He believes he is overweight despite having a BMI within the normal range. He is excessively exercising and restricting his food intake, resulting in rapid weight loss. He has been experiencing fatigue and has a haemoglobin level of 85 g/L.
      What do you anticipate to observe on his blood film?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normochromic normocytic

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that they have anorexia nervosa. Typically, the anemia that accompanies this condition is normochromic normocytic. It is crucial to note that if hypochromic microcytic anemia is present, it may indicate iron deficiency caused by hidden gastrointestinal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - Which herbal remedy has sufficient evidence to prove its effectiveness in treating anxiety?...

    Incorrect

    • Which herbal remedy has sufficient evidence to prove its effectiveness in treating anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Piper methysticum

      Explanation:

      Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety

      Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.

      Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - What is the percentage of individuals who develop sialorrhoea when prescribed Clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of individuals who develop sialorrhoea when prescribed Clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      As this originates from a publication of the Royal College, it is frequently utilized to formulate exam questions.

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - The initial application of deep brain stimulation (DBS) was for the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • The initial application of deep brain stimulation (DBS) was for the treatment of which condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic pain

      Explanation:

      The human cortex was first directly stimulated in 1874, followed by the use of frontal tract stimulation for chronic pain in 1948. Thalamic stimulation for tremor was introduced in 1960, and basal ganglia stimulation for Parkinson’s tremor in 1968. The effectiveness of stimulation in treating epilepsy was discovered in 1973, and for depression in 1987.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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  • Question 23 - A 30 year old man is referred to a psychiatrist by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old man is referred to a psychiatrist by his GP who is concerned that he had had some memory loss. He attends with his wife who tells you that she has noticed that her husband has recently become quite clumsy and quick to temper. Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Huntington's disease
      77%

      Vascular dementia
      2%

      CADSIL
      12%

      Parkinson's disease
      2%

      Binswanger's disease
      7%

      Previous Exam Question

      The young age of the man makes a diagnosis of Parkinson's, frontotemporal dementia and vascular dementia unlikely. Both CADSIL and Huntington's tend to present in the fourth decade. CADSIL generally presents with stroke, memory impairment, migraine, and severe mood disturbances. The man's motor impairment (clumsiness), along with emotional disturbance, and memory problems all point to a diagnosis of Huntington's disease.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Given the man’s young age, it is unlikely that he has Parkinson’s, frontotemporal dementia, of vascular dementia. Additionally, both CADSIL and Huntington’s disease typically manifest in the fourth decade of life. However, CADSIL is characterized by stroke, severe mood disturbances, memory impairment, and migraines, while Huntington’s disease is marked by motor impairment (clumsiness), emotional disturbance, and memory problems. Based on these symptoms, it is more likely that the man has Huntington’s disease.

      Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.

      The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - Please provide an example of a question that is not included in the...

    Incorrect

    • Please provide an example of a question that is not included in the SCOFF questionnaire.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do you regularly feel that you are overweight?

      Explanation:

      The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders

      The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.

      A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.

      Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - If a 12 year old boy diagnosed with schizophrenia does not show any...

    Incorrect

    • If a 12 year old boy diagnosed with schizophrenia does not show any improvement after starting olanzapine 5 mg, what would be your next course of action in the clinic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase olanzapine to 10 mg

      Explanation:

      According to BNFC (children), the maximum daily dose of olanzapine for children aged 12-17 is 20 mg. However, a dose of 5 mg is not sufficient for an adequate trial and the dose should be increased to 10 mg before considering switching to a different antipsychotic.

      Schizophrenia in children and young people is treated similarly to adults, according to the NICE Guidelines. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest avoiding first generation antipsychotics and using olanzapine, aripiprazole, and risperidone, which have been proven effective in randomized controlled trials. In cases where treatment resistance is present, clozapine should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a woman on a hospital ward with hemochromatosis who has been observed to be low in mood. On review of her blood results you note significant hepatic impairment. You history and examination confirms that she is depressed. Which of the following medications would be indicated to manage her depression?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic condition that causes a gradual accumulation of iron in the body over time. If left untreated, this excess iron can be deposited in organs like the liver and heart, potentially leading to organ failure. Treatment typically involves phlebotomy, which removes excess iron from the body and helps maintain healthy iron levels.

      Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs

      Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:

      Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride

      Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium

      Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - What would be your recommendation for a pregnant woman with bipolar disorder who...

    Incorrect

    • What would be your recommendation for a pregnant woman with bipolar disorder who is currently taking antipsychotic medication and wishes to continue the pregnancy, but may be at risk of relapse without treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue with the current dose of the antipsychotic and monitor regularly

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE Guidelines, if women discontinue treatment during pregnancy, the likelihood of relapse is increased, and therefore, it is recommended to continue with the antipsychotic medication.

      Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential

      Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.

      Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 28 year old lady develops acute mania. You take a history which...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old lady develops acute mania. You take a history which is consistent with bipolar disorder. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for acute mania is antipsychotics.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - A 12 year old boy is brought to the attention of the criminal...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old boy is brought to the attention of the criminal justice system for repeated acts of antisocial behaviour in their local town centre. On one occasion they threatened to assault an elderly female who challenged them about their conduct. Which of the following would be the expected course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imposition of a Local Child Curfew

      Explanation:

      At this point, implementing the Local Child Curfew would be the most suitable course of action as it is the least severe measure and is typically the initial step taken. Pursuing prosecution is not viable as the individuals in question are below the age of 10.

      Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits

      To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.

      Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses

      A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - How does the suicide rate in patients with epilepsy compare to the general...

    Incorrect

    • How does the suicide rate in patients with epilepsy compare to the general population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 times higher

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk in Epilepsy

      Several studies have shown that individuals with epilepsy have an increased risk of suicide. A large study published in the Lancet in 2007 found that individuals with epilepsy were three times more likely to commit suicide compared to those without epilepsy. This risk remained high even after excluding those with a history of psychiatric disease and adjusting for socioeconomic factors.

      The highest risk of suicide was found in individuals with epilepsy and comorbid psychiatric disease, with a risk of 13.7 times higher than controls. The risk of suicide was also highest during the first six months after diagnosis, especially in those with a history of comorbid psychiatric disease.

      These findings highlight the importance of addressing mental health concerns in individuals with epilepsy, particularly during the early stages of diagnosis. Healthcare providers should be aware of the increased risk of suicide in this population and provide appropriate support and resources to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services (0/1) 0%
Old Age Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Psychotherapy (1/1) 100%
General Adult Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Passmed