-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, right-sided lower abdominal pain over the past few hours. She has associated nausea and vomiting. The pain has now reached the point of being unbearable. She denies any fever, vaginal bleeding, dysuria or altered bowel habits. She has no significant past medical history. She does not take any regular medications.
On examination, she appears to be in significant pain, clutching at her right lower abdomen, which is tender on palpation. Normal bowel sounds are present. There is a palpable adnexal mass on pelvic examination. She is slightly tachycardic. A pregnancy test is negative and urinalysis is normal.
What ultrasound finding would be indicative of the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Whirlpool sign
Explanation:Ultrasound imaging may reveal a whirlpool sign in cases of ovarian torsion, which is strongly indicated by the patient’s history and examination. The beads-on-a-string sign is typically associated with chronic salpingitis, while hypoechoic masses are often indicative of fibroids. A snow-storm appearance is a characteristic finding in complete hydatidiform mole.
Understanding Ovarian Torsion
Ovarian torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the ovary twists on its supporting ligaments, leading to a compromised blood supply. This condition can be partial or complete and may also affect the fallopian tube, which is then referred to as adnexal torsion. Women who have an ovarian mass, are of reproductive age, pregnant, or have ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome are at a higher risk of developing ovarian torsion.
The most common symptom of ovarian torsion is sudden, severe abdominal pain that is colicky in nature. Patients may also experience vomiting, distress, and in some cases, fever. Upon examination, adnexal tenderness may be detected, and an ultrasound may show free fluid or a whirlpool sign. Laparoscopy is usually both diagnostic and therapeutic for this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 29-year-old woman had gone for her regular cervical smear test which was carried out without any complications. The GP receives the result of the smear indicating that it was positive for high-risk HPV but there were no signs of cytological abnormalities.
What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 12 months
Explanation:If a cervical cancer screening sample is positive for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) but shows no cytological abnormalities, the recommended course of action is to repeat the smear after 12 months. This is in accordance with current guidance. Colposcopy is not necessary in this case. Repeating the smear after 3 months or waiting 3 years for routine recall are also not appropriate. A repeat smear after 6 months would only be necessary after treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 24-year-old female about the contraceptive patch.
What are the proper steps to ensure the effective use of the contraceptive patch?Your Answer: Change patch weekly with a 1 week break after 3 patches
Explanation:The contraceptive patch regime involves wearing one patch per week for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. This method is gaining popularity due to its flexibility, as the patch can be changed up to 48 hours late without the need for backup contraception. Additionally, the patch’s transdermal absorption eliminates the need for extra precautions during episodes of vomiting or diarrhea. Similar to the pill, this method involves three weeks of contraceptive use followed by a one-week break, during which the woman will experience a withdrawal bleed.
The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old nulliparous woman arrives at the emergency department with a positive home pregnancy test and symptoms of diarrhoea and mild abdominal discomfort that have been present for 6 hours. She has not been using any regular contraception and her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. The patient has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. A transvaginal ultrasound shows a 40mm foetal sac at the ampulla of the fallopian tube without a visible heartbeat, and her serum B-HCG level is 1200 IU/L. What is the definitive indication for surgical management in this case?
Your Answer: Serum HCG concentration
Correct Answer: Foetal sac size
Explanation:Surgical management is recommended for all ectopic pregnancies with a foetal sac larger than 35mm or a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, as per NICE guidelines. Foetal sacs larger than 35mm are at a higher risk of spontaneous rupture, making expectant or medical management unsuitable. The size of the foetal sac is measured using transvaginal ultrasound. Detection of a foetal heartbeat on transvaginal ultrasound requires urgent surgical management. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not an indication for surgical management, although it is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. Serum HCG levels between 1,500IU/L and 5,000 IU/L may be managed medically if the patient can return for follow-up and has no significant abdominal pain or haemodynamic instability. A septate uterus is not an indication for surgical management of ectopic pregnancy, but it may increase the risk of miscarriage.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of symptoms consistent with premenstrual syndrome. She reports experiencing severe pain that prevents her from working for 3-4 days before the start of her period each month. She has a regular 29-day cycle and has only recently started experiencing pain in the past year. She has never given birth and uses the progesterone-only pill for contraception. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Trial of combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology
Explanation:Patients experiencing secondary dysmenorrhoea should be referred to gynaecology for further investigation as it is often associated with underlying pathologies such as endometriosis, adenomyosis, fibroids, or pelvic inflammatory disease. While the combined oral contraceptive pill may provide relief, it is important to determine the root cause first. Fluoxetine is not appropriate for managing secondary dysmenorrhoea, as it is used for premenstrual dysphoric disorder. Intra-uterine devices may actually cause secondary dysmenorrhoea and should not be used. Tranexamic acid is not indicated for the management of secondary dysmenorrhoea, but rather for menorrhagia.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. During the US examination, ascites is detected. Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hb: 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160)
- Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- WBC: 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
- Na+: 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- K+: 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 110 ”mol/L (normal range: 55-120)
- CRP: 8 mg/L (normal range: <5)
- Haematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48; normal range for males: 0.4-0.54)
What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?Your Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy
Explanation:Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a possible adverse effect of ovulation induction. The symptoms of this syndrome, such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit, are typical. There are various medications used for ovulation induction, and the risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is higher with gonadotropin therapy than with clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. Therefore, it is probable that the patient received gonadotropin therapy.
Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 70-year-old nulliparous female presents with post menopausal bleeding. She reports that her last cervical screening was 12 years ago. On examination she is found to be overweight and hypertensive. What is the most crucial diagnosis to exclude?
Your Answer: Endometrial adenocarcinoma
Explanation:When a woman experiences postmenopausal bleeding (PMB), the primary concern is the possibility of endometrial cancer. This is because endometrial adenocarcinoma is strongly linked to PMB and early detection is crucial for better prognosis. The patient in this scenario has two risk factors for endometrial adenocarcinoma – obesity and hypertension. Other risk factors include high levels of oestrogen, late menopause, polycystic ovarian syndrome, diabetes mellitus, and tamoxifen use.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman comes to see you for advice on contraception. She has just started taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) and is leaving for a vacation with her partner tomorrow. They have both been tested for STIs and the results were negative. She wants to know if it's safe to have unprotected sex while on holiday.
What guidance would you provide her?Your Answer: Use condoms for the first 48 hours
Explanation:To ensure effectiveness, it is important to note that the progesterone-only pill (POP) requires 48 hours before it can be relied upon as a form of contraception. During this time, it is recommended to use additional precautions such as condoms. However, after the initial 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary as long as the POP is taken at the same time each day within a 3-hour window. It is important to note that the POP does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so the use of condoms as a barrier method may be discussed for long-term protection. However, as the patient and her partner have recently tested negative for STIs, this may not be necessary at this time. In contrast, if the patient was prescribed the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), it is advised to use condoms for the first 7 days.
Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking advice after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse the previous night. She took a dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg (Levonelle) as emergency contraception about 12 hours after the act. Today is the 12th day of her menstrual cycle, and she is worried about the possibility of getting pregnant. She wants to start taking a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) to prevent similar situations in the future. When can she begin taking the COCP?
Your Answer: Immediately
Explanation:Levonorgestrel emergency contraception (Levonelle) does not affect the effectiveness of hormonal contraception, so it can be started immediately after use. However, ulipristal acetate emergency contraception (EllaOne) should not be used concurrently with hormonal contraception, and patients should wait 5 days after taking it before starting a COCP regimen. The COCP must be taken within a 24-hour window each day to ensure effectiveness, while levonorgestrel emergency contraception must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. The interval to wait before starting or restarting hormonal contraception after using ulipristal acetate emergency contraception is 5 days. Day 1 of the menstrual cycle is the preferred day to start a COCP regimen for immediate protection against pregnancy, but it is not the earliest option in this scenario.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 35â45 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2 and has had persistent acne since being a teenager.
During examination, brown, hyperpigmented areas are observed in the creases of the axillae and around the neck.
Hormone levels have been tested, as shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Total testosterone 7 nmol/l 0.5â3.5 nmol/l
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 15 IU/l 1â25 IU/l
Luteinising hormone (LH) 78 U/l 1â70 U/l
Which of the following ultrasound findings will confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Five follicles per ovary, ranging in size from 2 to 9 mm
Correct Answer: 12 follicles in the right ovary and seven follicles in the left, ranging in size from 2 to 9 mm
Explanation:Understanding Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by menstrual irregularities, signs of hyperandrogenism, and ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries. The Rotterdam criteria provide diagnostic criteria for PCOS, which include oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea, clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries.
Follicle counts and ovarian volume are important ultrasonographic features used to diagnose PCOS. At least 12 follicles in one ovary, measuring 2-9 mm in diameter, and an ovarian volume of >10 ml are diagnostic of PCOS. However, the absence of these features does not exclude the diagnosis if two of the three criteria are met.
Total testosterone levels are usually raised in PCOS, while FSH is usually within the normal range or low, and LH is raised. The ratio of LH:FSH is usually >3:1 in PCOS.
A single complex cyst in one ovary is an abnormal finding and requires referral to a gynaecology team for further assessment.
Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria and Ultrasonographic Features of PCOS
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear test at her local clinic as part of the UK cervical cancer screening programme. The results reveal that she is hr HPV positive, but her cytology shows normal cells. Following current guidelines, the test is repeated after 12 months, and the results are still hr HPV positive with normal cytology. Another 12 months later, the test is repeated, and the results remain the same. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Repeat the test 12 months later
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:If a cervical smear test performed as part of the NHS cervical screening programme returns as hr HPV positive, cytology is performed. If the cytology shows normal cells, the test is repeated in 12 months. If the second repeat test is still hr HPV positive and cytology normal, the test should be repeated in a further 12 months. However, if the third test at 24 months is still hr HPV positive, colposcopy should be performed instead of returning the patient to routine recall. Repeating the test in 3, 6 or 12 months is not appropriate in this case.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal soreness, and decreased libido. She reports that her last menstrual period was 6 months ago and suspects that she is going through menopause. The patient is interested in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but is worried about the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE). What is the safest HRT option for her in terms of VTE risk?
Your Answer: Oral HRT â combined continuous
Correct Answer: Transdermal HRT
Explanation:Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine cervical smear. Later, she receives a phone call informing her that the smear was insufficient. She recalls having an inadequate smear more than ten years ago.
What is the correct course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Repeat smear in 3 months
Explanation:When a cervical cancer screening smear is inadequate, the recommended course of action is to repeat the smear within 3 months. It is not necessary to consider any previous inadequate smears from a decade ago. Therefore, repeating the smear in 1 month or 3 years is not appropriate. Referral for colposcopy or gynaecology is also not necessary at this stage, as it should only be considered if the second smear in 3 months’ time is also inadequate.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old female patient comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently on day 14 of her regular 28-30 day cycle and has no medical history or regular medications. She desires a method that is effective immediately and does not require daily attention. What contraceptive option would be suitable for her?
Your Answer: Intrauterine system
Correct Answer: Intrauterine device
Explanation:If a woman is not starting her contraceptive method on the first day of her period, the time until it becomes effective varies. The only option that is effective immediately is an intrauterine device (IUD), which is a T-shaped device containing copper that is inserted into the uterus. Other methods, such as the progesterone-only pill (POP), combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, and intrauterine system (IUS), require a certain amount of time before they become effective. The POP requires 2 days, while the COC, injection, implant, and IUS all require 7 days before they become effective. It’s important to consider the effectiveness and convenience of each method before choosing the best option.
Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman visits her GP clinic for contraception advice. She is a smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes daily, and has a BMI of 25 kg/mÂČ. She has no history of venous thromboembolism in her family or personal medical history. She underwent a right-sided salpingectomy for an ectopic pregnancy six years ago. Which of the following contraceptive methods would be unsuitable for this patient?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Women over 35 who smoke 15 or more cigarettes a day should not use any form of combined hormonal contraception, such as the pill, patch, or vaginal ring. However, the other four methods listed are safe for use in this group.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of right-sided iliac fossa pain, right tip shoulder pain and a scanty brown per vaginum (PV) bleed. She missed her last menstrual period which was due eight weeks ago. She has an intrauterine device (IUD) in place.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age
One of the most likely diagnoses for a woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This is especially true if the patient has a history of using an intrauterine device (IUD), has missed a period, and experiences scanty bleeding. However, other possible differential diagnoses include appendicitis, ovarian cysts, and pelvic inflammatory disease.
Appendicitis may cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other symptoms and history suggest an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. A femoral hernia is inconsistent with the clinical findings. Ovarian cysts may also cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other features from the history point to an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not consistent with the history described, as there is no offensive discharge and no sexual history provided. Additionally, pelvic inflammatory disease does not cause a delay in the menstrual period.
It is important to always test for pregnancy in any woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain, regardless of contraception use or perceived likelihood of pregnancy. Early diagnosis and treatment of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy can be life-saving.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
Sophie is a 27-year-old woman who has presented to her doctor with complaints of feeling down, difficulty sleeping and frequent headaches. She reports that these symptoms occur around the same time every month and cease just before her menstrual cycle. Sophie is worried about how these symptoms are impacting her work performance but does not have any immediate plans to start a family.
What is the recommended treatment for Sophie's likely diagnosis at this point?Your Answer: Drospirenoneâcontaining COC taken continuously
Explanation:Premenstrual syndrome can be treated with a combination of oral contraceptives and SSRIs, along with cognitive behavioral therapy. While the copper intrauterine device is effective for long-term contraception, it does not address the hormonal changes that cause PMS symptoms. The most appropriate option for Lydia is a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill containing drospirenone, which can alleviate her symptoms. Progesterone-only contraception is not recommended for PMS, and sodium valproate is not a recognized treatment for this condition. It is important to take the COC continuously for maximum benefit.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as YasminÂź (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m2, having lost a significant amount of weight after undergoing gastric sleeve surgery a year ago. She is a non-smoker and has never been pregnant. Her blood pressure is 119/78 mmHg.
The patient is interested in long-acting reversible contraceptives but does not want a coil. She also wants a contraceptive that can be discontinued quickly if she decides to start a family. What would be the most suitable contraceptive option for her?Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill (POP)
Correct Answer: Nexplanon implantable contraceptive
Explanation:Contraception for Obese Patients
Obesity is a risk factor for venous thromboembolism in women taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). To minimize this risk, the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) recommends that women with a body mass index (BMI) of 30-34 kg/mÂČ should use the COCP with caution (UKMEC 2), while those with a BMI of 35 kg/mÂČ or higher should avoid it altogether (UKMEC 3). Additionally, the effectiveness of the combined contraceptive transdermal patch may be reduced in patients weighing over 90kg.
Fortunately, there are other contraceptive options available for obese patients. All other methods of contraception have a UKMEC of 1, meaning they are considered safe and effective for most women, regardless of their weight. However, it’s important to note that patients who have undergone gastric sleeve, bypass, or duodenal switch surgery cannot use oral contraception, including emergency contraception, due to the lack of efficacy.
In summary, obese patients should be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism associated with the COCP and consider alternative contraceptive options. It’s important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider to determine the best choice for each individual patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on contraception and opts for the intrauterine system. What is the predominant side effect that she should be informed about during the initial 6 months of having the intrauterine system inserted?
Your Answer: Irregular bleeding
Explanation:During the initial 6 months after the intrauterine system is inserted, experiencing irregular bleeding is a typical adverse effect. However, over time, the majority of women who use the IUS will experience reduced or absent menstrual periods, which is advantageous for those who experience heavy menstrual bleeding or prefer not to have periods.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as JaydessÂź and KyleenaÂź, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her recent cervical screening test. The test showed normal cytology and was negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). In her previous screening test 18 months ago, she had normal cytology but tested positive for hrHPV. What guidance should you provide to the patient based on her latest screening test result?
Your Answer: Return to routine recall in 5 years time
Correct Answer: Return to routine recall in 3 years time
Explanation:If the result of the first repeat smear for cervical cancer screening at 12 months is negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can resume routine recall. This means they should undergo screening every 3 years from age 25-49 years or every 5 years from age 50-64 years. However, if the repeat test is positive again, the patient should undergo another HPV test in 12 months. If there is dyskaryosis on a cytology sample, the patient should be referred for colposcopy.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old student presents to the genito-urinary medicine (GUM) clinic. She is worried about a fishy-smelling green vaginal discharge that she has developed. The symptoms have been ongoing for two weeks and include pruritus, dysuria and frequency. Vaginal swabs were taken and revealed a motile flagellate on wet film microscopy.
What is the causative organism for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Explanation:Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, characterized by a green-yellow discharge with a foul odor. Men usually do not show symptoms, while women may experience dysuria, frequent urination, and itching. Treatment involves taking oral metronidazole for seven days. Although complications are rare, pregnant women with trichomoniasis may experience premature labor. The disease is sexually transmitted, so a thorough sexual history should be taken.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a diplococcus that causes gonorrhea, which may be asymptomatic in women but can cause vaginal discharge and painful urination. Treatment involves a single intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone 500 mg.
Chlamydia trachomatis is an intracellular organism that causes chlamydia, which is often asymptomatic in women but may cause cervicitis, urethritis, or salpingitis. Treatment involves a single oral dose of azithromycin 1 g.
Candida albicans causes thrush, which is characterized by white curd-like discharge, red and sore vulva, and hyphae visible on microscopy. Treatment involves using clotrimazole in pessary or topical form, with fluconazole used for resistant cases.
Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which may present as a painless ulcer in the genital area called a chancre. Treatment involves using benzathine penicillin. While secondary and further stages of syphilis are becoming rare, it is important to seek treatment promptly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old mother of two presents to her general practitioner with depression. She explains that for the last 4 months, she has been unable to leave her house or socialize with friends due to an embarrassing and uncomfortable incontinence problem.
What is the most common type of urinary incontinence in women?Your Answer: Overactive bladder
Correct Answer: Genuine stress incontinence
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Urinary Incontinence in Women
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own causes and treatment options. The most common type of incontinence in women is genuine stress incontinence, which is caused by sphincter incompetence and leads to leakage of small amounts of urine on stress, such as sneezing, standing, laughing, and coughing.
To diagnose incontinence, common investigations include a midstream urine specimen, frequency volume chart, filling urodynamic assessment, and voiding urodynamic assessment. Treatment options vary depending on the patient’s wishes, desire for future children, and severity of symptoms. Conservative treatment involves pelvic floor exercises, vaginal cones, and drugs such as estrogen. Surgery is the most effective way of restoring continence, with a cure rate of 80-90%. Procedures include burch colposuspension, anterior repair and bladder buttress, tension-free vaginal tape, and suburethral sling.
Other types of urinary incontinence in women include fistula, which is a rare cause of incontinence caused by pelvic surgery, overactive bladder, which is the second most common type of incontinence, retention with overflow, which is a rare cause of incontinence more common in men, and congenital abnormalities, which is a rare cause of incontinence that is often apparent since early life.
It is important for women to understand the different types of urinary incontinence and seek medical advice if they experience any symptoms. With proper diagnosis and treatment, urinary incontinence can be effectively managed, improving quality of life and overall health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman is referred to Gynaecology due to unexplained abdominal bloating and pain that has persisted for several months. She is not experiencing any other symptoms, and her examination is normal except for her obesity. Recently, she began experiencing menopausal symptoms and started hormone replacement therapy. At the age of 24, she had a right-sided salpingo oophorectomy for polycystic ovaries and has never given birth. What type of cancer is she most likely at risk of developing?
Your Answer: Breast cancer
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:This woman is displaying symptoms that are commonly associated with endometrial cancer, such as abdominal pain and bloating. She also has several risk factors for this type of cancer, including a history of PCOS, being nulliparous, and experiencing menopause after the age of 52. Other risk factors include obesity, endometrial hyperplasia, diabetes, tamoxifen, and unopposed estrogen. Interestingly, the risk associated with unopposed estrogen can be eliminated if progesterone is given concurrently.
While this woman has risk factors for breast cancer, her current symptoms are not indicative of this type of cancer. She does not have any risk factors for cervical cancer. It is important to note that abdominal pain and bloating are not normal symptoms of menopause. Normal menopausal symptoms include hot flashes, mood changes, musculoskeletal symptoms, vaginal dryness/itching, sexual dysfunction, and sleep disturbance.
Vaginal cancer typically presents with symptoms such as a vaginal mass, vaginal itching, discharge and pain, and vulval bleeding. Risk factors for this type of cancer include advancing age, infection with human papillomavirus, previous or current cervical cancer, smoking, and alcohol consumption.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which of these patients have an absolute contraindication for the COCP?
Your Answer: 38-year-old smoker, smoking 10 cigarettes/day
Correct Answer: 25-year-old breastfeeding at 4 weeks postpartum
Explanation:1: If you are over 35 years old and smoke at least 15 cigarettes a day, smoking is not recommended.
2: A BMI over 35 kg/mÂČ should be evaluated by a medical professional, but it is not considered an absolute contraindication.
3: A history of ectopic pregnancies does not affect the use of COCP.
4: It is not recommended to use COCP within 6 weeks after giving birth.
5: There is no evidence linking the use of COCP to carpal tunnel syndrome.The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks guidance. She is presently on day 10 of her cycle and has missed her last two pills. Before this, she took her pill accurately every day. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 10 hours ago and is unsure if she should take emergency contraception to avoid pregnancy.
What advice should she be given?Your Answer: To arrange oral emergency contraception
Correct Answer: No emergency contraception is required and to continue taking her pill as normal
Explanation:If the patient has missed two pills between days 8-14 of her cycle but has taken the previous 7 days of COCP correctly, emergency contraception is not necessary according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health. Since the patient is not in need of emergency contraception, offering her a hormonal-based emergency contraceptive would be inappropriate. However, if emergency contraception is required, options include EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse or Levonelle (levonorgestrel) up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse. Inserting a copper IUD to prevent pregnancy would also be inappropriate in this case. If the patient is having difficulty remembering to take her pill correctly and is interested in long-acting contraception, counseling her on options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection would be appropriate. It should be noted that contraceptive injections are not used as a form of emergency contraception and advising a patient to take emergency contraception within 12 hours would be incorrect.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman presented with pruritus in the perineal area, associated with pain on micturition and dyspareunia. She had thin, hypopigmented skin, with white, polygonal patches which, in areas, formed patches.
She returns for review after a 3-month trial of clobetasol proprionate, which has failed to improve symptoms. There is no evidence of infection, and her observations are stable.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in this patientâs management?Your Answer: Ultraviolet (UV) phototherapy
Correct Answer: Topical tacrolimus
Explanation:Treatment Options for Lichen Sclerosus: Topical Tacrolimus as Second-Line Therapy
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genital area in men and women, presenting with pruritus and skin irritation. First-line treatment involves high-potency steroids, but if the patient fails to respond, the next step is topical calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus. This immunosuppressant reduces inflammation by inhibiting the secretion of interleukin-2, which promotes T-cell proliferation. However, chronic inflammatory conditions like lichen sclerosus increase the risk of vulval carcinoma, so a tissue biopsy should be obtained if the lesion is steroid-resistant. UV phototherapy and oral retinoids are not recommended as second-line therapy due to uncertain risks, while surgical excision is reserved for severe cases. The combination of potent steroids with antibacterial or antifungal properties is a first-line option in cases of superimposed infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, severe acne and pigmented areas of skin in the axillae) and multiple ovarian cysts, demonstrated on ultrasound scan of both ovaries, has been trying to conceive for six months, but her periods are irregular. She has lost 2 stones in weight and attends clinic for further advice on management.
What is the most appropriate step in the management of this 28-year-old patient with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism, multiple ovarian cysts, irregular periods, and a desire to conceive, who has lost 2 stones in weight?Your Answer: Clomiphene citrate and metformin
Correct Answer: Clomiphene citrate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Infertility in Women with PCOS
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common cause of infertility in women. Clomiphene citrate is the first-line medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It works by binding to hypothalamic estrogen receptors, inhibiting the negative feedback on follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and triggering ovulation. However, it is important to counsel women about the increased risk of multiple pregnancy when treated with Clomiphene. Metformin, once considered a viable option for PCOS-related infertility, is now considered inferior to Clomiphene. However, it can be used in combination with Clomiphene to increase the success of ovulation induction. Gonadotrophins are recommended as second-line treatment for women who do not respond to Clomiphene. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling is a surgical option reserved for cases where Clomiphene has failed. It involves destroying ovarian stroma to reduce androgen-secreting tissue and induce ovulation. The choice of treatment depends on individual patient factors and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She reports that her periods are so heavy that she goes through a full box of tampons on the first day, which affects her daily routine. The patient has read that Menorrhagia is characterised by unusually heavy bleeding during menstruation. Before diagnosing her with menorrhagia, the doctor checks the criteria used to classify bleeding as 'abnormally heavy'. What is the definition used for this classification?
Your Answer: An amount that the woman considers to be excessive
Explanation:The definition of menorrhagia has been updated to focus on a woman’s personal experience rather than attempting to measure the amount of blood loss. Previously, heavy bleeding was defined as a total blood loss of over 80 ml during the menstrual cycle. However, due to challenges in accurately measuring blood loss and the fact that treatment for heavy bleeding can improve quality of life regardless of the amount of blood lost, the definition has shifted to a more subjective approach.
Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition
Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 25-year-old primigravida patient at 6 weeks gestation presents with suprapubic pain and spotting. She also complains of shoulder-tip pain and nausea. Upon observation, her oxygen saturations are at 98% in room air, blood pressure is at 109/79 mmHg, heart rate is at 107 bpm, and temperature is at 36.9ÂșC. Further investigations reveal an empty uterine cavity with tubal ring sign on transvaginal ultrasound and evidence of a 41 mm complex adnexal mass. Her Hb levels are at 107 g/L (115 - 160), platelets at 380 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC at 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), and b-HCG at 1650 IU/L (< 5). What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy
Explanation:Surgical management is recommended for ectopic pregnancies that are larger than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level greater than 5,000 IU/L. In this case, the patient is experiencing typical symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy, including vaginal bleeding and referred shoulder tip pain. The ultrasound confirms the presence of a tubal ectopic, with a mass exceeding 35mm and tubal ring sign. Therefore, a laparoscopic salpingectomy is the appropriate surgical intervention.
Adrenalectomy is not relevant in this case, as the complex adnexal mass refers to the ectopic pregnancy located near the ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes, not the adrenal glands.
Expectant management is not suitable for this patient, as her serum b-hCG is significantly elevated, and the mass exceeds 35mm in size.
Medical management with methotrexate is an option for ectopic pregnancies that are smaller than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level below 5,000 IU/L.
Ultrasound-guided potassium chloride injection is an alternative to methotrexate for medical management, but it is not currently standard practice in the UK.Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 33-year-old woman who presents with severe pelvic pain that is unresponsive to paracetamol. The pain started four months ago and occurs four days before the onset of her menstrual cycle. The pain worsens as her period approaches and gradually improves once it ends. She also reports changing her menstrual pads every four hours.
Sarah began menstruating at the age of 14 and has had fairly regular cycles. In the past, she only experienced mild pain that was relieved with paracetamol, and her periods were not heavy. She is sexually active but uses condoms during intercourse.
During pelvic examination, no abnormalities were observed on speculum examination, and her abdomen examination was unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate next step in Sarah's management?Your Answer: Consent and insert a intrauterine progesterone system and review in 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Prescribe ibuprofen and refer to gynaecology for further investigation
Explanation:Patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea require referral to gynaecology for further investigation. This is because secondary dysmenorrhoea, which is characterized by painful cramping in the lower abdomen before or after menstruation along with new menorrhagia, suggests an underlying pathology that needs to be addressed. While mefenamic acid can help manage the pain, it is not enough to simply review the patient in two weeks without organizing referrals or investigations. The insertion of an intrauterine progesterone system may be appropriate for primary dysmenorrhoea and some cases of secondary dysmenorrhoea, but this should not be the only course of action. Additional analgesia should be considered if paracetamol is not controlling the pain. An abdominal ultrasound is not suitable for investigating pelvic organs, and a transabdominal or transvaginal pelvic ultrasound is necessary to obtain views of the uterus, ovaries, Fallopian tubes, cervix, and vagina.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)