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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to his physician with a range of distressing symptoms he has been experiencing for the past two months. These include recurrent flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm-like tightness in his throat, and significant weight loss. The physician also observes that the patient is hypotensive. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the suspected condition?
Your Answer: Urinary 5-HIAA
Explanation:Carcinoid tumors can lead to an increase in urinary 5-HIAA due to the release of serotonin. Symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and weight loss. The appropriate diagnostic test for this condition is a urinary 5-HIAA test. CA125 is not relevant in this case as it is used to detect ovarian cancer. MRCP is used to investigate gallbladder or pancreatic conditions, while urinary metanephrines are used to diagnose phaeochromocytoma.
Carcinoid Tumours and Syndrome
Carcinoid tumours are a type of neuroendocrine tumour that can secrete various hormones and bioactive substances, including serotonin. When these tumours metastasize to the liver, they can release serotonin into the systemic circulation, leading to a condition known as carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome can also occur with lung carcinoids, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver.
The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, followed by diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis. In bronchial carcinoids, the left heart can also be affected. In some cases, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, resulting in conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a condition caused by a deficiency of niacin, can also develop as dietary tryptophan is diverted to serotonin by the tumour.
To diagnose carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or measure plasma chromogranin A levels. Treatment typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide to manage symptoms, while cyproheptadine may help with diarrhoea. Proper management of carcinoid tumours and syndrome is crucial to prevent complications and improve quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with altered consciousness and abdominal pain after being intoxicated a few hours prior. He has a history of alcohol and overdose admissions.
On examination:
A - Airway is clear.
B - Respiratory rate is 34 breaths per minute with deep labored inspiration. Oxygen saturation is 100%.
C - Heart rate is 124 beats per minute, blood pressure is 95/62 mmHg, and capillary refill is 4 seconds. Mucous membranes are dry.
D - Glasgow Coma Scale score is 10.
Lab results show a pH of 7.18 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), pCO2 of 4.3kPa (normal range: 4.5-6.0kPa), bicarbonate of 14 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28 mmol/L), glucose of 22.3mmol/L, and ketones of 4.5mmol/L.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Alcoholic ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation:Abdominal pain can be an initial symptom of DKA, which stands for diabetic ketoacidosis. In this particular case, a young man is showing signs of DKA, such as dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and a significantly elevated capillary glucose level. DKA patients lose around 5-8 liters of fluids, which require immediate correction. The diagnostic criteria for DKA include a pH level of less than 7.3 and/or bicarbonate level of less than 15mmol/L, blood glucose level of over 11mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and ketonaemia level of over 3mmol/L or significant ketonuria ++ on urine dipstick. Alcoholic ketoacidosis is not the correct diagnosis as it usually presents with low or normal glucose levels and occurs due to starvation. Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state is also incorrect as it typically presents with marked hyperglycemia without ketoacidosis. Opioid overdose is not the correct diagnosis either as it usually presents with respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and a lowered GCS, while this patient has a raised respiratory rate and abnormal respirations consistent with Kussmaul respirations.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 3
Correct
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A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l
What would be the best initial approach to manage this situation?Your Answer: Admit for IV normal saline
Explanation:The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.
Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with neck pain and swelling. She reports having symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection followed by neck pain and swelling for the past 2 weeks. During examination, she appears anxious, her heart rate is 98/min, and her thyroid gland is tender and diffusely swollen.
Her blood tests reveal the following results:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.4 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 42 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
ESR 65 mm/h (1-20)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)
Explanation:Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely diagnosis for this woman who presents with hyperthyroidism and a tender goitre following an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition is characterized by high ESR and painful thyroid gland. Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and thyroid cancer are less likely causes as they do not present with these specific symptoms.
Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer visits the general practice clinic complaining of lethargy and nausea. His full blood count, thyroid function test, calcium and liver function tests all come back normal. However, his urea and electrolytes reveal significant hyponatraemia, while the rest of the results are normal. He has a reduced plasma osmolality and increased urine osmolality. He is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Abnormal Urine Osmolality: A Brief Overview
Abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Here are some of the possible causes and how to differentiate them:
Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
SIADH is characterized by excessive secretion of ADH, leading to hyperosmolar urine and low plasma osmolality. It can be caused by central nervous system disorders, malignancies, and drugs. Treatment involves fluid restriction and addressing the underlying cause.Cranial Diabetes Insipidus
This condition is caused by the hypothalamus not producing enough vasopressin, resulting in extreme thirst and polyuria. However, urine osmolality is reduced, not elevated.Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by the kidneys becoming resistant to the effect of vasopressin/ADH, leading to large volumes of dilute urine with reduced osmolality. Causes include electrolyte imbalances, medications, and renal tubular acidosis.Addison’s Disease
This condition is characterized by reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. Deficiency of mineralocorticoid leads to increased sodium excretion from the kidneys, resulting in hyponatremia associated with hyperkalemia. However, in this case, the patient has normal potassium levels.Primary Polydipsia
This condition is caused by excessive water drinking despite no physiological stimulus, resulting in dilute polyuria. However, in this patient, the urine osmolality is concentrated, making this diagnosis unlikely. A fluid deprivation test can help confirm or rule out this condition.In summary, abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the correct diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
Correct
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A 75-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).
TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L and free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently in good health and shows no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time
Explanation:According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men, with a 2-5% chance per year. This risk is further increased if thyroid autoantibodies are present.
Not all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism require treatment, and guidelines have been produced by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS) to help determine when treatment is necessary. If the TSH level is above 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, levothyroxine may be offered. If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be considered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms of hypothyroidism. For older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients may simply have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and consideration of treatment options based on individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Correct
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A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the day and difficulty performing everyday tasks. He was recently treated for a UTI with ciprofloxacin. His father has a history of diabetes, but is unsure of the type. He drinks about 8 units of alcohol per week. Fasting plasma glucose is 17.1 mmol/L (3.9-5.6), ketone bodies are 0.4 mmol/L (< 0.6 mmol/L), and C-peptide level is 2.87 ng/mL (0.51-2.72). What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes can be achieved through the measurement of C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies.
Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.
The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.
Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy. He has areas of skin hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation consistent with vitiligo. His blood pressure is 96/58 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal the following results, and treatment is initiated.
Hemoglobin: 138 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
Platelets: 210 * 109/L (150-400)
White blood cells: 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
Sodium: 133 mmol/L (135-145)
Potassium: 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea: 6.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
Creatinine: 95 µmol/L (55-120)
C-reactive protein: 4 mg/L (<5)
Fasting blood sugar: 4.4 mmol/L (4-7)
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Short synacthen test
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease based on their clinical presentation of hypotension, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, and electrolyte abnormalities. Immediate treatment with intravenous fluids and glucocorticoids is necessary. The best test to confirm the diagnosis is the short synacthen test, which measures cortisol levels after administering a stimulating hormone. The aldosterone renin ratio and overnight dexamethasone suppression test are not useful in this scenario. While the serum ACTH level can aid in the diagnosis, dynamic testing with suppression/stimulation is more accurate in endocrine conditions.
Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels
When a patient is suspected of having Addison’s disease, the definitive investigation is an ACTH stimulation test, also known as a short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be demonstrated.
However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level of less than 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. A level between 100-500 nmol/l should prompt an ACTH stimulation test to be performed.
It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these patients thoroughly to ensure a proper diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
What should be prescribed in combination with hydrocortisone to benefit him?Your Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a condition in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. To manage this condition, patients are typically given replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid medication used in this treatment. However, dexamethasone, aspirin, and both types of contraceptive pills have no role in the treatment of Addison’s disease. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 10
Correct
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A 32-year-old man who has been recently started on insulin for type I diabetes presents for a check-up at his local General Practice Surgery.
He admits to feeling a bit confused as to what he should be doing with his insulin since this was explained to him at the Diabetes Clinic while he was still in shock. He was provided with a blood glucose monitor but is unsure when he needs to use it.
How often should the patient be checking his blood glucose?
Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.
Your Answer: At least four times a day, including before each meal and before bed, increase during periods of illness and before, during and after sport
Explanation:The Importance of Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose in Diabetes Management
Self-monitoring of blood glucose is a crucial aspect of diabetes management. According to the National Institute of Clinical Excellence (NICE) guidelines, blood glucose should be checked at least four times a day, including before each meal and before bed. More frequent monitoring is recommended during periods of illness and before, during, and after sport. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals and at other times of the day. Additionally, glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) levels should be checked every 3-6 months with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. Checking blood glucose only during illness or once a day is not recommended as it can lead to complications such as hypoglycaemia and hyperglycaemia. Regular self-monitoring of blood glucose is essential for good diabetes management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically prescribed in combination for this condition?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone
Explanation:Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with known type I diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and vomiting.
On examination, he appears dehydrated. He is started on an insulin infusion. His blood tests are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH (venous) 7.23 7.35–7.45
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) 2.1 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
Partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) 11.2 kPa 10–14 kPa
Sodium (Na+) 135 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l 22–28 mmol/l
Glucose 22.4 mmol/l < 11.1 mmol/l
Ketones 3.6 mmol/l < 0.6 mmol/l
What should happen to his regular insulin while he is treated?
Select the SINGLE best treatment from the list below.
Your Answer: Stop both long-acting and short-acting insulin
Correct Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin
Explanation:Treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Continuing Long-Acting Insulin and Stopping Short-Acting Insulin
When a patient presents with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is important to provide prompt treatment. This involves fluid replacement with isotonic saline and an intravenous insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg per hour. While this takes place, the patient’s normal long-acting insulin should be continued, but their short-acting insulin should be stopped to avoid hypoglycemia.
In addition to insulin and fluid replacement, correction of electrolyte disturbance is essential. Serum potassium levels may be high on admission, but often fall quickly following treatment with insulin, resulting in hypokalemia. Potassium may need to be added to the replacement fluids, guided by the potassium levels. If the rate of potassium infusion is greater than 20 mmol/hour, cardiac monitoring is required.
Overall, the key to successful treatment of DKA is a careful balance of insulin, fluids, and electrolyte replacement. By continuing long-acting insulin and stopping short-acting insulin, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 13
Correct
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A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history of polydipsia, feeling generally unwell and drowsy. On examination, he looks very dehydrated and is difficult to rouse. He appears confused when he does talk to you.
Admission bloods show:
Na+ 149 mmol/l
K+ 5.2 mmol/l
Urea 22.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 254 µmol/l
His blood glucose is 36 mmol/L.
What is the most important initial step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Rehydrate with 0.9% Saline
Explanation:Complications of the hyperosmolar state, such as rhabdomyolysis, venous thromboembolism, lactic acidosis, hypertriglyceridemia, renal failure, stroke, and cerebral edema, contribute to the mortality of HONK. Identifying precipitants, such as a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, infection, high-dose steroids, myocardial infarction, vomiting, stroke, thromboembolism, and poor treatment compliance, is crucial.
Supportive care and slow metabolic resolution are the mainstays of HONK management. Patients with HONK often have a fluid deficit of over 8 liters, and caution should be exercised to avoid rapid fluid replacement, which can cause cerebral edema due to rapid osmolar shifts. In this scenario, fluid resuscitation should be the top priority, followed closely by initiating a sliding scale. Some experts recommend waiting for an hour before starting insulin to prevent rapid changes and pontine myelinolysis. However, the fluid alone can lower blood sugar levels, and some argue that administering insulin immediately can cause a precipitous drop in osmolality.
Understanding Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a medical emergency that can be life-threatening and difficult to manage. It is characterized by severe dehydration, electrolyte deficiencies, and osmotic diuresis resulting from hyperglycaemia. HHS typically affects elderly individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).
The pathophysiology of HHS involves hyperglycaemia leading to increased serum osmolality, osmotic diuresis, and severe volume depletion. Precipitating factors include intercurrent illness, sedative drugs, and dementia. Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, signs of dehydration, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and focal neurological deficits.
Diagnosis of HHS is based on the presence of hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, no significant hyperketonaemia, and no significant acidosis. Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution, potassium monitoring, and insulin administration only if blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients with HHS are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended.
Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke. It is important to recognize the clinical features of HHS and manage it promptly to prevent mortality.
Overall, HHS is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention and management. Understanding its pathophysiology, clinical features, and management is crucial in providing appropriate care to patients with HHS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up on his blood sugar levels. He has been monitoring his daily blood glucose readings and the GP calculates an average of 7.8 mmol/L, indicating the need for better control. However, his HbA1c level is 41.5 mmol/mol (5.9%), indicating good glycaemic control. What could be causing this inconsistency?
Your Answer: Iron-deficiency anaemia
Correct Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Explanation:Individuals with sickle cell anaemia and other haemoglobinopathies may have inaccurate HbA1c readings due to the shortened lifespan of their red blood cells, resulting in lower than actual levels. Conversely, conditions such as splenectomy, iron-deficiency anaemia, B12 deficiency, and alcoholism can lead to falsely elevated HbA1c levels. The accuracy of HbA1c as a measure of average blood glucose concentration is dependent on the lifespan of red blood cells.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's front is tender and swollen to touch. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. Her blood results show a TSH level of 12.3 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 4.2 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)
Explanation:Subacute thyroiditis can be differentiated from Hashimoto’s thyroiditis as a cause of hypothyroidism by the presence of tenderness in the thyroid gland. The symptoms are indicative of hypothyroidism, which is confirmed by elevated TSH levels and low T4 levels in the thyroid function tests. The occurrence of a painful goitre points towards subacute thyroiditis as the most probable diagnosis. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, leads to hyperthyroidism and not hypothyroidism. Although Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause hypothyroidism, it is typically painless. Riedel thyroiditis can cause hypothyroidism and may be painful, but it is less likely than subacute thyroiditis.
Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.
In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 16
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. Her husband indicates that she has a long-term joint disorder for which she has been taking oral steroids for many years. She has recently been suffering from depression and has had poor compliance with medications.
On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile.
Basic blood investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Patient Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Glucose 2.7 mmol/l < 11.1 mmol/l (random)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addisonian crisis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions
Addisonian Crisis: A Brief Overview
Addison’s disease, or adrenal insufficiency, is a condition that results from the destruction of the adrenal cortex, leading to a deficiency in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid hormones. The majority of cases in the UK are due to autoimmune disease, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Patients with Addison’s disease may present with vague symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and gastrointestinal upset, as well as hyperpigmentation of the skin. Basic investigations may reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. A short ACTH stimulation test is used to confirm the diagnosis. Emergency treatment involves IV or IM hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment is based on oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid replacement.
Differential Diagnosis
Insulin Overdose: While hypoglycemia is a common feature of insulin overdose, the clinical information provided suggests that the low glucose level is due to the loss of the anti-insulin effect of cortisol, which is a hallmark of Addison’s disease.
Meningococcal Septicaemia: Although hypotension and tachycardia may be present in meningococcal septicaemia, the other features described do not support this diagnosis.
Paracetamol Overdose: Paracetamol overdose can cause liver toxicity, but the clinical features described are not typical of this condition and are more suggestive of an Addisonian crisis.
Salicylate Overdose: Salicylate overdose can cause a range of symptoms, including nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, but the clinical features described do not support this diagnosis.
Conclusion
Based on the information provided, an Addisonian crisis is the most likely diagnosis. However, further investigations may be necessary to rule out other conditions. Prompt recognition and treatment of an Addisonian crisis are essential to prevent life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up of her diabetes medication. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient has unusually large hands and feet and prominent supraorbital ridges. After obtaining consent for a more detailed examination, the GP discovers acanthosis nigricans in the patient's neck, enlargement of her thyroid gland, and hepatomegaly. Besides diabetes, what other condition is frequently linked to acromegaly?
Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Acromegaly is a medical condition caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone, which can lead to various health problems. One of the associated conditions is diabetes mellitus, as acromegaly is often linked with insulin resistance. Another condition is acanthosis nigricans, which involves hyperpigmentation of the skin. However, there is no general pigmentation associated with acromegaly.
Cardiovascular disease is also a common association, which can increase the risk of atrial fibrillation. Left ventricular hypertrophy is another condition that can occur with acromegaly.
Finally, ulnar nerve entrapment is not directly associated with acromegaly, but carpal tunnel syndrome affecting the median nerve is a common association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is admitted to a surgical ward for a routine cholecystectomy. He is currently taking metformin 500mg BD, gliclazide 120 mg BD, ramipril 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg. The nurse on the morning drug round asks the doctor if they should administer the morning dose of gliclazide, as the surgery is scheduled for 9 am. What should the doctor advise the nurse?
Your Answer: Gliclazide should be withheld for 48 hours following surgery
Correct Answer: The morning dose of gliclazide should be held but the afternoon dose can be given
Explanation:On the day of surgery, sulfonylureas should be omitted, except for patients who take them twice a day. In this case, the morning dose should be withheld, and the afternoon dose given after the surgery. This is because there is a risk of hypoglycemia in the fasted state before surgery. Withholding both doses or withholding for 24 or 48 hours is incorrect. The BNF website provides a comprehensive guide for managing diabetic patients on insulin and anti-diabetic drugs during surgery, including information on when to introduce variable rate insulin infusions and withholding anti-diabetic medications.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, and despite attempting lifestyle changes, his HbA1c remains at 56 mmol/mol. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 20
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman has a history of excessive sweating, palpitations and weight loss for the past six months. She now has a headache.
On examination, her blood pressure is 230/130 mmHg, with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg. Her pulse is bounding and 115 beats per minute and she has a tremor and looks pale. The rest of the examination is normal.
Excess production of which of the following hormones is most likely to be the cause of this woman’s signs and symptoms?Your Answer: Catecholamines
Explanation:Explanation of Hypertension and Possible Causes
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have various underlying causes. In the case of this patient, their symptoms suggest a rare tumour called phaeochromocytoma, which secretes catecholamines and can lead to malignant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism and excess cortisol production (Cushing’s syndrome) are other possible causes of hypertension, but they do not explain the patient’s symptoms. Abnormalities in renin, which regulates blood pressure, can also contribute to hypertension. Hyperthyroidism could explain most of the patient’s symptoms, but it is less likely to cause severe hypertension or headaches. Therefore, further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or treatment history. Her fasting blood glucose is 7.3 mmol/l. Other significant medical history included occasional diarrhoea in the last four months, for which she took repeated courses of tinidazole. She also had an episode of severe leg pain three months ago, for which she takes warfarin. She is presently very depressed, as her sister has had renal calculus surgery, which has not gone well; she is in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with sepsis.
What is the most appropriate next test?Your Answer: C-peptide assay
Correct Answer: Genetic study
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Various Medical Conditions
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 Syndrome: A genetic study to detect MEN 1 gene mutation on chromosome 11 is the best diagnostic test for patients with new-onset diabetes, diarrhea, and a past episode of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who have a family history of renal calculi at a young age. This autosomal dominant disease is characterized by endocrine hyperfunction in various glands, with the parathyroid gland being the most common gland affected. Enteropancreatic tumors are the second most common, with gastrinoma and insulinoma being the two most common tumors. Glucagonoma can also occur, but rarely. Plasma glucagon and ghrelin levels are elevated in these cases.
Giardiasis: A blood test for Giardia antigen is recommended for patients with watery, sometimes foul-smelling, diarrhea that may alternate with soft, greasy stools, fatigue or malaise, abdominal cramps and bloating, gas or flatulence, nausea, and weight loss. Tinidazole should have eliminated Giardia, but if symptoms persist, a blood test for Giardia antigen can confirm the diagnosis.
Diabetes: A C-peptide assay can help distinguish type I diabetes from type II diabetes or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) by measuring how much of their own natural insulin a person is producing. This is useful if a patient receives insulin injections. The C-peptide assay will help clarify the cause of diabetes, but it will not help in detecting the underlying disease.
Colonoscopy: Colonoscopy is not needed for the occasional diarrhea at present.
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Protein C measurement will not help in the diagnosis of DVT. DVT occurs as a rare complication of glucagonoma, and treatment for glucagonoma includes octreotide, surgery, and streptozotocin (rarely).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 22
Correct
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You receive a letter from an endocrinology consultant following a referral that you made for a 25 year old gentleman who has been newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The consultant requests that you start the patient on carbimazole 15mg daily with a repeat thyroid function test (TFT) in 4 weeks. What is the most crucial advice to give the patient?
Your Answer: Attend for urgent medical review if develops any symptoms of infection e.g. sore throat or fever
Explanation:Understanding Carbimazole and Its Mechanism of Action
Carbimazole is a medication used to manage thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. It is typically administered in high doses for six weeks until the patient becomes euthyroid, or has a normal thyroid function. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately reduces thyroid hormone production.
In contrast to propylthiouracil, another medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, carbimazole only has a central mechanism of action. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, also has a peripheral action by inhibiting 5′-deiodinase, an enzyme that reduces peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
While carbimazole can be effective in managing thyrotoxicosis, it is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a severe reduction in white blood cells. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta, but may be used in low doses during pregnancy.
Overall, carbimazole is a medication that can be effective in managing thyrotoxicosis, but it is important to be aware of its mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider before starting any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme thirst and nocturia up to five times a night. Her serum calcium concentration is 2.3 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l), random plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l) and potassium 3.5 mmol/l (reference range 3.6–5.2 mmol/l). After an overnight fast, her serum sodium is 149 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l).
What is the cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency
Correct Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Polyuria and polydipsia can be caused by various conditions, including cranial diabetes insipidus, chronic cystitis, hypokalaemia-induced polyuria, iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency, and primary polydipsia. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, resulting in the passage of large volumes of dilute urine. Chronic cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract, while hypokalaemia-induced polyuria occurs when there is a low concentration of potassium in the filtrate. Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency is a possible cause of polydipsia/polyuria, but less consistent with this scenario. Primary polydipsia is suspected when large volumes of very dilute urine occur with low-normal plasma osmolality. Differentiating between these conditions can be challenging, but a combination of plasma ADH assay and water deprivation testing can lead to greater accuracy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with dizziness and headache. On examination, her blood pressure is found to be 190/120 mmHg. She said that she had been diagnosed with hypertension on two previous occasions but discontinued drugs both times. She is a computer analyst and drinks 3–5 units of alcohol every day. Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 3.03 mmol/l 2.20-2.60 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Albumin 38 g/l 35–55 g/l
Magnesium (Mg2+) 0.60 mmol/l 0.75–1.00 mmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wermer syndrome or MEN 1
Correct Answer: Sipple syndrome or MEN 2a
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension, Hypercalcemia, and Low Magnesium in a Patient
One possible diagnosis for a patient with severe hypertension, hypercalcemia, and low magnesium is MEN 2a, also known as Sipple syndrome. This is because these symptoms can be explained by the presence of a phaeochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism, which are both associated with MEN 2a.
Conn syndrome, which is characterized by asymptomatic hypertension and hypokalemia, is not the most likely diagnosis in this case since the patient is normokalemic and has high calcium levels. Phaeochromocytoma could explain the hypertension, but not the hypercalcemia and low magnesium.
MEN 1, also known as Wermer syndrome, is associated with hyperparathyroidism, pancreatic endocrine tumors, and pituitary tumors, but rarely with phaeochromocytoma. Wagenmann-Froboese syndrome, or MEN 2b, is associated with medullary thyroid carcinoma and phaeochromocytoma, but hyperparathyroidism is rarely present.
Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms, MEN 2a or Sipple syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents to the GP with a two-week history of feeling generally unwell. She reports experiencing hot flashes and sweating, as well as difficulty sleeping at night. Her husband has also noticed that she seems more agitated and on edge than usual. The patient has no significant medical history but reports having had flu-like symptoms six weeks ago that have since resolved. On examination, there is a tender goitre present. Thyroid function tests reveal a TSH level of 0.5 mU/L (normal range 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 21 pmol/L (normal range 9.0-18). What is the first-line management for the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conservative management with ibuprofen
Explanation:Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely cause of this patient’s hyperthyroidism, as evidenced by symptoms such as heat intolerance, insomnia, and agitation, as well as a normal TSH and high T4 level. The presence of a tender goitre and recent viral illness further support this diagnosis. Conservative management, including observation and NSAIDs for pain relief, is the most appropriate course of action as subacute thyroiditis is typically self-limiting. Antithyroid drugs such as carbimazole and propylthiouracil are not indicated for this condition, as they are used to treat chronic hyperthyroidism such as Grave’s disease. Radioactive iodine therapy is also not appropriate for subacute thyroiditis.
Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that it may be caused by a sexually transmitted infection, but her recent sexual health screening came back negative for syphilis, HIV, Chlamydia, and Gonorrhoea. Her urine test shows ketones and glucose. A random glucose test reveals a reading of 13. What is the most suitable medication for the ongoing treatment of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of type 2 diabetes, with a random blood glucose level exceeding 11.1 and experiencing related symptoms. As per protocol, the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes is metformin, which should be prescribed to the patient. It is important to note that insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, while gliclazide, pioglitazone, and glibenclamide are secondary medications used in the management of type 2 diabetes, but are not typically prescribed as first line treatments.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches. Her blood pressure is 170/96 mmHg. Routine investigations reveal the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium 148 mmol/l 137–144 mmol/l
Potassium 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–4.9 mmol/l
Chloride 103 mmol/l 95–107 mmol/l
The renin level is undetectable and aldosterone levels are raised. The urea and creatinine are normal.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conn syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating between causes of hypertension: A brief overview
One possible cause of hypertension is Conn syndrome, which is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism due to a benign adrenal adenoma that secretes aldosterone. This leads to hypokalaemia, hypertension, and elevated sodium levels. Renin levels are reduced due to negative feedback from high aldosterone levels. Treatment options include surgical excision of the adenoma or potassium-sparing diuretics.
Acromegaly, on the other hand, is caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. While hypertension may be present, other clinical features such as visual field defects, abnormal increase in size of hands and feet, frontal bossing, and hyperhidrosis are expected. Abnormal electrolytes, renin, and aldosterone levels are not typically seen in acromegaly.
Cushing syndrome is characterized by hypercortisolism and may present with central obesity, skin and muscle atrophy, osteoporosis, and gonadal dysfunction. While hypertension may also be present, low renin levels and elevated aldosterone are not expected.
Phaeochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor that presents with episodic headaches, sweating, and tachycardia. While hypertension is also present, a low renin and elevated aldosterone are not expected.
Finally, renal artery stenosis is caused by renal hypoperfusion, leading to a compensatory increase in renin secretion, secondary hyperaldosteronism, and hypertension. This may result in hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia, but both renin and aldosterone levels would be raised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed one year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise. His additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg once daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is measured at 129/75 mmHg. His low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1 mmol/l (normal range: < 2.6 mmol/l), while his haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is 62 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol). and creatinine (Cr) is 110 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l).
Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence metformin
Explanation:Medication Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Blood Pressure
Based on the patient’s HbA1c level, it is recommended to start first-line treatment with metformin. If the patient experiences poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be considered as a second-line option. Pioglitazone may also be used in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy. However, the patient’s blood pressure is adequately controlled, so an additional antihypertensive is not necessary. Lastly, the patient’s LDL cholesterol level suggests adequate control, and therefore, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past year. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no palpable abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin level
Explanation:Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, often caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. Inhibitory effects of raised prolactin may result in low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), but this is not diagnostic. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging technique for investigating the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, rather than a skull computed tomography (CT) or X-ray, which may only show enlarged pituitary fossa with large adenomas. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes after a routine blood test. He has a history of myocardial infarction and chronic left ventricular systolic dysfunction. The patient is started on metformin and titrated to the maximum tolerated dose. The following are the results of his blood tests:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 4.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR >90 mL/min (>90)
- Hba1c 62 mmol/mol (7.8%) (20-41)
What is the most appropriate medication to initiate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Empagliflozin
Explanation:For this patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and cardiac comorbidity, the most appropriate medication would be an SGLT-2 inhibitor. This is especially true for patients with established cardiovascular disease (CVD) or those under 40 with one or more cardiovascular risk factors. Studies have shown that SGLT-2 inhibitors have a cardioprotective effect, with the greatest benefit seen in those with CVD. Additionally, these medications have been associated with reduced hospital admissions and mortality in patients with heart failure.
Gliclazide is not the best option for this patient as there is no evidence that it would have a beneficial effect on their cardiac comorbidity, unlike SGLT-2 inhibitors. While gliclazide is effective at lowering HbA1c, it can cause weight gain. In some cases, gliclazide may be used as rescue therapy for patients with T2DM who have very poor glycemic control and are symptomatic, but this is not the case for this patient.
Insulin is not necessary at this stage, as there are many other medications available to optimize glycemic control before insulin should be considered. In some cases, insulin may be used as short-term rescue therapy for patients with T2DM who have very poor glycemic control and are symptomatic, but this is not the case for this patient.
Pioglitazone is not a suitable option for this patient, as it is contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to its potential to worsen fluid retention and edema. Additionally, pioglitazone is associated with an increased risk of fractures. However, pioglitazone does have benefits such as safety in renal impairment and a low risk of hypoglycemia.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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