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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presented to the hospital with haematuria and other symptoms. She had been feeling unwell for a few weeks with vomiting, weight loss, fevers, and lethargy. The day before admission, she experienced haematuria with reduced urine output. She had no prior medical history but was an ex-smoker and worked as a retail shop manager. On examination, she appeared pale and lethargic with mild peripheral oedema. Her chest was clear, and her abdomen was soft and non-tender with no palpable masses.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Urine dip: blood+++, protein++
- Haemoglobin: 86 g/L
- White cell count: 8.7 x10^9/L
- Platelet Count: 201x10^9/L
- INR: 1.0
- Serum sodium: 139 mmol/L
- Serum potassium: 6.3mmol/L
- Serum urea: 34.0mmol/L
- Serum creatinine: 789 micromol/L
- CRP: 32
- Antinuclear antibody: negative
- Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody: negative
- Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody: positive
Based on the results, she was diagnosed with renal limited anti-GBM disease and started on methylprednisolone and cyclophosphamide. What other treatment options should be considered?Your Answer: Plasma exchange
Explanation:Anti-GBM disease targets the basement membrane in the kidney and can lead to renal failure. Treatment involves removing any identifiable cause, using immunosuppressive medication, and rapidly removing anti-GBM antibodies through plasmapheresis. Plasmapheresis is indicated in patients with pulmonary haemorrhage and renal involvement who do not require renal replacement therapy at presentation. Tacrolimus, blood transfusion, antibiotics, and a three-way catheter are not appropriate treatments for this condition.
Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, previously known as Goodpasture’s syndrome, is a rare form of small-vessel vasculitis that is characterized by both pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This condition is caused by anti-GBM antibodies against type IV collagen and is more common in men, with a bimodal age distribution. Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with HLA DR2.
The features of this disease include pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which can lead to acute kidney injury. Nephritis can result in proteinuria and haematuria. Renal biopsy typically shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane, while transfer factor is raised secondary to pulmonary haemorrhages.
Management of anti-GBM disease involves plasma exchange (plasmapheresis), steroids, and cyclophosphamide. One of the main complications of this condition is pulmonary haemorrhage, which can be exacerbated by factors such as smoking, lower respiratory tract infection, pulmonary oedema, inhalation of hydrocarbons, and young males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who is 20 weeks' pregnant with her second pregnancy presents for a routine antenatal check. She has a history of two hospital admissions for pyelonephritis during childhood but takes no regular medication. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. It is rechecked an hour later and found to be 136/88 mmHg. No other significant abnormalities are found. The following investigations are performed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135-145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5-5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.2 mmol/l 2.5-6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 µmol/l 50-120 µmol/l
Urinalysis NAD
Ultrasound scan, kidneys:
Right kidney BPD 11.2 cm
Left kidney BPD 6.0 cm
Left kidney Irregular outline
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: Renal scarring due to recurrent pyelonephritis
Explanation:The woman in question has hypertension during pregnancy, which can have various causes. However, her ultrasound scan indicates that her left kidney is damaged, likely due to recurrent pyelonephritis resulting in renal scarring. This chronic renal damage can increase the risk of developing hypertension. While medications like enalapril, bendrofluazide, hydralazine, and atenolol are not recommended for treating hypertension during pregnancy, methyldopa is a suitable option. Long-term management involves identifying any underlying risk factors, such as structural abnormalities that may require surgical repair.
Glomerulonephritis is unlikely to be the cause of the smaller left kidney unless it is a chronic condition, which would also present with renal impairment and hypertension. Congenital renal atrophy may be an incidental finding, but the history of pyelonephritis suggests that chronic pyelonephritis is more likely. Pre-eclampsia would not cause a smaller kidney, but would present with hypertension and significant proteinuria. Renal artery stenosis may cause hypertension that is difficult to treat, but it is rare in young patients unless due to specific conditions like fibromuscular dysplasia or Takayasu’s arteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) with complaints of visible blood in her urine that started 2 days after recovering from a recent upper respiratory tract infection. She has a medical history of seasonal allergies and occasional migraines. She takes over-the-counter antihistamines and ibuprofen as needed.
During the physical examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, and her chest and abdominal exams are normal. There is no swelling in her extremities.
The following laboratory results are obtained:
Test Result Normal Range
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/L 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/L
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/L 135 - 145 mmol/L
Creatinine (Cr) 150 µmol/L 50 - 120 µmol/L
Urea 13.5 mmol/L 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/L
Urine Culture Negative, red blood cells 2+, protein 1+
Urine Microscopy White blood cells and red cell casts
Renal Biopsy Diffuse mesangial proliferation and extracellular matrix expansion. A few necrotising lesions with crescent formation are noted.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of her condition?Your Answer: Prednisolone therapy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy is a condition that presents with haematuria post-respiratory tract infection and is more common in males in their second and third decades. The disease is characterized by histological findings on renal biopsy. Management includes controlling hypertension with ACE inhibitors and using corticosteroids. In cases of crescenteric nephritis, intravenous pulsed corticosteroids are employed with the addition of cyclophosphamide. A low-protein diet may reduce proteinuria, but it is not used alone to control symptoms. Calcium channel antagonists are not preferred over ACE inhibitors as they may even increase proteinuria. Ciclosporin may be considered later on for disease control, but early on, cyclophosphamide is added to the steroid regimen. ACE inhibitors are the preferred agents to control blood pressure and proteinuria. Fortunately, progression to end-stage renal disease is uncommon in this condition, and renal transplantation carries a high chance of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of feeling generally unwell and nauseated. She is becoming increasingly drowsy and is unable to provide a coherent history.
Upon examination, she has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation of 98% on air. Her heart rate is 100 beats/min with a blood pressure of 118/70 mmHg. She is not running a fever.
The arterial blood gas results are as follows:
- pH 7.25 (7.35 - 7.45)
- pO2 11.3 kPa (11 - 14.4)
- pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.6 - 6.4)
- Sodium 145 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.5)
- Chloride 95 mmol/L (95 - 108)
- Bicarbonate 15 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Glucose 6.9 mmol/L (4 - 7)
- Lactate 1.9 mmol/L (0.5 -2.2)
- Base excess -8 (-2 - 2)
What is the most probable cause of the above presentation?Your Answer: Chronic paracetamol use
Explanation:Chronic use of paracetamol can result in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis due to 5-oxoproline.
To determine if a patient has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis, the MUDPILES acronym can be used to identify potential causes. This includes methanol, uremia, diabetic ketoacidosis, paracetamol use (chronic), isoniazid, lactate, ethanol or propylene glycol, and salicylates.
To calculate the anion gap, the formula [Na (145) + K (5)] – [Cl (95) + HCO3 (15)] can be used. A normal anion gap falls between 8-16 mmol/L.
In this case, the patient has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis with a value of 40 mmol/L. Of the options provided, only chronic paracetamol use can cause this condition.
Addison’s disease, diarrhea, type 1 renal tubular acidosis, and type 2 renal tubular acidosis all result in a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis and are therefore not the correct answer.
Understanding Anion Gap in Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition where the body produces too much acid or loses too much bicarbonate. Anion gap is a useful tool in diagnosing metabolic acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of bicarbonate and chloride from the sum of sodium and potassium. A normal anion gap is between 8-14 mmol/L.
There are two types of metabolic acidosis: normal anion gap and raised anion gap. Normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis can be caused by lactate due to shock or hypoxia, ketones in diabetic ketoacidosis or alcohol, urate in renal failure, acid poisoning from salicylates or methanol, and 5-oxoproline from chronic paracetamol use.
Understanding anion gap in metabolic acidosis is crucial in identifying the underlying cause of the condition. It helps healthcare professionals in providing appropriate treatment and management to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with progressive chronic kidney disease secondary to IgA nephropathy was seen in the nephrology clinic. He reported feeling well except for mild ankle swelling. The following blood tests were obtained:
- Hb: 104 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
- Platelets: 276 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- WBC: 8.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
- Na+: 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- K+: 5.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 18.5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 912 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
- eGFR: 5 mL/min/1.73 m² (normal range: >60 mL/min/1.73 m²)
- Bicarbonate: 17 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)
- Calcium: 2.05 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 1.8 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
Based on this information, it was decided that he needed to start dialysis. What is the most likely reason for initiating dialysis in this case?Your Answer: Low eGFR
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, dialysis should only be initiated in CKD stage 5 if the patient is experiencing symptoms of uraemia that impact their daily life, or if there are biochemical measures or uncontrollable fluid overload. Alternatively, dialysis may be considered when the patient’s eGFR drops to around 5 to 7 ml/min/1.73 m2, even if there are no symptoms present.
In this particular case, the patient is not exhibiting any symptoms of uraemia, such as confusion, itching, lethargy, or nausea. However, their eGFR has dropped to 5 ml/min/1.73 m2, which would indicate the need for dialysis.
Although the patient is experiencing mild hyperkalaemia, fluid overload, and acidosis, these symptoms alone would not be sufficient to warrant the initiation of dialysis.
Understanding Renal Replacement Therapy
Chronic kidney disease affects a significant portion of the population, with around 10% of those with CKD developing renal failure. For patients with renal failure, the options are either renal replacement therapy (RRT) or conservative management. RRT involves taking over the physiology of the kidneys, and there are several types available, including haemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, and renal transplant. The decision about which RRT option to choose should be made jointly by the patient and their healthcare team, taking into account various factors such as predicted quality of life, life expectancy, patient preference, and co-existing medical conditions.
Haemodialysis is the most common form of RRT, where the blood is filtered through a dialysis machine in the hospital. Peritoneal dialysis is another option where the filtration occurs within the patient’s abdomen. Renal transplantation involves receiving a kidney from either a live or deceased donor. Each option has its own set of complications, such as site infection, peritonitis, DVT/PE, and more.
Without adequate RRT, the symptoms of renal failure can be severe, including breathlessness, fatigue, insomnia, pruritus, poor appetite, swelling, weakness, weight gain/loss, abdominal cramps, nausea, muscle cramps, headaches, cognitive impairment, anxiety, depression, and sexual dysfunction. It is crucial for patients and their healthcare team to carefully consider the best RRT option for their individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with severe left loin pain that radiates to his groin in spasms. He has a history of Crohn's disease and had a small bowel resection with a jejunocolic anastomosis. Despite being on steroids, his Crohn's disease has been quiescent for the past year. He has a normal bowel habit and eats a high-fiber diet while drinking 3 liters of fluid per day. On examination, he is tender in the left loin and has a blood pressure of 180/70 mmHg. Urinalysis shows +++ blood with no protein or nitrates and a urine pH of 5.5. A plain KUB x-ray reveals a radio-opaque area over the left ureter, and an IVU confirms the presence of a small calculi. What is the most likely cause of his renal stone?
Your Answer: Oxalate
Explanation:Causes and Prevention of Oxalate Stones
Oxalate stones are not typically caused by excessive consumption of oxalate in the diet. Instead, they are more commonly associated with enteric oxaluria, which occurs when malabsorption leads to an over-absorption of oxalate in the colon. This condition can be caused by a number of disorders, including coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, chronic pancreatitis, and short bowel syndrome.
To prevent the formation of oxalate stones, it is important to maintain a high fluid intake and to supplement with calcium carbonate. These measures can help to reduce the amount of oxalate that is absorbed by the colon, thereby reducing the risk of stone formation. Additionally, it may be helpful to address any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of enteric oxaluria, such as by treating coeliac disease or Crohn’s disease. By taking these steps, it is possible to reduce the risk of oxalate stone formation and maintain optimal urinary health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old man, previously healthy and active, presents to the emergency department with a six-week history of back pain, malaise, and hiccups. He experienced an episode of hematuria three days prior to admission and has no history of respiratory symptoms. On examination, he appears unwell with a pulse of 120, BP 105/80 mmHg, temperature 36.7°C, and oxygen saturation of 95% on air. Laboratory investigations reveal low hemoglobin levels, normal white cell count, low sodium levels, high potassium levels, high urea levels, high creatinine levels, and low pH levels. His ECG shows marked tenting of the T waves. He is urgently transferred for dialysis and further investigations. A chest x-ray shows no signs of heart failure or consolidation. His urine dip is positive for protein and blood only. An ultrasound of the renal tract is normal, but a renal biopsy reveals acute glomerulonephritis with linear immunofluorescence staining. He tests positive for antiglomerular basement membrane antibody, and a diagnosis of Goodpasture's disease is made. Besides hemodialysis, what other therapeutic modality is likely to be beneficial in the next few days?
Your Answer: Plasmapheresis
Explanation:Managing Goodpasture’s Disease in the Acute Setting
Goodpasture’s disease is an autoimmune condition that affects the lungs and kidneys. It is caused by the presence of antibodies that attack the glomerular basement membrane. In the acute setting, the primary focus of treatment is to manage life-threatening complications of renal failure, such as hyperkalemia, and to remove the circulating auto-antibody responsible for the disease.
The most important treatment for Goodpasture’s disease in the acute setting is plasmapheresis, which is a form of therapeutic plasma exchange that removes the circulating antibody. While steroids are an important treatment, they are typically used in much higher doses than 20 mg once a day. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not effective in managing this disease.
Azathioprine may be used as an immunosuppressant and steroid-sparing agent, but it is not the most critical management step in the acute setting. While a renal transplant is a valid treatment for renal failure, it is not practical for an acutely unwell patient. Overall, managing Goodpasture’s disease in the acute setting requires a focus on addressing immediate complications and removing the circulating auto-antibody responsible for the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 24-year-old woman with sickle cell anaemia and recurrent crises presents with blood in her urine and left-sided loin pain. She was initially treated for a urinary tract infection with nitrofurantoin by her GP. On examination, she is tender in the left loin and has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 22/min, and temperature of 37.5ºC. Her urine is red with brown sediment, and she passes it with shaking but remains conscious. Further investigations reveal red cell casts and sloughed tissue of medullary cell in urine microscopy and rings seen in medulla on ultrasound KUB. Based on these findings, what is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Papillary necrosis
Explanation:The presence of haematuria in this patient with sickle cell anaemia suggests renal papillary necrosis, which may be related to a urinary tract infection. Although she exhibits symptoms of pyelonephritis, such as hemodynamic instability and loin pain, the occurrence of frank haematuria is unusual. Based on the results of urine microscopy and USS KUB, it is unlikely that she has a renal calculus.
Understanding Renal Papillary Necrosis
Renal papillary necrosis is a condition characterized by the coagulative necrosis of the renal papillae. This condition can be caused by various factors such as severe acute pyelonephritis, diabetic nephropathy, obstructive nephropathy, analgesic nephropathy, NSAIDs, and sickle cell anemia. Phenacetin was once a classic cause of this condition, but it has now been withdrawn.
The symptoms of renal papillary necrosis include visible haematuria, loin pain, and proteinuria. These symptoms can be indicative of the severity of the condition and should be addressed immediately. Understanding the causes and symptoms of renal papillary necrosis is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of this condition. With proper medical attention, patients can manage the symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with bipolar disorder presents with malaise and lethargy. He is on regular lithium therapy and reports increased thirst and weakness. His urine output is 4.5L in 24 hours. On examination, his Na+ is 154 mmol/l, K+ is 4.0 mmol/l, urea is 6.1 mmol/l, creatinine is 72 µmol/l, calcium is 2.47 mmol/l, glucose is 7.2 mmol/l, and urine osmolarity is 254 osmol/l (NR 500-800). What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Thiazide diuretic
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with type 2 diabetes for 10 years presents for his annual review. He has been on insulin for the past 3 years and reports stable blood sugar readings with fasting levels below 7.0 pre-breakfast. However, he has been experiencing increased lethargy for the past 6 months and complains of paraesthesia in his lower limbs, particularly at night. He undergoes annual retinal imaging and has been diagnosed with background diabetic retinopathy in both eyes. He has a history of microalbuminuria but no complaints of erectile dysfunction. On examination, he has a weight of 80 kg, a pulse rate of 72/min, and a blood pressure of 145/85 mmHg. His chest and abdomen are clear, and he has intact pedal pulses but diminished vibration and sensation in his feet. His pre-clinic results show elevated HbA1c and creatinine levels, as well as high triglycerides and reduced eGFR. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Add ramipril 10 mg/day
Correct Answer: Add irbesartan 150 mg/day
Explanation:Management of Type 2 Diabetes with Microvascular Complications
This patient has type 2 diabetes with microvascular complications, specifically incipient diabetic nephropathy. The presence of microalbuminuria, hypertension, and a reduction in estimated GFR indicate a high risk of progression to overt nephropathy. To slow or prevent this progression, blood pressure control is crucial. Treatment with either an ACE inhibitor or an ARB is recommended for patients with moderately increased albuminuria. However, the starting dose of ramipril should be lower than stated in the answer to avoid potential side effects such as postural hypotension, angioedema, and cough. The dose can be titrated up gradually as tolerated by the patient.
ACE inhibitors such as ramipril have also been shown to be effective in type 1 diabetes, but the starting dose should also be lower and titrated up as tolerated. The patient’s LDL-C cholesterol level is reasonable, but a target of <2.0 can be achieved with a more potent statin such as atorvastatin or rosuvastatin instead of increasing the dose of simvastatin. The patient’s HbA1c level is above target, but metformin is relatively contraindicated due to the risk of lactic acidosis with an eGFR below 60. Pioglitazone is also not ideal due to the possibility of exacerbating fluid retention. Therefore, moderation of diet and lifestyle changes, as well as potentially increasing insulin, would be the best means of improving glycaemic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with hypertension and chronic kidney disease comes for his annual check-up at the nephrology clinic. His recent urine test shows an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 75 mg/mmol. His blood work reveals:
- Sodium: 139 mmol/L (137-144)
- Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 9.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 98 μmol/L (60-110)
(eGFR 52 ml/min/1.73 m2).
What is the appropriate target range for his blood pressure?Your Answer: 120-139/<90 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Blood Pressure Targets for Chronic Kidney Disease Patients
Chronic kidney disease patients with proteinuria equivalent to ACR ≥70 mg/mmol should aim for a blood pressure target range of 120-129/<80 mmHg, according to the NICE guidelines on the management of Chronic kidney disease (CG182). The same target range applies to patients with diabetes. Non-diabetic patients with chronic kidney disease and an ACR <70 mg/mmol should aim for a blood pressure target range of 120-139/<90 mmHg. It is important to note that aiming for lower systolic (<120 mmHg) or diastolic (<60 mmHg) blood pressures can increase the risk of mortality, cardiovascular disease, congestive cardiac failure, and progression of chronic kidney disease. On the other hand, systolic or diastolic blood pressures above the target ranges are associated with an increased risk of a doubling in serum creatinine, end-stage renal failure, and death. In summary, chronic kidney disease patients should aim for specific blood pressure targets based on their proteinuria levels and diabetes status. It is crucial to avoid aiming for excessively low or high blood pressure levels, as this can lead to negative health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of multiple urinary tract infections, who currently has a Foley catheter in place, presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of fatigue and a fever that started last night. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.5 °C. A urine sample collected by her primary care physician the day before shows a significant growth of E. coli. The urine in the catheter bag appears cloudy. Her white blood cell count is within normal limits, but her C-reactive protein (CRP) level is elevated at 90 mg/L.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Give a single dose of IV gentamicin
Correct Answer: Change the catheter and give oral co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Treatment options for a patient with a catheter-associated urinary tract infection
When a patient presents with symptoms of a catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI), it is important to consider the appropriate treatment options. In this case, the patient is exhibiting signs of systemic infection, including pyrexia and an elevated CRP level.
The best course of action is to change the catheter and administer a course of antibiotics. Treating without catheter change is less effective due to the colonization of the catheter tubing. However, since the patient is relatively early in their presentation and has a normal white cell count, oral antibiotics are indicated at this point.
Admitting the patient for intravenous (IV) co-amoxiclav may be necessary if the infection is severe, but it is unlikely to completely eradicate the infection without catheter change. Advising increased oral fluids and reassurance is not enough to clear the underlying infection.
A single dose of IV gentamicin or intravesical gentamicin via the catheter may reduce the risk of a urine infection after catheter change, but it will not eradicate the systemic bacteraemia that is evident in this case. Therefore, a course of oral antibiotics is required to effectively treat the CAUTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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A 20 year-old man presents with frank haematuria. He had recently recovered from a severe cold and reports that the cold symptoms have now subsided. He only took paracetamol for the cold and did not receive any antibiotics. The patient has a history of hearing problems since childhood and currently wears hearing aids. He also had a corneal ulcer recently. Upon examination, his vital signs are stable and a urine dipstick test shows protein ++ and blood +++ in his urine.
The medical team decides to perform a renal biopsy. What is the most probable finding that will be observed under light microscopy?Your Answer: Nothing
Explanation:Alport’s syndrome is characterized by microscopic haematuria due to nephritis, along with occasional episodes of frank haematuria, high-frequency sensorineural deafness, and ocular issues such as corneal ulcers and bilateral lenticonus. Typically, light microscopy does not reveal any abnormalities, and electron microscopy is often necessary for diagnosis.
Alport’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is typically inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. It is caused by a defect in the gene responsible for producing type IV collagen, which leads to an abnormal glomerular-basement membrane (GBM). The disease is more severe in males, with females rarely developing renal failure. Symptoms usually present in childhood and may include microscopic haematuria, progressive renal failure, bilateral sensorineural deafness, lenticonus, retinitis pigmentosa, and splitting of the lamina densa seen on electron microscopy. In some cases, an Alport’s patient with a failing renal transplant may have anti-GBM antibodies, leading to a Goodpasture’s syndrome-like picture. Diagnosis can be made through molecular genetic testing, renal biopsy, or electron microscopy. In around 85% of cases, the syndrome is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern, while 10-15% of cases are inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion, with rare autosomal dominant variants existing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 35-year-old white man presents with a 1-week history of rash, pyrexia, generalised weakness and decreased urine output. On examination, he is obese, with a temperature of 38.5 °C, BP 156/70 mmHg. He has nail-fold vasculitic skin lesions and a soft systolic murmur on auscultation. Abdominal examination is limited given his size, but unremarkable. Initial investigations reveal low haemoglobin, high white cell count, high neutrophils, low platelets, high creatinine, and red cell casts in urine microscopy. Hepatitis B and C, ANCA/GBM, and ASOT are negative, but cryoglobulins are positive. Protein electrophoresis is negative, and an ultrasound renal scan of the abdomen shows an 11-cm spleen. Renal biopsy is not performed due to technical difficulties. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Glomerulonephritis and AKI
The patient’s history and investigations suggest infective endocarditis, which can cause glomerulonephritis and AKI in one third of cases. Cryoglobulins are present in 50% of patients with this condition. Acute pyelonephritis is unlikely due to the heart murmur, negative urinary sediment, and positive cryoglobulins. Microscopic polyangiitis may present with nail-fold vasculitic lesions, but these patients are commonly ANCA-positive. HIV-associated nephropathy is not likely as there is no weight loss or lymphopenia, and it occurs almost exclusively in black patients who tend to be normotensive. Renal tuberculosis may cause renal impairment with asymptomatic urinary abnormalities, but it may or may not be associated with extrarenal systemic manifestations. Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes infective endocarditis as the most likely cause of their glomerulonephritis and AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the general medical clinic with concerns about erectile dysfunction. He reports difficulty in initiating and maintaining an erection, despite having regular intercourse with his wife. He denies any other medical issues, except for an increase in stress due to work pressures. He works as a lawyer and is worried about potential job loss. His medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes with metformin MR, gout, and a cholecystectomy. He has a BMI of 28 and is interested in trying medical treatment. On examination, there are no abnormalities to the external genitalia and a normal PR exam is noted. Blood tests are ordered for review in clinic, including HbA1c, renal function, liver function, testosterone, and full blood count. A random capillary glucose is 7.3mmol/l. What other appropriate measures should be taken at this time?
Your Answer: Add gliclazide 40mg daily
Correct Answer: Advise weight loss and trial of sildenafil
Explanation:For the patient with erectile dysfunction, regardless of the underlying cause, it is appropriate to suggest weight loss and a trial of sildenafil. While the cause of the dysfunction may be psychological stress, it could also be due to endocrine issues or worsening diabetes. If there is evidence of hypogonadism, referral to endocrinology is necessary. If the patient has unstable cardiac disease, such as unstable angina, sildenafil is contraindicated and referral to cardiology is appropriate. If there is a physical abnormality or history of trauma, referral to urology is necessary. Adding gliclazide is not recommended at this time, as waiting for the HbA1c results would be more appropriate. Psychological support may also be necessary in the future.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 35 year old male presents with sudden onset, sharp, right sided chest pain and a 5 month history of increasing leg swelling, weight gain and abdominal distension. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he is tachycardic at 105/min with otherwise normal observations. Cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are normal; there is shifting dullness on examination of the abdomen with no masses palpable. There is also bilateral pitting oedema to the groins. Electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia. Urine dip shows 3+ protein nil else. Chest X-ray is unremarkable. Blood tests show the following:
Hb 137 g/l Na+ 141 mmol/l Bilirubin 12 µmol/l
Platelets 275 * 109/l K+ 4.4 mmol/l ALP 89 u/l
WBC 9.2 * 109/l Urea 4.3 mmol/l ALT 33 u/l
Neuts 7.3 * 109/l Creatinine 86 µmol/l γGT 47 u/l
Lymphs 1.4 * 109/l Albumin 20 g/l
What is the most likely cause of his chest pain?Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:The patient displays symptoms and laboratory results that indicate nephrotic syndrome, which is characterized by oedema, proteinuria, and hypoalbuminemia. Individuals with this condition have an elevated risk of developing venous thromboembolism, and the chest pain experienced by the patient suggests a pulmonary embolism. The cause of this increased risk is believed to be a combination of glomerular dysfunction leading to reduced antithrombin III, platelet hyperactivity, and renal loss of plasmin, which impairs fibrinolysis.
A pneumothorax has been ruled out by a chest X-ray, and there are no apparent risk factors for acute coronary syndrome. The nature of the pain does not suggest aortic dissection, and while musculoskeletal pain is a possibility, the presence of clinical and biochemical findings necessitates ruling out pulmonary embolism as the primary concern.
Possible Complications of Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to leak protein into the urine. This can lead to a number of complications, including an increased risk of thromboembolism, which is related to the loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen in the urine. This can result in deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and renal vein thrombosis, which can cause a sudden deterioration in renal function.
Other complications of nephrotic syndrome include hyperlipidaemia, which can increase the risk of acute coronary syndrome, stroke, and other cardiovascular problems. Chronic kidney disease is also a possible complication, as is an increased risk of infection due to the loss of urinary immunoglobulin. Additionally, hypocalcaemia can occur due to the loss of vitamin D and binding protein in the urine.
It is important for individuals with nephrotic syndrome to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent further complications from occurring. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to minimize the risk of these complications and improve overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents to the emergency department with bilateral lower limb swelling that has developed over the past week. He also reports having frothy urine. Upon examination, he has pitting edema up to his sacrum, a pulse of 65 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 170/96 mmHg. Urinalysis reveals protein 4+. Blood tests show a hemoglobin level of 118 g/L, platelets of 482 * 109/L, and a white blood cell count of 8.5 * 109/L. His sodium level is 134 mmol/L, potassium is 3.6 mmol/L, bicarbonate is 23 mmol/L, urea is 4.5 mmol/L, and creatinine is 89 µmol/L. His bilirubin level is 6 µmol/L, ALP is 96 u/L, ALT is 34 u/L, γGT is 42 u/L, and albumin is 18 g/L. A renal biopsy shows diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane with spikes on the surface of the capillary loops, and anti-PLA2R antibodies are negative. What is the recommended next step in investigations?
Your Answer: Screen for malignancy
Explanation:Membranous nephropathy is often linked to cancer, and this patient’s symptoms and biopsy results are consistent with this condition. While primary membranous nephropathy is associated with anti-PLA2R antibodies, the negative result in this case suggests a secondary cause is more likely. As secondary membranous nephropathy is frequently linked to malignancy, it is recommended that the patient undergo age-appropriate cancer screening. It is important to note that HIV is associated with focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, while cryoglobulinemia is associated with membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. However, there is no indication of a hematological malignancy, so a bone marrow biopsy is not necessary. Additionally, a renal tract ultrasound is unlikely to provide useful information in this situation.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been referred to the renal outpatient clinic by his GP. He was put on an ACE inhibitor for poorly-controlled hypertension, but after a week, his GP noticed a significant decline in his renal function upon checking his urea and electrolytes. An MR angiogram revealed that his right renal artery is patent, but there is stenosis in his left renal artery. During examination, his BP was 149/90 mmHg, urinalysis was negative, and his physical examination was normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer for renal artery angioplasty +/- stenting
Correct Answer: Start aspirin, simvastatin and amlodipine
Explanation:Management of Unilateral Renal Artery Stenosis-Related Hypertension
This patient is suffering from hypertension caused by unilateral renal artery stenosis (RAS). Medical therapy is the preferred treatment for such patients, including the use of aspirin, simvastatin, and amlodipine to control blood pressure and lower lipid levels. It is crucial to control the patient’s blood pressure to prevent harm, but ACE inhibition should be avoided initially. If other agents fail to reduce blood pressure, cautious, low-dose ACE inhibition may be considered under close supervision.
ACE inhibitors can unmask RAS, leading to a sudden drop in glomerular filtration rate, especially in patients with critical RAS. The ASTRAL trial, which compared medical and interventional approaches to treating RAS, found that revascularization carried significant risks and conferred no significant clinical benefit. Therefore, routine referral for intervention in newly diagnosed RAS should be avoided.
A renal ultrasound would not be helpful in this case since MR angiography has already demonstrated the relevant finding of one small and one normal-sized kidney. A renal biopsy would not change management, and urinary catecholamine quantification would only be indicated if there were no identifiable cause for hypertension. In this case, further investigation is not warranted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is admitted electively for an inguinal hernia repair. He has a history of hypothyroidism, aortitis and hypertension. His regular medication consists of levothyroxine 75 micrograms daily, mycophenolate mofetil 1 gram twice daily, prednisolone 5mg daily maintenance, ramipril 5mg daily and amlodipine 5mg daily. He has no known allergies. His operation went well with no intra-operative complications.
The next morning his bloods show:
Sodium 139 mmol/L
Potassium 5.6 mmol/L
Urea 15.5 mmol/L
Creatinine 342 micromol/L
His pre-operative values were:
Sodium 137 mmol/L
Potassium 4.4 mmol/L
Urea 6.2 mmol/L
Creatinine 121 micromol/L
When you review the observations he has had an adequate blood pressure throughout the operation and since. He appears euvolaemic clinically with adequate urine output. He had suspended his mycophenolate therapy two weeks prior to the operation as instructed by his consultant in rheumatology. Otherwise, his medications were prescribed as above with some additional analgesia including tramadol and ibuprofen as required. You decide to suspend his nephrotoxic drugs and repeat his bloods the next morning.
As per NICE guidelines on the management of acute kidney injury (AKI), what should be the criteria for referral to nephrology in this case?Your Answer: AKI caused by nephrotoxic drugs, eg, non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
Correct Answer: AKI in a patient with known vasculitis
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify several risk factors, including emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria for AKI include a rise in creatinine, a fall in urine output, or a fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI based on the severity of the creatinine increase or reduction in urine output. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as stage 3 AKI, inadequate response to treatment, or complications of AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents with rapidly worsening lower limb edema. She complains of dull left loin pain. She has a history of two previous deep vein thromboses, one which occurred after a long plane flight, and the other in her first pregnancy. Her only regular medication is the progesterone only pill.
On examination, her BP is 150/90 mmHg, her pulse is 72 and regular. You confirm that she has dull left loin pain and bilateral pitting edema affecting both legs.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 122 g/L (115-165)
White cell count 8.8 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelets 210 ×109/L (150-400)
Serum sodium 141 mmol/L (135-146)
Serum potassium 5.2 mmol/L (3.5-5)
Creatinine 202 µmol/L (79-118)
Renal ultrasound Bilateral normal sized kidneys
Urine Protein ++
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal vein thrombosis
Explanation:Renal Vein Thrombosis: A Silent Condition with Pertinent Clues
Renal vein thrombosis is a condition that often goes unnoticed, but it can have serious consequences. This condition is associated with a hypercoagulable state, peripheral leg edema, and flank pain in patients presenting with acute kidney injury. The patient’s history of two previous deep vein thromboses raises the possibility of a coagulation disorder, despite the fact that the events were linked to medical states that may predispose to DVT.
Patients with renal vein thrombosis usually experience rapidly worsening peripheral leg edema and may report dull loin pain from the affected kidney. It is important to screen patients with this condition for inherited and acquired disorders of coagulation and anticoagulation. Lifelong warfarinization may be necessary to manage this condition effectively. Therefore, early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman has been referred to your renal outpatient clinic by her general practitioner due to complaints of tiredness. She is not currently taking any medications. During examination, her blood pressure was measured at 180/95 mmHg. Routine investigations by her general practitioner showed normal levels of serum sodium and urea, but low levels of serum potassium and slightly elevated levels of serum creatinine. She was admitted to the hospital for further investigations, which revealed a plasma renin activity of 5.2 pmol/ml/h (1.1-2.7) and a serum aldosterone level of 900 pmol/L (135-400). What is the correct diagnosis?
Your Answer: Liquorice ingestion
Correct Answer: Fibromuscular dysplasia
Explanation:Causes of Hypertension and Hypokalaemia
Hypertension and hypokalaemia can be caused by various conditions, including Bartter’s syndrome, Conn’s syndrome, essential hypertension, fibromuscular dysplasia, and liquorice ingestion. Bartter’s syndrome is a salt wasting state that affects children and is characterized by severe muscle weakness, low blood pressure, and hyperreninaemia. On the other hand, Conn’s syndrome is caused by an adrenal adenoma that secretes aldosterone, resulting in hypertension, hyperaldosteronism, hypokalaemia, and hyporeninaemia.
Essential hypertension, on the other hand, is not associated with endocrine or electrolyte abnormalities. However, in patients younger than 35 with hypertension, an endocrine cause should be excluded. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a rare cause of hypertension and hypokalaemia, is more common in women and causes hyperreninaemic hyperaldosteronism. Finally, liquorice ingestion can cause a primary aldosterone type picture due to glycyrrhizic acid blocking the enzyme 11b hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, which prevents the inactivation of cortisol, leading to the activation of mineralocorticoid receptors in the kidney.
In summary, hypertension and hypokalaemia can be caused by various conditions, and it is essential to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease received a renal transplant six months ago. Her baseline creatinine is 130 µmol/L. During physical examination, her blood pressure is 170/80 mmHg and she experiences discomfort in her transplant kidney area. Her blood test results show urea 25 mmol/l, creatinine 550 µmol/l. What is the most probable renal pathology to reoccur in a patient who has undergone a renal transplant?
Your Answer: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Recurrence Rates of Glomerulonephritis After Kidney Transplantation
Glomerulonephritis is a common cause of end-stage renal disease, and kidney transplantation is often the best treatment option. However, some types of glomerulonephritis have a high recurrence rate after transplantation, leading to allograft failure.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) has the highest recurrence rate, ranging from 30-90%, with type 2 having a greater risk than type 1. Preemptive transplantation, living related donation, low complement level, and monoclonal gammopathy increase the risk of recurrence.
Minimal-change glomerulonephritis is not a common cause of recurrence after transplantation. Diabetic renal disease may take years to appear in a transplanted kidney. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis has a recurrence rate of 40%, which is lower than MPGN.
Membranous glomerulonephritis has a recurrence rate of approximately 30%, making it less likely to recur than MPGN. It is important to monitor for recurrence of glomerulonephritis after kidney transplantation to prevent allograft failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort. She has been experiencing vague lower abdominal pain intermittently for several months. Although her weight has been stable, she occasionally loses her appetite. She is married and takes the combined oral contraceptive as her only medication. On examination, she appears well with a BMI of 24.5 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg. No abnormalities are noted on chest, heart, or abdominal examination, and her neurology and fundoscopic examination are normal. Laboratory investigations reveal a serum urea level of 5.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine level of 90 µmol/L (60-110). Her urine dipstick shows the presence of blood and protein. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen reveals a small right kidney. What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Possible Causes of Abdominal Discomfort and Renal Asymmetry
This woman is experiencing abdominal discomfort, which could be due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Additionally, she has a small kidney on the right side, which is a result of chronic pyelonephritis caused by vesicoureteric reflux earlier in life. However, renal asymmetry is unlikely to be consistent with chronic glomerulonephritis (GN) or IgA nephropathy.
If the cause of her renal asymmetry is fibromuscular dysplasia, she may also have more significant hypertension and possibly end organ disease. It is important to consider these possible causes and conduct further tests to determine the underlying condition causing her symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate her discomfort and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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As the endocrinology registrar in the diabetic clinic, you are seeing a 50-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus. She is generally in good health and takes only metformin 500 mg bd as her regular medication. She has good hypoglycaemia awareness and rarely experiences hypoglycaemic episodes. Her blood sugar levels range between 5 and 9 on home monitoring.
Routine blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 133 g/l, Plt 141 x10^9/l, WCC 13.4 x10^9/l, Na+ 133 mmol/l, K+ 3.1 mmol/l, urea 3.1 mmol/l, creatinine 33 µmol/l, eGFR 79 ml/kg/1.73m², and HbA1c 46 mmol/mol (6.4%). Urinalysis shows PRO+ and GLUC +, but nothing else. The urinary ACR (albumin:creatinine ratio) is 3.6 mg/mmol.
During the examination, you note that her BMI is 21 kg/m², and she has good peripheral sensation. Her fundi look normal, and her chest is clear to auscultation. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Her heart rate is 72 beats per minute and regular, blood pressure is 124/75 mmHg, respiratory rate is 20/min, oxygen saturations are 98% on air, and temperature is 36.8 degrees.
What medication would you recommend for this patient's ongoing management?Your Answer: Commence ramipril 1.25mg OD
Explanation:Patients with diabetes who have a urinary ACR of 3 mg/mmol or higher should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist. In this case, the patient has an unexplained elevated white cell count and an increased urinary albumin:creatinine ratio. There are no other symptoms or indications of the cause of the white cell count, and prescribing antibiotics for a suspected UTI is not recommended. The patient’s renal function is currently stable, so referral to a renal team is not necessary. The patient’s HbA1c is within acceptable limits, so there is no need to increase the dose of oral hypoglycemic medication. Therefore, the correct course of action is to prescribe an ACE inhibitor as a renal protective agent due to the patient’s microscopic proteinuria.
Diabetic nephropathy is a condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. Screening is an essential part of the management process, and all patients should undergo annual screening using the urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR). The ACR test should be done using an early morning specimen, and a result of ACR > 2.5 indicates microalbuminuria.
To manage diabetic nephropathy, several measures should be taken. These include dietary protein restriction, tight glycaemic control, and blood pressure control. The target blood pressure should be less than 130/80 mmHg. Additionally, an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should be started if the urinary ACR is 3 mg/mmol or more. However, dual therapy with ACE inhibitors and angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should not be initiated. Finally, dyslipidaemia should be controlled using medications such as statins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old female with progressive proteinuric diabetic nephropathy presents at the renal low clearance clinic. Despite receiving maximal medical therapy, her poorly controlled type 1 diabetes since the age of 20, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia have led to a deterioration in her kidney function. Although she feels fit and well, she is worried about her condition. Physical examinations reveal a sensory peripheral neuropathy, reduced dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally, and pitting edema in both ankles. Fundoscopy shows evidence of photocoagulation therapy in both eyes. Blood tests reveal a Hb of 109 g/l, platelets of 111 * 109/l, WBC of 5.7 * 109/l, Neuts of 4.6 * 109/l, HbA1c of 86 mmol/mol, and an eGFR of 18 ml/min/1.732. Her eGFR was 20 three months ago. Given her progressive stage 4 chronic kidney disease, what is the most effective treatment option available?
Your Answer: Renal transplant
Correct Answer: Combined renal and pancreas transplant
Explanation:Patients with type one diabetes who are approaching end stage renal failure should be evaluated for the possibility of receiving a combined pancreas and renal transplant. However, any decisions regarding renal replacement therapy should be made with a multidisciplinary approach and tailored to the patient’s lifestyle and preferences. While a pancreas and renal transplant can replace renal function and treat the underlying cause of dysfunction, it also requires lifelong immunosuppression. Haemodialysis, which is typically performed at a local dialysis centre or at home three times a week, and peritoneal dialysis, which allows for more mobility but carries a risk of peritonitis, are other options. As renal replacement therapy is a complex decision that requires extensive workup, it should be considered early in the presence of progressive renal disease. It is important to note that a pancreas transplant alone may address diabetes but not renal function, which could complicate options in the future if renal function continues to deteriorate.
The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.
Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.
Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.
Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with hypertension at 170/95 mmHg and deteriorating kidney function. He has a history of a previous transient ischemic attack and is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes per day. Imaging studies reveal stenosis of the right renal artery. Can you estimate the five-year survival rate for patients with this condition?
Your Answer: 50%
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:Renal Artery Stenosis and its Association with Hypertension
Renal artery stenosis is a condition that can lead to hypertension. It is commonly seen in patients who have underlying vascular diseases and have a poor prognosis, with an 80% mortality rate within five years, especially if they have concurrent coronary disease. The primary cause of renal artery stenosis is atherosclerosis, but it can also be caused by other factors such as fibromuscular dysplasia, vasculitis, and external compression.
One of the typical changes seen in renal artery stenosis is asymmetrical kidneys, with the affected kidney being more than 2 cm smaller than the unaffected kidney. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in this condition as they inhibit the contraction of the efferent arterioles, which promote glomerular filtration in the disease. Therefore, it is crucial to diagnose and manage renal artery stenosis promptly to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has been referred to the renal clinic after experiencing an episode of loin pain and passing a small renal stone two weeks ago. He had a similar episode three years ago but did not seek medical advice. Apart from these episodes, he is generally healthy.
The results of his investigations are as follows:
- Haemoglobin: 145 g/L (130-180)
- White blood cells: 7.5 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
- Serum sodium: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 6.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 100 µmol/L (60-110)
- Serum corrected calcium: 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
- 24-hour urine collection: Volume 1150 ml/24 hr, Calcium 18 mmol/24 hr (2.5-7.5)
- Analysis of stone showed it to contain mostly calcium.
Initially, he was advised to increase his fluid intake, but he returned to the clinic after one month, having had two further episodes. The question now is which medication to prescribe for him.Your Answer: Loop diuretic
Correct Answer: Thiazide diuretic
Explanation:Treatment for Calcium Urinary Tract Stones
Calcium urinary tract stones are often caused by idiopathic hypercalciuria, which is a familial condition that increases the absorption of calcium in the gastrointestinal tract. The most common type of stone is calcium oxalate. A patient with this condition may have normal serum calcium levels but increased urinary excretion of calcium.
To prevent the formation of stones, it is important to increase urinary output to at least 2000 ml per day. This can be achieved by advising the patient to increase their fluid intake. While reducing dairy intake and avoiding high protein diets may also help, increasing urine volume is the primary treatment.
Allopurinol is effective in preventing uric acid stones but has no effect on calcium stones. Potassium citrate and potassium bicarbonate can be used to alkalinize the urine and prevent cystine-containing stones. Potassium citrate can also chelate calcium and is useful in combination with thiazides for patients who develop hypokalemia on diuretics.
Thiazide diuretics can reduce renal tubular calcium excretion and prevent calcium stone formation. On the other hand, loop diuretics increase urinary excretion of calcium and can exacerbate calcium renal stone formation. Therefore, it is important to choose the appropriate diuretic for each patient.
In summary, increasing urinary output through increased fluid intake is the primary treatment for calcium urinary tract stones. Other treatments such as potassium citrate, thiazide diuretics, and avoiding high protein diets may also be helpful in preventing stone formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55 year-old woman presents to her GP with refractory hypertension despite previous treatment with ramipril, bendroflumethiazide and amlodipine. She has a history of hyperthyroidism which was treated with carbimazole ten years ago, and a 20-year pack history. She drinks 5-10 units of alcohol per week and works in an office. Recently, she has been experiencing pain in both calves when walking to and from work. On examination, her blood pressure is 161/98 mmHg and she has cold peripheries. Blood tests reveal high renin and aldosterone activity, as well as a sodium level of 145 mmol/l, potassium level of 3.3 mmol/l, urea level of 5.1 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 81 µmol/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibromuscular dysplasia
Correct Answer: Renal artery sclerosis
Explanation:The patient has refractory hypertension, hypernatraemia, and low potassium levels, indicating secondary hyperaldosteronism with high renin and aldosterone activity. Arteriosclerosis is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis, and she also has peripheral vascular disease. Cushing’s disease and syndrome are unlikely, and primary hyperaldosteronism is ruled out due to raised renin levels. Fibromuscular dysplasia is a rarer cause of renal artery stenosis.
Renal vascular disease is primarily caused by atherosclerosis, which affects over 95% of patients. This condition is linked to risk factors such as hypertension and smoking, which lead to the formation of atheroma in other parts of the body. Symptoms of renal vascular disease may include hypertension, chronic renal failure, or sudden pulmonary edema. However, in younger patients, fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD) should be considered. FMD is more common in young women and is characterized by a string of beads appearance on angiography. Balloon angioplasty is an effective treatment for this condition.
When investigating renal vascular disease, MR angiography is now the preferred method. CT angiography is also an option, while conventional renal angiography is less commonly used nowadays but may still be useful in surgical planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A 57-year-old patient with chronic renal failure was admitted to the hospital after experiencing a gastrointestinal bleed. During the examination, the patient's blood pressure was measured at 148/90 mmHg, with a pulse of 88 beats per minute, regular. A rectal examination revealed melaena stool.
Further investigations showed that the patient's haemoglobin levels were at 109 g/L (130-180), MCV at 80 fL (80-96), serum sodium at 142 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium at 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea at 19 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine at 450 µmol/L (60-110).
Two weeks prior, investigations at the clinic showed that the patient's haemoglobin levels were at 118 g/L (130-180), MCV at 84 fL (80-96), serum sodium at 139 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium at 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea at 9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine at 250 µmol/L (60-110).
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Hydration with intravenous fluids
Explanation:Management of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleed in a Patient with Chronic Renal Failure
When a patient with chronic renal failure experiences an upper gastrointestinal bleed, it is important to manage the situation carefully. In this case, the patient is haemodynamically stable and has an appropriate haemoglobin level. However, his creatinine has increased from 250 to 450, which may indicate a slight decline in renal function. The most appropriate course of action is to provide careful hydration with IV fluids and closely monitor his renal function. While the patient does not require a blood transfusion at this time, emergency dialysis is also not necessary. By managing the patient’s hydration and monitoring his renal function, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents with significant peripheral swelling and fatigue. Upon further inquiry, it is discovered that he has been experiencing difficulty swallowing and a subsequent CT scan reveals the presence of oesophageal cancer. Despite initial treatment with furosemide and prednisolone, his kidney function continues to decline. The following are his blood test results:
- Sodium: 132 mmol/l
- Potassium: 5.6 mmol/l
- Bicarbonate: 17 mmol/l
- Urea: 27.5 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 352 µmol/l
- Albumin: 19 g/L
He consents to a renal biopsy. What is the expected outcome of the biopsy?Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Nephrotic syndrome is frequently caused by membranous glomerulonephritis, which is prevalent among individuals over the age of forty and more common in Caucasian males. Secondary membranous glomerulonephritis is often linked to malignancy (particularly lung or colon), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and viral hepatitis. It is recommended that individuals diagnosed with membranous glomerulonephritis on biopsy, particularly those over 50, undergo routine cancer screening appropriate for their age.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents for review. She admits to unprotected sex with a number of partners and has suffered a dry cough, shortness of breath and weight loss over the past few months. Her major current complaint is that has had progressive lower limb swelling which has worsened over the past few weeks. Blood pressure on examination is 130/80 mmHg and there is peripheral oedema. Her BMI is 22.
Investigations reveal:
24-h urinary protein excretion 4.8 g
Haemoglobin (Hb) 112 g/l 135–175 g/l
CD4 count 200 cells 500-1500 cells
Albumin 28 g 35–55 g/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 190 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urea 11.8 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
What is the initial treatment of choice for this patient's renal dysfunction?Your Answer: Ciclosporin
Correct Answer: Antiretroviral drugs
Explanation:The patient has HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN), which is characterized by nephrotic range proteinuria, normal blood pressure, normal or increased kidney size on ultrasound scan, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis on renal biopsy. The recommended treatment includes aggressive antiretroviral therapy and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy, unless contraindicated due to hyperkalaemia. While observational studies suggest that second-line agents such as ciclosporin and corticosteroids may be beneficial, there is no completed randomized controlled trial to support their use. Cyclophosphamide is not recommended as it may cause harm by suppressing the immune system and increasing the risk of opportunistic infections. Furosemide may be used to alleviate symptoms such as volume overload and peripheral oedema, but caution must be exercised as it may lower blood pressure further.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is admitted to the Acute Medical Unit with a 4-day history of vomiting and persistent diarrhoea accompanied by cramping abdominal pain. She has noticed fresh blood in her stool and is having difficulty maintaining her oral intake. She reports a weight loss of 1-2kg. She has no previous medical history.
Upon examination, she has a temperature of 38.5ºC and a heart rate of 122 bpm with a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. Her chest sounds are clear and heart sounds are normal. She has reduced skin turgor and dry mucous membranes. She is generally tender over her entire abdomen, but there is no guarding or palpable masses.
Investigations:
Hb 115 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 102 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 15.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 147 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 12.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 183 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 155 mg/L (< 5)
Blood film: schistocytes.
What is the most appropriate next investigation given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Urinalysis
Correct Answer: Stool microscopy and culture
Explanation:In patients suspected of having haemolytic uraemic syndrome, it is recommended to send a stool culture to detect Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli. This is especially important if the patient presents with bloody diarrhoea, acute kidney injury, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, which are all indicative of haemolytic uraemic syndrome. While urinalysis may be useful in detecting haematuria or proteinuria, it is not the next best investigation to send. Faecal calprotectin is only necessary for diagnosing inflammatory bowel disease, which does not explain the patient’s AKI, haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. Although a blood culture is necessary for detecting fever, a stool culture is more appropriate in this case. Stool antigen testing for Clostridium difficile is less appropriate as it is an unlikely diagnosis.
Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The most common cause of HUS in children is Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, which accounts for over 90% of cases. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer.
To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count, check for evidence of STEC infection in stool culture, and conduct PCR for Shiga toxins. Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. The indications for plasma exchange in HUS are complicated, and as a general rule, plasma exchange is reserved for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea. Eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.
In summary, HUS is a serious condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms. The most common cause of HUS in children is STEC 0157:H7, and diagnosis may involve various tests. Treatment is supportive, and antibiotics are not recommended. The indications for plasma exchange are complicated, and eculizumab may be more effective in treating adult atypical HUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the renal clinic with facial and limb oedema, three days after experiencing cold symptoms. He has a history of similar episodes at ages 12 and 14, which were successfully treated with steroids. His blood pressure is currently 120/65 mmHg.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 127 g/L (130-180)
- White cell count: 8.0 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 312 ×109/L (150-400)
- Serum sodium: 135 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 6.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 105 µmol/L (60-110)
- 24 hour urinary protein: 7 g in 24 hours
- Urine microscopy: No white cells, no red cells, no organisms
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this 15-year-old boy?Your Answer: Renal biopsy
Correct Answer: Start prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment and Prognosis for Steroid Responsive Nephrotic Syndrome in Children
This boy is currently experiencing his third episode of nephrotic syndrome in four years, which is classified as steroid responsive nephrotic syndrome of childhood. The previous episodes responded well to treatment with prednisolone, making it the recommended treatment for this episode as well. A renal biopsy is not necessary unless there is no response to steroids within a month, hypertension, haematuria, or renal impairment.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not the next step for this boy as he is expected to respond quickly to steroids. Immunosuppression treatment with cyclophosphamide is only recommended for frequent relapsers, steroid-dependent or steroid-toxic patients, which does not apply to this boy. Therefore, he should be started on prednisolone with a dosage of 60 mg per day daily for four to six weeks, reducing to 40 mg per alternate day for a further four to six weeks. This treatment regimen has a 93% success rate in inducing complete loss of proteinuria within eight weeks.
Once remission is induced, there is a 66% chance of at least one relapse. If there are three or more relapses in the first six months following an initial response, it predicts a frequently relapsing course. The response to steroids determines the prognosis for maintenance of renal function, not the histological lesion. Therefore, a renal biopsy is not necessary unless the steroid treatment is ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old patient with end-stage renal failure secondary to adult polycystic kidney disease presents with new painful necrotic skin lesions. Her general practitioner has referred her to hospital as they have failed to improve with oral antibiotics.
Upon examination, a bruit and thrill were noted over a left brachiocephalic fistula. The patient has an irregular 8cm x 4 cm, punched-out ulcer on the medial aspect of her left calf just below her knee. The centre of the ulcer is black and necrotic, with minimal surrounding erythema. She is afebrile.
Blood tests reveal a white cell count of 10.0 * 109/l and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 17 mg/dL. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Skin swab
Correct Answer: Skin biopsy
Explanation:Calciphylaxis can be diagnosed through skin biopsy, although PTH is not a specific indicator. While an arterial ulcer is a possible differential diagnosis, its location on the upper calf makes it less likely. It is important to take a skin swab for bacterial culture to check for any superimposed infection, but this does not confirm the underlying diagnosis. Vasculitis is unlikely, particularly given the patient’s kidney disease.
Understanding Calciphylaxis
Calciphylaxis is a rare complication that occurs in individuals with end-stage renal failure. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is characterized by the accumulation of calcium in arterioles, leading to microvascular blockage and tissue necrosis. The most commonly affected area is the skin, which presents with painful necrotic lesions.
The development of calciphylaxis is associated with hypercalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and hyperparathyroidism. Patients who are at high risk of developing this condition are also susceptible to the exacerbating effects of warfarin, although the underlying mechanism is still unknown.
The treatment of calciphylaxis is focused on reducing calcium and phosphate levels, controlling hyperparathyroidism, and avoiding drugs that may contribute to the condition, such as warfarin and calcium-containing compounds. With proper management, the symptoms of calciphylaxis can be alleviated, and the risk of complications can be minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of HIV presents at the clinic with complaints of bilateral ankle swelling that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. Upon examination, he has a BMI of 21 and a BP of 122/72 mmHg, with bilateral pitting oedema of both legs. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 118 g/L (135-177), a white cell count of 8.6 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 192 ×109/L (150-400), serum sodium of 139 mmol/L (135-146), serum potassium of 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine of 172 µmol/L (79-118), albumin of 28 g/L (35-50), and urinary protein of 3.7 g/24hrs. A renal ultrasound scan shows normal sized kidneys, and a renal biopsy confirms focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Correct Answer: HIV nephropathy
Explanation:HIV Nephropathy
HIV nephropathy is a condition that is characterized by raised creatinine, nephrotic range proteinuria, normal sized kidneys on ultrasound scan, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis on renal biopsy. Patients with this condition also have raised immunoglobulins and raised cholesterol. Surprisingly, the blood pressure of patients with HIV nephropathy is usually normal. The pathogenesis of HIV associated nephropathy is unclear, and may be multi-modal involving direct effects of the HIV virus itself, the impact of cytokines, and differential expression of immune cells in patients who develop the disorder.
Prior to the availability of HAART (highly active anti-retroviral therapy), the mean time to progression to end-stage renal failure was 2.5 months. However, in the post-HAART era, the renal prognosis has significantly improved. It is important to understand the symptoms and characteristics of HIV nephropathy in order to diagnose and treat it effectively. Further research is needed to fully understand the pathogenesis of this condition and develop more effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman, originally from Thailand, presents with a 4 week history of haemoptysis, a dry irritating cough and progressive shortness of breath that has reduced her ability to climb stairs and walk distances greater than roughly 50 meters. She has no other medical history of note apart from an appendectomy when younger. She takes no regular medication except for over the counter herbal remedies that she gets from a local Chinese medicine shop, although she cannot remember what these are called. She smokes 10 cigarettes per day and does not drink alcohol.
Examination reveals heart sounds 1 and 2 present with no added sounds. Some crackles across the chest. Observations are normal.
Blood tests reveal:
Hb 99 g/l
MCV 74 fL
Platelets 196 * 109/l
WBC 14.8 * 109/l
Na+ 133 mmol/l
K+ 5.0 mmol/l
Urea 15 mmol/l
Creatinine 193 µmol/l
ESR 92 mm/hr
A chest x-ray is performed which reveals some diffuse alveolar infiltrates but no focal areas of consolidation. A sputum sample is analysed for MC and S and shows no malignant cells.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome
Explanation:Polyarteritis Nodosa rarely involves the lungs, while Churg-Strauss syndrome typically manifests as vasculitis and asthma. Pulmonary embolism and sarcoidosis are also not consistent with the symptoms described. The most probable diagnosis is Goodpasture’s syndrome, which is characterized by pulmonary bleeding, microcytic anemia, and difficulty breathing due to antibodies circulating in the alveolar basement membrane. The disease may progress to crescentic glomerulonephritis, leading to renal complications.
Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, previously known as Goodpasture’s syndrome, is a rare form of small-vessel vasculitis that is characterized by both pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This condition is caused by anti-GBM antibodies against type IV collagen and is more common in men, with a bimodal age distribution. Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with HLA DR2.
The features of this disease include pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which can lead to acute kidney injury. Nephritis can result in proteinuria and haematuria. Renal biopsy typically shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane, while transfer factor is raised secondary to pulmonary haemorrhages.
Management of anti-GBM disease involves plasma exchange (plasmapheresis), steroids, and cyclophosphamide. One of the main complications of this condition is pulmonary haemorrhage, which can be exacerbated by factors such as smoking, lower respiratory tract infection, pulmonary oedema, inhalation of hydrocarbons, and young males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with his third episode of fainting in the past six months. He reports trying to stay hydrated in hot weather but often feels dizzy. He has no regular medications. On examination, his BP is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and regular. BMI is 25. No abnormalities are found. Lab results show:
Hb: 140 g/l (normal range: 135 - 175 g/l)
WCC: 7.5 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l)
PLT: 200 × 109/l (normal range: 150 - 400 × 109/l)
Na+: 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135 - 145 mmol/l)
K+: 3.3 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l)
Bicarbonate: 30 mmol/l (normal range: 22 – 29 mmol/l)
Cr: 80 µmol/l (normal range: 50 - 120 µmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Conn syndrome
Correct Answer: Gitelman syndrome
Explanation:Gitelman syndrome is characterized by hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis without hypertension. It typically presents later in life and is associated with milder symptoms compared to Bartter syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two is by measuring calcium excretion, which is reduced in Gitelman syndrome but not in Bartter syndrome.
Cushing syndrome, on the other hand, is associated with obesity and hypertension. Other symptoms include abdominal striae, round facies, muscle wasting, and poor wound healing.
Bartter syndrome presents with hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis without hypertension, typically in childhood. Symptoms may include constipation, growth failure, muscle cramps, and weakness. Renin and aldosterone levels are both elevated.
Conn syndrome also presents with hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, but with hypertension. Other symptoms may include myalgia, muscle spasms, paraesthesiae, and polyuria. Complications can include stroke, myocardial infarction, and kidney disease.
Vasovagal syncope, on the other hand, presents with low blood pressure but without any metabolic disturbance such as hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. When the patient lies flat and circulation returns to the brain, consciousness is restored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 72 year old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and previous myocardial infarction arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and profuse diarrhea for the past two days, which has turned bloody in the last 24 hours. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37.2º, heart rate of 102 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 106/74 mmHg. Upon examination, her heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and she has a diffusely tender abdomen.
Lab results show a hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dl, platelets at 64 * 109/l, WBC at 14.2 * 109/l, urea at 10 mmol/l, creatinine at 154 µmol/l, bilirubin at 56 µmol/l, and CRP at 125 mg/l. A blood film reveals fragmented red blood cells. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Loperamide and PO ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Supportive management and notify a consultant in communicable disease control
Explanation:E. coli 0157 is a type of infectious gastroenteritis that can be fatal, especially in young and elderly individuals. It can lead to complications such as haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) and TTP. The symptoms can range from no symptoms at all to haemorrhagic colitis and HUS, which can be identified by thrombocytopenia and fragmented erythrocytes.
The source of the infection is not mentioned in the question, but it is often associated with contact with farm animals. Other ways of contracting the infection include person-to-person contact and exposure to contaminated water sources such as lakes, streams, swimming pools, and non-chlorinated water supplies.
The management of E. coli 0157 infection is supportive, and cases should be reported to a consultant in communicable disease control (CCDC).
Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The most common cause of HUS in children is Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, which accounts for over 90% of cases. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer.
To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count, check for evidence of STEC infection in stool culture, and conduct PCR for Shiga toxins. Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. The indications for plasma exchange in HUS are complicated, and as a general rule, plasma exchange is reserved for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea. Eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.
In summary, HUS is a serious condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms. The most common cause of HUS in children is STEC 0157:H7, and diagnosis may involve various tests. Treatment is supportive, and antibiotics are not recommended. The indications for plasma exchange are complicated, and eculizumab may be more effective in treating adult atypical HUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man, who has been diagnosed with multiple myeloma, is currently being investigated for a decline in his renal function. His laboratory results from a year ago and today are as follows:
1 year ago Today
Na+ 142 mmol/l 139 mmol/l
K+ 3.9 mmol/l 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 6.5 mmol/l 8.6 mmol/l
Creatinine 132 µmol/l 243µmol/l
To determine if the decline in renal function is associated with a complication of his myeloma, what stain should be performed during his renal biopsy?Your Answer: Gram stain
Correct Answer: Congo red
Explanation:Secondary amyloidosis can be caused by myeloma.
AL amyloidosis is associated with light chain myeloma, which results in the accumulation of light chains in the tissues. Congo red staining is a reliable method for diagnosing amyloidosis and can be performed on any tissue sample obtained through biopsy.
Gram staining is used to identify bacteria, while silver staining is used to detect fungi. Ziehl-Neelsen and auramine stains are used to detect Mycobacterium.
Amyloidosis is a condition that can occur in different forms. The most common type is AL amyloidosis, which is caused by the accumulation of immunoglobulin light chain fragments. This can be due to underlying conditions such as myeloma, Waldenstrom’s, or MGUS. Symptoms of AL amyloidosis can include nephrotic syndrome, cardiac and neurological issues, macroglossia, and periorbital ecchymosis.
Another type of amyloidosis is AA amyloid, which is caused by the buildup of serum amyloid A protein, an acute phase reactant. This form of amyloidosis is often seen in patients with chronic infections or inflammation, such as TB, bronchiectasis, or rheumatoid arthritis. The most common symptom of AA amyloidosis is renal involvement.
Beta-2 microglobulin amyloidosis is another form of the condition, which is caused by the accumulation of beta-2 microglobulin, a protein found in the major histocompatibility complex. This type of amyloidosis is often seen in patients who are on renal dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the hospital with visible blood in his urine. He recently arrived in the country from Nigeria and is not currently taking any medications. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and he denies any other symptoms. The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 114 g/L (130-180)
- MCV: 72 fL (80-96 fL)
- Reticulocyte count: 4.9% (0.5-2.4)
- Serum sodium: 134 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium: 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 8.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 120 µmol/L (60-110)
- C reactive protein: 8 mg/L (<10)
- Urine dipstick: Protein +, Blood ++++
What is the most likely cause of his haematuria?Your Answer: Pyelonephritis
Correct Answer: Papillary necrosis
Explanation:Macroscopic Haematuria in a Patient with Sickle Cell Anaemia
This patient from Africa is experiencing macroscopic haematuria, along with mild anaemia, raised reticulocyte count, and low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Based on these symptoms, it is likely that he has sickle cell anaemia. There is no indication in the question that he has analgesic nephropathy, and while loin pain haematuria syndrome can cause haematuria, it is typically accompanied by severe loin pain.
The most probable cause of this patient’s symptoms is papillary necrosis, which occurs when the renal papilla experiences ischaemic lesions ranging from small ulcerations to complete necrosis. This condition is common in sickle cell disease and can result in prolonged haematuria that may require transfusion or limited surgery. While the patient’s inflammatory markers are normal, ruling out malaria or pyelonephritis, it is important to monitor his condition and provide conservative treatment as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with bilateral leg swelling. He has a medical history of hepatitis B, hepatitis C, type 2 diabetes, and previous syphilis. He is currently using intravenous heroin.
Upon examination, there is peripheral edema extending to his upper thighs. Chest auscultation is normal, and the jugular venous pulse is not raised. There is no clinical evidence of decompensated liver disease.
Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 138 g/L, platelets at 189 * 109/L, and a white blood cell count of 4.2 * 109/L. His sodium and potassium levels are within normal range, as is his urea and creatinine. His CRP is 4 mg/L, bilirubin is 12 µmol/L, ALP is 88 u/L, ALT is 32 u/L, γGT is 44 u/L, and albumin is 20 g/L. However, his urine protein:creatinine ratio is 425 mg/mmol, which is significantly higher than the normal range of <50.
A renal biopsy is performed, which reveals focal and segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis on light microscopy.
What is the likely underlying cause for this diagnosis?Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Heroin use
Explanation:Heroin use is a known risk factor for the development of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS), which is consistent with the patient’s biopsy results and presentation of nephrotic syndrome (oedema, hypoalbuminaemia, and proteinuria). Other potential causes such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and syphilis are less likely to result in FSGS and are more commonly associated with other forms of glomerulonephritis.
Understanding Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) is a type of kidney disease that often leads to nephrotic syndrome and chronic kidney disease. It is commonly diagnosed in young adults and can be caused by various factors such as HIV, heroin, Alport’s syndrome, and sickle-cell. In some cases, it may also be idiopathic or secondary to other renal pathologies like IgA nephropathy or reflux nephropathy.
To diagnose FSGS, a renal biopsy is usually performed, which shows focal and segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis on light microscopy and effacement of foot processes on electron microscopy. If left untreated, FSGS has a low chance of spontaneous remission, with less than 10% of cases experiencing it.
Management of FSGS typically involves the use of steroids and immunosuppressants. However, it is important to note that FSGS has a high recurrence rate in renal transplants, making it a challenging condition to manage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 42
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with chronic renal disease is being evaluated for renal transplantation. During his counselling, he is informed that immunosuppression after the transplant can increase his chances of developing cancer. Which type of cancer has the highest risk of occurrence due to immunosuppression?
Your Answer: Non-melanoma skin cancer
Explanation:High Risk of Non-Melanoma Skin Cancer in Kidney Transplant Recipients
Kidney transplant recipients are at a heightened risk of developing certain types of cancer due to impaired immunosurveillance. Therefore, cancer surveillance is a crucial consideration for these patients. Among the various types of cancer, non-melanoma skin cancer poses the highest risk of development in kidney transplant recipients. It is important to note that other types of cancer do not appear to have an increased rate of development compared to the general population. As such, they should not be a primary concern for cancer surveillance in kidney transplant recipients. For more information on postoperative care for kidney transplant recipients, refer to The Renal Association’s guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with vomiting, confusion, general malaise and abdominal pain. His initial blood tests reveal low hemoglobin, low platelets, high white blood cells, and elevated levels of urea, creatinine, and LDH. The ESR is also high, and the PT and APTT are within normal limits. After ruling out Shiga toxin and ADAMS-13, the patient is diagnosed with atypical hemolytic-uremic syndrome and undergoes plasma exchange. What other treatment has been proven effective in managing this condition?
Your Answer: Daratumumab
Correct Answer: Eculizumab
Explanation:Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The most common cause of HUS in children is Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, which accounts for over 90% of cases. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer.
To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count, check for evidence of STEC infection in stool culture, and conduct PCR for Shiga toxins. Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. The indications for plasma exchange in HUS are complicated, and as a general rule, plasma exchange is reserved for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea. Eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.
In summary, HUS is a serious condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms. The most common cause of HUS in children is STEC 0157:H7, and diagnosis may involve various tests. Treatment is supportive, and antibiotics are not recommended. The indications for plasma exchange are complicated, and eculizumab may be more effective in treating adult atypical HUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with bipolar disorder is admitted from home, presenting with dehydration. He has a history of colonic resection with subsequent ileostomy, but further information is not available. His current medications include lithium bicarbonate, aspirin, and ramipril. On examination, his vital signs are stable, but he appears dehydrated. There is no evidence of bowel obstruction, and effluent is present in the ileostomy. Blood tests reveal high serum sodium but normal serum blood sugar. Renal function and full blood count results are pending. A urinary catheter is inserted, and intravenous fluid replacement is initiated. Which diagnostic test would be most useful in distinguishing between renal and extra-renal fluid loss?
Your Answer: Urinary protein: creatinine ratio
Correct Answer: Urine osmolality
Explanation:Importance of Urine Osmolality in Assessing Dehydration
Dehydration can have various causes, and it is important to determine the underlying reason to provide appropriate treatment. One way to distinguish the cause of dehydration is by measuring urine osmolality. This test provides an indication of whether the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine or not. In cases of extra-renal fluid loss, the body conserves fluid by producing concentrated urine. On the other hand, renal fluid loss, such as in diabetes insipidus, results in dilute urine with low osmolality.
Other tests, such as brain natriuretic peptide, serum osmolality, urinary protein:creatinine ratio, and nitrites on urine dipstick, do not provide relevant information in assessing dehydration. Brain natriuretic peptide is not directly related to electrolyte imbalance, while serum osmolality is expected to be high in cases of high serum sodium. Urinary protein:creatinine ratio is used to assess proteinuria, and nitrites on urinary dipstick are indicative of urinary infection.
In summary, urine osmolality is a crucial test in determining the cause of dehydration. It helps differentiate between extra-renal and renal fluid loss, which guides appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure treated with bisoprolol, ramipril, furosemide and spironolactone presents to the clinic with a complaint of painful gynaecomastia that has become more prominent over the past 6 months since he had a medication change. Although his heart failure symptoms are stable, he is concerned about this new development. On examination, his blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg, his pulse is 65 beats per minute and regular. There are only minor basal crackles at both lung bases on auscultation, and minor pitting oedema of both ankles. Routine blood testing is unremarkable including creatinine.
What is the most appropriate management strategy for his gynaecomastia?Your Answer: Stop ramipril
Correct Answer: Change spironolactone to eplerenone
Explanation:Patients experiencing troublesome gynaecomastia while on spironolactone can switch to eplerenone as it is a next generation aldosterone antagonist that does not cause gynaecomastia. Spironolactone reduces testosterone production and increases peripheral conversion of testosterone to oestradiol, both of which contribute to gynaecomastia. However, if the patient has stable heart failure, switching to eplerenone is the most appropriate course of action. Changing furosemide to bendroflumethiazide will not address gynaecomastia and may worsen heart failure control. Discontinuing spironolactone altogether will lead to worsening of fluid retention. Bisoprolol and ramipril are beneficial in improving LV function and heart failure symptoms and should not be stopped.
Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.
However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 46
Correct
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A 49-year-old man with chronic kidney disease due to adult polycystic kidney disease presents with a three-month history of increasing fatigue and lethargy. He complains of feeling tired all the time and experiences mild shortness of breath when climbing stairs. However, he denies any dizziness and has walked from the parking lot to the clinic without any difficulty. Upon examination, he appears pale, and his flanks are full due to bilateral ballotable kidneys. He has a maturing arteriovenous fistula in his left arm that has not been used yet.
The following are his blood test results:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 80 g/l
Platelets: 125 * 109/l
White blood cells (WBC): 4.4 * 109/l
Sodium (Na+): 135 mmol/l
Potassium (K+): 4.8 mmol/l
Urea: 12.2 mmol/l
Creatinine: 265 µmol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 15 ml/min
Ferritin: 102 ng/ml
Transferrin saturation: 23%
What is the most effective approach to managing this patient's anemia?Your Answer: Commencement of erythropoiesis stimulating agents (ESA) aiming for a haemoglobin of 100-120 g/dL
Explanation:Before starting ESA therapy, patients must undergo an evaluation of their iron status and, if appropriate, receive parenteral iron therapy alongside their ESA treatment.
Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.
There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.
To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea and lethargy two weeks after starting omeprazole for gastro-oesophageal reflux. His blood work reveals a hemoglobin level of 121 g/L (130-180), elevated eosinophils at 0.52 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), high creatinine levels at 395 μmol/L (60-110), and low bicarbonate levels at 20 mmol/L (20-28). Additionally, his urinalysis shows +++ blood, +++ leucocytes, and + protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: Acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis
Explanation:Acute Tubulo-Interstitial Nephritis Secondary to Omeprazole
This man is experiencing acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis due to omeprazole, which is causing him to feel nauseous and lethargic due to acute uraemia. His active urinary sediment, which includes red and white cells, along with eosinophilia and minimal proteinuria, suggests that he is experiencing acute interstitial nephritis. Additionally, he is experiencing a rash and fever, which is seen in about 10% of cases.
Acute interstitial nephritis can be caused by drug-induced reactions, autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s and SLE, and infections such as Legionella and CMV. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the nephritis in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further damage to the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 48
Correct
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As the medical doctor in charge of an acute medical admissions unit, you receive a 40-year old male patient with Alport's syndrome and type 1 diabetes. He had a renal transplant from his brother two weeks ago and is currently on immunosuppressive therapy (tacrolimus and mycophenolate mofetil). The patient appears to be in good health, but his urine dipstick shows 3+ blood and protein. Upon examination, there are no apparent abnormalities.
The patient's blood test results are as follows:
- Na+ 141 mmol/l
- K+ 4.7 mmol/l
- Urea 18.6 mmol/l
- Creatinine 288 µmol/l (baseline 80 µmol/l)
- eGFR 34 ml/min (baseline 82 ml/min)
What is the most likely cause of the patient's acute kidney injury?Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome
Explanation:If a patient is experiencing symptoms of renal vein thrombosis and CMV infection, accelerated graft rejection may occur within days. However, if a patient is experiencing acute graft rejection, it would be the most likely explanation.
Alport’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is typically inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. It is caused by a defect in the gene responsible for producing type IV collagen, which leads to an abnormal glomerular-basement membrane (GBM). The disease is more severe in males, with females rarely developing renal failure. Symptoms usually present in childhood and may include microscopic haematuria, progressive renal failure, bilateral sensorineural deafness, lenticonus, retinitis pigmentosa, and splitting of the lamina densa seen on electron microscopy. In some cases, an Alport’s patient with a failing renal transplant may have anti-GBM antibodies, leading to a Goodpasture’s syndrome-like picture. Diagnosis can be made through molecular genetic testing, renal biopsy, or electron microscopy. In around 85% of cases, the syndrome is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern, while 10-15% of cases are inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion, with rare autosomal dominant variants existing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of Alzheimer's disease presents with a 4-day history of increased confusion, lower abdominal pain, and foul-smelling urine. Upon admission, her blood tests reveal:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 119 g/l
- Platelets: 425 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 15.9 * 109/l
- Neutrophils (Neuts): 13 * 109/l
- Lymphocytes (Lymphs): 2 * 109/l
- Eosinophils (Eosin): 0.02 * 109/l
- Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 3.7 mmol/l
- Urea: 7.2 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 78 µmol/l
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 140 mg/l
She is started on treatment for a urinary tract infection. Two days later, her blood tests show:
- Hb: 115 g/l
- Platelets: 360 * 109/l
- WBC: 10.2 * 109/l
- Neuts: 7.5 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 1.5 * 109/l
- Eosin: 0.001 * 109/l
- Na+: 141 mmol/l
- K+: 5.2 mmol/l
- Urea: 8 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 105 µmol/l
- CRP: 43 mg/l
Which antibiotic is likely to have been used to treat her UTI?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:The presence of trimethoprim can result in elevated levels of creatinine due to their shared competition for elimination through the tubular receptor in the urine.
Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This may cause an interaction with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim may also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the medication. Additionally, trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, which often leads to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.
When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. Manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication, especially during pregnancy, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department with frank haemoptysis. He has no past medical history. He smokes 20 cigarettes daily.
Observations:
Spo2 95% on room air
Respiratory rate 18/minute
Temperature 37 C
Blood pressure 101/65 mmHg
Heart rate 88 beats per minute
The examination is unremarkable.
Bloods:
Hb 82 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 189 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 4.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 14.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 302 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 55 mg/L (< 5)
Urinalysis:
Blood +++
Protein +++
Glucose -ve
Leucocytes -ve
Nitrites -ve
A chest x-ray demonstrates bilateral coalescent airspace opacification.
A renal biopsy is undertaken, which demonstrates linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane.
What is the appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Corticosteroids, rituximab and plasmapheresis
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids, cyclophosphamide and plasmapheresis
Explanation:The recommended treatment for anti-GBM disease involves a combination of corticosteroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasmapheresis. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and biopsy results suggest a diagnosis of anti-GBM disease, an autoimmune disorder that targets the lungs and kidneys. Plasmapheresis is urgently needed to remove the harmful autoantibodies, followed by treatment with cyclophosphamide and prednisolone to suppress further autoantibody production and reduce inflammation. Corticosteroids alone are not sufficient for managing this condition, and rituximab is not typically used in anti-GBM disease.
Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease, previously known as Goodpasture’s syndrome, is a rare form of small-vessel vasculitis that is characterized by both pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This condition is caused by anti-GBM antibodies against type IV collagen and is more common in men, with a bimodal age distribution. Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with HLA DR2.
The features of this disease include pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, which can lead to acute kidney injury. Nephritis can result in proteinuria and haematuria. Renal biopsy typically shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane, while transfer factor is raised secondary to pulmonary haemorrhages.
Management of anti-GBM disease involves plasma exchange (plasmapheresis), steroids, and cyclophosphamide. One of the main complications of this condition is pulmonary haemorrhage, which can be exacerbated by factors such as smoking, lower respiratory tract infection, pulmonary oedema, inhalation of hydrocarbons, and young males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old female presents with a two week history of worsening facial puffiness and weight gain. She has been feeling tired and lethargic for the past month since recovering from a throat infection. She had a similar infection when she was 11, but had no complications. She is not taking any medications and there are no other significant findings in her medical history. On examination, she has generalized puffiness and pitting edema in her lower limbs. Her blood pressure is 133/86 mmHg and her pulse is 88 bpm. Chest, cardiovascular, and abdominal exams are normal.
The following investigations were done:
- Hemoglobin: 146 g/L (normal range: 115-165)
- White cell count: 6 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11)
- Platelets: 250 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400)
- Serum sodium: 136 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
- Serum potassium: 4.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
- Serum chloride: 103 mmol/L (normal range: 95-107)
- Serum bicarbonate: 24 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)
- Serum urea: 4.2 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 93 µmol/L (normal range: 60-110)
- Serum albumin: 25 g/L (normal range: 37-49)
- Urine dipstick: Protein +++
- 24 hour urine protein: 4.3 g/L
What is the best course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous furosemide
Correct Answer: High dose corticosteroids
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome in Children
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low levels of albumin, proteinuria exceeding 3 g/24 hr, and edema. In children, the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome is minimal change disease, which can be treated with high doses of corticosteroids. Cyclophosphamide may be used to speed up remission, but it should be avoided in childhood due to its cytotoxic effects. Salt-poor albumin and IV furosemide can help manage edema, but they do not cure proteinuria. If left untreated, nephrotic syndrome can lead to complications such as streptococcal sepsis, venous thromboembolism, and hypercholesterolemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 52
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman with end stage renal failure due to hypertension presents with complaints of increasing fatigue and thirst. She is currently undergoing renal replacement therapy through haemodialysis and is taking Levemir, NovoRapid, ramipril, aspirin, simvastatin, calcium carbonate, and erythropoietin. On examination, her pulse rate is 84 beats per minute and regular, and her blood pressure is 138/65 mmHg. The jugular venous pressure is visible 2 cm above the clavicle (prior to dialysis), the lung bases are clear, and there is no peripheral oedema. A functioning radiocephalic arteriovenous fistula is present in her left arm.
Her pre-dialysis blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 105 g/L (115-165), sodium level of 134 mmol/L (137-144), potassium level of 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea level of 34 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine level of 437 μmol/L (60-110), corrected calcium level of 2.78 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), phosphate level of 1.79 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), and parathyroid hormone level of 724 ng/L (15-65).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Hyperparathyroidism and its Different Types
Hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can be classified into three types: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by hypercalcemia and an inappropriately raised parathyroid hormone, while the phosphate level is typically low. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia and an appropriately elevated parathyroid hormone level, with the phosphate level varying depending on the underlying cause. In cases of chronic kidney disease, a deficiency of activated vitamin D can lead to tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by raised calcium, raised (or sometimes normal) phosphate, and grossly elevated parathyroid hormone levels.
It is important to note that hypercalcemia can also be caused by other factors such as malignancy or iatrogenic hypercalcemia. In these cases, the calcium level is high, but the parathyroid hormone level is low. the different types of hyperparathyroidism and their associated biochemical markers is crucial in diagnosing and managing the condition. Proper treatment can help prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the hospital with fevers, rigors, and right-sided flank pain. Her urine dipstick is positive for nitrites and leukocytes. She works in an office and is not on any regular medications. Her vital signs are as follows: pulse 110, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, and temperature 38.5°C. She is diagnosed with pyelonephritis and started on intravenous antibiotics. Her laboratory results show a white cell count of 20 ×109/L (4-11), C reactive protein of 150 mg/L (<2), and creatinine of 80 µmol/L (60-110). An ultrasound scan of the renal tract reveals multiple cysts in both kidneys, consistent with polycystic kidney disease. The patient has no history of urinary tract infections, renal calculi, or previous surgeries. She is concerned about the need for brain imaging to look for cerebral aneurysms, despite having no neurological symptoms or family history of stroke or aneurysms. What is the most appropriate management step?
Your Answer: MRA of the brain as an outpatient
Correct Answer: No routine imaging is required at this stage
Explanation:Screening for Cerebral Aneurysms in Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease Patients
It is estimated that a small percentage of patients with adult polycystic kidney disease may have cerebral aneurysms. However, current consensus suggests that routine screening for cerebral aneurysms should only be carried out in high-risk patients. These high-risk patients include those who have previously experienced a rupture of an aneurysm, those who exhibit concerning neurological symptoms such as severe headaches, and those with a positive family history of haemorrhagic stroke or aneurysm.
Even if an aneurysm is found, the risk of rupture may still be low, and the potential complications of curative surgery may outweigh the benefits of conservative management. Therefore, patients who do not exhibit any of the aforementioned risk factors do not require routine screening for cerebral aneurysms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with a three week history of penile swelling. He has a medical history of obesity, asthma, and a previous diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Upon examination, he displays global pitting edema and a mild expiratory wheeze. The admission blood tests reveal:
- Sodium (Na+): 142 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 3.6 mmol/l
- Urea: 6.9 mmol/l (baseline 4.2 mmol/l)
- Creatinine: 126 µmol/l (baseline 84 µmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mondor's disease
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Possible Complications of Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to leak protein into the urine. This can lead to a number of complications, including an increased risk of thromboembolism, which is related to the loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen in the urine. This can result in deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and renal vein thrombosis, which can cause a sudden deterioration in renal function.
Other complications of nephrotic syndrome include hyperlipidaemia, which can increase the risk of acute coronary syndrome, stroke, and other cardiovascular problems. Chronic kidney disease is also a possible complication, as is an increased risk of infection due to the loss of urinary immunoglobulin. Additionally, hypocalcaemia can occur due to the loss of vitamin D and binding protein in the urine.
It is important for individuals with nephrotic syndrome to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent further complications from occurring. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to minimize the risk of these complications and improve overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 55
Correct
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An 80 year-old man visited his GP complaining of swelling in his lower limbs that had developed over the past week. He also reported having frothy urine. The patient had a history of lung cancer and was about to start palliative chemotherapy. On examination, his blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg and his pulse was 88 beats per minute. Urinalysis showed 4+ protein and 1+ blood. The patient's lab results revealed a hemoglobin level of 110 g/l, platelets of 375 * 109/l, and a WBC count of 4.9 * 109/l. His sodium level was 136 mmol/l, potassium was 4.6 mmol/l, urea was 23.0 mmol/l, creatinine was 420 µmol/l, serum albumin was 18 g/L, and his 24-hour urine protein was 4.5 g (<0.2). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Membranous nephropathy
Explanation:The history of lung cancer is the key factor in diagnosing this case. Secondary membranous nephropathy can be caused by malignancies, and the development of nephrotic syndrome in an elderly patient should prompt consideration of an underlying malignancy.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 56
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing bone and muscle aches. He is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine, and indapamide for blood pressure control, atorvastatin for lipid management, and insulin for blood sugar control. On examination, his blood pressure is 148/80 mmHg, pulse is 79 and regular, and BMI is 28.
Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 107 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 8.2 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 202 ×109/L (150-400), serum sodium of 140 mmol/L (135-146), serum potassium of 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine of 192 µmol/L (79-118), and calcium of 2.18 mmol/L (2.2-2.67). His phosphate level is elevated at 1.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.5) despite following a low phosphate diet.
What would be the most appropriate next step in controlling his phosphate levels?Your Answer: Sevelamer
Explanation:Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that is a good option for patients with end stage renal failure and high serum phosphate levels. It is preferred over aluminium hydroxide due to concerns about aluminium accumulation. Calcium acetate and carbonate are alternatives, but there are concerns about tissue calcification. Cinacalcet is used for hyperparathyroidism in dialysis patients or those who cannot have surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presents to the nephrology clinic for review. He was diagnosed with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease at the age of 20 after undergoing screening. His father, aunt, and sister also have the condition. He is currently taking ramipril 10mg daily and reports no symptoms. His blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg.
Recent blood tests reveal a decline in his eGFR from 90 mL/min/1.73 m² to 65 mL/min/1.73 m² over the past year. A recent ultrasound scan shows bilateral renal cysts, with both kidneys increasing in size from 12 cm to 14cm since the previous scan two years ago.
What treatment options should be considered for this patient?Your Answer: Angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)
Correct Answer: Tolvaptan
Explanation:The use of tolvaptan has been proven to slow down the progression of autosomal polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) and has been approved by NICE. It is recommended for patients with ADPKD and CKD stage 2 or 3 who have evidence of rapidly progressing disease, as in this case. However, patients may experience polyuria and polydipsia, and regular monitoring of renal and liver function is necessary during treatment.
There is no evidence that dual therapy with ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) is more effective than monotherapy, especially since the patient’s blood pressure is already well controlled. Statins are not a specific treatment for ADPKD, and nephrectomy is not necessary for asymptomatic patients. Nephrectomy is only considered for patients with cyst complications such as pain, bleeding, or infection.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a commonly inherited kidney disease that affects 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2 respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for 15% of cases. ADPKD type 1 is caused by a mutation in the PKD1 gene on chromosome 16, while ADPKD type 2 is caused by a mutation in the PKD2 gene on chromosome 4. ADPKD type 1 tends to present with renal failure earlier than ADPKD type 2.
To screen for ADPKD in relatives of affected individuals, an abdominal ultrasound is recommended. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, if the individual is under 30 years old. If the individual is between 30-59 years old, two cysts in both kidneys are required for diagnosis. If the individual is over 60 years old, four cysts in both kidneys are necessary for diagnosis.
For some patients with ADPKD, tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, may be an option to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. However, NICE recommends tolvaptan only for adults with ADPKD who have chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 38 year-old female patient presents with a four month history of abdominal distension, facial swelling and malaise. She has a past medical history of membranous glomerulonephritis. On examination, heart sounds 1 and 2 were present with no added sounds and the pulse was regular. Lung fields were clear, and abdominal exam reveals mild ascites. There was bilateral periorbital oedema with pitting oedema of the shins.
Blood tests reveal:
- Hb 8.8 g/dL
- Platelets 115 * 109/l
- WBC 4.2 * 109/l
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 82 fl
- Na+ 148 mmol/l
- K+ 3.3 mmol/l
- Urea 9.2 mmol/l
- Creatinine 176 µmol/l
- Bilirubin 14 µmol/l
- ALP 91 u/l
- ALT 19 u/l
- γGT 68 u/l
- Albumin 32 g/l
- Cholesterol 7.9 mmol/l
Urinalysis reveals protein +++ and a 24-hour protein excretion is 5.2g.
The patient was started on high-dose diuretics and immunosuppression. Two weeks later, she presents with abdominal pain which is 6/10 on the pain scale and worse in her flanks. Her observations were normal apart from a temperature of 38.3ºC. Blood tests are performed and are similar to before except a raised creatinine to 314 µmol/l and a urea of 15.1 mmol/l.
What is the most likely reason for this patient's deterioration in renal function?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: Renal vein thrombosis
Explanation:Possible Complications of Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to leak protein into the urine. This can lead to a number of complications, including an increased risk of thromboembolism, which is related to the loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen in the urine. This can result in deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and renal vein thrombosis, which can cause a sudden deterioration in renal function.
Other complications of nephrotic syndrome include hyperlipidaemia, which can increase the risk of acute coronary syndrome, stroke, and other cardiovascular problems. Chronic kidney disease is also a possible complication, as is an increased risk of infection due to the loss of urinary immunoglobulin. Additionally, hypocalcaemia can occur due to the loss of vitamin D and binding protein in the urine.
It is important for individuals with nephrotic syndrome to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent further complications from occurring. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to minimize the risk of these complications and improve overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man was referred to the medical admissions unit by his GP. He had a 2 month history of lethargy, weight loss and night sweats. He also complained of nasal crusting and shortness of breath with one episode of haemoptysis that morning. He had a past medical history of hypertension, for which he was taking amlodipine.
On examination his blood pressure was 156/94 mmHg and he appeared unwell. There was a petechial rash on both lower limbs.
A chest x-ray was performed which showed bilateral alveolar infiltrates. Blood tests are shown below:
Hb 96 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 487 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 15.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 11.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 196 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 285 mg/L (< 5)
c-ANCA positive
anti-GBM antibodies negative
A renal biopsy was performed which showed a necrotising crescentic glomerulonephritis.
What would be the criteria to initiate plasma exchange in this case?Your Answer: Crescents on renal biopsy
Correct Answer: Pulmonary haemorrhage
Explanation:Plasma exchange is recommended for ANCA-associated vasculitis patients with rapidly progressive renal failure or pulmonary hemorrhage. This includes individuals with severe active renal disease, indicated by a serum creatinine level above 354 micromol/L or those requiring dialysis.
Plasma Exchange: Indications and Complications
Plasma exchange, also known as plasmapheresis, is a medical procedure that involves removing plasma from the blood and replacing it with a substitute solution. This procedure is used to treat various medical conditions, including Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, ANCA positive vasculitis, TTP/HUS, cryoglobulinemia, and hyperviscosity syndrome. Plasma exchange is particularly useful in cases where the patient’s immune system is attacking their own body, as it removes the antibodies responsible for the attack.
However, like any medical procedure, plasma exchange is not without its risks. Complications can include hypocalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, removal of systemic medications, coagulation factor depletion, and immunoglobulin depletion. Hypocalcemia is caused by the presence of citrate, which is used as an anticoagulant for the extracorporeal system. Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to the loss of acid in the plasma. Removal of systemic medications can be a concern, as plasma exchange can remove medications from the bloodstream. Coagulation factor depletion can lead to bleeding, while immunoglobulin depletion can increase the risk of infection. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients undergoing plasma exchange to minimize the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the emergency department with sudden onset severe pain in the right upper quadrant. She has been experiencing vomiting and feverishness but no diarrhea. Her ankles have been swollen for a few months, and her GP prescribed furosemide, which did not help. On examination, she has voluntary guarding and tenderness in the right upper quadrant, and pitting edema to the knee. Her blood tests show elevated creatinine and CRP levels, and her urine dip shows protein and RBCs. Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of her right upper quadrant pain?
Your Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Correct Answer: Acute portal vein thrombosis
Explanation:This woman is experiencing acute portal vein thrombosis as a result of developing nephrotic syndrome from taking penicillamine for her rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of acute portal vein thrombosis typically include pain in the upper right quadrant, vomiting, and fever. There are usually no signs of portal hypertension, and liver function tests may only show mild abnormalities. Given the patient’s history of ankle swelling, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and abnormal kidney function, it is likely that she has nephrotic syndrome. While biliary colic is a possible alternative diagnosis, the presence of renal impairment and the patient’s clinical history suggest otherwise.
Possible Complications of Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to leak protein into the urine. This can lead to a number of complications, including an increased risk of thromboembolism, which is related to the loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen in the urine. This can result in deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and renal vein thrombosis, which can cause a sudden deterioration in renal function.
Other complications of nephrotic syndrome include hyperlipidaemia, which can increase the risk of acute coronary syndrome, stroke, and other cardiovascular problems. Chronic kidney disease is also a possible complication, as is an increased risk of infection due to the loss of urinary immunoglobulin. Additionally, hypocalcaemia can occur due to the loss of vitamin D and binding protein in the urine.
It is important for individuals with nephrotic syndrome to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent further complications from occurring. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to minimize the risk of these complications and improve overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of dysuria, flank pain, fever and chills for the past 2 days. He is currently taking metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide for his hypertension. Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: temperature 39.3 °C, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, pulse 120/min, respiration 28/min and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Mild tenderness is noted at the left costovertebral angle, but the rest of the physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed and comes back normal. The urine dipstick is positive for blood, protein and nitrites, prompting blood and urine analysis and cultures. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer: Start a dopamine infusion
Correct Answer: Start intravenous antibiotic therapy
Explanation:Urinary tract infection (UTI) in men is less common than in women, but it can still occur and lead to serious complications such as sepsis. The initial step in managing UTI in men is early antibiotic therapy, which should cover Gram-negative rods such as E. coli, the most common pathogen. The choice of antibiotic depends on the history and Gram stain of the urine, and should be adjusted based on culture sensitivity.While the dipstick test for nitrite is commonly used as a marker for bacteriuria, it should be noted that not all uropathogens reduce nitrates to nitrite, leading to false-negative results for some species.An ultrasound of the kidneys may be useful for detecting hydronephrosis, but it is not the initial step in management. Urological consultation may be necessary in cases of recurrent UTIs or obstructive uropathy, but this would depend on the results of the ultrasound.Insertion of a Foley catheter is only necessary if there is suspicion of obstructive uropathy, such as that caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy. Finally, a dopamine infusion has no role in the treatment of UTI, but may be used to support renal blood flow in patients with persistent hypotension and poor urine output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 36 year-old man presented to his GP with weakness and arthralgia. He had a past history of liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C virus infection which was contracted 8 years ago, however he had failed to attend any clinic appointments over the past 12 months.
On examination, his pulse was 85 beats per minute and his blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg. There was a purpuric rash affecting his lower limbs. Urinalysis showed blood 2+ and protein 2+.
Hb 128 g/l
Platelets 577 * 109/l
WBC 10.9 * 109/l
Na+ 137 mmol/l
K+ 4.1 mmol/l
Urea 7.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 186 µmol/l
What investigation is most crucial for diagnosis?Your Answer: Anti glomerular basement membrane antibodies
Correct Answer: Serum cryoglobulins
Explanation:The key indicators in this instance are the patient’s past diagnosis of hepatitis C and the appearance of a purplish-red rash. These symptoms suggest the possibility of cryoglobulinemia, a condition that can lead to a form of mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis known as type 1 (often linked to hepatitis C infection).
Understanding Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, also known as mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis, is a kidney disease that can present as nephrotic syndrome, haematuria, or proteinuria. Unfortunately, it has a poor prognosis. There are three types of this disease, with type 1 accounting for 90% of cases. It is caused by cryoglobulinaemia and hepatitis C, and can be diagnosed through a renal biopsy that shows subendothelial and mesangium immune deposits of electron-dense material resulting in a ‘tram-track’ appearance under electron microscopy.
Type 2, also known as ‘dense deposit disease’, is caused by partial lipodystrophy and factor H deficiency. It is characterized by persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway, low circulating levels of C3, and the presence of C3b nephritic factor in 70% of cases. This factor is an antibody to alternative-pathway C3 convertase (C3bBb) that stabilizes C3 convertase. A renal biopsy for type 2 shows intramembranous immune complex deposits with ‘dense deposits’ under electron microscopy.
Type 3 is caused by hepatitis B and C. While steroids may be effective in managing this disease, it is important to note that the prognosis for all types of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is poor. Understanding the different types and their causes can help with diagnosis and management of this serious kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient presents with a widespread maculopapular rash accompanied by fever and lower back pain. She has also noticed swelling in both her legs. The patient had visited her GP three weeks ago and was prescribed amoxicillin for a chest infection. A urinalysis was performed, and the results are as follows:
Urinalysis
Blood +++
White cells +++ (eosinophils+++)
No organisms seen
Glucose -
Nitrates -
Blood tests:
Hb 10.6 g/dl
MCV 86 fl
Platelets 390 * 109/l
WBC 9.2 * 109/l
Na+ 136 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 12.4 mmol/l
Creatinine 135 µmol/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis
Explanation:Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that is responsible for a quarter of all drug-induced acute kidney injuries. The most common cause of this condition is drugs, particularly antibiotics such as penicillin and rifampicin, as well as NSAIDs, allopurinol, and furosemide. Systemic diseases like SLE, sarcoidosis, and Sjögren’s syndrome, as well as infections like Hanta virus and staphylococci, can also cause acute interstitial nephritis. The histology of this condition shows marked interstitial oedema and interstitial infiltrate in the connective tissue between renal tubules. Symptoms of acute interstitial nephritis include fever, rash, arthralgia, eosinophilia, mild renal impairment, and hypertension. Sterile pyuria and white cell casts are common findings in investigations.
Tubulointerstitial nephritis with uveitis (TINU) is a condition that typically affects young females. Symptoms of TINU include fever, weight loss, and painful, red eyes. Urinalysis is positive for leukocytes and protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man has been referred to the metabolic medicine clinic by his urologist due to repeated episodes of renal stones over the past few years. The patient has experienced multiple attacks of right-sided ureteric colic with the presence of renal calculi demonstrated on ultrasound. Despite maintaining his hydration level, the patient had a new episode of left-sided ureteric colic two months ago, which required lithotripsy and an ureteric stent. The patient is now symptom-free but is keen to consider interventions to reduce his risk of recurrent attacks.
The patient has a limited past medical history, with only a previous diagnosis of hypercholesterolaemia and a previous appendicectomy. He takes simvastatin 40 mg daily and works full time as a bus driver. Investigations organised following clinic review show elevated urinary calcium levels and biochemical analysis of calculi indicates calcium phosphate.
What is the appropriate management plan to reduce the patient's risk of recurrent renal stones?Your Answer: Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: Chlorthalidone
Explanation:Management and Prevention of Renal Stones
Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.
Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteral obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intracorporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.
Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 65
Correct
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A 55-year-old male presents acutely as a primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PPCI) call after sudden onset chest pain of onset 3 hours ago, associated with nausea, vomiting and profuse sweating.
His ECG in the ambulance demonstrates ST elevation noted on V2-V5. His past medical history includes include hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease (creatinine baseline = 170 µmol/l at the renal clinic 2 months ago). He is taken straight to the cardiac catheter laboratory, where he undergoes angioplasty and a single drug-eluting stent to his left anterior descending artery. On examination, he is pain-free, warm peripherally without respiratory distress. Capillary refill time is less than 2s and jugular venous pulse at 3 cm above the angle of Louis. His heart sounds and chest are unremarkable. A post-procedure transthoracic echocardiogram demonstrates moderate left ventricular impairment with no valve abnormalities.
At 24 hours after admission, his blood tests are repeated and are as follows:
Hb 92 g/l
WCC 13.5 * 109/l
Plt 198* 109/l
Na 138 mmol/l
K 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 12.9 mmol/l
Creat 254 µmol/l
Trop 0.87 (normal < 0.03)
What is the most appropriate next management step in addition to optimizing hydration status?Your Answer: Monitor with daily U+Es
Explanation:Contrast nephropathy can be prevented by pre and post contrast hydration, but mannitol should not be used due to its higher risk of adverse events. The effectiveness of intravenous n-acetylcysteine as a preventative measure is uncertain, but it is recommended for high-risk patients due to its low cost and availability. However, it is not typically used as a treatment for contrast nephropathy. In cases of renal dysfunction, monitoring is the next appropriate step, as most patients will experience spontaneous reversal of symptoms. These recommendations are based on studies such as those conducted by Pannu et al. (2006) and Parfrey et al. (1989).
Contrast media nephrotoxicity is characterized by a 25% increase in creatinine levels within three days of receiving intravascular contrast media. This condition typically occurs between two to five days after administration and is more likely to affect patients with pre-existing renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, or those taking nephrotoxic drugs like NSAIDs. Procedures that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy include CT scans with contrast and coronary angiography or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Around 5% of patients who undergo PCI experience a temporary increase in plasma creatinine levels of more than 88 µmol/L.
To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride should be administered at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours before and after the procedure. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate may also be used. While N-acetylcysteine was previously used, recent evidence suggests it is not effective. Patients at high risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function returns to normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presented to the renal clinic with complaints of increased swelling in his ankles over the past six weeks. His blood pressure was measured at 140/80 mmHg. Initial investigations by his general practitioner revealed abnormal levels of serum sodium, potassium, urea, creatinine, and albumin, as well as significant protein in his urine. The patient was started on a daily dose of 60 mg of prednisolone in clinic. Six weeks later, a repeat 24-hour urine collection showed a significant decrease in protein levels. Based on these findings, what would be the most likely result of a renal biopsy?
Your Answer: IgA glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Different Types of Glomerulonephritis and Their Treatments
Glomerulonephritis is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to renal failure. There are different types of glomerulonephritis, and each requires a specific treatment approach. For instance, a patient with Goodpasture’s disease would require plasma exchange and cyclophosphamide, while someone with IgA glomerulonephritis may benefit from high dose prednisolone.
In the case of the patient described in the question, the most likely diagnosis is minimal change glomerulonephritis. This type of glomerulonephritis is highly responsive to oral prednisolone, with up to 80% of adult patients achieving remission within 16 weeks of treatment. On the other hand, patients with membranous glomerulonephritis may not respond well to prednisolone and are at high risk of developing chronic renal failure.
It is important to accurately diagnose the type of glomerulonephritis a patient has to ensure they receive the appropriate treatment. Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis, for example, is treated with antiplatelet drugs, anticoagulants, corticosteroids, and alkylating agents. the different types of glomerulonephritis and their treatments can help healthcare professionals provide the best care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with complaints of frequent urination and excessive thirst. She reports having to wake up at least three times every night to urinate and constantly feeling thirsty. Her medical history includes hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and bipolar disorder, and she is currently taking aspirin, lithium, and bisoprolol. An overnight water deprivation test was conducted, and the results are as follows:
- Na+ 145 mmol/l (137-144)
- K+ 4.5 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
- Urea 11.5 mmol/l (2.5-7.0)
- Creatinine 188 µmol/l (60-110)
- Random blood glucose 7.2 mmol
- Serum osmolality 370 mosmol/kg (278-300)
- Urine osmolality 165 mosmol/kg (350-1000)
A d DAVP (1-deamino-8-D-arginine vasopressin) test was performed, but the urinary osmolality remained unchanged. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary polydipsia
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Dysregulation of the aquaporin system in the collecting duct can cause impairment of urinary concentration in some patients who take lithium. Although this condition is typically reversible upon discontinuing lithium, there are exceptions. In cases of cranial diabetes insipidus, the use of desmopressin results in an increase in urine osmolality, despite the random blood glucose being within normal range. Conversely, primary polydipsia and pre-renal acute kidney injury will result in a urine osmolality of >600 mosm/kg after a water deprivation test.
Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with a history of sickle cell trait presents to the clinic with complaints of intermittent burning sensation while urinating. She works as a fitness instructor and takes ibuprofen regularly for muscle spasms due to exercise. On examination, she has mild periorbital puffiness and a palpable liver. Lab results show low hemoglobin, high creatinine, and proteinuria. Renal biopsy reveals uniform granular capillary wall deposits of IgG and C3 complement. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Simple observation and regular monitoring of renal functions
Correct Answer: Blood pressure control with ACE inhibitors and immunosuppression with chlorambucil/oral prednisolone
Explanation:The patient has been diagnosed with membranous glomerulonephritis, which may have been caused by her sickle cell trait or the use of NSAIDs. Unlike other glomerulopathies, high doses of steroids and azathioprine are not effective in treating this condition. The primary approach to managing membranous glomerulonephritis involves controlling blood pressure with ACE inhibitors and using immunosuppressive drugs such as cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, ciclosporin, or mycophenolate mofetil in combination with prednisolone. Additionally, rituximab has been found to be beneficial in the short term.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling generally unwell and lethargic. He recently had a bout of diarrhoea. He has no significant medical history and no family history of note.
During the examination, his blood pressure is found to be elevated at 174/72 mmHg. The blood tests reveal a low Hb of 98 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), an MCV of 92 fl (80-98), platelets of 45 * 109/L (150-400), and a WBC count of 4.8 * 109/L (4.0-11.0). His Na+ level is 138 mmol/L (135-145), K+ level is 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0), urea level is 14.2 mmol/L (2.0-7.0), and creatinine level is 168 µmol/L (55-120). The CRP level is 15 mg/L (<5), and the blood film shows schistocytes. The haptoglobin level is 0.1 g/L (0.5-2.0), and the antinuclear antibody is negative. The ADAMTS13 activity is 85% (>67%).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis
Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Consider HUS as the likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and AKI following a diarrhoeal illness. The presence of fatigue, hypertension, and evidence of thrombotic microangiopathy (including schistocytes and low haptoglobin) further supports this diagnosis. HUS is typically caused by STEC and is characterized by its association with a recent diarrhoeal illness.
Atypical HUS, which is caused by chronic uncontrolled activation of the complement system and has a genetic component, is unlikely in this case due to the patient’s recent history of diarrhoea. Lupus nephritis and scleroderma renal crisis are also unlikely based on the absence of other typical features and positive ANA results.
Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The most common cause of HUS in children is Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, which accounts for over 90% of cases. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer.
To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count, check for evidence of STEC infection in stool culture, and conduct PCR for Shiga toxins. Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. The indications for plasma exchange in HUS are complicated, and as a general rule, plasma exchange is reserved for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea. Eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.
In summary, HUS is a serious condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms. The most common cause of HUS in children is STEC 0157:H7, and diagnosis may involve various tests. Treatment is supportive, and antibiotics are not recommended. The indications for plasma exchange are complicated, and eculizumab may be more effective in treating adult atypical HUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of blood in his urine for the past day. Initially, he noticed a few drops of dark blood at the end of urination, but it has progressively worsened, and he is now passing large amounts of cola-colored urine. He also reports swollen ankles and puffy eyes that developed over the last few hours, along with increasing lethargy and feeling unwell for the past two days. The patient denies shortness of breath, chest pain, haemoptysis, previous haematuria, or changes in urine volume. He has no past medical history of renal problems, but his brother was prescribed steroids for leaky kidneys at the age of nine. The patient has no significant drug history, except for a recent course of phenoxymethylpenicillin for tonsillitis and amoxicillin for acute sinusitis six months ago.
Upon examination, the patient is a young athletic male with a blood pressure of 162/84 mmHg, heart rate of 96 bpm, respiratory rate of 18/min, oxygen saturations of 95% on air, and temperature of 37.1 Celsius. Cardiovascular examination reveals normal heart sounds, a JVP of 3cm, and bilateral pitting oedema of his ankles. Respiratory and gastrointestinal examinations are unremarkable. The patient has bilateral periorbital oedema, but ENT and neurological examinations are normal.
Initial investigations reveal a Hb of 132 g/l, platelets of 428* 109/l, WBC of 14.2 * 109/l, ESR of 26 mm/hr, Na+ of 138 mmol/l, K+ of 5.2 mmol/l, urea of 6.4 mmol/l, creatinine of 77 µmol/l, CRP of 18 mg/l, bilirubin of 18 µmol/l, ALP of 82 u/l, ALT of 21 u/l, protein of 78 g/l, and albumin of 39 g/l. Chest x-ray shows a normal appearance of heart and lung fields, and ECG reveals sinus tachycardia of 108 bpm. Urinalysis shows blood ++++ and protein ++++, with ketones + and negative for all other parameters. Urine and blood MCS results are pending.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Membranous nephropathy
Correct Answer: Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Explanation:This man is experiencing post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), which is an immune-mediated reaction caused by certain strains of Streptococcus spp. The onset of symptoms typically occurs one to two weeks after infection and includes acute glomerulonephritis with haematuria (resulting in dark urine due to the breakdown of red blood cells that have penetrated the glomerular basement membrane), proteinuria, oedema, and sometimes oliguria. Berger’s nephropathy, the most common form of adult glomerulonephritis, is a key differential diagnosis. It usually occurs one to two days after a non-specific upper respiratory tract infection and is characterized mainly by haematuria, with an excellent prognosis. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis may cause a rapid decline in renal function and present with similar symptoms to PSGN, while membranous nephropathy is characterized by a nephrotic syndrome.
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a condition that typically occurs 7-14 days after an infection caused by group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in young children and is caused by the deposition of immune complexes (IgG, IgM, and C3) in the glomeruli. Symptoms include headache, malaise, visible haematuria, proteinuria, oedema, hypertension, and oliguria. Blood tests may show a raised anti-streptolysin O titre and low C3, which confirms a recent streptococcal infection.
It is important to note that IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are often confused as they both can cause renal disease following an upper respiratory tract infection. Renal biopsy features of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis include acute, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with endothelial proliferation and neutrophils. Electron microscopy may show subepithelial ‘humps’ caused by lumpy immune complex deposits, while immunofluorescence may show a granular or ‘starry sky’ appearance.
Despite its severity, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis carries a good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the renal outpatient department with complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath. He has a medical history of end-stage renal failure due to hypertension and is currently undergoing dialysis. His medication regimen includes ramipril, amlodipine, and doxazosin. On examination, an arterio-venous fistula is noted at his right forearm.
The patient's blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 84 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), MCV of 85 fL (80-96), platelets of 189 * 109/L (150-400), WBC of 4.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), Na+ of 138 mmol/L (135-145), K+ of 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0), urea of 28.1 mmol/L (2.0-7.0), ferritin of 88 µg/L (24-336), and transferrin saturation (TSAT) of 12% (20-50).
What would be the appropriate management strategy for this patient?Your Answer: Oral iron supplementation followed by consideration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agent
Correct Answer: IV iron supplementation followed by consideration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agent
Explanation:In cases of anaemia in CKD, it is recommended to consider IV iron supplementation followed by the use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents once the patient is iron-replete. This is because patients with end-stage renal failure on dialysis often require intravenous iron replacement due to elevated serum levels of hepcidin, which prevents intestinal absorption of iron. Once iron levels are restored, an ESA can be used to maintain haemoglobin levels between 100-120g/L. It is important to correct anaemia in CKD as it can lead to cardiomyopathy and left ventricular hypertrophy, and the use of ESA has been shown to reduce mortality. It should be noted that ESA is less effective in patients who are iron deficient, and oral iron supplementation is not recommended for these patients.
Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.
There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.
To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with Alport’s syndrome underwent a living related renal transplant from her sister. She had good initial graft function and a baseline Creatinine of 98 µmol/l. However, six months later, she presented with a 2-week history of reduced urine output and an elevated creatinine level of 210 µmol/l.
Despite a biopsy that showed no signs of acute rejection, urine microscopy revealed dysmorphic red blood cells. She gradually became oligo-anuric and required dialysis.
What is the probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Alport's syndrome
Correct Answer: Anti-glomerular basement membrane (Anti-GBM) disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Alport’s Syndrome and Graft Loss after Renal Transplant
Alport’s syndrome is an inherited disorder that can lead to progressive nephritis, renal impairment, sensorineural deafness, and ocular abnormalities. In some cases, patients with Alport’s syndrome who receive a renal transplant may develop a rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis that resembles Goodpasture’s syndrome but without pulmonary hemorrhage. This condition, known as anti-glomerular basement membrane (Anti-GBM) disease, is caused by autoantibodies similar to those found in Goodpasture’s syndrome. Treatment for Anti-GBM disease is similar to that of de novo cases, but efficacy is limited.
Other potential diagnoses for a patient with Alport’s syndrome and graft loss after renal transplant include post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD), opportunistic infections such as Aspergillus or Mycoplasma pneumonia, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis. However, PTLD is unlikely in this case due to the early onset of symptoms and minimal immunosuppression from a live donor transplant. Opportunistic infections are common in transplant recipients, but they would not explain the graft loss. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is also unlikely due to the short duration of illness and the known association of Anti-GBM in patients with Alport’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old-man with a history of granulomatosis with polyangiitis presents for his annual review in the rheumatology clinic. He was diagnosed at age 37 where he presented with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and pulmonary haemorrhage and was treated with cyclophosphamide and steroids. He required a period of haemofiltration on the intensive care unit but has remained well since.
Today, he reports occasional blood in his urine but feels well after recently quitting smoking. On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, there is no pallor or oedema, and his chest is clear. His investigations are below, and his urine appears clear.
Hb 105 g/l
Platelets 300* 109/l
WBC 5* 109/l
Urinalysis blood 3+ protein -
Na+ 139 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 5.6 mmol/l
Creatinine 98 µmol/l
What is the likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis
Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma
Explanation:The administration of cyclophosphamide to patients with granulomatosis with polyangiitis has been found to increase the risk of bladder cancer. The patient’s normal U&Es make a relapse of glomerulonephritis unlikely. Loin to groin pain is typically associated with renal calculi, not present in this case. Hematuria may not be visible to the naked eye, despite being present. Although a positive dipstick may indicate rhabdomyolysis, there are no other indications of this condition.
Understanding Cyclophosphamide and its Adverse Effects
Cyclophosphamide is a medication used to treat cancer and autoimmune diseases. It is classified as an alkylating agent, which means it works by causing cross-linking of DNA. However, the use of this medication can lead to adverse effects such as haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma.
Haemorrhagic cystitis is a condition where there is bleeding in the bladder, which can be caused by the toxic effects of a metabolite of cyclophosphamide called acrolein. To reduce the incidence of this condition, hydration and the use of mesna are recommended. Mesna is a medication that binds to and inactivates acrolein, helping to prevent haemorrhagic cystitis.
It is important to understand the adverse effects of cyclophosphamide and the measures that can be taken to reduce their occurrence. Patients should be closely monitored for any signs of these adverse effects and appropriate interventions should be taken promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 74
Correct
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A 32-year-old man of Nigerian origin presented to his primary care physician with six months of fatigue and decreased appetite. He has a family history of kidney disease, with his father and two uncles requiring dialysis.
During the physical examination, the physician noted a blood pressure of 190/110 mmHg and a palpable mass in the abdomen. The patient underwent routine blood tests and an abdominal ultrasound.
Results:
Ultrasound scan Enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts, consistent with polycystic kidneys
Haemoglobin 130 g/l 130–170 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 300 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 14.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 700 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (APKD) is characterized by hypertension, haematuria, and later in middle age, chronic kidney disease. Chronic kidney disease often leads to hyperprolactinaemia. Cysts may also be found in other organs such as the liver and ovaries. Acute loin pain or haematuria due to haemorrhage into the cysts are common symptoms. Hypertension is present in over 75% of cases. Subarachnoid haemorrhage from berry aneurysm is reported to occur in about 9% of patients, and 8% of patients with APKD are thought to have asymptomatic intracranial aneurysms. Early aggressive management of blood pressure is crucial for treatment. Other conditions such as renal cell carcinoma, chronic ureteral reflux, renovascular disease, and transitional cell carcinoma have different symptoms and are less likely to be the cause of APKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 35 year old female patient visits the endocrinology clinic for a follow-up appointment. She complains of excessive thirst and drinking a lot of water for the past year. Despite having normal fasting glucose and oral glucose tolerance test results, the patient underwent a water deprivation test during her last visit. The results are as follows:
Time Urine osmolality (mOsm/kg) Serum osmolality (mOsm/kg) Weight (kg) % change in weight
0800 263 263 86.1 n/a
1000 265 278 85.7 -0.46%
1200 279 289 85.4 -0.81%
1400 280 295 84.9 -1.39%
1600 285 301 84.6 -1.74%
1700 DDAVP given - -
1800 286 302 84.3 -2.09%
2000 289 303 84.1 -2.32%
What is the underlying cause of this woman's symptoms?Your Answer: Psychogenic polydipsia
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:When a person experiences symptoms of excessive thirst and drinking (polydipsia), the possible causes include diabetes insipidus, psychogenic polydipsia, and diabetes mellitus (which has been ruled out in this case). To diagnose diabetes insipidus, a water deprivation test is conducted to differentiate between nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (when the kidneys are not sensitive enough to ADH release by the posterior pituitary), cranial diabetes insipidus (when there is a lack of ADH release from the posterior pituitary, but the kidneys respond to exogenous ADH when administered), and psychogenic polydipsia (when the water deprivation test results are normal). In this case, the patient’s serum osmolality increases as expected during the water deprivation test, but the urine does not concentrate much, and there is minimal response by the kidneys to DDAVP. This indicates nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, as psychogenic polydipsia would show concentrated urine earlier in the test with high urine osmolalities, and in cranial diabetes insipidus, the kidneys would respond more to DDAVP by concentrating the urine.
Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male presents with oliguria, fever and proteinuria nine days after renal transplant. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and the transplant scar has a mild serous ooze but is otherwise clean. A urine dip reveals protein 4+ blood 1+, and his urine output over the past 3 hours has been 27, 20 and 12 ml/hour respectively. His blood tests from 24 hours ago show:
- Hb: 99 (98) g/dl
- Platelets: 190 (185) * 109/l
- WBC: 3.6 (3.6) * 109/l
- Na+: 139 (136) mmol/l
- K+: 4.9 (4.6) mmol/l
- Urea: 19 (7.8) mmol/l
- Creatinine: 225 (117) µmol/l
A renal ultrasound shows a normal-sized transplanted kidney with no ureteric leak or hydronephrosis. His tacrolimus levels are within the normal range. An urgent renal biopsy of the transplanted kidney reveals significant lymphocytic, particularly mononuclear cell infiltration with no clonal populations, EBV antigen negative, and no light chains. His CMV titre is negative, and his tacrolimus level is therapeutic. What is the most appropriate immediate management?Your Answer: Start ciclosporin
Correct Answer: IV methylprednisolone
Explanation:The main conditions to consider are acute allograft rejection, which requires an increase in immunosuppression, and post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder, which requires a reduction in immunosuppression and possible chemotherapy. PTLD often shows clonal populations of T or B cells and significant lymphoid disruption of renal architecture, with the presence of EBV antigen in many cells and significant immunoglobulin light chain expression. However, this patient’s clinical and histological evidence points towards allograft rejection, as there is no evidence of the aforementioned characteristics. The initial treatment would involve administering pulsed intravenous methylprednisolone, followed by adjusting the doses of maintenance immunosuppression (such as tacrolimus) after at least 3 days of steroids. There is no indication of post-renal obstruction, so percutaneous nephrostomy is not necessary. Additionally, there is no immediate need to start a second immunosuppressant.
The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.
Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.
Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.
Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is referred to hospital by his GP.
He has been treated for essential hypertension, with a daily dose of bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg and triamterene 150 mg.
Routine investigations reveal:
Serum sodium 136 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 6.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Serum urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Serum creatinine 95 µmol/L (60-110)
His blood pressure is measured at 138/88 mmHg. His electrocardiogram is normal. The GP has stopped the triamterene today.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Stop bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Repeat urea and electrolytes in one week
Explanation:Mechanism of Action and Side Effects of Bendroflumethiazide and Triamterene
Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to increased clearance of sodium and free water. However, this can also result in the loss of potassium due to increased secretion in response to the higher intraluminal sodium levels, potentially causing hypokalaemia.
On the other hand, triamterene is a potassium sparing diuretic that is sometimes prescribed alongside thiazide or loop diuretics to prevent hypokalaemia. It works by blocking the movement of sodium through channels towards the end of the distal tubule and collecting ducts, which prevents the passage of sodium from the urinary space into the tubular cells. This causes hyperpolarisation of the apical plasma membrane, which in turn prevents the secretion of potassium into the collecting ducts. However, this action can also lead to hyperkalaemia, which is a common side effect (>5%) that is not affected by concurrent potassium depleting diuretics.
In this case, the patient has mild hyperkalaemia without any signs of cardiac toxicity. The recommended management involves discontinuing the use of triamterene and repeating the U&E test in one week to monitor the patient’s potassium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 78
Incorrect
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John is an 80-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease. He comes to the clinic for a routine follow-up of his blood tests. He reports feeling well and denies any significant bone pain or urinary issues. No recent bone fractures were noted.
The blood test results from 1 week ago are as follows:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 260 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Calcium 1.8 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate 2.0 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
- PTH 75 pg/ml (10-55)
Based on these results, what is the most appropriate course of action for managing John's abnormal blood tests?Your Answer: Refer for parathyroidectomy
Correct Answer: Advice regarding reduction in foods like chocolate, nuts, shellfish and cola
Explanation:The initial management of CKD-mineral bone disease involves correcting hyperphosphatemia before starting phosphate binders. This condition is often asymptomatic and detected through routine blood tests. Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia lead to hyperparathyroidism, which can be managed through calcium and vitamin D supplementation to restore normal calcium homeostasis. Dietary changes to limit phosphate intake are recommended, although it can be challenging for patients to adhere to. Phosphate binders like sevelamer and lanthanum are used if dietary changes are ineffective. Cinacalcet is reserved for cases of unresponsive secondary hyperparathyroidism, while parathyroidectomy is a last resort for cases not responding to medical management and dialysis.
Managing Mineral Bone Disease in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) leads to low vitamin D and high phosphate levels due to the kidneys’ inability to perform their normal functions. This results in osteomalacia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and low calcium levels. To manage mineral bone disease in CKD, the aim is to reduce phosphate and parathyroid hormone levels.
Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is the first-line management, followed by the use of phosphate binders. Aluminium-based binders are less commonly used now, and calcium-based binders may cause hypercalcemia and vascular calcification. Sevelamer, a non-calcium based binder, is increasingly used as it binds to dietary phosphate and prevents its absorption. It also has other beneficial effects, such as reducing uric acid levels and improving lipid profiles in patients with CKD.
In some cases, vitamin D supplementation with alfacalcidol or calcitriol may be necessary. Parathyroidectomy may also be needed to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Proper management of mineral bone disease in CKD is crucial to prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 79
Incorrect
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As the medical registrar on-call, you receive a patient in the ED who is a 75-year-old male with clinical findings consistent with critical limb ischaemia. The patient has a medical history of diabetes and chronic kidney disease (Stage 4). The vascular surgeons admit the patient and request a CT angiogram. They provide you with the following blood results:
Today 1 month ago
Na+ 141 mmol/l 138 mmol/l
K+ 4.7 mmol/l 4.4 mmol/l
Urea 15.8 mmol/l 9.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 241 µmol/l 158 µmol/l
What evidence-based recommendations would you provide to minimize the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?Your Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine is superior to oral N-acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: Intravenous pre- and post-hydration should only be undertaken with isotonic fluid
Explanation:The use of intravenous pre- and post-hydration has only been shown to be beneficial with isotonic fluids. While oral fluids may be effective for certain populations, such as those with CKD Stage 1 and 2, intravenous fluids are preferred for higher-risk groups. There is no evidence to support the co-administration of a diuretic, and some diuretics may even cause harm. Intravenous N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is not superior to oral NAC, and the latter is preferred due to a lower risk of drug reactions. Prophylactic haemodialysis or haemofiltration pre- or post-procedure is not recommended for those with CKD Stage 3 and Stage 4. It is also important to discontinue the use of nephrotoxic medications, such as NSAIDs and metformin.
Contrast media nephrotoxicity is characterized by a 25% increase in creatinine levels within three days of receiving intravascular contrast media. This condition typically occurs between two to five days after administration and is more likely to affect patients with pre-existing renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, or those taking nephrotoxic drugs like NSAIDs. Procedures that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy include CT scans with contrast and coronary angiography or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Around 5% of patients who undergo PCI experience a temporary increase in plasma creatinine levels of more than 88 µmol/L.
To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride should be administered at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours before and after the procedure. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate may also be used. While N-acetylcysteine was previously used, recent evidence suggests it is not effective. Patients at high risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function returns to normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 80
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman with a 15-year history of bipolar disease presents to the endocrine clinic for evaluation. She is currently taking lithium and olanzapine, and has been experiencing increasing polyuria and polydipsia over the past few months. Additionally, she has gained 6 kg since starting olanzapine.
During the examination, her blood pressure is 132/88, pulse is regular at 78 beats per minute, and there is a 10 mmHg drop in blood pressure upon standing. There are no murmurs and her chest is clear. She has a BMI of 32 and is considered obese.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Hb: 115 g/l (normal range: 115-160)
- WCC: 5.1x10(9)/l (normal range: 3.8-10.8)
- PLT: 191x10(9)/l (normal range: 150-450)
- Na: 145 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145)
- K: 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.5)
- Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/l (normal range: 18-28)
- Cr: 115 micromol/l (normal range: 50-90)
- Glucose: 7.1 mmol/l (normal range: <7)
After a water deprivation test, the following results were obtained:
- Serum osmolality: 320
- Urine osmolality: 285 (no significant change after DDAVP)
What is the most likely cause of the patient's clinical presentation?Your Answer: Reduced GSK3beta signalling
Explanation:Mechanism of Lithium-Induced Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by reduced GSK3beta signalling, which inhibits the pathways involving glycogen synthase kinase type 3 beta. This dysfunction affects the aquaporin-2 water channel, resulting in the inability of the urine to concentrate even after water deprivation and DDAVP administration. Withdrawal of lithium can lead to an improvement in symptoms.
Hyperglycaemia, on the other hand, causes dehydration in patients with significant hyperglycaemia by leading to sodium and water excretion via the SGLT-2 transporter in the kidney. It is important to note that SGLT-1 is a transporter found predominantly in the gut and is responsible for glucose absorption.
It is crucial to understand that reduced production of ADH is not a cause of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Instead, it is the reduced GSK3 beta signalling that leads to hypo-functioning of aquaporin 2, which is responsible for the development of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 81
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a two-day history of nausea and haemoptysis. She is feeling generally well, but has noticed that her urine appears pink. Upon urinalysis, ++++ blood and +++ protein are detected. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse bilateral infiltrates. Blood tests show elevated levels of sodium, potassium, urea, and creatinine. Which of the following is the most likely positive finding?
Your Answer: Anti-GBM antibody
Explanation:Diagnosis of Goodpasture’s Syndrome
This patient is likely suffering from Goodpasture’s syndrome, as indicated by the positive anti-GBM antibody. Although the presence of ANA and DS-DNA antibodies would suggest lupus nephritis, the short and acute nature of the symptoms is not typical of this condition. A renal biopsy would be necessary to confirm a diagnosis of lupus nephritis. Urinary tract infection is not a likely cause of the symptoms, and renal tuberculosis is also improbable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a follow-up appointment after a recent humerus fracture. His blood tests reveal stage II chronic renal impairment, but his urinary albumin is within normal range. He has a history of hypertension and previous ischemic heart disease, and is motivated to control his blood pressure. His current medication includes ramipril at maximum dose. What should be his target blood pressure during his clinic visit?
Blood tests:
01/11/2018 08/09/2018
Na+ 142 mmol/l 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.5 mmol/l 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 5.1 mmol/l 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 118 µmol/l 110 µmol/lYour Answer: Less than 140/85 mmHg
Correct Answer: Less than 140/90 mmHg
Explanation:If the patient has a blood pressure reading of 40/90 mmHg, their target blood pressure would be 130/80 mmHg if they have diabetes or a urinary ACR >70 mg/mmol. If they are monitoring their blood pressure at home, their target would be 135/85 mmHg.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful anti-hypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a four day history of nausea. She has no medication history and her only medical condition is diet controlled diabetes mellitus. Her recent checkup showed no signs of retinopathy or neuropathy, and her creatinine level was 79 µmol/L. Upon admission to the hospital, her blood tests reveal:
- Na 139 mmol/L (137-144)
- K 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea 35.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine 895 μmol/L (60-110)
- Hb 91 g/L (115-165)
Which of the following is most likely to be positive?Your Answer: HCV PCR
Correct Answer: Anti GBM antibody
Explanation:Diagnosis of Acute Kidney Injury and Anaemia
When a patient presents with acute kidney injury and anaemia, the most likely diagnosis is anti-glomerular basement membrane disease, also known as Goodpasture’s syndrome. The presence of diabetes mellitus in the patient’s medical history is not relevant to the diagnosis, but it does indicate that her renal function was previously normal. Patients with Goodpasture’s syndrome typically have a short history of symptoms and may only present with haematuria and/or haemoptysis, in addition to symptoms of uraemia such as nausea. On the other hand, ANCA-associated vasculitis can present similarly but with a longer history and more severe systemic symptoms. HIV and hepatitis C infection are less likely diagnoses in this setting, and lupus nephritis would likely present with a positive anti double-stranded DNA antibody. It is important to consider all possible diagnoses and conduct appropriate testing to accurately diagnose and treat the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman of African descent presents to your Nephrology Clinic with a complaint of dipstick-positive proteinuria and lower limb edema. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. She reports occasional joint pain in her elbows and knees, which she manages with paracetamol. On examination, her blood pressure is 118/60 mmHg.
What is the most suitable test to determine the underlying diagnosis of this patient?Your Answer: Antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody (ANCA)
Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Considerations for a Young Woman with Joint Aches and Nephrotic Syndrome
When a young woman of African descent presents with vague joint aches and a history of nephrotic syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a likely diagnosis. A strongly positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) level can point to SLE, which can be confirmed through subsequent investigations such as anti-double-stranded (ds) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and a kidney biopsy. Lupus nephritis can be classified into six different classes (I-VI) based on biopsy findings, each requiring different treatments.
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody (ANCA) testing is not necessary in this case, as there are no symptoms to suggest an underlying cause of vasculitis. Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease is unlikely, as it typically presents with a dramatic inflammatory disorder of the kidneys and/or lungs. Multiple myeloma is also an unlikely diagnosis in a young patient.
An ultrasound (US) can be useful in identifying obstruction, assessing cortical reflectivity, and quantifying kidney size, but has limited diagnostic potential in this case. Overall, a thorough evaluation including ANA testing and kidney biopsy can aid in diagnosing and treating SLE in this patient.
Diagnostic Considerations for a Young Woman with Joint Aches and Nephrotic Syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with a 3-month history of worsening swelling in his arms and legs. He has chronic lower back pain and has unintentionally gained 5 kg over the past 2 months. He has a medical history of ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia and is currently taking regular paracetamol, amlodipine 5mg OD, and simvastatin 40 mg ON. During the examination, there is pitting edema to his mid-thighs bilaterally, as well as swelling in his face and arms. Respiratory, cardiovascular, and abdominal examinations are normal, and there is a reduction in all spinal movements. The urine dip shows 3+ protein with no other abnormalities, and blood tests reveal a low albumin level and elevated CRP. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of this patient's edema?
Your Answer: AL amyloidosis
Correct Answer: AA amyloidosis
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting signs of nephrotic syndrome, including oedema, low albumin, and proteinuria. To confirm the diagnosis, further testing is needed to quantify the proteinuria through a spot protein creatinine ratio or 24-hour collection. Based on the subacute presentation, the most probable causes are amyloidosis or minimal change nephropathy among the five options. Additionally, the patient has chronic back pain and an elevated CRP, indicating poorly managed ankylosing spondylitis, which supports the diagnosis.
Understanding Amyloidosis
Amyloidosis is a medical condition that occurs when an insoluble fibrillar protein called amyloid accumulates outside the cells. This protein is derived from various precursor proteins and contains non-fibrillary components such as amyloid-P component, apolipoprotein E, and heparan sulphate proteoglycans. The accumulation of amyloid fibrils can lead to tissue or organ dysfunction.
Amyloidosis can be classified as systemic or localized, and further characterized by the type of precursor protein involved. For instance, in myeloma, the precursor protein is immunoglobulin light chain fragments, which is abbreviated as AL (A for amyloid and L for light chain fragments).
To diagnose amyloidosis, doctors may use Congo red staining, which shows apple-green birefringence, or a serum amyloid precursor (SAP) scan. Biopsy of skin, rectal mucosa, or abdominal fat may also be necessary. Understanding amyloidosis is crucial for early detection and treatment of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 86
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman with a history of multiple myeloma is undergoing investigation for bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, worsening shortness of breath, and edema. Based on her test results, which are as follows:
- Hemoglobin: 105 g/L
- Platelets: 145 * 10^9/L
- White blood cells: 7.2 * 10^9/L
- Calcium: 2.70 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.3 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 150 µmol/L
- Urine protein: >3.5 g/day
Her chest x-ray reveals cardiomegaly with fluid overload. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Amyloidosis is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms, which include heart failure, bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, and proteinuria. This condition is often associated with lymphoproliferative disorders and can affect various organs. Given the patient’s history of multiple myeloma, amyloidosis is a plausible diagnosis.
While heart failure may explain some of the patient’s symptoms, it does not account for all of them. Membranous nephropathy is less likely to be the cause, as it is typically associated with lymphoma or chronic lymphoid leukemia rather than multiple myeloma. Additionally, minimal change disease is more commonly seen in children and typically does not affect renal function in the same way as this patient’s symptoms suggest.
Understanding Amyloidosis
Amyloidosis is a medical condition that occurs when an insoluble fibrillar protein called amyloid accumulates outside the cells. This protein is derived from various precursor proteins and contains non-fibrillary components such as amyloid-P component, apolipoprotein E, and heparan sulphate proteoglycans. The accumulation of amyloid fibrils can lead to tissue or organ dysfunction.
Amyloidosis can be classified as systemic or localized, and further characterized by the type of precursor protein involved. For instance, in myeloma, the precursor protein is immunoglobulin light chain fragments, which is abbreviated as AL (A for amyloid and L for light chain fragments).
To diagnose amyloidosis, doctors may use Congo red staining, which shows apple-green birefringence, or a serum amyloid precursor (SAP) scan. Biopsy of skin, rectal mucosa, or abdominal fat may also be necessary. Understanding amyloidosis is crucial for early detection and treatment of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with chronic kidney disease, who has been on haemodialysis for more than a decade, is experiencing difficulty with elevated serum phosphate levels despite claiming adherence to phosphate binders. He has been referred to consult with the renal dietician and his weekly dietary intake is being evaluated. What food or beverage is most likely to be responsible for his high phosphate levels?
Your Answer: Tomatoes
Correct Answer: Cheddar cheese
Explanation:The Importance of Controlling Phosphate Levels in Chronic Renal Failure Patients
Dairy products, along with fibre-rich foods, chocolate, and processed meats, are known to be high in phosphate content. Among these, cheddar cheese has the highest phosphate level. It is crucial to control phosphate levels in patients with chronic renal failure as high phosphate can lead to adverse cardiovascular effects in the long run, despite causing symptoms such as itching in the short term. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid foods that are rich in phosphate, especially cheddar cheese, to maintain healthy phosphate levels in patients with chronic renal failure. It is important to note that all other options listed have lower phosphate content than cheddar cheese and should be preferred over it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 65 year old female with end-stage renal failure presents to the medical assessment unit with painful legs. She has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, rheumatoid arthritis, and osteoporosis. During examination, three painful, necrotic skin lesions are found on her left calf. There is minimal erythema surrounding the lesions, and her foot appears to be well-perfused with present peripheral pulses. Blood tests reveal an adjusted calcium level of 2.62 mmol/l and a parathyroid hormone level of 47 pmol/l. Which of her regular medications is contributing to her acute presentation?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Calciphylaxis is a contraindication for the use of warfarin.
Understanding Calciphylaxis
Calciphylaxis is a rare complication that occurs in individuals with end-stage renal failure. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is characterized by the accumulation of calcium in arterioles, leading to microvascular blockage and tissue necrosis. The most commonly affected area is the skin, which presents with painful necrotic lesions.
The development of calciphylaxis is associated with hypercalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and hyperparathyroidism. Patients who are at high risk of developing this condition are also susceptible to the exacerbating effects of warfarin, although the underlying mechanism is still unknown.
The treatment of calciphylaxis is focused on reducing calcium and phosphate levels, controlling hyperparathyroidism, and avoiding drugs that may contribute to the condition, such as warfarin and calcium-containing compounds. With proper management, the symptoms of calciphylaxis can be alleviated, and the risk of complications can be minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 89
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with a history of COPD is admitted with a severe pneumonia and AKI. His central venous pressure is 4 and his arterial blood gas shows:
pH 7.25 (7.35-7.45)
Bicarbonate 11 mmol/L (22-28)
BE -12 mmol/L (±2)
pCO2 9.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)
pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)
His venous bloods reveal:
Sodium 132 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 5.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 21.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.0)
Creatinine 410 μmol/L (60-110)
What is the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer: Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride solution
Explanation:Management of a Patient with COPD and Mixed Respiratory and Metabolic Acidosis
This patient has a history of COPD and is presenting with a mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis. Due to her COPD, she may have pulmonary hypertension, which can cause her central venous pressure (CVP) to be high. However, her CVP is low, indicating that she is likely fluid depleted. Therefore, she needs fast intravenous fluid resuscitation using 0.9% saline to restore her circulating volume rapidly.
It is not appropriate to use 1.26% sodium bicarbonate solution for fluid resuscitation or to correct the acidosis, as it may be detrimental. Oral bicarbonate would not correct the primary problem of volume depletion or the acidosis quickly. Haemodialysis is not necessary at this time, but it may become necessary if the patient becomes oligoanuric despite adequate fluid resuscitation.
If the patient has respiratory acidosis, non-invasive ventilation may be indicated. However, BiPAP rather than CPAP would be beneficial in this setting. It is important to correct the metabolic acidosis before deciding on ventilatory support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 90
Incorrect
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You have been requested to examine a patient with the following blood results:
Sodium 141 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Creatinine 79 μmol/L (60-110)
cANCA positive
anti-PR3 4
anti-MPO >100
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Correct Answer: Microscopic polyangiitis
Explanation:Microscopic Polyangiitis and ANCA-Associated Vasculitis
Microscopic polyangiitis is a type of ANCA-associated vasculitis that is characterized by a positive ANCA and either a strongly positive anti-PR3 (cANCA) or anti-MPO (pANCA) antibody. The MPO antibody is typically associated with microscopic polyangiitis, while the PR3 antibody is linked to Granulomatosis with polyangiitis. ANCA-associated vasculitis is a group of autoimmune diseases that cause inflammation of blood vessels, leading to damage in various organs. In microscopic polyangiitis, the inflammation affects small blood vessels in the kidneys, lungs, and skin. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent organ damage and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 91
Incorrect
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You are urgently requested to review a 68-year-old woman who has been admitted to the Emergency Department. She has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She is currently complaining of worsening shortness of breath.
Upon examination, her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg and her heart rate is 110 bpm. There are wheezes heard on auscultation of the chest. Both legs are swollen up to the knees.
The following investigations have been carried out:
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 12 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 120 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 200 × 109 /l 150–400 × 109/l
What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?Your Answer: Sick sinus syndrome
Correct Answer: Carotid sinus hypersensitivity
Explanation:When a patient presents with a fainting episode, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient experienced a fainting episode while shaving, which suggests carotid sinus hypersensitivity. This condition is characterized by bradycardia or hypotension due to local pressure, and it can also be triggered by neck extension or wearing tight-collared shirts. Treatment for cardioinhibitory carotid sinus hypersensitivity involves cardiac pacing, while hypotensive carotid sinus hypersensitivity can be prevented with support stockings, fludrocortisone, or midodrine.Myocardial ischemia is unlikely in this case, as evidenced by the negative troponin and benign ECG. There are also no signs of cardiac failure or chest pain. Epileptic seizure is also unlikely, as there is no evidence of limb jerking, incontinence, or tongue biting, and the patient did not experience prolonged recovery after the event.Sick sinus syndrome is also unlikely, as it typically presents with palpitations (either tachycardia or bradycardia) before a fainting episode. Finally, a transient ischemic attack would be expected to cause short-term neurological deficits, which were not reported in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a headache, generalised aches and pains, lethargy and fevers. She has a medical history of type one diabetes and end-stage renal failure, and underwent a simultaneous pancreas-kidney transplant ten months ago. Four months ago, she was admitted with neutropaenia which led to the early cessation of her valganciclovir and a reduction in her immunosuppression. On examination, she appears pale, lethargic and unwell. Her temperature is 39.4 degrees Celsius, her pulse is 115 beats per minute and regular, her blood pressure is 102/59 mmHg, her respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturations are 95% on room air. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus infection
Explanation:This patient is displaying typical symptoms of cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, which is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in renal transplant patients. CMV infection usually occurs within one to four months after transplantation or after stopping CMV prophylaxis (valganciclovir), as in this case. Prior to transplantation, both the donor and recipient CMV status is checked, and prophylaxis is given to recipients unless both parties test negative. CMV infection presents with symptoms similar to mononucleosis, including fever, myalgia, and arthralgia, as well as leukopenia, atypical lymphocytosis, mild transaminase elevation, and graft dysfunction. It can also affect specific organs, such as the liver, pancreas, gastrointestinal tract, lungs, colon, and brain. The diagnosis is confirmed with CMV polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and treatment for invasive disease typically involves IV ganciclovir.
Other potential diagnoses, such as urinary tract infection, hepatitis C, and upper respiratory tract infection, are unlikely based on the patient’s history and symptoms. However, BK virus, a polyomavirus that can cause latent infection in renal tissue in healthy individuals, can reactivate after renal transplantation and cause fever and graft dysfunction.
The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.
Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.
Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.
Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of hypertension treated with enalapril and diuretics complains of right flank pain. His blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg and temperature is 37.2°C. During examination, tenderness is noted in the right costovertebral angle and both kidneys are enlarged. Micro-haematuria is detected on urine dipstick. What is the most suitable next step in the diagnosis process?
Your Answer: Intravenous pyelography (IVP)
Correct Answer: Ultrasonography
Explanation:The presence of hypertension and enlarged kidneys on both sides indicates a possible diagnosis of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, which is commonly first detected through hypertension. A family history may also be a contributing factor. The recommended initial diagnostic test is an ultrasound of the kidneys, which is highly effective in identifying cysts within the kidneys.
ADPKD, or autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys and other organs. The main features of ADPKD include hypertension, recurrent urinary tract infections, flank pain, haematuria, palpable kidneys, renal impairment, and renal stones. Additionally, there are several extra-renal manifestations of ADPKD, such as liver cysts, which are the most common extra-renal manifestation and can cause hepatomegaly. Berry aneurysms are also a possible complication, occurring in 8% of cases and potentially leading to subarachnoid haemorrhage. The cardiovascular system may also be affected, with mitral valve prolapse, mitral/tricuspid incompetence, aortic root dilation, and aortic dissection being possible complications. Cysts may also form in other organs, such as the pancreas and spleen, and very rarely in the thyroid, oesophagus, or ovary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a cough and fever. She has been feeling unwell for four days with a worsening productive cough, chest pain, fever, and shortness of breath. Upon observation, she shows tachycardia, fever, and hypoxia. Her weight is 42kg. A chest x-ray reveals right middle lobe consolidation, and she is diagnosed with sepsis and a lower respiratory tract infection.
The patient is administered IV fluids, IV antibiotics, and a urinary catheter is inserted. During the post-take ward round, which is 8 hours later, it is noted that she has passed 141 ml of urine, which appears dark. Upon calculation, it is determined that she is passing urine at a rate of 0.42ml/kg/hr. Her creatinine level upon admission is 87µmol/L, and there are no previous records of creatinine levels.
What is the most appropriate way to describe her renal function?Your Answer: No renal impairment
Correct Answer: Stage I acute kidney injury
Explanation:The appropriate diagnosis for this patient is stage I acute kidney injury (AKI) due to her decreased urine output. She has only passed 141 ml in 8 hours and weighs 42 kg, resulting in a urine output rate of 0.42ml/kg/hr. As her urine output has been less than 0.5ml/kg/hr for more than 6 hours but less than 12, she meets the criteria for stage I kidney injury. Since there is no baseline creatinine available for comparison, diagnosing based on creatinine levels is challenging.
KDIGO grading of AKI:
Stage Serum creatinine Urine output
1 1.5-1.9 times baseline OR increase > 26.5 µmol/L <0.5ml/kg/hr for 6-12 hours
2 2.0-2.9 times baseline <0.5ml/kg/hr for =>12 hours
3 3.0 times baseline OR increase => 353.6 µmol/L OR initiation of renal replacement therapy anuria =>12 hoursThe NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify several risk factors, including emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria for AKI include a rise in creatinine, a fall in urine output, or a fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI based on the severity of the creatinine increase or reduction in urine output. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as stage 3 AKI, inadequate response to treatment, or complications of AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 95
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presented for his regular check-up at the HIV clinic. He has been consistently taking HAART for the past 6 years. Recently, he has been experiencing sporadic pain in his left flank that extends to his groin. During his clinic visit, a urinalysis was conducted which revealed 3+ blood but no protein. Further examination of the urine sample under a microscope showed needle-shaped crystals. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Indinavir-induced nephrolithiasis
Explanation:HAART can lead to various renal complications. Indinavir, for instance, can result in the formation of renal stones due to its ability to crystallize in the urine. This can be observed through needle-shaped crystals seen in urine microscopy. On the other hand, Tenofovir is known to cause acute tubular necrosis or Fanconi syndrome. HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) is characterized by a collapsing FSGS and typically presents with nephrotic syndrome. Meanwhile, HIV-associated immune complex kidney disease (HIVICK) can cause a nephritic syndrome, but it is unlikely to present with renal colic. While renal vein thrombosis can cause flank pain, it cannot explain the presence of crystalluria.
HIV and Renal Involvement
Renal involvement is a common occurrence in HIV patients, which can be caused by the virus itself or as a result of treatment. The use of protease inhibitors like indinavir can lead to intratubular crystal obstruction. HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) is responsible for up to 10% of end-stage renal failure cases in the United States. However, antiretroviral therapy has been found to alter the course of the disease. HIVAN is characterized by five key features, including massive proteinuria leading to nephrotic syndrome, normal or large kidneys, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis with focal or global capillary collapse on renal biopsy, elevated urea and creatinine, and normotension.
Overall, HIV patients should be monitored for renal involvement, and appropriate treatment should be administered to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe left-sided flank pain that has been ongoing for 4 hours. The pain is constant but fluctuates in intensity and has been accompanied by several episodes of vomiting.
The patient has a history of congestive heart failure, gout, and glaucoma. He was also recently diagnosed with HIV and began taking highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) six months ago.
Upon examination, the patient is not running a fever. His pulse is 96 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 142/79 mmHg. His chest is clear, and his abdomen is soft, but he experiences tenderness in the left costovertebral angle when palpated.
The results of his urine dipstick are as follows:
pH 6.0
Specific gravity 1.020
Blood +++
Protein +
A CT KUB is ordered and reveals inflammatory stranding around the left kidney with mild hydronephrosis but no visible ureteric calculi.
The patient is admitted for hydration and pain relief but continues to experience symptoms for the next 24 hours. He undergoes intravenous pyelography, which reveals a filling defect in the mid-ureter.
Which of the patient's medications is most likely responsible for his symptoms?Your Answer: Tenofovir
Correct Answer: Indinavir
Explanation:In most cases, non-contrast CT scans of the abdomen can detect renal tract calculi. However, there are rare instances where a radiolucent stone on CT KUB can result in a missed diagnosis.
Certain medications such as furosemide, acetazolamide, and allopurinol can increase the risk of developing calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, and uric acid stones respectively. Calcium stones can be seen on both plain x-ray and CT scans, while uric acid stones can only be detected with CT. However, if urine is supersaturated with indinavir, it can lead to the formation of pure indinavir stones that are not visible on either plain x-ray or CT scans.
The recommended initial treatment for indinavir stones is hydration and pain relief, but discontinuing the medication may be necessary temporarily or permanently.
It is important to note that tenofovir does not increase the risk of renal stone formation.
Renal stones come in different types, each with its own appearance on x-ray. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 40% of cases, and appear opaque on x-ray. Mixed calcium oxalate/phosphate stones make up 25% of cases and also appear opaque. Triple phosphate stones, which are composed of ammonium magnesium phosphate, account for 10% of cases and have an opaque appearance. Calcium phosphate stones also appear opaque and make up 10% of cases. Urate stones, which are made of uric acid, are radiolucent and account for 5-10% of cases. Cystine stones are rare, accounting for only 1% of cases, and have a semi-opaque, ‘ground-glass’ appearance. Xanthine stones are the rarest, accounting for less than 1% of cases, and are also radiolucent. Stag-horn calculi are large stones that involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces. They develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite (ammonium magnesium phosphate, triple phosphate). Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus infections predispose to their formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old traveler from the UK is diagnosed with malaria following a 2-week history of headaches, cyclic fever, fatigue, and joint pains while on vacation in Zambia. She has no significant medical history and is generally healthy.
The patient is admitted to the hospital and started on oral chloroquine for symptom relief. However, her condition worsens over the next day. Nursing staff notes that her urine output has significantly decreased despite IV fluid therapy.
Her blood results are as follows:
s
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.8 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
Urea 48 mmol/l 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 710 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135 - 175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 82 fl 80 - 100 fl
White cell count (WCC) 5.5 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 180 × 109 /l 150 - 400 × 109/l
Blood film +++ for dengue virus
The patient is catheterized, and only 60 ml of dark urine is drained. She is given treatment to address her hyperkalemia.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Peritoneal dialysis
Correct Answer: Start intravenous artesunate
Explanation:Management of Severe Malaria with Acute Kidney Injury
Severe malaria with associated acute kidney injury (AKI) requires urgent treatment to prevent high mortality rates. Renal impairment is common in adults with severe falciparum infection and is caused by disease in glomeruli, tubules, and the interstitial region. Clinical manifestations of malaria-associated AKI include oligo-anuria, severe metabolic acidosis, and a hypercatabolic state. The mainstay of treatment involves administering appropriate antimalarial drugs parenterally, such as intravenous artesunate, alongside supportive measures like IV fluids and dialysis to treat AKI. Hyperkalaemia should also be addressed with IV calcium. While a repeat blood film can confirm the diagnosis, initiating treatment is the priority. Blood transfusion is not necessary unless there is co-existent symptomatic anaemia. Acute dialysis may be required if there are complications like pulmonary oedema, life-threatening hyperkalaemia, or metabolic acidosis resistant to medical treatment. However, the preferred method would be haemodialysis, not peritoneal dialysis. Urine microscopy and culture are not the next most important step in management as the patient has not passed urine due to AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 98
Correct
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During an evening on-call, you are summoned to the haematology ward to assess an elective chemotherapy patient. A 24-year-old male is scheduled to begin chemotherapy for Hodgkin's lymphoma the next day and is complaining of pain in his left flank. He has been under investigation by renal physicians for the past four months due to an unknown cause of deteriorating creatinine. He is a non-regular medication user, smokes about 10 cigarettes daily, and occasionally indulges in marijuana.
Upon examination, you observe bilateral lower limb non-pitting oedema up to the knees. There is a left varicocele and mild bilateral scrotal oedema. His heart sounds and chest auscultation are unremarkable. Abdominal examination reveals only mild left renal angle tenderness. A urine dip reveals 4+ blood, 2+ protein, and normal pH. Upon reviewing his old clinic letters, you discover that a renal biopsy from two months ago showed IgG and complement deposits on the basement membrane.
His current serum results are:
K+ 5.4 mmol/l
Urea 12.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 212 µmol/l
Albumin 18 g/l
What is the most probable acute diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal vein thrombosis
Explanation:A renal biopsy would likely reveal membranous glomerulonephritis as the underlying diagnosis, which could be a result of lymphomatous disease. However, this alone does not explain the sudden onset of symptoms such as flank pain, oedema, and varicocele. It is known that nephrotic syndrome is strongly linked to renal vein thrombosis, which could be the cause of the left varicocele and flank tenderness in this case. Other potential causes of glomerulonephritis are unlikely to cause pain, and renal calculi would not typically result in oedema and varicocele.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 57 year-old woman comes in for her annual diabetic check-up. She has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus for 13 years and is currently only taking metformin for her diabetes. During her last diabetes check-up 1 week ago, her HbA1c was found to be 40 mmol/mol. She has a medical history of peripheral vascular disease and migraine. Additionally, she has a smoking history of 20 pack years and drinks 5-10 units of alcohol per week. Upon examination, her pulse rate is 86 beats per minute and her blood pressure is 126/70 mmHg. Blood tests reveal a sodium level of 140 mmol/l, potassium level of 3.4 mmol/l, urea level of 7.0 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 105 µmol/l. Urinalysis shows negative results for protein, glucose, leucocytes, and nitrites. However, a 24-hour urine sample indicates 190 mg of albumin in her urine.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her renal function?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:If a diabetic patient has a urinary ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more, it is recommended to initiate treatment with an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist. ACE inhibitors have been found to be the most effective management option in terms of prognosis for patients with microalbuminuria, as they can help prevent the progression to end stage renal disease. While it is important to maintain good glycaemic control to prevent microvascular damage, in this case, the patient’s HbA1c is already at an acceptable level, and it is crucial to avoid the risk of hypoglycaemia.
Diabetic nephropathy is a condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. Screening is an essential part of the management process, and all patients should undergo annual screening using the urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR). The ACR test should be done using an early morning specimen, and a result of ACR > 2.5 indicates microalbuminuria.
To manage diabetic nephropathy, several measures should be taken. These include dietary protein restriction, tight glycaemic control, and blood pressure control. The target blood pressure should be less than 130/80 mmHg. Additionally, an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should be started if the urinary ACR is 3 mg/mmol or more. However, dual therapy with ACE inhibitors and angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should not be initiated. Finally, dyslipidaemia should be controlled using medications such as statins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 100
Incorrect
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An 82 year-old man is referred to the Renal team. He was admitted 3 days previously with a community-acquired pneumonia and was being treated with co-amoxiclav and doxycycline. Over the past 24 hours he has developed a rash and reduced urine output. He was otherwise fit and well apart from mild asthma which was well controlled with a salbutamol inhaler.
On examination, his pulse was 105 beats per minute and his blood pressure was 112/64 mmHg. Urinalysis showed protein 2+ and blood 2+.
Hb 122 g/l
Platelets 468 * 109/l
WBC 8.3 * 109/l
Eosinophils 2.1 * 109/l
Na+ 133 mmol/l
K+ 5.4 mmol/l
Urea 18.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 440 µmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis
Explanation:Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that is responsible for a quarter of all drug-induced acute kidney injuries. The most common cause of this condition is drugs, particularly antibiotics such as penicillin and rifampicin, as well as NSAIDs, allopurinol, and furosemide. Systemic diseases like SLE, sarcoidosis, and Sjögren’s syndrome, as well as infections like Hanta virus and staphylococci, can also cause acute interstitial nephritis. The histology of this condition shows marked interstitial oedema and interstitial infiltrate in the connective tissue between renal tubules. Symptoms of acute interstitial nephritis include fever, rash, arthralgia, eosinophilia, mild renal impairment, and hypertension. Sterile pyuria and white cell casts are common findings in investigations.
Tubulointerstitial nephritis with uveitis (TINU) is a condition that typically affects young females. Symptoms of TINU include fever, weight loss, and painful, red eyes. Urinalysis is positive for leukocytes and protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Correct
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Session Time
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Average Question Time (
Mins)