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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old smoker presents to the Gynaecology clinic following a general practitioner’s referral....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old smoker presents to the Gynaecology clinic following a general practitioner’s referral. Her presenting complaint is long-standing vulval irritation and itching. She has a past medical history of lichen sclerosus. On examination, there is an obvious growth in the vulval area. A biopsy is taken and sent for pathological analysis.
      What is the most common cause of vulval carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Vulval Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Vulval cancer is a rare type of cancer that affects the external female genitalia. There are different types of vulval cancer, each with its own set of symptoms, risk factors, and treatment options. Here are some of the most common types of vulval cancer:

      Squamous cell carcinoma: This is the most common type of vulval cancer, accounting for about 85% of cases. It usually affects women over 60 who smoke or have a weakened immune system. Symptoms include vulval irritation or itching, and as the disease progresses, pain and discharge. Squamous cell carcinoma can be cured if caught early, and treatment usually involves surgical excision.

      Basal cell carcinoma: This type of vulval cancer is rare and usually occurs in sun-exposed areas of the skin. It is often treated with surgery.

      Sarcoma: Sarcoma is a rare type of vulval cancer that can occur at any age, including childhood. Treatment usually involves surgery and radiation therapy.

      Bartholin’s gland carcinoma: This is a rare cause of vulval cancer that affects the Bartholin glands, which are two small mucous-producing glands on either side of the vaginal opening. Risk factors include HPV infection and Paget’s disease of the vulva. It is often diagnosed late, as it is often confused with Bartholin gland cyst, which is a benign condition.

      Malignant melanoma: This is a rare type of vulval cancer that accounts for about 5% of cases. Symptoms include itching, bleeding, and an irregular border. Treatment usually involves surgery and chemotherapy.

      If you experience any symptoms of vulval cancer, such as itching, pain, or bleeding, it is important to see a doctor as soon as possible. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve your chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear at her local clinic as part...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear at her local clinic as part of the UK cervical screening programme. Her result comes back as an 'inadequate sample'. What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Return to normal recall

      Correct Answer: Repeat the test within 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear test performed as part of the NHS cervical screening programme is inadequate, it should be first tested for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) and then repeated within 3 months. Colposcopy should only be performed if the second sample also returns as inadequate. Returning the patient to normal recall would result in a delay of 3 years for a repeat smear test, which is not recommended as it could lead to a missed diagnosis of cervical cancer. Repeating the test in 1 month is too soon, while repeating it in 6 months is not in line with current guidelines.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 52-year-old woman has been referred for colposcopy after her recent cervical smear...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman has been referred for colposcopy after her recent cervical smear cytology showed high-grade (moderate) abnormalities and tested positive for high-risk (HR) human papillomavirus (HPV). She underwent a loop excision of the cervix, and the histology report revealed cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia 1 + 2. What is the next best course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: HPV test of cure in six months, if negative recall in five years

      Correct Answer: HPV test of cure in six months, if negative recall in three years

      Explanation:

      Management of Women after Treatment for Cervical Intra-epithelial Neoplasia

      After treatment for cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) at colposcopy, women undergo a repeat smear six months later to check for any residual disease. The management plan following this test of cure depends on the results.

      HPV Test of Cure in Six Months, If Negative Recall in Three Years

      If the test is negative for dyskaryosis and high-risk HPV (HR HPV), the woman is recalled in three years, regardless of her age. If the test remains negative at the three-year mark, she can return to routine screening based on her age group.

      HPV Test of Cure in Six Months, If Negative Recall in Five Years

      Even if the patient is 54 years old, women who have a negative HPV test of cure at six months are recalled for a smear three years later. If this is negative, she will then be returned to routine recall every five years.

      HPV Test of Cure in Three Months, If Negative Recall in Five Years

      The screening test should not be repeated at three months, as this is not enough time for the cervical tissue to heal. Reactive/healing changes in the cytological sample may give a false impression of dyskaryosis. Instead, a HPV test of cure is performed at six months, and if negative, the woman is recalled for routine screening every five years.

      Refer Back to Routine Screening, Repeat in Three/Five Years

      If the HPV test of cure is positive for HPV or there is evidence of moderate/severe dyskaryosis, the woman is referred back to colposcopy for further investigation. If the test is negative, she is referred back to routine screening and recalled in three or five years, depending on the scenario.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results of her smear test show that she is positive for hrHPV (high-risk human papillomavirus), but her cytology is normal. She is advised to come back for another smear test in a year's time. When she returns, her results show that she is still positive for hrHPV, but her cytology is normal. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Repeat smear again in 12 months

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines for cervical cancer screening recommend using hrHPV as the first screening test. If the result is negative, the patient can return to routine recall. However, if the result is positive, the sample is examined for cytology. If the cytology is normal, the patient is asked to return for screening in 12 months instead of the usual 3 years. If the hrHPV result is negative at the 12-month follow-up, the patient can return to routine recall. But if the result is positive again, as in this scenario, and the cytology is normal, the patient should attend another screening in 12 months. If the cytology is abnormal at any point, the patient should be referred for colposcopy. If the patient attends a third screening in another 12 months and the hrHPV result is still positive, she should be referred for colposcopy regardless of the cytology result.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - As a healthcare professional on a gynaecology ward, you are caring for a...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional on a gynaecology ward, you are caring for a 65-year-old woman who underwent an endometrial biopsy due to postmenopausal bleeding. Can you identify which type of ovarian tumor is linked to the development of endometrial hyperplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granulosa cell tumours

      Explanation:

      The development of atypical hyperplasia of the endometrium is caused by excessive stimulation of the endometrium by oestrogen, and it is classified as a premalignant condition. Hormone production is increased in sex cord stromal tumours such as Thecomas, Fibromas, Sertoli cell and granulosa cell tumours, which are associated with this condition.

      Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.

      The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - You are the surgical FY1 discussing with a patient in her 50s about...

    Incorrect

    • You are the surgical FY1 discussing with a patient in her 50s about her upcoming vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair. What is a potential long-term complication of this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal vault prolapse

      Explanation:

      Long-Term Complications of Vaginal Hysterectomy

      Vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair is a common surgical procedure for women. However, it may lead to long-term complications such as enterocoele and vaginal vault prolapse. These conditions occur when the pelvic organs shift and push against the vaginal wall, causing discomfort and pain. While urinary retention may occur immediately after the surgery, it is not typically a chronic complication.

      It is important for women who undergo vaginal hysterectomy to be aware of these potential complications and to discuss them with their healthcare provider. Regular check-ups and pelvic exams can help detect any issues early on and prevent further complications. Additionally, women can take steps to reduce their risk of developing these conditions by maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding heavy lifting, and practicing pelvic floor exercises. By being proactive and informed, women can minimize the impact of long-term complications and enjoy a better quality of life after surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal bleeding for the past 2 weeks. What would be your initial investigation in the clinic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      TVUS is the recommended initial investigation for PMB, unless there are contraindications. This is because it provides the most accurate measurement of endometrial thickness, which is crucial in determining if the bleeding is due to endometrial cancer.

      Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding

      Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.

      To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.

      Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman visits her gynaecologist with complaints of discomfort and a dragging...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her gynaecologist with complaints of discomfort and a dragging sensation, as well as a feeling of a lump in her genital area. Upon examination, the clinician notes a prolapse of the cervix, uterus, and vaginal wall, along with bleeding and ulceration of the cervix. Based on Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POPQ) grading, what type of prolapse is indicated by this patient's symptoms and examination results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fourth-degree

      Explanation:

      Prolapse refers to the descent of pelvic organs into the vagina, which can be categorized into different degrees. First-degree prolapse involves the descent of the uterus and cervix, but they do not reach the vaginal opening. Second-degree prolapse is when the cervix descends to the level of the introitus. Third-degree prolapse is the protrusion of the cervix and uterus outside of the vagina. Fourth-degree prolapse is the complete prolapse of the cervix, uterus, and vaginal wall, which can cause bleeding due to cervix ulceration. Vault prolapse is the prolapse of the top of the vagina down the vaginal canal, often occurring after a hysterectomy due to weakness of the upper vagina. The causes of urogenital prolapse are multifactorial and can include factors such as childbirth, menopause, chronic cough, obesity, constipation, and suprapubic surgery for urinary continence.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to you with complaints of bloating, unintended weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to you with complaints of bloating, unintended weight loss, dyspareunia, and an elevated CA-125. What is the most appropriate term to describe the initial spread of this cancer, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Local spread within the pelvic region

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer typically spreads initially through local invasion, rather than through the lymphatic or hematological routes. This patient’s symptoms, including IBS-like symptoms, irregular vaginal bleeding, and a raised CA125, suggest ovarian cancer. The stages of ovarian cancer range from confined to the ovaries (Stage 1) to spread beyond the pelvis to the abdomen (Stage 3), with local spread within the pelvis (Stage 2) in between. While lymphatic and hematological routes can also be involved in the spread of ovarian cancer, they tend to occur later than local invasion within the pelvis. The para-aortic lymph nodes are a common site for lymphatic spread, while the liver is a common site for hematological spread.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday afternoon after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday afternoon after having unprotected sex on the previous Saturday. She is worried about the possibility of an unintended pregnancy and wants to know the most effective method to prevent it. She had her last menstrual cycle two weeks ago.

      What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for copper coil (IUD) insertion

      Explanation:

      For a patient who has had unprotected intercourse within the last 72 hours and is seeking the most effective form of emergency contraception, the recommended course of action is to arrange for a copper coil (IUD) insertion. This method is effective for up to five days (120 hours) after intercourse, whether or not ovulation has occurred, and works by preventing fertilization or implantation. If there are concerns about sexually transmitted infections, antibiotics can be given at the same time. It is incorrect to advise the patient that she has missed the window for emergency contraception, as both the copper coil and ulipristal acetate are licensed for use up to five days after intercourse, while levonorgestrel emergency contraception can be taken up to 72 hours after. Prescribing levonorgestrel emergency contraception would not be the best option in this case, as its efficacy decreases with time and it is minimally effective if ovulation has already occurred. Similarly, ulipristal acetate may be less effective if ovulation has already occurred, so a copper coil insertion would be a more appropriate choice.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old woman with a history of chronic pelvic pain has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman with a history of chronic pelvic pain has been diagnosed with endometriosis. Which of the following is not a recognized treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilation and curettage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on contraception and opts for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on contraception and opts for the intrauterine system. What is the predominant side effect that she should be informed about during the initial 6 months of having the intrauterine system inserted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irregular bleeding

      Explanation:

      During the initial 6 months after the intrauterine system is inserted, experiencing irregular bleeding is a typical adverse effect. However, over time, the majority of women who use the IUS will experience reduced or absent menstrual periods, which is advantageous for those who experience heavy menstrual bleeding or prefer not to have periods.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She has a medical history of endometriosis and reports that her last period was one week ago. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of free fluid in her pelvic region. What could be the underlying cause of her acute abdomen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured endometrioma

      Explanation:

      A rupture endometrioma can result in a sudden and severe pain, given the patient’s medical history of endometriosis, acute abdomen, and fluid accumulation in the pelvis. Diverticular disease is an improbable diagnosis in this age group and does not match the symptoms described. Additionally, the patient’s current menstrual cycle rules out endometriosis pain as a possible cause.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after giving birth to her second child. She is currently breastfeeding and has a BMI of 27 kg/m^2. Her husband has a vasectomy scheduled in two months. What is the best contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Explanation:

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old multiparous woman presents to a specialist clinic with menorrhagia. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old multiparous woman presents to a specialist clinic with menorrhagia. She has multiple fibroids that distort the uterine cavity and has already completed a 3-month trial of tranexamic acid, which did not improve her symptoms. On examination, you notice that she appears pale and her uterus is equivalent to 16 weeks of pregnancy. The patient expresses her frustration and desire for a definitive treatment. A negative urinary pregnancy test is obtained. What would be the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient's menorrhagia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Hysterectomy is the most effective treatment for menorrhagia caused by large fibroids, which are benign tumors of smooth muscle that can grow in response to hormones. Risk factors for fibroids include obesity, early menarche, African-American origin, and a family history of fibroids. Symptoms of fibroids include heavy periods, anemia, abdominal discomfort, and pressure symptoms. Diagnosis is made through pelvic ultrasound. Medical management with NSAIDs or tranexamic acid can be tried first, but if it fails, surgical management is necessary. Uterine-sparing surgeries like myomectomy or uterine artery embolization can be considered for women who want to preserve their fertility, but hysterectomy is the definitive method of treatment for women who have completed their family or have severe symptoms. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system is not recommended for women with large fibroids causing uterine distortion. Mefenamic acid is less effective than tranexamic acid for fibroid-related menorrhagia. Myomectomy is not a definitive method of management as fibroids can recur. Uterine artery embolization is an option for women who want to preserve their uterus but not their fertility, but its effect on fertility and pregnancy is not well established.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 19-year-old visits her doctor to discuss birth control options. After being informed...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old visits her doctor to discuss birth control options. After being informed about the different choices, she decides to begin taking a progesterone-only pill. Currently, she is on day 16 of her regular 29-day menstrual cycle. If she were to start taking the pill today, how many more days would she need to use additional contraception to avoid getting pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 days

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of different contraceptives varies in terms of the time it takes to become effective if not started on the first day of the menstrual cycle. The intrauterine device is the only method that is instantly effective at any time during the cycle as it reduces sperm motility and survival. The progesterone only pill takes at least 2 days to work if started after day 5 of the cycle and is immediately effective if started prior to day 5. The combined oral contraceptive pill, injection, implant, and intrauterine system take 7 days to become effective and work by inhibiting ovulation, thickening cervical mucous, and preventing endometrial proliferation. Side effects of the progesterone only pill may include menstrual irregularities, breast tenderness, weight gain, and acne.

      Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal bloating. She has been undergoing ovulation induction treatment. During the US examination, ascites is detected. Her blood test results are as follows:
      - Hb: 130 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 300 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - WBC: 10 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Na+: 133 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - K+: 5.0 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 10 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - CRP: 8 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Haematocrit: 0.5 (normal range for females: 0.36-0.48; normal range for males: 0.4-0.54)

      What is the medication that is most likely to have caused these side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy

      Explanation:

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome can occur as a possible adverse effect of ovulation induction. The symptoms of this syndrome, such as ascites, vomiting, diarrhea, and high hematocrit, are typical. There are various medications used for ovulation induction, and the risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is higher with gonadotropin therapy than with clomiphene citrate, raloxifene, letrozole, or anastrozole. Therefore, it is probable that the patient received gonadotropin therapy.

      Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.

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  • Question 18 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for her routine cervical smear, which is...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for her routine cervical smear, which is performed without any complications. She receives a notification that her cervical smear is negative for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV).
      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years

      Explanation:

      If the sample is negative for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient should return to routine recall for their next cervical smear in 3 years, according to current guidance. Cytological examination is not necessary in this case as it is only performed if the hrHPV test is positive. Repeating the cervical smear in 3 months or 5 years is not appropriate as these are not the recommended timeframes for recall. Repeating the cervical smear after 12 months is only indicated if the previous smear was hrHPV positive but without cytological abnormalities.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old woman visits her GP six weeks after giving birth, seeking advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her GP six weeks after giving birth, seeking advice on contraception. She prefers to use the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), which she has used before. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity since week three postpartum. Currently, she is breastfeeding her baby about 60% of the time and supplementing with formula for the remaining 40%. What recommendation should the GP give to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pregnancy test is required. The COCP can be prescribed in this situation

      Explanation:

      This question involves two components. Firstly, the lady in question is seven weeks postpartum and has had unprotected intercourse after day 21, putting her at risk of pregnancy. Therefore, she must have a pregnancy test before receiving any form of contraception. Secondly, the safety of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) at 7 weeks postpartum is being considered. While the COCP is contraindicated for breastfeeding women less than 6 weeks postpartum, this lady falls into the 6 weeks – 6 months postpartum category where the benefits of prescribing the COCP generally outweigh the risks. Therefore, it would be suitable to prescribe the COCP for her. It is important to note that even if a woman is exclusively breastfeeding, the lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is only effective for up to 6 months postpartum. Additionally, while the progesterone only pill is a good form of contraception, it is not necessary to recommend it over the COCP in this case.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old woman, who had a hysterectomy to treat fibroids in the past,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman, who had a hysterectomy to treat fibroids in the past, visits the Preoperative Gynaecology Clinic for sacrospinous fixation to address a vault prolapse. The surgeon discusses the potential risks and complications of the procedure before obtaining consent. What nerve is in danger of being harmed during sacrospinous fixation for vault prolapse treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatic

      Explanation:

      Nerve Damage in Obstetric and Surgical Procedures

      During obstetric and surgical procedures, nerve damage can occur in various parts of the body. One such instance is a total vault prolapse, which can occur following a hysterectomy. Two surgical options for management include sacrocolpopexy and sacrospinous fixation. While sacrocolpopexy involves suturing the vaginal vault to the sacrum, sacrospinous fixation requires suturing the top of the vaginal vault to the sacrospinous ligament. However, complications such as damage to the sciatic nerve and pudendal vessels can occur with the latter procedure.

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve is most common during total knee arthroplasties when the patient is placed in the lithotomy and lateral positions for extended periods of time. On the other hand, the femoral nerve can be injured during abdomino-pelvic surgery, aortic cross-clamp, invasive procedures to access the femoral vessels, and hip arthroplasty. Inguinal hernia repair is the most common cause of damage to the inguinal nerve.

      Lastly, isolated damage to the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh is not associated with obstetric surgery. However, damage to the main femoral nerve is commonly seen in abdominal hysterectomies due to compression by retractor blades. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these potential complications and take necessary precautions to prevent nerve damage during procedures.

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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old woman visits a sexual health clinic without an appointment. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman visits a sexual health clinic without an appointment. She had sex with her partner on Sunday and they typically use condoms for contraception, but they didn't have any at the time. The patient has a medical history of severe asthma that is managed with oral steroids, but is in good health otherwise. Today is Thursday. What is the best emergency contraception option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      The most effective method of emergency contraception is a copper IUD, and it should be the first option offered to all women who have had unprotected sexual intercourse. This IUD can be used up to 5 days after the UPSI or the earliest estimated date of ovulation. The combined oral contraceptive pill, intrauterine system, and levonorgestrel are not as effective as the copper IUD and should not be the first option offered. Levonorgestrel can only be used within 72 hours of UPSI, and even then, the copper IUD is still more effective.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine cervical smear. Later, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine cervical smear. Later, she receives a phone call informing her that the smear was insufficient. She recalls having an inadequate smear more than ten years ago.

      What is the correct course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat smear in 3 months

      Explanation:

      When a cervical cancer screening smear is inadequate, the recommended course of action is to repeat the smear within 3 months. It is not necessary to consider any previous inadequate smears from a decade ago. Therefore, repeating the smear in 1 month or 3 years is not appropriate. Referral for colposcopy or gynaecology is also not necessary at this stage, as it should only be considered if the second smear in 3 months’ time is also inadequate.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and no other medications. What actions should be taken regarding her surgery and pill usage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the pill 4 weeks before surgery and restart 2 weeks after surgery

      Explanation:

      It is a common scenario for surgical patients to face an increased risk of venous thromboembolism when they are on the pill and undergoing surgery, particularly abdominal or lower limb surgery. Therefore, it is necessary to discontinue the pill.

      However, stopping the pill too early would increase the risk of pregnancy, and restarting it too soon after surgery would still pose a risk due to the surgery’s effects on coagulation. Ceasing the pill on the day of surgery would not eliminate the risk of clotting either.

      The best course of action is to stop the pill four weeks before surgery to allow for a return to normal coagulation levels. Then, restarting it two weeks after surgery would allow the procoagulant effects of surgery to subside.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

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  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of persistent urinary incontinence,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of persistent urinary incontinence, exacerbated by laughing or coughing. Despite undergoing supervised pelvic floor exercises for four months, she still experiences a significant impact on her quality of life. While surgical intervention was discussed, she prefers medical management. What medication would be the most suitable for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence does not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and declines surgical intervention, duloxetine may be used. Antimuscarinics are the first-line treatment for urge incontinence in patients who do not respond to bladder training, with oxybutynin (immediate-release), tolterodine (immediate-release), or darifenacin (once daily preparation) being recommended by NICE. Mirabegron, a beta-3 agonist, is used when antimuscarinics are contraindicated or when there are concerns about their side effects, particularly in frail elderly women. Desmopressin is not a treatment for stress incontinence, but it may be considered off-label for patients with troublesome nocturia, except for women aged 65 years or over with cardiovascular disease or hypertension.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman at 16 week gestation presents to the early pregnancy assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman at 16 week gestation presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with complaints of light vaginal bleeding, fevers for 2 days, and increasing abdominal pain for 6 hours. On examination, she has diffuse abdominal tenderness and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 39.2ºC and blood pressure is 112/78 mmHg. Her full blood count shows Hb of 107 g/L, platelets of 189 * 109/L, and WBC of 13.2 * 109/L. An ultrasound confirms miscarriage. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Manual vacuum aspiration under local anaesthetic

      Explanation:

      If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of haemorrhage, expectant management is not a suitable option for miscarriage. In such cases, NICE recommends either medical management (using oral or vaginal misoprostol) or surgical management (including manual vacuum aspiration). In this particular case, surgical management is the only option as the patient has evidence of infection, possibly due to septic miscarriage. Syntocinon is used for medical management of postpartum haemorrhage, while methotrexate is used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy. Oral mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol for termination of pregnancy, but it is not recommended by NICE for the management of miscarriage.

      Management Options for Miscarriage

      Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.

      Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.

      Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.

      It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

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  • Question 26 - A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her recent cervical screening test. The test showed normal cytology and was negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). In her previous screening test 18 months ago, she had normal cytology but tested positive for hrHPV. What guidance should you provide to the patient based on her latest screening test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Return to routine recall in 3 years time

      Explanation:

      If the result of the first repeat smear for cervical cancer screening at 12 months is negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can resume routine recall. This means they should undergo screening every 3 years from age 25-49 years or every 5 years from age 50-64 years. However, if the repeat test is positive again, the patient should undergo another HPV test in 12 months. If there is dyskaryosis on a cytology sample, the patient should be referred for colposcopy.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain and frequency of urination. Blood results revealed CA-125 of 50 u/ml (<36 u/ml).
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms

      Abdominal symptoms can have various causes, and a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with bloating, early satiety, urinary symptoms, and an elevated CA-125 level. Here are some possible explanations for these symptoms, based on their typical features and diagnostic markers.

      Ovarian cancer: This is a possible diagnosis, given the mass effect on the gastrointestinal and urinary organs, as well as the elevated CA-125 level. However, ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms initially, and other conditions can also increase CA-125 levels. Anorexia and weight loss are additional symptoms to consider.

      Colorectal cancer: This is less likely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, or anemia. The classical marker for colorectal cancer is CEA, not CA-125.

      Irritable bowel syndrome: This is also less likely, given the age of the patient and the presence of urinary symptoms. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other likely conditions should be ruled out first.

      Genitourinary prolapse: This is a possible diagnosis, given the urinary symptoms and the sensation of bulging or fullness. Vaginal spotting, pain, or irritation are additional symptoms to consider. However, abdominal bloating and early satiety are not typical, and CA-125 levels should not be affected.

      Diverticulosis: This is unlikely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as altered bowel habits or left iliac fossa pain. Diverticulitis can cause rectal bleeding, but fever and acute onset of pain are more characteristic.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms should take into account the patient’s age, gender, medical history, and specific features of the symptoms. Additional tests and imaging may be necessary to confirm or exclude certain conditions.

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  • Question 28 - A 59-year-old woman presents to the GP with vaginal dryness for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman presents to the GP with vaginal dryness for the past 4 weeks and occasional small amounts of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. She denies any pain, dysuria, or changes in bowel habits. Her last period was 2 years ago and she has unprotected sexual intercourse with her husband, who is her only partner. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity.

      On examination, her abdomen and pelvis appear normal. What would be the most suitable course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      If a woman is 55 years old or older and experiences postmenopausal bleeding (which occurs after 12 months of no menstruation), she should be referred for further evaluation within 2 weeks using the suspected cancer pathway to rule out endometrial cancer.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby within the last 24 hours....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby within the last 24 hours. She has no plans of having another child anytime soon and wishes to begin a long-term contraceptive method. The patient has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and intends to exclusively breastfeed.

      What would be the most suitable contraception for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      The Levonorgestrel intrauterine system is the appropriate choice for this patient as it is a long-acting contraceptive that can also help prevent heavy menstrual bleeding. It can be inserted immediately as the patient is within 48 hours of childbirth. The Copper intrauterine device should be avoided in those with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding. The lactational amenorrhoea method is only effective for up to 6 months post-partum, and progesterone injections must be repeated every 10-12 weeks, making them unsuitable for this patient’s desire for a long-term contraceptive.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history of heavy, painful periods. She reports regular periods, lasting seven days.
      During the first three days, she has to wear both a tampon and sanitary pads and has to take time off work due to the embarrassment of flooding and dizziness. She declined contraception, as she is trying for a baby.
      A pelvic ultrasound revealed two small fibroids (< 3 cm in size) in the uterus, and a full blood count was as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 390 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Iron 12 μg/dl 50 to 170 µg/dl
      Ferritin 5 μg/l 10–120 μg/l
      What is the best first-line treatment for this patient's menorrhagia if she is 29 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Menorrhagia Secondary to Fibroids

      Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids is a common gynecological problem that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. There are several management options available, depending on the severity of symptoms, the patient’s desire for fertility preservation, and the presence of other medical conditions.

      Tranexamic acid is the first-line medical management option for women with menorrhagia secondary to fibroids who do not want contraception. It is an antifibrinolytic agent that reduces bleeding by inhibiting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Hormonal therapies, such as combined oral contraceptives, are not indicated in this scenario.

      Surgical options, such as myomectomy, endometrial ablation, or hysterectomy, may be considered if medical management fails or the patient declines medication. Myomectomy is a surgical procedure that removes fibroids while preserving the uterus and fertility. However, fibroids can recur following myomectomy. Hysterectomy is the only definitive method of management, but it is only recommended for women who have completed their family.

      Iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate is appropriate for patients with iron deficiency anemia secondary to menorrhagia. Mefenamic acid, an NSAID, is contraindicated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena® coil) is recommended as the first-line treatment for menorrhagia without underlying pathology, suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, or small fibroids that do not cause uterine distortion, but it is not appropriate for women who want to conceive.

      In conclusion, the management of menorrhagia secondary to fibroids requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s symptoms, desire for fertility preservation, and medical history. A multidisciplinary team approach involving gynecologists, hematologists, and other specialists may be necessary to provide optimal care.

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Gynaecology (2/4) 50%
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