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  • Question 1 - You are called to see a pediatric patient on the ward who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a pediatric patient on the ward who has just had a partial thyroidectomy. The nurses were measuring his blood pressure on his arm which causes pain and cramp in his arm and hand. They ask you to review the patient. Examination of his arm is normal. He is otherwise completely stable.
      What should you do?

      Your Answer: Perform an urgent venous blood gas

      Correct Answer: Perform an electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient at Risk of Hypocalcaemia Post-Thyroid Surgery

      After thyroid surgery, patients are at risk of developing hypocalcaemia, which can lead to complications such as prolonged QT syndrome and arrhythmias. Therefore, it is important to promptly identify and manage this condition.

      Performing an electrocardiogram (ECG) at the bedside is crucial to assess for prolonged QT syndrome. Additionally, a venous blood gas should be performed to determine ionised calcium levels. If hypocalcaemia is confirmed, daily monitoring is recommended.

      Nerve conduction studies may also be necessary to assess for nerve pressure damage during surgery. Furthermore, IV fluids should be administered if the patient is dehydrated.

      Overall, prompt identification and management of hypocalcaemia is essential in post-thyroid surgery patients to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, lid lag, and a moderate goitre with a bruit are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Toxic thyroid nodule

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders and their Differentiation

      Thyroid disorders are a common occurrence, and their diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One such disorder is Graves’ disease, which is characterized by a goitre with a bruit. Unlike MNG, Graves’ disease is associated with angiogenesis and thyroid follicular hypertrophy. Other signs of Graves’ disease include eye signs such as conjunctival oedema, exophthalmos, and proptosis. Additionally, pretibial myxoedema is a dermatological manifestation of this disease.

      De Quervain’s thyroiditis is another thyroid disorder that follows a viral infection and is characterized by painful thyroiditis. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is a chronic autoimmune degradation of the thyroid. Multinodular goitre (MNG) is the most common form of thyroid disorder, leading to the formation of multiple nodules over the gland. Lastly, a toxic thyroid nodule is a solitary lesion on the thyroid that produces excess thyroxine.

      In conclusion, the different types of thyroid disorders and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In the treatment of autoimmunity and prevention of rejection after solid organ transplantation,...

    Incorrect

    • In the treatment of autoimmunity and prevention of rejection after solid organ transplantation, various immunosuppressant drugs are used. Despite their effectiveness, these drugs have unwanted side effects that increase the risk of infection and malignancy. However, specific side effects are associated with each drug due to their unique mechanism of action. What is the immunosuppressant drug that is commonly linked to hirsutism and gingival hypertrophy in patients? Also, is there any age group that is more susceptible to these side effects?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Ciclosporin

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin’s Side Effects and Decreased Popularity as a Transplantation Maintenance Therapy

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is commonly linked to gingival hypertrophy and hirsutism. These side effects can be unpleasant for patients and may lead to decreased compliance with the medication regimen. Additionally, ciclosporin is not as effective as tacrolimus at inhibiting calcineurin, which is a key factor in preventing transplant rejection. As a result, ciclosporin is becoming less popular as a maintenance therapy for transplantation. Physicians are increasingly turning to other medications that have fewer side effects and are more effective at preventing rejection. While ciclosporin may still be used in some cases, it is no longer considered the first-line treatment for transplantation maintenance therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A father brings his 10-month-old daughter to the emergency department due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 10-month-old daughter to the emergency department due to a rash that has developed. Upon further inquiry, the father explains that the rash started behind her ears two days ago and has since spread. Prior to the rash, the baby had a fever and cough. Although she is up to date with her vaccinations, the father has not yet scheduled her next appointment. During the examination, the baby appears irritable, has white spots in her mouth, and inflamed eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the potential risk for the baby?

      Your Answer: Orchitis

      Correct Answer: Otitis media

      Explanation:

      Otitis media is the most frequent complication that arises from measles, which typically presents with an initial prodrome of cough, coryza, and the appearance of white spots on the buccal mucosa known as koplik spots. The rash usually emerges between day 3 and 5, starting behind the ears and spreading down the body.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      243
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?...

    Correct

    • Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?

      Patient A:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
      PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
      Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 132 μmol/L
      Albumin - 36 g/L

      Patient B:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L
      PTH - 7.2 pmol/L
      Urea - 5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 140 μmol/L
      Albumin - 38 g/L

      Patient C:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
      PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
      Albumin - 28 g/L

      Patient D:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
      PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 190 μmol/L
      Albumin - 40 g/L

      Patient E:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
      PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
      Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
      Albumin - 18 g/L

      Your Answer: Patient B

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism and its Complications

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with an incidental finding of elevated calcium often being the first clue. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification.

      Osteoporosis occurs due to increased bone resorption under the influence of high levels of PTH. Renal calculi are also a common complication, as high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can lead to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Additionally, calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually over time.

      Patients with longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism are at risk of impaired renal function, which is less common in patients with chronic kidney disease of other causes. While both conditions may have elevated PTH levels, hypocalcaemia is more common in chronic kidney disease due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. the complications of primary hyperparathyroidism is crucial for early diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease presents with intractable watery diarrhoea and weight loss. He has multiple gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers, which are poorly responding to medications such as antacids and omeprazole. Gastric acid output and serum gastrin level are elevated. Serum gastrin level fails to decrease following a test meal. On abdominal computerised tomography (CT) scan, no masses are found in the pancreas or duodenum.
      Which one of the following drugs is useful for this patient?

      Your Answer: Somatostatin antagonist

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gastrinoma: Octreotide, Somatostatin Antagonist, Bromocriptine, Pergolide, and Leuprolide

      Gastrinoma is a rare condition characterized by multiple, recurrent, and refractory peptic ulcer disease, along with watery diarrhea and weight loss. The diagnosis is supported by an elevated serum gastrin level that is not suppressed by the test meal. While neoplastic masses of gastrinoma may or may not be localized by abdominal imaging, treatment options are available.

      Octreotide, a synthetic somatostatin, is useful in the treatment of gastrinoma, acromegaly, carcinoid tumor, and glucagonoma. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone in several endocrine systems, and a somatostatin antagonist would increase gastrin, growth hormone, and glucagon secretion. However, it has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma.

      Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, hyperprolactinemia, and pituitary tumors. Pergolide, another dopamine receptor agonist, was formerly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but is no longer administered due to its association with valvular heart disease. Neither medication has a role in the treatment of gastrinoma.

      Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, is used in the treatment of sex hormone-sensitive tumors such as prostate or breast cancer. It also has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma. Overall, octreotide remains the primary treatment option for gastrinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose? ...

    Correct

    • What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tinel’s Sign for Median Nerve Compression

      Tinel’s sign is a diagnostic test used to identify median nerve compression. It involves tapping firmly over the ventral aspect of the wrist, specifically over the carpal tunnel, which produces an electric shock along the course of the median nerve. The test is performed by tapping over the creases on the inner side of the wrist between the two bones on either side of the base of the palm.

      The specificity of Tinel’s sign is high at 94%, meaning that it accurately identifies those with median nerve compression. However, the sensitivity of the test ranges from 44-70%, indicating that it may not identify all cases of median nerve compression. Despite this limitation, Tinel’s sign remains a useful tool for diagnosing median nerve compression and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      301.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of severe back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of severe back pain and a high fever. The pain began in his lower back three days ago and has progressively worsened, now extending to his left thigh and groin. He finds relief by lying on his back and keeping his left knee slightly bent and hip externally rotated. Hip extension is particularly painful.

      The patient has a history of intravenous drug use. On examination, he has a fever of 38.2ºC and a heart rate of 132 beats per minute. A mild systolic murmur is present, and tenderness is noted over L1 to L3.

      His urine dip reveals protein 1+ and blood 1+, but is negative for nitrites and leukocytes. What is the most likely cause of his back pain?

      Your Answer: Vertebral osteomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Psoas abscess

      Explanation:

      When considering the potential causes of back pain in an intravenous drug user, it is important to keep psoas abscess in mind as a possible differential diagnosis. In this particular case, the patient’s symptoms suggest the presence of infective endocarditis, as indicated by the presence of blood and protein in the urine and a systolic murmur during auscultation. However, it is unlikely that this condition is responsible for the patient’s back pain.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man is involved in a bicycle accident and is thrown from...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is involved in a bicycle accident and is thrown from his bike. He suffers an injury to his left shoulder that results in bruising. The left side of his neck and left shoulder are tender and painful. Upon examination of his left upper limb, there is a loss of external rotation and abduction at the shoulder, as well as a loss of flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Cutaneous sensation testing reveals numbness on the lateral aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand. What is the most likely neurological structure that has been damaged?

      Your Answer: Upper trunk of the brachial plexus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Upper Trunk Brachial Plexus Injuries and Differential Diagnosis

      Upper trunk brachial plexus injuries, such as Erb’s palsy, result from damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots. This can cause a range of symptoms, including loss of motor function in muscles such as the deltoid, biceps brachii, and supinator, as well as sensory loss in areas such as the lateral aspect of the upper arm and forearm.

      It’s important to differentiate upper trunk brachial plexus injuries from other nerve injuries, such as those affecting the musculocutaneous nerve, axillary nerve, C7 nerve root, and T1 nerve root. Each of these injuries will produce a distinct pattern of symptoms, such as weakness in elbow flexion and supination for musculocutaneous nerve injuries, or loss of sensation over the middle finger for C7 nerve root injuries.

      By understanding the specific functions of each nerve root and the muscles and areas they innervate, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat upper trunk brachial plexus injuries and other nerve injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      80.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and tender reddish-blue raised nodules on the front of both shins. These have been present for a number of months. He has also lost weight and suffered from a chronic cough since the beginning of the year. On examination, there are multiple red/purple, firm, painful lesions affecting both shins. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
      area of upper lobe fibrosis in the right lung
      Induced sputum Acid- and alcohol-fast bacilli seen
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his rash?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum and Differential Diagnosis

      Erythema nodosum is a painful, raised rash that typically occurs on the anterior aspect of the lower legs. It is a type of panniculitis and is often associated with tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. To rule out these serious conditions, a chest radiograph is usually performed at diagnosis. Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds, and patients are screened for associated medical conditions. Treatment involves managing the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis chemotherapy, and using non-steroidals for the skin rash.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema infectiosum, which is caused by Parvovirus B19 and presents as a rash on the cheeks. Erythema multiforme causes target lesions that appear on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. Superficial thrombophlebitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of a superficial vein and is not associated with tuberculosis. Insect bites may cause swollen red lumps, but they are unlikely to cause the nodules seen in erythema nodosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      97.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 14-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. She...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. She has widespread aches in multiple joints, including the hips, wrists and knees. She is normally fit and well, and the only medical history to note was eczema as a child, which she has now grown out of. The patient’s mother mentions that she did have a sore throat around two weeks ago, which was self-limiting. From the history and examination findings, the examining doctor feels that the patient is likely to have rheumatic fever.
      Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Streptococcus Bacteria and Their Associated Infections

      Streptococcus bacteria are a group of Gram-positive bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Here are some of the different types of Streptococcus bacteria and the infections they are associated with:

      1. Group A Streptococcus: This type of bacteria can cause rheumatic fever, tonsillitis, erysipelas, scarlet fever, cellulitis, septic arthritis, Henoch–Schönlein purpura, post-streptococcal autoimmunity, and erythema multiforme.

      2. Group B Streptococcus: This type of bacteria can cause septic abortion and bacterial meningitis.

      3. Gamma-haemolytic Streptococcus: This type of bacteria is classified as gamma-haemolytic because it does not break down red blood cells on blood agar plates.

      4. Streptococcus pneumoniae: This type of bacteria is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.

      5. Streptococcus viridans: This type of bacteria is an important cause of bacterial endocarditis.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the different types of Streptococcus bacteria and the infections they can cause in order to properly diagnose and treat these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      70.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient attends the Neurology clinic following a referral from the general practitioner...

    Correct

    • A patient attends the Neurology clinic following a referral from the general practitioner due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the left-sided trigeminal nerve.
      Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy?

      Your Answer: Bite weakness

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cranial Nerve Functions and Their Effects on Facial and Oral Muscles

      The human body is a complex system of interconnected parts, and the cranial nerves play a crucial role in ensuring that these parts function properly. In particular, the trigeminal nerve, facial nerve, and glossopharyngeal nerve are responsible for controlling various muscles in the face and mouth, as well as transmitting sensory information from these areas to the brain.

      If there is weakness in the masticatory muscles, it may be due to a problem with the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Similarly, loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue may be caused by damage to the facial nerve, which carries taste fibers from this area. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle is also linked to the facial nerve, which supplies motor fibers to the muscles of facial expression.

      Another common symptom of facial nerve palsy is the loss of control over eye blinking, which is mainly controlled by the orbicularis muscle. Finally, the glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for supplying taste fibers to the posterior third of the tongue.

      Overall, understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential for identifying the location of lesions and determining which nerve is affected. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      199.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about a lump in her right breast. The patient reports that she first noticed the lump about two months ago and it has remained persistent without any noticeable increase in size. Upon examination, the GP observes a smooth, mobile 2 cm lump in the Inferolateral quadrant without skin or nipple changes. The patient denies any family history of breast cancer and has no lumps in her axilla. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Arrange mammogram

      Correct Answer: Routine breast clinic referral

      Explanation:

      If a woman under 30 years old presents with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, she may not meet the 2-week-wait referral criteria but can still be referred for further evaluation. The most likely diagnosis is a fibroadenoma, which is a common benign breast lump that often occurs in younger women. These lumps are typically firm, smooth, and highly mobile. It is important to refer the patient to a breast clinic for evaluation, but routine referral is sufficient given the low likelihood of cancer. Mammograms or ultrasounds are not necessary at this stage. Reviewing the patient in one month is also unnecessary as the lump has already persisted for two months. Urgent referral is not needed due to the patient’s age and low risk of breast cancer. NICE CKS recommends a 2-week-wait referral for those over 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump, or over 50 years old with unilateral nipple changes. Referral should also be considered for those with skin changes suggestive of breast cancer or those over 30 years old with an unexplained lump in the axilla.

      In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old bipolar woman has been readmitted to the hospital after attempting to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old bipolar woman has been readmitted to the hospital after attempting to harm herself. She is currently stable. What form of psychotherapy would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Interpersonal therapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Psychotherapy Options for Schizophrenia

      There are several psychotherapy options available for individuals with schizophrenia. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is a structured, goal-directed, problem-focused, and time-limited therapy that combines principles of both behavioural and cognitive therapy. It focuses on the environment, behaviour, and cognition simultaneously. Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy primarily relies on insight, bringing unconscious or unclear material into awareness, and linking past and present experiences to address the patient’s difficulties. Interpersonal therapy is derived partially from a psychodynamic perspective and focuses primarily on the patient’s interpersonal relationships. It is fairly non-directive and addresses issues such as grief, role transitions, interpersonal role disputes, and interpersonal deficits as they relate to the patient’s current symptoms.

      Family therapy is another option that helps family members learn about the disorder, solve problems, and cope more constructively with the patient’s illness. There is evidence that family interventions can reduce relapse rates in schizophrenia. Systemic desensitisation is an exposure-based behavioural treatment that utilises gradual, systematic, repeated exposure to the feared object or situation to allow patients with anxiety disorders to become desensitised to the feared stimulus.

      The decision between CBT and family therapy would be highly influenced by patient preference. However, if only CBT is presented as an option, it would be the appropriate choice. It is important to consider the different psychotherapy options available and choose the one that best suits the patient’s needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which hormone is responsible for the excess in Cushing's disease? ...

    Correct

    • Which hormone is responsible for the excess in Cushing's disease?

      Your Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s Disease

      Cushing’s disease is a condition characterized by excessive cortisol production due to adrenal hyperfunction caused by an overproduction of ACTH from a pituitary corticotrophin adenoma. This results in both adrenal glands producing more cortisol and cortisol precursors. It is important to differentiate between primary and secondary hypercortisolaemia, which can be done by measuring ACTH levels in the blood. If ACTH levels are not suppressed, it indicates secondary hypercortisolaemia, which is driven by either pituitary or ectopic ACTH production. the underlying cause of hypercortisolaemia is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for individuals with Cushing’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is found to have gestational...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is found to have gestational diabetes during her current pregnancy after an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). She inquires about the potential impact of this diagnosis on future pregnancies.

      What is the recommended method for screening for gestational diabetes in subsequent pregnancies?

      Your Answer: OGTT immediately after booking, and at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Women with a history of gestational diabetes should be offered an OGTT immediately after booking and at 24-28 weeks to screen for gestational diabetes in subsequent pregnancies. No screening test is not recommended. OGTT at 24-28 weeks is the screening strategy for those with risk factors but no previous history of gestational diabetes.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. He appears to be in good health and there are no signs of infection or fever. He has a history of gout and suspects that it has returned. He is currently on a regular dose of allopurinol. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine

      Explanation:

      Patients with an acute flare of gout who are already on allopurinol treatment should not discontinue it during the attack, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Colchicine is a suitable option for acute gout treatment, and oral steroids can be used if colchicine or NSAIDs are not tolerated. Hospital review on the same day is not necessary in the absence of septic joint or red flag features. Aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year old teacher is found to have a medical condition that follows...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old teacher is found to have a medical condition that follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
      Which of the following illnesses is most accurately characterized as being inherited in an autosomal dominant manner?

      Your Answer: Hereditary haemochromatosis

      Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a single gene disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Mutations in genes such as LDLR, Apo, and PCSK9 affect cholesterol handling in the body. Patients with mutations in the LDLR gene produce a defective receptor that cannot bind LDLs, leading to cholesterol accumulation outside cells and atherosclerosis. Heterozygotes are at risk of developing premature cardiovascular disease, while homozygotes can develop severe cardiovascular disease in childhood. Hereditary haemochromatosis is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with mutations occurring in the HFE gene. The C282Y mutation accounts for 90% of cases and causes increased iron absorption, leading to iron overload. Wilson’s disease is also inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with mutations in the ATP7B gene causing copper accumulation in the liver, brain, and other tissues. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in the β globin gene, leading to sickled red cells that block circulation and cause tissue oxygen deficiency. Cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, inhibiting the flow of chloride ions and water and leading to thickened mucous that blocks hollow organs and provides a favorable environment for bacterial growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old man with a history of haemochromatosis complains of a painful and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of haemochromatosis complains of a painful and swollen right knee. An x-ray reveals no fracture but significant chondrocalcinosis. Assuming the diagnosis is pseudogout, what is the most probable finding in the joint fluid?

      Your Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is characterized by rhomboid-shaped crystals that exhibit weakly positive birefringence.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a 3-day-old boy with respiratory distress due to meconium aspiration. The mother is visibly upset and asks if there was anything she could have done to prevent this.

      After reviewing the medical history, you find that the baby was conceived through in vitro fertilization, there were no complications during the pregnancy, but he was delivered via C-section at 41 weeks with a birth weight of 2.6kg.

      What is the most significant risk factor for meconium aspiration in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Assisted reproduction

      Correct Answer: Post-term delivery

      Explanation:

      Post-term delivery is a major risk factor for meconium aspiration, which is why women are induced following term. Placental insufficiency, not low birth weight, is a consequence of meconium aspiration. The sex of the child and assisted reproduction are not considered independent risk factors. While meconium aspiration may cause distress during labor and potentially result in a Caesarean section, it is not a risk factor on its own.

      Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

      Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.

      There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.

      Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty swallowing and blurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty swallowing and blurred vision. He is worried about his slurred speech which started the day before. He has no past medical history or current medications.

      Upon examination, the patient appears disheveled and has multiple track marks on both arms with surrounding redness. His vital signs are normal. Cranial nerve examination reveals bilateral ptosis, diplopia, impaired pupil accommodation, and impaired gag reflex. The patient's speech is also slurred. Upper limb examination shows hypotonia and 4/5 power bilaterally, while sensation is intact. Lower limb examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Clostridium tetani

      Correct Answer: Clostridium botulinum

      Explanation:

      There are various bacterial infections that can cause different diseases. For example, Salmonella can cause food poisoning, while Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of diarrhoea and can also be linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome. Additionally, Clostridium tetani infection can lead to tetanus.

      Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.

      The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system, leading to symptoms such as diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. However, patients are usually fully conscious and do not experience any sensory disturbance.

      Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. It is important to note that the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      81.1
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  • Question 22 - Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has come to her GP complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has come to her GP complaining of sudden lower back pain. Her medical history does not indicate any alarming symptoms and her neurological examination appears normal.
      What initial pain relief medication should the GP suggest?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of lower back pain, it is recommended to offer NSAIDS like ibuprofen or naproxen as the first line of treatment. Codeine with or without paracetamol can be used as a second option. In case of muscle spasm, benzodiazepines may be considered. However, NICE does not recommend the use of topical NSAIDS for lower back pain.

      Management of Non-Specific Lower Back Pain

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, NICE updated their guidelines on the management of non-specific lower back pain. The guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for back pain. Lumbar spine x-rays are not recommended, and MRI should only be offered to patients where malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected.

      Patients with non-specific back pain are advised to stay physically active and exercise. NSAIDs are recommended as the first-line analgesia, and proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs. For patients with sciatica, NICE guidelines on neuropathic pain should be followed.

      Other possible treatments include exercise programmes and manual therapy, but only as part of a treatment package including exercise, with or without psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anaesthetic and steroid may also be considered for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the management of non-specific lower back pain involves encouraging self-management, staying physically active, and using NSAIDs as the first-line analgesia. Other treatments may be considered as part of a treatment package, depending on the severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 23 - A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic partial gastrectomy for a distal gastric tumor. Her blood gas analysis shows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      pCO2 7.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      pO2 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess 5 mmol/l –2.0 to +2.0 mmol/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Correct Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas Results: Causes of Respiratory Failure

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) results can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory status. In the case of type II respiratory failure with respiratory acidosis and hypoxaemia, hypoventilation is the likely cause. This can occur during surgery due to medications and post-operative pain, leading to insufficient ventilation and retention of carbon dioxide.

      Other conditions that can affect ABG results include pulmonary embolus, which causes hypoxaemia and respiratory alkalosis due to increased elimination of CO2. Pulmonary oedema, on the other hand, triggers hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis to compensate for impaired gas exchange. If left untreated, it can progress to type I respiratory failure with acidaemia and hypoxaemia.

      CO2 absorption from pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic surgery can cause a transient respiratory acidosis, but it would not explain the type II respiratory failure seen in the above scenario. Lung atelectasis, which refers to incomplete lung expansion, can lead to hypoxaemia but drives a hyperventilation response and respiratory alkalosis with type I respiratory failure.

      Understanding the different causes of respiratory failure and their corresponding ABG results can aid in proper diagnosis and management of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      177.5
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  • Question 24 - A 63-year-old woman has been experiencing vomiting for the past day due to...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman has been experiencing vomiting for the past day due to food poisoning. What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Balance in Vomiting

      There are two possible approaches to the acid-base balance in vomiting. The first, more simplistic way is to assume that since the vomit is acidic, the body is losing acid. However, this is not the whole story. Vomiting also results in the loss of sodium, which triggers the sodium-/H+ antiporters in the kidneys to retain sodium at the expense of hydrogen ions. As a result, the body experiences a metabolic alkalosis, which is characterized by an increase in pH and a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration.

      To compensate for this alkalosis, the patient’s respiratory rate would decrease, allowing the body to retain more CO2 and create a compensatory respiratory acidosis. This mechanism helps to restore the acid-base balance in the body and prevent any further disruptions. Overall, vomiting can have a significant impact on the body’s acid-base balance, and it is important to understand these mechanisms to provide appropriate medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy. What is the most probable histological finding on kidney biopsy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Rouleaux formation

      Correct Answer: Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules

      Explanation:

      Renal Biopsy Findings in Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Renal Diseases

      Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive kidney disease that damages the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to proteinuria. Renal biopsy is a diagnostic test that can reveal various findings associated with different renal diseases.

      Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules are a hallmark of diabetic nephropathy, which are nodules of hyaline material that accumulate in the glomerulus. In contrast, immune complex deposition is commonly found in crescentic glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, lupus, and IgA/post-infectious GN.

      Rouleaux formation, the abnormal stacking of red blood cells, is not associated with diabetic nephropathy but can cause diabetic retinopathy. Clear cells, a classification of renal cell carcinoma, are not a finding associated with diabetic nephropathy either.

      Finally, mesangial amyloid deposits are not associated with diabetic nephropathy but may be found in the mesangium, glomerular capillary walls, interstitium, or renal vessels in amyloidosis. Renal biopsy is a valuable tool in diagnosing and managing various renal diseases, including diabetic nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      84.3
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  • Question 26 - A father brings his 3-month-old daughter into the clinic for her first round...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 3-month-old daughter into the clinic for her first round of vaccinations. He expresses concerns about the safety of the rotavirus vaccine. Can you provide information about this vaccine to ease his worries?

      Your Answer: It is an injected inactivated toxin

      Correct Answer: It is an oral, live attenuated vaccine

      Explanation:

      The vaccine for rotavirus is administered orally and is live attenuated. It is given to infants at two and three months of age, along with other oral vaccines like polio and typhoid. Two doses are necessary, and it is not typically given to three-year-olds. This vaccine is not injected and is not an inactivated toxin, unlike vaccines for tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.

      The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Illness and Mortality

      Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. This vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.

      The rotavirus vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%. It is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70% and provides long-term protection against rotavirus. This vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood illness and mortality, particularly in developing countries where access to healthcare may be limited. By ensuring that children receive the rotavirus vaccine, we can help to protect them from this dangerous and potentially deadly virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      14.1
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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss over the past 6 months. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and has suffered from indigestion symptoms for some years. On examination, his body mass index is 18 and he looks thin. He has epigastric tenderness and a suspicion of a mass on examination of the abdomen.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Faecal occult blood (FOB) Positive
      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy Yellowish coloured, ulcerating
      submucosal mass within the
      stomach
      Histology Extensive lymphocytes within the biopsy
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Histological Diagnoses of Gastric Conditions

      Gastric lymphoma is often caused by chronic infection with H. pylori, and eradicating the infection can be curative. If not, chemotherapy is the first-line treatment. Other risk factors include HIV infection and long-term immunosuppressive therapy. In contrast, H. pylori gastritis is diagnosed through histological examination, which reveals lymphocytes and may indicate gastric lymphoma. Gastric ulcers are characterized by inflammation, necrosis, fibrinoid tissue, or granulation tissue on histology. Gastric carcinoma is identified through adenocarcinoma of diffuse or intestinal type, with higher grades exhibiting poorly formed tubules, intracellular mucous, and signet ring cells. Finally, alcoholic gastritis is diagnosed through histology as neutrophils in the epithelium above the basement membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      145.1
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  • Question 28 - A 31-year-old man presented with decreased libido. He had read about testosterone in...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man presented with decreased libido. He had read about testosterone in a magazine and ordered a test through an online laboratory, which showed a low level. He had a history of morphine addiction for the past 4 years and had recently started treatment at a detox clinic, where he was taking methadone orally. He smoked 15 cigarettes per day.

      What is the most appropriate advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: To come back once his detoxification regimen is over

      Explanation:

      Management of Low Testosterone in a Patient on Methadone

      When managing a patient on methadone with low testosterone levels, it is important to consider the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Methadone use inhibits the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in men, leading to low testosterone levels. Therefore, advising the patient to come back after detoxification is necessary before considering any treatment options.

      Starting oral or intramuscular depo testosterone is not appropriate at this point. Instead, it is recommended to have the patient stop smoking and repeat the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) tests after stopping methadone. These tests will help determine if there are any other causes for testosterone deficiency that need to be addressed.

      In conclusion, managing low testosterone levels in a patient on methadone requires a thorough understanding of the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. Advising the patient to come back after detoxification and repeating FSH and LH tests are important steps in managing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.5
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  • Question 29 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of gradual deterioration...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of gradual deterioration of her vision. She has been experiencing difficulty recognizing faces and distinguishing colors for several months. The patient also reports that her central vision appears somewhat blurry. She is a smoker and consumes 10 cigarettes per day. Her blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, and recent blood tests, including HbA1c of 38 mmol/mol, are unremarkable. What is the expected finding on fundoscopy when examining the patient's macula, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drusen

      Explanation:

      Dry macular degeneration, also known as drusen, is a common cause of visual loss in individuals over the age of 50. The accumulation of lipid and protein debris around the macula is a strong indication of this condition. Wet macular degeneration, on the other hand, is characterized by choroidal neovascularization. Hypertensive retinopathy is typically associated with blot hemorrhages and cotton wool spots, while microaneurysms can indicate either hypertensive retinopathy or diabetic retinopathy. However, given the patient’s normal blood pressure and HbA1c levels, it is less likely that these findings are present.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      115.9
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  • Question 30 - Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?

    Rewritten: Which ONE of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE of the following women has gestational hypertension?

      Rewritten: Which ONE of the following women, who are all 35 years old, has gestational hypertension?

      Your Answer: 24 weeks gestation and BP 150/100 and proteinuria +++

      Correct Answer: 22 weeks gestation and BP 150/100 and no proteinuria

      Explanation:

      If high blood pressure occurs after 20 weeks gestation and there is no proteinuria, it is considered gestational hypertension. However, if high blood pressure is present before 20 weeks, it is likely pre-existing hypertension.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Paediatrics (0/3) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/4) 50%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Clinical Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
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