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Question 1
Correct
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Which one of the following statements relating to the root of the spine is false?
Your Answer: The subclavian artery arches over the first rib anterior to scalenus anterior
Explanation:The suprapleural membrane, also known as Sibson’s fascia, is located above the pleural cavity. The scalenus anterior muscle is positioned in front of the subclavian vein, while the subclavian artery is situated behind it.
Thoracic Outlet: Where the Subclavian Artery and Vein and Brachial Plexus Exit the Thorax
The thoracic outlet is the area where the subclavian artery and vein and the brachial plexus exit the thorax and enter the arm. This passage occurs over the first rib and under the clavicle. The subclavian vein is the most anterior structure and is located immediately in front of scalenus anterior and its attachment to the first rib. Scalenus anterior has two parts, and the subclavian artery leaves the thorax by passing over the first rib and between these two portions of the muscle. At the level of the first rib, the lower cervical nerve roots combine to form the three trunks of the brachial plexus. The lowest trunk is formed by the union of C8 and T1, and this trunk lies directly posterior to the artery and is in contact with the superior surface of the first rib.
Thoracic outlet obstruction can cause neurovascular compromise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is associated with increased lung compliance in elderly individuals?
Your Answer: Kyphosis
Correct Answer: Emphysema
Explanation:Understanding Lung Compliance in Respiratory Physiology
Lung compliance refers to the extent of change in lung volume in response to a change in airway pressure. An increase in lung compliance can be caused by factors such as aging and emphysema, which is characterized by the loss of alveolar walls and associated elastic tissue. On the other hand, a decrease in lung compliance can be attributed to conditions such as pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonectomy, and kyphosis. These conditions can affect the elasticity of the lungs and make it more difficult for them to expand and contract properly. Understanding lung compliance is important in respiratory physiology as it can help diagnose and manage various respiratory conditions. Proper management of lung compliance can improve lung function and overall respiratory health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 48-year-old male presents for a preoperative evaluation for an inguinal hernia repair. During the assessment, you observe a loculated left pleural effusion on his chest x-ray. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he worked as a builder three decades ago. What is the probable reason for the effusion?
Your Answer: Mesothelioma
Explanation:Due to his profession as a builder, this individual is at risk of being exposed to asbestos. Given the 30-year latent period and the presence of a complex effusion, it is highly probable that the underlying cause is mesothelioma.
Understanding Mesothelioma
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the mesothelial layer of the pleural cavity, which is commonly linked to asbestos exposure. Although it is rare, other mesothelial layers in the abdomen may also be affected. Symptoms of mesothelioma include dyspnoea, weight loss, chest wall pain, and clubbing. In some cases, patients may present with painless pleural effusion. It is important to note that only 20% of patients have pre-existing asbestosis, but 85-90% have a history of asbestos exposure, with a latent period of 30-40 years.
Diagnosis of mesothelioma is typically made through a chest x-ray, which may show pleural effusion or pleural thickening. A pleural CT is then performed to confirm the diagnosis. If a pleural effusion is present, fluid is sent for MC&S, biochemistry, and cytology. However, cytology is only helpful in 20-30% of cases. Local anaesthetic thoracoscopy is increasingly used to investigate cytology negative exudative effusions as it has a high diagnostic yield of around 95%. If an area of pleural nodularity is seen on CT, an image-guided pleural biopsy may be used.
Management of mesothelioma is mainly symptomatic, with industrial compensation available for those who have been exposed to asbestos. Chemotherapy and surgery may be options for those who are operable. Unfortunately, the prognosis for mesothelioma is poor, with a median survival of only 12 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after a car accident. During the initial evaluation, he complains of difficulty breathing. A portable chest X-ray shows a 3 cm gap between the right lung margin and the chest wall, indicating a significant traumatic pneumothorax. The medical team administers high-flow oxygen and performs a right-sided chest drain insertion to drain the pneumothorax.
What is a potential negative outcome that could arise from the insertion of a chest drain?Your Answer: Pneumothorax
Correct Answer: Winging of the scapula
Explanation:Insertion of a chest drain poses a risk of damaging the long thoracic nerve, which runs from the neck to the serratus anterior muscle. This can result in weakness or paralysis of the muscle, causing a winged scapula that is noticeable along the medial border of the scapula. It is important to use aseptic technique during the procedure to prevent hospital-acquired pleural infection. Chylothorax, pneumothorax, and pyothorax are all conditions that may require chest drain insertion, but they are not known complications of the procedure. Therefore, these options are not applicable.
Anatomy of Chest Drain Insertion
Chest drain insertion is necessary for various medical conditions such as trauma, haemothorax, pneumothorax, and pleural effusion. The size of the chest drain used depends on the specific condition being treated. While ultrasound guidance is an option, the anatomical method is typically tested in exams.
It is recommended that chest drains are placed in the safe triangle, which is located in the mid axillary line of the 5th intercostal space. This triangle is bordered by the anterior edge of the latissimus dorsi, the lateral border of pectoralis major, a line superior to the horizontal level of the nipple, and the apex below the axilla. Another triangle, known as the triangle of auscultation, is situated behind the scapula and is bounded by the trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and vertebral border of the scapula. By folding the arms across the chest and bending forward, parts of the sixth and seventh ribs and the interspace between them become subcutaneous and available for auscultation.
References:
– Prof Harold Ellis. The applied anatomy of chest drains insertions. British Journal of hospital medicine 2007; (68): 44-45.
– Laws D, Neville E, Duffy J. BTS guidelines for insertion of chest drains. Thorax, 2003; (58): 53-59. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following organisms is not a common cause of respiratory tract infections in elderly patients, with cystic fibrosis?
Your Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis
Explanation:Understanding Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.
Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden worsening of his asthma symptoms. He is experiencing difficulty in speaking and breathing, with cyanosis of the lips and a respiratory rate of 33 breaths per minute. He reports feeling lightheaded. Although his airways are open, his chest sounds are faint upon auscultation. The patient is administered oxygen, nebulized salbutamol, and intravenous aminophylline.
What is the mechanism of action of aminophylline?Your Answer: Binds to adenosine receptors and blocks adenosine-mediated bronchoconstriction
Explanation:Aminophylline works by binding to adenosine receptors and preventing adenosine-induced bronchoconstriction. This mode of action is different from antihistamines like loratadine, which is an incorrect option. Theophylline, a shorter acting form of aminophylline, competitively inhibits type III and type IV phosphodiesterase enzymes responsible for breaking down cyclic AMP in smooth muscle cells, leading to possible bronchodilation. Additionally, theophylline binds to the adenosine A2B receptor and blocks adenosine-mediated bronchoconstriction. In inflammatory conditions, theophylline activates histone deacetylase, which prevents the transcription of inflammatory genes that require histone acetylation for transcription to begin. Therefore, the last three options are incorrect. (Source: Drugbank)
Aminophylline infusions are utilized to manage acute asthma and COPD. In patients who have not received xanthines (theophylline or aminophylline) before, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg is administered through a slow intravenous injection lasting at least 20 minutes. For the maintenance infusion, 1g of aminophylline is mixed with 1 litre of normal saline to create a solution of 1 mg/ml. The recommended dose is 500-700 mcg/kg/hour, or 300 mcg/kg/hour for elderly patients. It is important to monitor plasma theophylline concentrations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 7
Correct
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An 87-year-old man with a history of interstitial lung disease is admitted with fever, productive cough, and difficulty breathing. His inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest x-ray reveals focal patchy consolidation in the right lung. He requires oxygen supplementation as his oxygen saturation level is 87% on room air. What factor causes a decrease in haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?
Your Answer: Increase in temperature
Explanation:What effect does pyrexia have on the oxygen dissociation curve?
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Correct
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An 80-year-old man has been referred to the respiratory clinic due to a persistent dry cough and hoarse voice for the last 5 months. He reports feeling like he has lost some weight as his clothes feel loose. Although he has no significant past medical history, he has a 30-pack-year smoking history. During the examination, left-sided miosis and ptosis are noted. What is the probable location of the lung lesion?
Your Answer: Lung apex
Explanation:The patient’s persistent cough, significant smoking history, and weight loss are red flag symptoms of lung cancer. Additionally, the hoarseness of voice suggests that the recurrent laryngeal nerve is being suppressed, likely due to a Pancoast tumor located in the apex of the lung. The presence of Horner’s syndrome further supports this diagnosis. Mesothelioma, which is more common in patients with a history of asbestos exposure, typically presents with shortness of breath, chest wall pain, and finger clubbing. A hamartoma, a benign tumor made up of tissue such as cartilage, connective tissue, and fat, is unlikely given the patient’s red flags for malignant disease. Small cell carcinomas, typically found in the center of the lungs, may present with a perihilar mass and paraneoplastic syndromes due to ectopic hormone secretion. Lung cancers within the bronchi can obstruct airways and cause respiratory symptoms such as cough and shortness of breath, but not hoarseness.
Lung Cancer Symptoms and Complications
Lung cancer is a serious condition that can cause a range of symptoms and complications. Some of the most common symptoms include a persistent cough, haemoptysis (coughing up blood), dyspnoea (shortness of breath), chest pain, weight loss and anorexia, and hoarseness. In some cases, patients may also experience supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, as well as clubbing and a fixed, monophonic wheeze.
In addition to these symptoms, lung cancer can also cause a range of paraneoplastic features. These may include the secretion of ADH, ACTH, or parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rp), which can cause hypercalcaemia, hypertension, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, alkalosis, muscle weakness, and other complications. Other paraneoplastic features may include Lambert-Eaton syndrome, hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA), hyperthyroidism due to ectopic TSH, and gynaecomastia.
Complications of lung cancer may include hoarseness, stridor, and superior vena cava syndrome. Patients may also experience a thrombocytosis, which can be detected through blood tests. Overall, it is important to be aware of the symptoms and complications of lung cancer in order to seek prompt medical attention and receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Correct
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Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. On which chromosome is this gene located?
Your Answer: Chromosome 7
Explanation:Understanding Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.
Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a complaint of a malodorous discharge from her left ear for the last 2 weeks. She also reports experiencing some hearing loss in her left ear and suspects it may be due to earwax. However, upon examination, there is no earwax present but instead a crust on the lower portion of the tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:When a patient presents with unilateral foul smelling discharge and deafness, it is important to consider the possibility of a cholesteatoma. If this is suspected during examination, it is necessary to refer the patient to an ENT specialist.
Pain is a common symptom of otitis media, while otitis externa typically causes inflammation and swelling of the ear canal. Impacted wax can lead to deafness, but it is unlikely to cause a discharge with a foul odor. It is also improbable for a woman of 45 years to have a foreign object in her ear for three weeks.
Understanding Cholesteatoma
Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.
The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.
During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.
Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a productive cough and difficulty breathing for the past 10 days. The doctor prescribes antibiotics, but after a week, the patient's symptoms persist and he develops a fever and pain when breathing in. The doctor orders a chest x-ray, which indicates the presence of an empyema. What is the probable causative agent responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:An accumulation of pus in the pleural space, known as empyema, is a possible complication of pneumonia and is responsible for the patient’s pleurisy. Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most frequent cause of pneumonia, is also the leading cause of empyema.
Pneumonia is a common condition that affects the alveoli of the lungs, usually caused by a bacterial infection. Other causes include viral and fungal infections. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common organism responsible for pneumonia, accounting for 80% of cases. Haemophilus influenzae is common in patients with COPD, while Staphylococcus aureus often occurs in patients following influenzae infection. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Legionella pneumophilia are atypical pneumonias that present with dry cough and other atypical symptoms. Pneumocystis jiroveci is typically seen in patients with HIV. Idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is a group of non-infective causes of pneumonia.
Patients who develop pneumonia outside of the hospital have community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), while those who develop it within hospitals are said to have hospital-acquired pneumonia. Symptoms of pneumonia include cough, sputum, dyspnoea, chest pain, and fever. Signs of systemic inflammatory response, tachycardia, reduced oxygen saturations, and reduced breath sounds may also be present. Chest x-ray is used to diagnose pneumonia, with consolidation being the classical finding. Blood tests, such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP, are also used to check for infection.
Patients with pneumonia require antibiotics to treat the underlying infection and supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids. Risk stratification is done using a scoring system called CURB-65, which stands for confusion, respiration rate, blood pressure, age, and is used to determine the management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia. Home-based care is recommended for patients with a CRB65 score of 0, while hospital assessment is recommended for all other patients, particularly those with a CRB65 score of 2 or more. The CURB-65 score also correlates with an increased risk of mortality at 30 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 49-year-old man experiences blunt force trauma to the head and subsequently experiences respiratory distress, leading to hypercapnia. What is the most probable consequence of this condition?
Your Answer: Cerebral vasodilation
Explanation:Cerebral vasodilation is a common result of hypercapnia, which can be problematic for patients with cranial trauma due to the potential increase in intracranial pressure.
Understanding the Monro-Kelly Doctrine and Autoregulation in the CNS
The Monro-Kelly doctrine governs the pressure within the cranium by considering the skull as a closed box. The loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accommodate increases in mass until a critical point is reached, usually at 100-120ml of CSF lost. Beyond this point, intracranial pressure (ICP) rises sharply, and pressure will eventually equate with mean arterial pressure (MAP), leading to neuronal death and herniation.
The central nervous system (CNS) has the ability to autoregulate its own blood supply through vasoconstriction and dilation of cerebral blood vessels. However, extreme blood pressure levels can exceed this capacity, increasing the risk of stroke. Additionally, metabolic factors such as hypercapnia can cause vasodilation, which is crucial in ventilating head-injured patients.
It is important to note that the brain can only metabolize glucose, and a decrease in glucose levels can lead to impaired consciousness. Understanding the Monro-Kelly doctrine and autoregulation in the CNS is crucial in managing intracranial pressure and preventing neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Correct
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A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. The results of his pulmonary function tests are as follows:
Reference Range
FVC (% predicted) 102 80-120
FEV1 (% predicted) 62 80-120
FEV1/FVC (%) 60.1 >70
TCLO (% predicted) 140 60-120
What is the probable reason for his symptoms?Your Answer: Asthma exacerbation
Explanation:The raised transfer factor suggests that the patient is experiencing an exacerbation of asthma. This condition can cause obstructive patterns on pulmonary function tests, leading to reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC, as well as hypoxia and wheezing. However, other conditions such as COPD exacerbation, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, and pulmonary embolism would result in a low transfer factor, and are therefore unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing
The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.
KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man is undergoing respiratory spirometry. He performs a maximal inhalation followed by a maximal exhalation. Which of the following measurements will most accurately depict this process?
Your Answer: Maximum voluntary ventilation
Correct Answer: Vital capacity
Explanation:The maximum amount of air that can be breathed in and out within one minute is known as maximum voluntary ventilation.
Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 59-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing. As part of the testing, what is the definition of functional residual capacity?
Your Answer: Functional residual capacity = expiratory reserve volume + residual volume
Explanation:To calculate the volume of air in the lungs after a normal relaxed expiration, one can use the formula for functional residual capacity (FRC), which is determined by the balance between the lungs’ tendency to recoil inwards and the chest wall’s tendency to pull outwards. FRC can be calculated by adding the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. In individuals with tetraplegia, decreases in FRC are primarily caused by a reduction in the outward pull of the chest wall, which occurs over time due to the inability to regularly expand the chest wall to large lung volumes. This reduction in FRC can increase the risk of atelectasis.
Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 16
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath. He has no medical history and takes no regular medications.
Upon examination, coarse crackles and bronchial breathing are heard at the right lung base.
Chest radiography reveals consolidation in the lower right zone.
Arterial blood gas results are as follows:
pH 7.36 (7.35-7.45)
pO2 7.2 kPa (11-13)
pCO2 4.1 kPa (4-6)
SaO2 87% (94-98)
Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected initial physiological response?Your Answer: Vasoconstriction of the pulmonary arteries
Explanation:When hypoxia is present, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction, which is the appropriate response. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of pneumonia and type 1 respiratory failure, as evidenced by clinical and radiographic findings. Vasoconstriction of the small pulmonary arteries helps to redirect blood flow from poorly ventilated regions of the lung to those with better ventilation, resulting in improved gas exchange efficiency between the alveoli and blood.
The Effects of Hypoxia on Pulmonary Arteries
When the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood decreases, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels narrow, allowing blood to be redirected to areas of the lung that are better aerated. This response is a natural mechanism that helps to improve the efficiency of gaseous exchange in the lungs. By diverting blood to areas with more oxygen, the body can ensure that the tissues receive the oxygen they need to function properly. Overall, hypoxia triggers a physiological response that helps to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of vertigo, describing a sensation of the room spinning around him. He reports that the symptoms are exacerbated when he rolls over in bed. The GP suspects that otoliths in the semicircular canals of the inner ear may be the cause. What diagnostic test could the GP perform to confirm this suspicion?
Your Answer: Romberg's test
Correct Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Explanation:Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is suspected based on the patient’s history. To confirm the diagnosis, the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre can be performed, which involves quickly moving the patient from a sitting to supine position and observing for nystagmus.
If BPPV is confirmed, the Epley manoeuvre can be used for treatment. This manoeuvre aims to dislodge otoliths by promoting fluid movement in the inner ear’s semicircular canals.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be diagnosed by a positive Tinel’s sign. This involves tapping the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum, causing paraesthesia in the median nerve’s distribution.
The Trendelenburg test is used to assess venous valve competency in patients with varicose veins.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Correct
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Which one of the following is true regarding the phrenic nerves?
Your Answer: They both lie anterior to the hilum of the lungs
Explanation:The phrenic nerves, located in the anterior region of the lung’s hilum, play a crucial role in keeping the diaphragm functioning properly. These nerves have both sensory and motor functions, and any issues in the sub diaphragmatic area may result in referred pain in the shoulder.
The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies
The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.
The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.
Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 19
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with a solitary, painless tumour in her left cheek. Upon further examination, she is diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma. What is the recommended management for this condition?
Your Answer: Surgical resection
Explanation:Surgical resection is the preferred treatment for pleomorphic adenoma, a benign tumor of the parotid gland that may undergo malignant transformation. Chemotherapy and radiotherapy are not effective in managing this condition. Additionally, salivary stone removal is not relevant to the treatment of pleomorphic adenoma.
Understanding Pleomorphic Adenoma
Pleomorphic adenoma, also known as a benign mixed tumour, is a non-cancerous growth that commonly affects the parotid gland. This type of tumour usually develops in individuals aged 40 to 60 years old. The condition is characterized by the proliferation of epithelial and myoepithelial cells of the ducts, as well as an increase in stromal components. The tumour is slow-growing, lobular, and not well encapsulated.
The clinical features of pleomorphic adenoma include a gradual onset of painless unilateral swelling of the parotid gland. The swelling is typically movable on examination rather than fixed. The management of pleomorphic adenoma involves surgical excision. The prognosis is generally good, with a recurrence rate of 1-5% with appropriate excision (parotidectomy). However, recurrence may occur due to capsular disruption during surgery. If left untreated, pleomorphic adenoma may undergo malignant transformation, occurring in 2-10% of adenomas observed for long periods. Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma is the most common type of malignant transformation, occurring most frequently as adenocarcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is shot in the chest during a robbery. The right lung is lacerated and is bleeding. An emergency thoracotomy is performed. The surgeons place a clamp over the hilum of the right lung. Which one of the following structures lies most anteriorly at this level?
Your Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:At this location, the phrenic nerve is situated in front. The vagus nerve runs in front and then curves backwards just above the base of the left bronchus, releasing the recurrent laryngeal nerve as it curves.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 21
Correct
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A 55-year-old man from Hong Kong complains of fatigue, weight loss, and recurrent nosebleeds. During clinical examination, left-sided cervical lymphadenopathy is observed, and an ulcerated mass is found in the nasopharynx upon oropharyngeal examination. Which viral agent is typically associated with the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Epstein Barr virus
Explanation:Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is typically diagnosed through Trotter’s triad, which includes unilateral conductive hearing loss, ipsilateral facial and ear pain, and ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate. This condition is commonly associated with previous Epstein Barr Virus infection, but there is no known link between the development of nasopharyngeal carcinoma and the other viruses mentioned.
Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.
To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following physiological changes does not take place after a tracheostomy?
Your Answer: Work of breathing is increased.
Explanation:HFNC is a popular option for weaning ventilated patients as it reduces work of breathing and humidified air helps to reduce mucous viscosity.
Anatomy of the Trachea
The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that extends from the C6 vertebrae to the upper border of the T5 vertebrae where it bifurcates into the left and right bronchi. It is supplied by the inferior thyroid arteries and the thyroid venous plexus, and innervated by branches of the vagus, sympathetic, and recurrent nerves.
In the neck, the trachea is anterior to the isthmus of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid veins, and anastomosing branches between the anterior jugular veins. It is also surrounded by the sternothyroid, sternohyoid, and cervical fascia. Posteriorly, it is related to the esophagus, while laterally, it is in close proximity to the common carotid arteries, right and left lobes of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid arteries, and recurrent laryngeal nerves.
In the thorax, the trachea is anterior to the manubrium, the remains of the thymus, the aortic arch, left common carotid arteries, and the deep cardiac plexus. Laterally, it is related to the pleura and right vagus on the right side, and the left recurrent nerve, aortic arch, and left common carotid and subclavian arteries on the left side.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the trachea is important for various medical procedures and interventions, such as intubation and tracheostomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The pressure within the pleural space is positive with respect to atmospheric pressure, in which of the following scenarios?
Your Answer: When taking a deep breath
Correct Answer: During a Valsalva manoeuvre
Explanation:Extrinsic compression causes an increase in intrapleural pressure during a Valsalva manoeuvre.
Understanding Pleural Pressure
Pleural pressure refers to the pressure surrounding the lungs within the pleural space. The pleura is a thin membrane that invests the lungs and lines the walls of the thoracic cavity. The visceral pleura covers the lung, while the parietal pleura covers the chest wall. The two sides are continuous and meet at the hilum of the lung. The size of the lung is determined by the difference between the alveolar pressure and the pleural pressure, or the transpulmonary pressure.
During quiet breathing, the pleural pressure is negative, meaning it is below atmospheric pressure. However, during active expiration, the abdominal muscles contract to force up the diaphragm, resulting in positive pleural pressure. This may temporarily collapse the bronchi and cause limitation of air flow.
Gravity affects pleural pressure, with the pleural pressure at the base of the lung being greater (less negative) than at its apex in an upright individual. When lying on the back, the pleural pressure becomes greatest along the back. Alveolar pressure is uniform throughout the lung, so the top of the lung generally experiences a greater transpulmonary pressure and is therefore more expanded and less compliant than the bottom of the lung.
In summary, understanding pleural pressure is important in understanding lung function and how it is affected by various factors such as gravity and muscle contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following paraneoplastic manifestations is the LEAST frequent in individuals diagnosed with squamous cell lung carcinoma?
Your Answer: Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Explanation:Small cell lung cancer is strongly associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome, while squamous cell lung cancer is more commonly associated with paraneoplastic features such as PTHrp, clubbing, and HPOA.
Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 25
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with a 45-pack-year history arrives at the hospital complaining of increased difficulty breathing and cachexia. Upon examination, a chest X-ray reveals an elevated left hemidiaphragm, enlarged hilar lymph nodes, and a significant opacification. Which structure is most likely to have been affected?
Your Answer: Left phrenic nerve
Explanation:It is unlikely that direct injury would result in the elevation of the left hemidiaphragm, especially since there is no history of trauma or surgery. However, damage to the long thoracic nerve could cause winging of the scapula due to weakened serratus anterior muscle. On the other hand, injury to the thoracodorsal nerve, which innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle, can lead to weakened shoulder adduction and is a common complication of axillary surgery.
The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies
The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.
The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.
Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 26
Correct
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What is the accurate embryonic source of the stapes?
Your Answer: Second pharyngeal arch
Explanation:The stapes, which is a cartilaginous element in the ear, originates from the ectoderm covering the outer aspect of the second pharyngeal arch. This strip of ectoderm is located lateral to the metencephalic neural fold. Reicherts cartilage, which extends from the otic capsule to the midline on each side, is responsible for the formation of the stapes. The cartilages of the first and second pharyngeal arches articulate superior to the tubotympanic recess, with the malleus, incus, and stapes being formed from these cartilages. While the malleus is mostly formed from the first arch, the stapes is most likely to arise from the second arch.
The Development and Contributions of Pharyngeal Arches
During the fourth week of embryonic growth, a series of mesodermal outpouchings develop from the pharynx, forming the pharyngeal arches. These arches fuse in the ventral midline, while pharyngeal pouches form on the endodermal side between the arches. There are six pharyngeal arches, with the fifth arch not contributing any useful structures and often fusing with the sixth arch.
Each pharyngeal arch has its own set of muscular and skeletal contributions, as well as an associated endocrine gland, artery, and nerve. The first arch contributes muscles of mastication, the maxilla, Meckel’s cartilage, and the incus and malleus bones. The second arch contributes muscles of facial expression, the stapes bone, and the styloid process and hyoid bone. The third arch contributes the stylopharyngeus muscle, the greater horn and lower part of the hyoid bone, and the thymus gland. The fourth arch contributes the cricothyroid muscle, all intrinsic muscles of the soft palate, the thyroid and epiglottic cartilages, and the superior parathyroids. The sixth arch contributes all intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except the cricothyroid muscle), the cricoid, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages, and is associated with the pulmonary artery and recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Overall, the development and contributions of pharyngeal arches play a crucial role in the formation of various structures in the head and neck region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman is admitted to the hospital and delivers a baby girl at 32 weeks gestation. The newborn displays signs of distress including tachypnoea, tachycardia, expiratory grunting, nasal flaring, and chest wall recession.
What is the cell type responsible for producing the substance that the baby is lacking?Your Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes
Explanation:Types of Pneumocytes and Their Functions
Pneumocytes are specialized cells found in the lungs that play a crucial role in gas exchange. There are two main types of pneumocytes: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 pneumocytes are very thin squamous cells that cover around 97% of the alveolar surface. On the other hand, type 2 pneumocytes are cuboidal cells that secrete surfactant, a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli and prevents their collapse during expiration.
Type 2 pneumocytes start to develop around 24 weeks gestation, but adequate surfactant production does not take place until around 35 weeks. This is why premature babies are prone to respiratory distress syndrome. In addition, type 2 pneumocytes can differentiate into type 1 pneumocytes during lung damage, helping to repair and regenerate damaged lung tissue.
Apart from pneumocytes, there are also club cells (previously termed Clara cells) found in the bronchioles. These non-ciliated dome-shaped cells have a varied role, including protecting against the harmful effects of inhaled toxins and secreting glycosaminoglycans and lysozymes. Understanding the different types of pneumocytes and their functions is essential in comprehending the complex mechanisms involved in respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with uncontrolled diabetes complains of severe otalgia and headaches. During examination, granulation tissue is observed in the external auditory meatus. What is the probable causative agent of the infection?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:The primary cause of malignant otitis externa is typically Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Symptoms of this condition include intense pain, headaches, and the presence of granulation tissue in the external auditory meatus. Individuals with diabetes mellitus are at a higher risk for developing this condition.
Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection
Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.
Key features in the patient’s history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and persistent ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and facial nerve dysfunction.
Diagnosis is typically done through a CT scan, and non-resolving otitis externa with worsening pain should be referred urgently to an ENT specialist. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonal infections.
In summary, malignant otitis externa is a rare but serious infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with diabetes or immunosuppression should be particularly vigilant for symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience persistent ear pain or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with respiratory symptoms and is referred to his primary care physician for pulmonary function testing. The estimated vital capacity is 3.5 liters. What does the measurement of vital capacity involve?
Your Answer: Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume
Explanation:Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of weight loss and feeling full quickly. During the abdominal examination, the doctor notices a swollen lymph node in the left supraclavicular region. The doctor suspects that this could be a sign of gastric cancer with the spread of tumor emboli through the thoracic duct as it ascends from the abdomen into the mediastinum. Can you name the two other structures that pass through the diaphragm along with the thoracic duct?
Your Answer: Azygous vein and vagal trunk
Correct Answer: Aorta and azygous vein
Explanation:The point at which the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein cross the diaphragm is at T12, specifically at the aortic opening. This is also where the oesophageal branches of the left gastric veins, the vagal trunk, and the oesophagus pass through the diaphragm, at the oesophageal opening located at T10. The left phrenic nerve and sympathetic trunk have their own separate openings in the diaphragm. A lymph node in the left supraclavicular fossa, known as Virchow’s node, is a characteristic sign of early gastric carcinoma.
Structures Perforating the Diaphragm
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.
To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 31
Correct
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A 45-year-old businessman is admitted to the emergency department with suspected pneumonia following a lower respiratory tract infection. The patient had returned to the UK three days ago from a business trip to China. He reports experiencing a productive cough and feeling extremely fatigued and short of breath upon waking up. He has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker and non-drinker.
He is taken for a chest X-ray, where he learns that several of his colleagues who were on the same business trip have also been admitted to the emergency department with similar symptoms. The X-ray shows opacification in the right middle and lower zones, indicating consolidation. Initial blood tests reveal hyponatraemia and lymphopenia. Based on his presentation and X-ray findings, he is diagnosed with pneumonia.
Which organism is most likely responsible for causing his pneumonia?Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:If multiple individuals in an air conditioned space develop pneumonia, Legionella pneumophila should be considered as a possible cause. Legionella pneumophila is often associated with hyponatremia and lymphopenia. Haemophilus influenzae is a frequent cause of lower respiratory tract infections in patients with COPD. Klebsiella pneumoniae is commonly found in patients with alcohol dependence. Pneumocystis jiroveci is typically observed in HIV-positive patients and is characterized by a dry cough and desaturation during exercise.
Pneumonia is a common condition that affects the alveoli of the lungs, usually caused by a bacterial infection. Other causes include viral and fungal infections. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common organism responsible for pneumonia, accounting for 80% of cases. Haemophilus influenzae is common in patients with COPD, while Staphylococcus aureus often occurs in patients following influenzae infection. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Legionella pneumophilia are atypical pneumonias that present with dry cough and other atypical symptoms. Pneumocystis jiroveci is typically seen in patients with HIV. Idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is a group of non-infective causes of pneumonia.
Patients who develop pneumonia outside of the hospital have community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), while those who develop it within hospitals are said to have hospital-acquired pneumonia. Symptoms of pneumonia include cough, sputum, dyspnoea, chest pain, and fever. Signs of systemic inflammatory response, tachycardia, reduced oxygen saturations, and reduced breath sounds may also be present. Chest x-ray is used to diagnose pneumonia, with consolidation being the classical finding. Blood tests, such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP, are also used to check for infection.
Patients with pneumonia require antibiotics to treat the underlying infection and supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids. Risk stratification is done using a scoring system called CURB-65, which stands for confusion, respiration rate, blood pressure, age, and is used to determine the management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia. Home-based care is recommended for patients with a CRB65 score of 0, while hospital assessment is recommended for all other patients, particularly those with a CRB65 score of 2 or more. The CURB-65 score also correlates with an increased risk of mortality at 30 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 32
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer arrives at the acute medical unit with sudden shortness of breath. A chest x-ray shows a malignant pleural effusion encasing the right lung. The medical registrar intends to perform a pleural tap to drain the effusion and send a sample to the lab. The registrar takes into account the effusion's position around the lung. What is the minimum level of the effusion in the mid-axillary line?
Your Answer: 9th rib
Correct Answer: 10th rib
Explanation:The parietal pleura can be found at the 10th rib in the mid-axillary line, while the visceral pleura is closely attached to the lung tissue and can be considered as one. The location of the parietal pleura is more inferior than that of the visceral pleura, with the former being at the 8th rib in the midclavicular line and the 10th rib in the midaxillary line. The location of the parietal pleura in the scapular line is not specified.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 33
Correct
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A 75-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchial carcinoma. When the surgeons reach the root of the lung, which structure will be the most anterior in the anatomical plane?
Your Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:The lung root contains two nerves, with the phrenic nerve positioned in the most anterior location and the vagus nerve situated in the most posterior location.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 34
Correct
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A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with steroid, bronchodilators and 15 l/min of oxygen.
His pulse rate is 125/min, oxygen saturation 89%, respiratory rate 24/min, blood pressure 140/88 mmHg and he has a peak flow rate of 150 l/min. On auscultation of his chest, he has bilateral wheezes.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) result taken on 15 l/min oxygen shows:
pH 7.42 (7.36-7.44)
PaO2 8.4 kPa (11.3-12.6)
PaCO2 5.3 kPa (4.7-6.0)
Standard HCO3 19 mmol/L (20-28)
Base excess −4 (+/-2)
Oxygen saturation 89%
What is the most appropriate action for this man?Your Answer: Call ITU to consider intubation
Explanation:Urgent Need for Ventilation in Life-Threatening Asthma
This patient is experiencing life-threatening asthma with a dangerously low oxygen saturation level of less than 92%. Despite having a normal PaCO2 level, the degree of hypoxia is inappropriate and requires immediate consideration for ventilation. The arterial blood gas (ABG) result is consistent with the clinical presentation, making a venous blood sample unnecessary. Additionally, the ABG and bedside oxygen saturation readings are identical, indicating an arterialised sample.
It is crucial to note that in cases of acute asthma, reducing the amount of oxygen below the maximum available is not recommended. Hypoxia can be fatal and must be addressed promptly. Therefore, urgent intervention is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 35
Correct
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A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. He is currently taking sodium valproate as his only medication. A venous blood gas is obtained immediately.
What are the expected venous blood gas results for this patient?Your Answer: Low pH, high lactate, low SaO2
Explanation:Acidosis shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, which enhances oxygen delivery to the tissues by causing more oxygen to dissociate from Hb. postictal lactic acidosis is a common occurrence in patients with tonic-clonic seizures, and it is typically managed by monitoring for spontaneous resolution. During a seizure, tissue hypoxia can cause lactic acidosis. Therefore, a venous blood gas test for this patient should show low pH, high lactate, and low SaO2.
If the venous blood gas test shows a high pH, normal lactate, and low SaO2, it would not be consistent with postictal lactic acidosis. This result indicates alkalosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal losses, renal losses, or Cushing syndrome.
A high pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 would also be inconsistent with postictal lactic acidosis because tissue hypoxia would cause an increase in lactate levels.
Similarly, low pH, high lactate, and normal SaO2 would not be expected in postictal lactic acidosis because acidosis would shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin.
Finally, normal pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 are unlikely to be found in this patient shortly after a seizure. However, if the venous blood gas test was taken days after the seizure following an uncomplicated clinical course, these findings would be more plausible.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years but has reduced his smoking recently.
The GP orders spirometry, which confirms a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The results also show an elevated functional residual capacity.
What is the method used to calculate this metric?Your Answer: Inspiratory reserve volume + residual volume
Correct Answer: Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume
Explanation:Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 37
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents to his GP with a painless swelling in his neck. The mass is located centrally just below the hyoid bone and does not cause any difficulty in swallowing or breathing. Upon examination, the GP notes that the mass moves with protrusion of the tongue and with swallowing. The GP diagnoses the boy with a benign thyroglossal cyst, which is caused by a persistent thyroglossal duct, and advises surgical removal. Where is the thyroglossal duct attached to the tongue?
Your Answer: Foramen cecum
Explanation:The thyroglossal duct connects the thyroid gland to the tongue via the foramen caecum during embryonic development. The terminal sulcus, median sulcus, palatoglossal arch, and epiglottis are not connected to the thyroid gland.
Understanding Thyroglossal Cysts
Thyroglossal cysts are named after the thyroid and tongue, which are the two structures involved in their development. During embryology, the thyroid gland develops from the floor of the pharynx and descends into the neck, connected to the tongue by the thyroglossal duct. The foramen cecum is the point of attachment of the thyroglossal duct to the tongue. Normally, the thyroglossal duct atrophies, but in some people, it may persist and give rise to a thyroglossal duct cyst.
Thyroglossal cysts are more common in patients under 20 years old and are usually midline, between the isthmus of the thyroid and the hyoid bone. They move upwards with protrusion of the tongue and may be painful if infected. Understanding the embryology and presentation of thyroglossal cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 38
Correct
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What is the term used to describe the area between the vocal cords?
Your Answer: Rima glottidis
Explanation:The narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity is known as the rima glottidis.
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 39
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. Despite several attempts in the past, she has been unsuccessful. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and well-managed epilepsy, for which she takes lamotrigine. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and is especially interested in the health benefits of quitting smoking since she has recently found out that she is pregnant. As her physician, you decide to prescribe a suitable medication to assist her in her efforts. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer: Nicotine gum
Explanation:Standard treatments for nicotine dependence do not include amitriptyline, fluoxetine, or gabapentin. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) can be helpful for motivated patients, but it is not a cure for addiction and may require multiple attempts. Bupropion and varenicline are other smoking cessation aids, but they have multiple side effects and may not be suitable for all patients. NICE guidelines recommend discussing the best method of smoking cessation with the patient, but NRT is considered safer in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 40
Correct
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What causes a cervical rib?
Your Answer: Elongation of the transverse processes of the 7th cervical vertebrae
Explanation:Cervical ribs are formed when the transverse process of the 7th cervical vertebrae becomes elongated, resulting in a fibrous band that connects to the first thoracic rib.
Cervical ribs are a rare anomaly that affects only 0.2-0.4% of the population. They are often associated with neurological symptoms and are caused by an anomalous fibrous band that originates from the seventh cervical vertebrae and may arc towards the sternum. While most cases are congenital and present around the third decade of life, some cases have been reported to occur following trauma. Bilateral cervical ribs are present in up to 70% of cases. Compression of the subclavian artery can lead to absent radial pulse and a positive Adsons test, which involves lateral flexion of the neck towards the symptomatic side and traction of the symptomatic arm. Treatment is usually only necessary when there is evidence of neurovascular compromise, and the traditional operative method for excision is a transaxillary approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man arrives at the ER with a recent onset of left-sided facial paralysis. He reports experiencing a painful rash around his ear on the affected side for the past five days. Your suspicion is Ramsay Hunt syndrome. What virus is responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Epstein Barr virus
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Explanation:The geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve (CN VII) reactivates the varicella-zoster virus, causing Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) is primarily linked to the Epstein-Barr virus.
Viral warts are commonly caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), with certain types being associated with gynaecological malignancy. Vaccines are now available to protect against the carcinogenic strains of HPV.
Oral or genital herpes infections are caused by the herpes simplex virus.
Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.
To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A respiratory specialist is conducting a bronchoscopy to determine a suitable biopsy for histological evaluation of suspected bronchial carcinoma in a pediatric patient.
While performing the procedure, the bronchoscope is erroneously inserted through the diaphragm at the T10 level.
Which structure is at the highest risk of being harmed as a result of this error?Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: Oesophagus
Explanation:The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm at the level of T10 along with the vagal trunk, which is the most likely structure to have been damaged. The aorta, on the other hand, perforates the diaphragm at T12 and supplies oxygenated blood to the lower body, while the azygous vein also perforates the diaphragm at T12 and drains the right side of the thorax into the superior vena cava.
Structures Perforating the Diaphragm
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.
To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 43
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of worsening breathlessness in the past 6 months. She has been smoking 10 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years. The doctor suspects that she may have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is one of the mechanisms by which smoking damages the lungs and leads to emphysema?
Your Answer: Basal cell metaplasia
Correct Answer: Inactivation of alpha-1 antitrypsin
Explanation:The function of alpha-1 antitrypsin is to inhibit elastase. However, smoke has a negative impact on this protein in the lungs, resulting in increased activity of elastases and the breakdown of elastic tissue, which leads to emphysema.
Contrary to popular belief, smoke actually activates polymorphonuclear leucocytes, which contributes to the development of emphysema.
Mucous gland hyperplasia, basal cell metaplasia, and basement membrane thickening are all examples of how smoke affects the lungs to cause chronic bronchitis, not emphysema.
COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause is smoking, which can lead to inflammation and damage in the lungs over time. Another potential cause is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can result in lung damage. Additionally, exposure to certain substances such as cadmium (used in smelting), coal, cotton, cement, and grain can also contribute to the development of COPD. It is important to identify and address these underlying causes in order to effectively manage and treat COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no medical or family history and has never smoked.
The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests, including a sputum sample.
What is the most likely organism to be identified?Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Bronchiectasis patients may have various bacteria present in their respiratory system, with Haemophilus influenzae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common. Staphylococcus aureus has also been found but not as frequently. Respiratory syncytial virus has not been detected in acute exacerbations of bronchiectasis. It is crucial to identify the specific bacteria causing exacerbations as antibiotic sensitivity patterns differ, and sputum culture results can impact the effectiveness of treatment. These findings are outlined in the British Thoracic Society’s guideline for non-CF bronchiectasis and a study by Metaxas et al. on the role of atypical bacteria and respiratory syncytial virus in bronchiectasis exacerbations.
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be addressed, such as immune deficiencies. Management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 45
Incorrect
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You are clerking a 45-year-old patient on the neurosurgery ward who is scheduled to undergo a pituitary tumour removal surgery. During your conversation, the patient inquires about the procedure. As you are aware, the neurosurgeon gains access to the pituitary gland through the patient's nasal cavity, specifically through one of the paranasal sinuses. Can you identify which of the paranasal sinuses is situated on the roof of the posterior nasal cavity, below the pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Maxillary sinus
Correct Answer: Sphenoid sinus
Explanation:Paranasal Air Sinuses and Carotid Sinus
The paranasal air sinuses are air-filled spaces found in the bones of the skull. They are named after the bone in which they are located and all communicate with the nasal cavity. The four paired paranasal air sinuses are the frontal sinuses, maxillary sinuses, ethmoid air cells, and sphenoid sinuses. The frontal sinuses are located above each eye on the forehead, while the maxillary sinuses are the largest and found in the maxillary bone below the orbit. The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells located lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity, while the sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity.
On the other hand, the carotid sinus is not a paranasal air sinus. It is a dilatation of the internal carotid artery, located just beyond the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. It contains baroreceptors that enable it to detect changes in arterial pressure.
Overall, understanding the location and function of these sinuses and the carotid sinus is important in various medical procedures and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A man in his early fifties comes in with a painful rash caused by herpes on the external auditory meatus. He also has facial palsy on the same side, along with deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bell's palsy
Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Explanation:Ramsay Hunt syndrome is characterized by a combination of Bell’s palsy facial paralysis, along with symptoms such as a herpetic rash, deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo. It is important to note that the rash may not always be visible, despite being present.
While Bell’s palsy may present with facial paralysis, it does not typically involve the presence of herpetic rashes.
Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.
To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 47
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is stabbed in the right chest and requires a thoracotomy. During the procedure, the right lung is mobilized and the pleural reflection at the lung hilum is opened. Which of the following structures is not located in this area?
Your Answer: Azygos vein
Explanation:The pulmonary ligament extends from the pleural reflections surrounding the hilum of the lung and covers the pulmonary vessels and bronchus. However, it does not contain the azygos vein.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and unintentional weight loss over the past 3 months. The GP refers him to the respiratory clinic for suspected lung cancer, and further investigations reveal a stage 2 squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. What is the most frequently associated paraneoplastic phenomenon with this type of cancer?
Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)
Explanation:The correct answer is PTHrP, which is a paraneoplastic syndrome often associated with squamous cell lung cancer. PTHrP is a protein that functions similarly to parathyroid hormone and can cause hypercalcaemia when secreted by cancer cells.
Acanthosis nigricans is another paraneoplastic phenomenon that is commonly associated with gastric adenocarcinoma. This condition causes hyperpigmentation of skin folds, such as the armpits.
The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is often linked to small cell lung cancer. This condition involves the hypersecretion of ADH, which leads to dilutional hyponatraemia and its associated symptoms.
Carcinoid syndrome is a paraneoplastic syndrome that is typically associated with neuroendocrine tumours that have metastasised to the liver. This condition causes hypersecretion of serotonin and other substances, resulting in facial flushing, palpitations, and gastrointestinal upset.
Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 49
Correct
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Which one of the following would cause a rise in the carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO)?
Your Answer: Pulmonary haemorrhage
Explanation:When alveolar haemorrhage takes place, the TLCO typically rises as a result of the increased absorption of carbon monoxide by haemoglobin within the alveoli.
Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing
The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.
KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 50
Correct
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A patient in their 60s presents to surgical outpatients with diffuse abdominal pain. As a second-line imaging investigation, a CT scan is requested. The radiologist looks through the images to write the report. Which of the following would they expect to find at the level of the transpyloric plane (L1)?
Your Answer: Hila of the kidneys
Explanation:The hila of the kidneys are at the level of the transpyloric plane, with the left kidney slightly higher than the right. The adrenal glands sit just above the kidneys at the level of T12. The neck of the pancreas, not the body, is at the level of the transpyloric plane. The coeliac trunk originates at the level of T12 and the inferior mesenteric artery originates at L3.
The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks
The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.
Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.
In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.
Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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