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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old smoker is referred by his General Practitioner (GP) for diagnostic spirometry...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old smoker is referred by his General Practitioner (GP) for diagnostic spirometry after presenting with worsening respiratory symptoms suggestive of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
      Regarding spirometry, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Peak flow is helpful in the diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Correct Answer: FEV1 is a good marker of disease severity in COPD

      Explanation:

      Common Misconceptions about Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure how well the lungs are functioning. However, there are several misconceptions about PFTs that can lead to confusion and misinterpretation of results. Here are some common misconceptions about PFTs:

      FEV1 is the only marker of disease severity in COPD: While FEV1 is a good marker of COPD disease severity, it should not be the only factor considered. Other factors such as symptoms, exacerbation history, and quality of life should also be taken into account.

      Peak flow is helpful in the diagnosis of COPD: Peak flow is not a reliable tool for diagnosing COPD. It is primarily used in monitoring asthma and can be affected by factors such as age, gender, and height.

      Residual volume can be measured by spirometer: Residual volume cannot be measured by spirometer alone. It requires additional tests such as gas dilution or body plethysmography.

      Vital capacity increases with age: Vital capacity actually decreases with age due to changes in lung elasticity and muscle strength.

      Peak flow measures the calibre of small airways: Peak flow is a measure of the large and medium airways, not the small airways.

      By understanding these common misconceptions, healthcare professionals can better interpret PFT results and provide more accurate diagnoses and treatment plans for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22.6
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. He has recently developed a red/purple nodular rash on both shins. He has a history of mild asthma and continues to smoke ten cigarettes per day. On examination, he has mild wheezing and red/purple nodules on both shins. His blood pressure is 135/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 75/min and regular. The following investigations were performed: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, sodium, potassium, creatinine, and corrected calcium. His chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Chest Symptoms, Erythema Nodosum, and Hypercalcaemia: Sarcoidosis vs. Other Conditions

      When a patient presents with chest symptoms, erythema nodosum, hypercalcaemia, and signs of systemic inflammation, sarcoidosis is a likely diagnosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a transbronchial biopsy is usually performed to demonstrate the presence of non-caseating granulomata. Alternatively, skin lesions or lymph nodes may provide a source of tissue for biopsy. Corticosteroids are the main treatment for sarcoidosis.

      Other conditions that may be considered in the differential diagnosis include asthma, bronchial carcinoma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and primary hyperparathyroidism. However, the presence of erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are more suggestive of sarcoidosis than these other conditions. While hypercalcaemia may be a symptom of primary hyperparathyroidism, the additional symptoms and findings in this patient suggest a more complex diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of shortness of breath and an increased volume and purulence of sputum. She has a background history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her observations show: heart rate (HR) 116 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 124/68 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation (SaO2) 94% on 2l/min via nasal cannulae. She is commenced on treatment for an infective exacerbation of COPD with nebulised bronchodilators, intravenous antibiotics, oral steroids and controlled oxygen therapy with a Venturi mask. After an hour of therapy, the patient is reassessed. Her observations after an hour are: BP 128/74 mmHg, HR 124 bpm, RR 20 breaths per minute and SaO2 93% on 24% O2 via a Venturi mask. Arterial blood gas sampling is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      PO2 8.6 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 8.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      cHCO3- (P)C 32 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Lactate 1.4 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl-) 116 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Following this review and the arterial blood gas results, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: The patient’s oxygen should be increased, as they remain relatively hypoxic despite oxygen therapy

      Correct Answer: The patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV)

      Explanation:

      Management of Respiratory Acidosis in COPD Patients

      The management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s condition. In this scenario, the patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV) as recommended by the British Thoracic Society. NIV is particularly indicated in patients with a pH of 7.25–7.35. Patients with a pH of <7.25 may benefit from NIV but have a higher risk for treatment failure and therefore should be considered for management in a high-dependency or intensive care setting. However, NIV is not indicated in patients with impaired consciousness, severe hypoxaemia or copious respiratory secretions. It is important to note that a ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’ should not be automatically made for patients with COPD. Each decision regarding resuscitation should be made on an individual basis. Intubation and ventilation should not be the first line of treatment in this scenario. A trial of NIV would be the most appropriate next step, as it has been demonstrated to reduce the need for intensive care management in this group of patients. Increasing the patient’s oxygen may be appropriate in type 1 respiratory failure, but in this case, NIV is the recommended approach. Intravenous magnesium therapy is not routinely recommended in COPD and is only indicated in the context of acute asthma. In conclusion, the management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires a tailored approach based on the individual’s condition. NIV should be considered as the first line of treatment in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      40.1
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward, develops a warm, erythematosus, tender and oedematous left leg. A few days later, her breathing, which was improving with antibiotic treatment, suddenly deteriorated.
      Which one of the following is the best diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: D-dimer

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      The Best Imaging Method for Dual Pathology: Resolving Pneumonia and Pulmonary Embolus

      Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the best imaging method for a patient with dual pathology of resolving pneumonia and a pulmonary embolus secondary to a deep vein thrombosis. This method uses intravenous contrast to image the pulmonary vessels and can detect a filling defect within the bright pulmonary arteries, indicating a pulmonary embolism.

      A V/Q scan, which looks for a perfusion mismatch, may indicate a pulmonary embolism, but would not be appropriate in this case due to the underlying pneumonia making interpretation difficult.

      A D-dimer test should be performed, but it is non-specific and may be raised due to the pneumonia. It should be used together with the Wells criteria to consider imaging.

      A chest X-ray should be performed to ensure there is no worsening pneumonia or pneumothorax, but in this case, a pulmonary embolism is the most likely diagnosis and therefore CTPA is required.

      An arterial blood gas measurement can identify hypoxia and hypocapnia associated with an increased respiratory rate, but this is not specific to a pulmonary embolism and many pulmonary diseases can cause this arterial blood gas picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.8
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain. She reports experiencing fever and shortness of breath for the past week. Upon examination, there are reduced breath sounds on the right side, and a chest X-ray reveals a right pleural effusion without loculation. The patient consents to a thoracentesis to obtain a sample of the pleural fluid.
      What is the optimal location for needle insertion?

      Your Answer: Below the seventh rib

      Correct Answer: Above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line

      Explanation:

      Proper Placement for Thoracentesis: Avoiding Nerve and Vessel Damage

      When performing a thoracentesis to sample pleural fluid, it is crucial to ensure that the needle is inserted into a pocket of fluid. This is typically done with ultrasound guidance, but in some cases, doctors must percuss the thorax to identify an area of increased density. However, it is important to remember that the intercostal neurovascular bundle runs inferior to the rib, so the needle should be inserted above the rib to avoid damaging nearby nerves and vessels. The needle is generally inserted through the patient’s back to minimize discomfort and decrease the risk of damaging the neurovascular bundle. The BTS guidelines recommend aspirating from the triangle of safety under the axilla, but it is common practice to aspirate more posteriorly. Of the options listed, only inserting the needle above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line meets all of these criteria. Other options are either too high, too low, or risk damaging nearby nerves and vessels. Proper placement is crucial for a successful and safe thoracentesis procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.5
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  • Question 6 - Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. On examination, Emily has a short, thick neck and mildly enlarged tonsils but no other abnormalities.
      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Advise the parents to purchase a dental splint for their child to use overnight

      Correct Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study

      Explanation:

      Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before booking for an operation, as adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA.

      The clinical presentation of childhood OSA is non-specific but typically includes symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity, and behavioural problems. However, parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is very normal in children his age and that his behaviour pattern will improve as he matures.

      Before any intervention is undertaken, the patient should be first worked up for OSA with a polysomnographic study. While dental splints may have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment.

      In conclusion, childhood OSA requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice, but a polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken. Parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is normal in children his age, and other treatment options such as dental splints and intranasal budesonide should be considered only after a thorough evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with worsening shortness of breath during his visit to Respiratory Outpatients. This is his fifth episode of this nature since his diagnosis. In the past, he has responded well to tapered doses of oral steroids. What initial test would be most useful in evaluating his current pulmonary condition before prescribing steroids?

      Your Answer: Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Function Tests with Transfer Factor in Sarcoidosis: An Overview

      Sarcoidosis is a complex inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, with respiratory manifestations being the most common. Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor are a useful tool in assessing the severity of sarcoidosis and monitoring response to treatment. The underlying pathological process in sarcoidosis is interstitial fibrosis, leading to a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests with reduced transfer factor. While steroids are often effective in treating sarcoidosis, monitoring transfer factor levels can help detect exacerbations and assess response to treatment. Other diagnostic tests, such as arterial blood gas, chest X-ray, serum ACE levels, and HRCT of the chest, may also be useful in certain situations but are not always necessary as an initial test. Overall, pulmonary function tests with transfer factor play a crucial role in the management of sarcoidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.6
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and difficulty breathing,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and difficulty breathing, with an AMTS score of 9. During the examination, his respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute, and his blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. His blood test shows a urea level of 6 mmol/l. What is a predictive factor for increased mortality in this pneumonia patient?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate >30 breaths/minute

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Indicators in Pneumonia: Understanding the CURB 65 Score

      The CURB 65 score is a widely used prognostic tool for patients with pneumonia. It consists of five indicators, including confusion, urea levels, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A respiratory rate of >30 breaths/minute and new-onset confusion with an AMTS score of <8 are two of the indicators that make up the CURB 65 score. However, in the case of a patient with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute and an AMTS score of 9, these indicators still suggest a poor prognosis. A urea level of >7 mmol/l and a blood pressure of <90 mmHg systolic and/or 60 mmHg diastolic are also indicators of a poor prognosis. Finally, age >65 is another indicator that contributes to the CURB 65 score. Understanding these indicators can help healthcare professionals assess the severity of pneumonia and determine appropriate treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.5
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  • Question 9 - A previously healthy 85-year-old woman is hospitalised and undergoes surgery to replace the...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 85-year-old woman is hospitalised and undergoes surgery to replace the broken hip that she sustained as a result of falling down stairs. Upon discharge to a nursing home 10 days later, she is unable to ambulate fully and, about a month later, she dies suddenly.
      Which of the following is most likely to be the immediate cause of death found at post-mortem examination?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia with pneumococcus

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Likely Cause of Sudden Death in an Elderly Patient with Fracture

      Immobilisation after a fracture in elderly patients increases the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism. In the case of a sudden death, pulmonary embolism is the most likely cause. Pneumonia with pneumococcus is also a risk for elderly patients in hospital, but the absence of signs and symptoms of infection makes it less likely. Tuberculosis is also unlikely as there were no signs of an infectious disease. Congestive heart failure is a possibility in the elderly, but it is unlikely to cause sudden death in this scenario. While malignancy is a risk for older patients, immobilisation leading to pulmonary thromboembolism is the most likely cause of sudden death in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.7
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath. She has also suffered from dull right iliac fossa pain over the past few months. Past history of note includes tuberculosis at the age of 23 and rheumatoid arthritis. On examination, her right chest is dull to percussion, consistent with a pleural effusion, and her abdomen appears swollen with a positive fluid thrill test. She may have a right adnexal mass.
      Investigations:
      Investigation
      Result
      Normal value
      Chest X-ray Large right-sided pleural effusion
      Haemoglobin 115 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 335 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 175 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Albumin 40 g/l 35–55 g/l
      CA-125 250 u/ml 0–35 u/ml
      Pleural aspirate: occasional normal pleural cells, no white cells, protein 24 g/l.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pleural effusion related to rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Meig’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Pleural Effusion: Meig’s Syndrome, Ovarian Carcinoma, Reactivation of Tuberculosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Cardiac Failure

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. There are various possible causes of pleural effusion, including Meig’s syndrome, ovarian carcinoma, reactivation of tuberculosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and cardiac failure.

      Meig’s syndrome is characterized by the association of a benign ovarian tumor and a transudate pleural effusion. The pleural effusion resolves when the tumor is removed, although a raised CA-125 is commonly found.

      Ovarian carcinoma with lung secondaries is another possible cause of pleural effusion. However, if no malignant cells are found on thoracocentesis, this diagnosis becomes less likely.

      Reactivation of tuberculosis may also lead to pleural effusion, but this would be accompanied by other symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats, and fever.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can produce an exudative pleural effusion, but this presentation is different from the transudate seen in Meig’s syndrome. In addition, white cells would be present due to the inflammatory response.

      Finally, cardiac failure can result in bilateral pleural effusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.8
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (136–145 mmol/l).
      What is the single most likely cause for the biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis

      Hyponatraemia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. There are several possible causes of hyponatraemia, including the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), primary adrenal insufficiency, diuretics, polydipsia, and vomiting.

      SIADH is a common cause of hyponatraemia, particularly in small cell lung cancer patients. It occurs due to the ectopic production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and water retention. This results in hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality.

      Primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, can also cause hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, and hypotension. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.

      Diuretics, particularly loop diuretics and bendroflumethiazide, can also cause hyponatraemia. However, there is no information to suggest that the patient is taking diuretics.

      Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, can also lead to hyponatraemia. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.

      Vomiting is another possible cause of hyponatraemia, but there is no information in the question to support this as a correct answer.

      In summary, hyponatraemia can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.3
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after he suddenly collapsed...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after he suddenly collapsed while playing soccer, complaining of pleuritic chest pain and difficulty in breathing. Upon examination, the patient appears pale and short of breath. His pulse rate is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 105/60 mmHg. Palpation reveals a deviated trachea to the right, without breath sounds over the left lower zone on auscultation. Percussion of the left lung field is hyper-resonant.
      What would be the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Observe the patient and arrange a chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Oxygen and aspirate using a 16G cannula inserted into the second anterior intercostal space mid-clavicular line

      Explanation:

      A pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura. It can be primary or secondary, with the latter being more common in patients over 50 years old, smokers, or those with underlying lung disease. Symptoms include sudden chest pain, breathlessness, and, in severe cases, pallor, tachycardia, and hypotension. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is more common in young adult smokers and often recurs. Secondary pneumothorax is associated with various lung diseases, including COPD and α-1-antitrypsin deficiency. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that can lead to respiratory or cardiovascular compromise. Diagnosis is usually made through chest X-ray, but if a tension pneumothorax is suspected, treatment should be initiated immediately. Management varies depending on the size and type of pneumothorax, with larger pneumothoraces requiring aspiration or chest drain insertion. The safest location for chest drain insertion is the fifth intercostal space mid-axillary line within the safe triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7
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  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Clinic complaining of feeling unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Clinic complaining of feeling unwell for the past few days. She has been experiencing nasal discharge, sneezing, fatigue, and a cough. Her 3-year-old daughter recently recovered from very similar symptoms. During the examination, her pulse rate is 62 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.2 °C. What is the probable causative organism for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus

      Correct Answer: Rhinovirus

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Most Common Causative Organisms of the Common Cold

      The common cold is a viral infection that affects millions of people worldwide. Among the different viruses that can cause the common cold, rhinoviruses are the most common, responsible for 30-50% of cases annually. influenzae viruses can also cause milder symptoms that overlap with those of the common cold, accounting for 5-15% of cases. Adenoviruses and enteroviruses are less common causes, accounting for less than 5% of cases each. Respiratory syncytial virus is also a rare cause of the common cold, accounting for only 5% of cases annually. When trying to identify the causative organism of a common cold, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms, recent exposure to sick individuals, and prevalence of different viruses in the community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.5
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  • Question 14 - A 61-year-old electrician presents with a 4-month history of cough and weight loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old electrician presents with a 4-month history of cough and weight loss. On further questioning, the patient reports experiencing some episodes of haemoptysis. He has a long-standing history of hypothyroidism, which is well managed with thyroxine 100 µg daily. The patient smokes ten cigarettes a day and has no other significant medical history. Blood tests and an X-ray are carried out, which reveal possible signs of asbestosis. A CT scan is ordered to investigate further.
      What is the typical CT scan finding of asbestosis in the lung?

      Your Answer: Diffuse fibrotic bands with ground glass opacity

      Correct Answer: Honeycombing of the lung with parenchymal bands and pleural plaques

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lung Diseases: Radiological Findings

      Asbestosis is a lung disease characterized by interstitial pneumonitis and fibrosis, resulting in honeycombing of the lungs with parenchymal bands and pleural plaques. Smoking can accelerate its presentation. On a chest X-ray, bilateral reticulonodular opacities in the lower zones are observed, while a CT scan shows increased interlobular septae, parenchymal bands, and honeycombing. Silicosis, on the other hand, presents with irregular linear shadows and hilar lymphadenopathy, which can progress to PMF with compensatory emphysema. Tuberculosis is characterized by cavitation of upper zones, while pneumoconiosis shows parenchymal nodules and lower zone emphysema. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management of these lung diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.3
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. She experienced a burning sensation in her chest during coughing. About a week ago, she coughed up a teaspoonful of yellow sputum with flecks of blood. The next morning, she had a small amount of blood-tinged sputum but has not had any subsequent haemoptysis. Her cough is resolving, and she is starting to feel better. She has no history of respiratory problems and has never smoked cigarettes. On examination, there are no abnormalities found in her chest, heart, or abdomen. Her chest x-ray is normal.

      What would be your recommendation at this point?

      Your Answer: CT of the chest

      Correct Answer: Observation only

      Explanation:

      Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is a type of respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation in the bronchial tubes. This condition is usually caused by viral infections, with up to 95% of cases being attributed to viruses such as adenovirus, coronavirus, and influenzae viruses A and B. While antibiotics are often prescribed for acute bronchitis, there is little evidence to suggest that they provide significant relief or shorten the duration of the illness.

      Other viruses that can cause acute bronchitis include parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, coxsackievirus A21, rhinovirus, and viruses that cause rubella and measles. It is important to note that in cases where there is no evidence of bronchoconstriction or bacterial infection, and the patient is not experiencing respiratory distress, observation is advised.

      Overall, the causes and symptoms of acute bronchitis can help individuals take the necessary steps to manage their condition and prevent its spread to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      17.5
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  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for the past three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. On the day of referral, he reported mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. During the examination, a maculopapular rash was observed on his upper body, and fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest. Mild neck stiffness was also noted. His vital signs showed a fever of 39°C and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
      - WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
      - Na: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
      - K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (1-22)
      - Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
      - AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
      - GGT: 48 U/L (<50)

      The chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma Pneumonia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment

      Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years. It is characterized by systemic upset, dry cough, and fever, with myalgia and arthralgia being common symptoms. Unlike other types of pneumonia, the white blood cell count is often within the normal range. In some cases, Mycoplasma pneumonia can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism and meningitis, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme.

      One of the most common complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia is haemolytic anaemia, which is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins found in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera. Treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin, with tetracycline or doxycycline being alternative options.

      In summary, Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including haemolytic anaemia and extrapulmonary manifestations. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies, and treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 5-year-old girl comes to her general practice clinic with her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl comes to her general practice clinic with her mother. She has been experiencing nasal congestion, sneezing, and a sore throat for the past few days. During the examination, her pulse rate is 80 bpm, respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and temperature is 36.9 °C. She has no significant medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common cold

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Young Girl with Respiratory Symptoms

      A young girl is experiencing respiratory symptoms, including sore throat, sneezing, and nasal congestion. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:

      1. Common cold: This is a common viral infection that can cause mild fever, especially in children.

      2. Hay fever: This is an allergic reaction to specific allergens, such as pollen, that can cause similar symptoms to the common cold, but with a chronic and fluctuating course.

      3. Infectious mononucleosis: This is a viral infection that can cause fatigue, fever, laryngitis, and a rash, but is less likely in this case.

      4. influenzae: This is a seasonal viral infection that can cause more severe symptoms, such as high fever, headache, and muscle aches.

      5. Meningitis: This is a serious bacterial infection that can cause non-specific respiratory symptoms, but also tachycardia, hypotension, high fever, photophobia, neck stiffness, and petechial rash, which are not mentioned here.

      Possible Diagnoses for a Young Girl with Respiratory Symptoms

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  • Question 18 - A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Panacinar

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics

      Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.

      Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.

      Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.

      Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.

      Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.

      Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.

      In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with left-sided chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with left-sided chest pain and difficulty breathing that started during a football game.

      Which diagnostic test is most likely to provide a conclusive diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Pneumothorax

      A pneumothorax is suspected based on the patient’s medical history. To confirm the diagnosis, a chest x-ray is the only definitive test available. An ECG is unlikely to show any abnormalities, while blood gas analysis may reveal a slightly elevated oxygen level and slightly decreased carbon dioxide level, even if the patient is not experiencing significant respiratory distress.

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  • Question 20 - After reviewing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in clinic, the...

    Incorrect

    • After reviewing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in clinic, the respiratory consultant discusses the anatomy of the lungs with a group of undergraduate students.
      With regard to the lungs, which one of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The lungs receive a dual blood supply

      Explanation:

      Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a vital organ responsible for respiration. Here are some important facts about their anatomy:

      – The lungs receive a dual blood supply from the pulmonary artery and the bronchial arteries. A pulmonary embolus may only result in infarction when the circulation is already inadequate.
      – The left lung has two lobes, while the right lung has three. The horizontal fissure is present only in the right lung.
      – Each lung has ten bronchopulmonary segments, which can be selectively removed surgically if diseased.
      – The right bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left bronchus, making it more likely for foreign bodies to enter it. Aspiration pneumonia and abscess formation are common in the apical segment of the right lower lobe.

      Important Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs

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  • Question 21 - A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past week. His mother mentions that he had a similar issue a couple of years ago but hasn't had any problems since. He was treated with inhalers and recovered quickly at that time. The boy is an animal lover and has always had multiple pets, including dogs, cats, birds, and reptiles. He hasn't acquired any new pets in the last two months. Upon examination, there are no clinical findings. What would be the best next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peak flow self-monitoring

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Wheezing in Children

      Wheezing is a common symptom in children, but it can have many causes. While asthma is a common cause of wheezing, it is important not to jump to conclusions and make a diagnosis based on conjecture alone. Instead, the next best course of action is to use a peak flow meter at home and follow up with lung function tests if necessary. It is also important to note that wheezing can sometimes be a symptom of cardiac failure, but this is not the case in the scenario presented.

      Removing pets from the home is not a necessary step at this point, as it may cause unnecessary stress for the child. Instead, if a particular pet is identified as the cause of the allergy, it can be removed at a later time. Skin patch tests for allergens are also not useful in this scenario, as they are only done in cases with high suspicion or when desensitization therapy is planned.

      In summary, a diagnosis of wheezing in children should not be made based on conjecture alone. Instead, it is important to use objective measures such as peak flow meters and lung function tests to determine the cause of the wheezing. Removing pets or conducting skin patch tests may not be necessary or useful at this point.

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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis is experiencing deteriorating respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis is experiencing deteriorating respiratory symptoms and is subsequently diagnosed with aspergillus infection. What is a common pulmonary manifestation of Aspergillus infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergic asthma

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis

      Aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus. It can affect various organs in the body, including the lungs. The pulmonary manifestations of aspergillosis include allergic reactions, bronchocentric granulomatosis, necrotising aspergillosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, aspergilloma, and bronchial stump infection.

      Allergic reactions can manifest as allergic asthma or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). Patients may experience recurrent wheezing, fever, and transient opacities on chest X-ray. In later stages, bronchiectasis may develop.

      Bronchocentric granulomatosis is characterised by granuloma of bronchial mucosa with eosinophilic infiltrates. Chest X-ray shows a focal upper lobe lesion, and there may be haemoptysis.

      Necrotising aspergillosis is usually found in immunocompromised patients. Chest X-ray shows spreading infiltrates, and there is invasion of blood vessels.

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis, also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis, may occur in certain professions like malt workers. Four to 8 hours after exposure, there is an allergic reaction characterised by fever, chill, malaise, and dyspnoea. Serum IgE concentrations are normal.

      Aspergilloma is saprophytic colonisation in pre-existing cavities. Haemoptysis is the most frequent symptom. Chest X-ray shows Monod’s sign, and gravitational change of position of the mass can be demonstrated.

      Bronchial stump infection is usually found in post-surgery cases when silk suture is used. If nylon suture is used, this problem is eliminated. This can also occur in lung transplants at the site of anastomosis of bronchi.

      Understanding the Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis

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  • Question 23 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.

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  • Question 24 - A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following an assault. On examination, there are two puncture wounds on the posterior chest wall. The ambulance crew believe the patient was attacked with a screwdriver. He is currently extremely short of breath, haemodynamically unstable, and his oxygen saturations are falling despite high-flow oxygen. There are reduced breath sounds in the right hemithorax.
      What is the most appropriate first step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle decompression of right hemithorax

      Explanation:

      Management of Tension Pneumothorax in Penetrating Chest Trauma

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention in patients with penetrating chest trauma. The following steps should be taken:

      1. Clinical Diagnosis: Falling oxygen saturations, cardiovascular compromise, and reduced breath sounds in the affected hemithorax are suggestive of tension pneumothorax. This is a clinical diagnosis.

      2. Needle Decompression: Immediate needle decompression with a large bore cannula placed into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line is required. This is a temporizing measure to provide time for placement of a chest drain.

      3. Urgent Chest Radiograph: A chest radiograph may be readily available, but it should not delay decompression of the tension pneumothorax. It should be delayed until placement of the chest drain.

      4. Placement of Chest Drain: This is the definitive treatment of a tension pneumothorax, but immediate needle decompression should take place first.

      5. Contact On-Call Anaesthetist: Invasive ventilation by an anaesthetist will not improve the patient’s condition.

      6. Avoid Non-Invasive Ventilation: Non-invasive ventilation would worsen the tension pneumothorax and should be avoided.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of tension pneumothorax are crucial in patients with penetrating chest trauma. Needle decompression followed by chest drain placement is the definitive treatment.

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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner seeking assistance to quit smoking. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner seeking assistance to quit smoking. She has been smoking ten cigarettes daily for the last 14 years and has no significant medical history. However, she is currently in her second trimester of pregnancy. What is the most suitable first-line smoking cessation option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Smoking Cessation Options for Pregnant Women: A Review of Medications and Therapies

      When it comes to quitting smoking during pregnancy or postpartum, behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line approach by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Smoking cessation clinics can provide support for women who wish to quit smoking. Clonidine, a medication used for high blood pressure and drug withdrawal, has some effect on smoking cessation but is not licensed or recommended for this use by NICE. Bupropion, which reduces cravings and withdrawal effects, is contraindicated during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Nicotine replacement therapy can be used in pregnancy, but women should be informed of the risks and benefits and only used if behavioural support is ineffective. Varenicline, a medication that reduces cravings and the pleasurable effects of tobacco products, is contraindicated during pregnancy and breastfeeding due to its toxicity in studies. It is important for healthcare providers to discuss the available options with pregnant women and provide individualized recommendations for smoking cessation.

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  • Question 26 - What is the most effective tool for assessing a patient who is suspected...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective tool for assessing a patient who is suspected of having occupational asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serial measurements of ventilatory function performed before, during, and after work

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by conditions and factors present in a particular work environment. It is characterized by variable airflow limitation and/or airway hyper-responsiveness. This type of asthma accounts for about 10% of adult asthma cases. To diagnose occupational asthma, several investigations are conducted, including serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. A consistent fall in peak flow values and increased intraday variability on working days, along with improvement on days away from work, confirms the diagnosis of occupational asthma. It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of occupational asthma to prevent and manage this condition effectively.

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past six years and has a history of epilepsy. Which smoking cessation aid is most likely to result in adverse effects for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Options for Smoking Cessation in Patients with Seizure History

      Patients with a predisposition or past history of seizures should avoid bupropion due to an increased risk of seizures. The Medicines and Health products Regulatory Authority (MHRA) warns against prescribing bupropion to patients who experience seizures. However, behavioural therapy is encouraged for all patients who wish to quit smoking. E-cigarettes can be a safer alternative and may eventually help patients quit entirely, but they are not currently funded by the NHS. Nicotine replacement therapy in the form of patches or gum can also be used. Varenicline is cautioned but not contraindicated for use in patients with seizures, so it should only be used if the benefits outweigh the risk.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath, unable to speak in complete sentences, tachypnoeic and with a tachycardia of 122 bpm. Severe inspiratory wheeze is noted on examination. The patient is given nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, and IV hydrocortisone is administered. After 45 minutes of IV salbutamol infusion, there is no improvement in tachypnea and oxygen saturation has dropped to 80% at high flow oxygen. An ABG is taken, showing a pH of 7.50, pO2 of 10.3 kPa, pCO2 of 5.6 kPa, and HCO3− of 28.4 mmol/l. What is the next most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request an anaesthetic assessment for the Intensive Care Unit (ICU)

      Explanation:

      Why an Anaesthetic Assessment is Needed for a Severe Asthma Attack in ICU

      When a patient is experiencing a severe asthma attack, it is important to take the appropriate steps to provide the best care possible. In this scenario, the patient has already received nebulisers, an iv salbutamol infusion, and hydrocortisone, but their condition has not improved. The next best step is to request an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, as rapid intubation may be required and the patient may need ventilation support.

      While there are other options such as CPAP and NIPPV, these should only be used in a controlled environment with anaesthetic backup. Administering oral magnesium is also not recommended, and iv aminophylline should only be considered after an anaesthetic review. By requesting an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, the patient can receive the best possible care for their severe asthma attack.

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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man was in a car accident and was taken to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was in a car accident and was taken to the Emergency Department where a chest tube was inserted to drain fluid. The thoracic wall is composed of several structures, including the skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, parietal pleura, and visceral pleura. What is the correct order of structures that the tube would pass through during the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-5-1-3-4

      Explanation:

      Correct Order of Structures Traversed in Chest Drain Insertion

      When inserting a chest drain, it is important to know the correct order of structures that will be traversed. The order is as follows: skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, and parietal pleura.

      The external intercostal muscles are encountered first in chest drain insertion before the internal and innermost intercostal muscles, as suggested by their names. The skin is the first structure to be traversed by the tube. The parietal pleura lines the inner surface of the thoracic cavity and is the outer boundary of the pleural cavity. The chest drain tip should enter the pleural cavity which is bound by the parietal and visceral pleura. The parietal pleura is therefore encountered before reaching the visceral pleura. The visceral pleura should not be penetrated in chest drain insertion.

      Knowing the correct order of structures to be traversed during chest drain insertion is crucial to ensure the procedure is done safely and effectively.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old patient came in with worsening shortness of breath. A CT scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient came in with worsening shortness of breath. A CT scan of the chest revealed a lesion in the right middle lobe of the lung. The radiologist described the findings as an area of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser lung tissue.

      What is the more common name for this sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atoll sign

      Explanation:

      Radiological Signs in Lung Imaging: Atoll, Halo, Kerley B, Signet Ring, and Tree-in-Bud

      When examining CT scans of the lungs, radiologists look for specific patterns that can indicate various pathologies. One such pattern is the atoll sign, also known as the reversed halo sign. This sign is characterized by a region of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser tissue, forming a crescent or annular shape that is at least 2 mm thick. It is often seen in cases of cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (COP), but can also be caused by tuberculosis or other infections.

      Another important sign is the halo sign, which is seen in angioinvasive aspergillosis. This sign appears as a ground-glass opacity surrounding a pulmonary nodule or mass, indicating alveolar hemorrhage.

      Kerley B lines are another pattern that can be seen on lung imaging, indicating pulmonary edema. These lines are caused by fluid accumulation in the interlobular septae at the periphery of the lung.

      The signet ring sign is a pattern seen in bronchiectasis, where a dilated bronchus and accompanying pulmonary artery branch are visible in cross-section. This sign is characterized by a marked dilation of the bronchus, which is not seen in the normal population.

      Finally, the tree-in-bud sign is a pattern seen in endobronchial tuberculosis or other endobronchial pathologies. This sign appears as multiple centrilobular nodules with a linear branching pattern, and can also be seen in cases of cystic fibrosis or viral pneumonia.

      Overall, understanding these radiological signs can help clinicians diagnose and treat various lung pathologies.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (2/15) 13%
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