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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her blood picture shows: Hb: 10.4 g/dL,...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her blood picture shows: Hb: 10.4 g/dL, Plts: 278 x 10^9/L, WCC: 6.3 x 10^9/L, MCV: 68 fL. Blood film: Microcytic hypochromic RBCs, marked anisocytosis and basophilic stippling noted, HbA2: 3.9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lead poisoning

      Correct Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Thalassaemias are a group of genetic disorders characterised by decreased production of either alpha or beta chains of haemoglobin (Hb). Beta thalassaemia trait is an autosomal recessive condition in which a disproportionate hypochromic, microcytic anaemia occurs—microcytosis is disproportionate to the Hb level. It is usually asymptomatic.

      Microcytic anaemia in a female should raise the possibility of either gastrointestinal blood loss or menorrhagia. However, there is no history to suggest this in the aforementioned patient. This, combined with characteristic disproportionate microcytosis and raised HbA2 levels ( >3.5%), point towards beta thalassaemia trait.

      Basophilic stippling is also seen in lead poisoning but the raised HbA2 levels cannot be explained in such a case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis. Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?

      Your Answer: CA 15-3

      Explanation:

      Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 3 - Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S?

      Your Answer: It has a higher affinity for oxygen than HbA

      Correct Answer: It is the result of a point mutation

      Explanation:

      Hb S is the most common type of abnormal haemoglobin and the basis of sickle cell trait and sickle cell anaemia. It differs from normal adult haemoglobin (called haemoglobin A—Hb A) only by a single amino acid substitution due to point mutation—a valine replacing a glutamine in the sixth position of the beta chain of globin. Hb S molecules polymerize in hypoxic and acidic environments, imparting a sickle shape to the RBCs. Hb S molecules are less negatively charged than Hb A (due to the loss of glutamine) and have a lower affinity for oxygen (right shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal bleeding and is generally well apart from occasional diarrhoea. She has previously attended a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour and is now brought in by her mother having consumed a number of pills. Her mother has had recurrent venous thromboses, but there is no family history of a bleeding disorder. Her full blood count (FBC) is normal, but her coagulation profile shows: Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 60 secs (28–38 secs), Prothrombin time (PT): no clot after 120 secs (10–14 secs), Fibrinogen: 3.6 g/L (2–4 g/L). What is the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer: Incorrect sampling

      Correct Answer: Warfarin overdose

      Explanation:

      Warfarin inhibits the vitamin K-dependent procoagulants II, VII, IX, and X as well as anticoagulant protein C and S. It is highly protein-bound and can be displaced by a wide variety of drugs. It has a half-life of 36–48 hours.

      Bleeding is the major side effect. Easy bruising, as seen in this case, is commonly seen in patients of warfarin overdose. Grossly prolonged PT and lesser increase in APTT may be seen in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to the acute medical unit for pneumonia. This is his fourth admission for pneumonia in the past six months. Which of the following factors is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Hypersplenism

      Correct Answer: Hypogammaglobulinaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia is a complication of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) that leads to recurrent infections.

      CLL is a type of cancer caused by monoclonal proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes, typically B cells (99%). Onset of the disease is usually asymptomatic and later constitutes anorexia, weight loss, bleeding, and recurrent infections. Lymphadenopathy is more marked in CLL than in chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).

      Investigations to diagnose CLL include blood film and immunophenotyping. Smudge cells (also known as smear cells) seen on the blood film point towards CLL. Complications of the disease include hypogammaglobulinemia leading to recurrent infections, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia in 10–15% of the patients, and transformation to high-grade lymphoma (Richter’s transformation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 6 - What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia...

    Correct

    • What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      5–15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast. Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Negative lymph node status

      Correct Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following features is characteristic of acute intermittent porphyria? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is characteristic of acute intermittent porphyria?

      Your Answer: Increased urinary porphobilinogen between acute attacks

      Explanation:

      Urinary porphobilinogen is increased between attacks of acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) and even more so, between acute attacks.

      AIP is a rare autosomal dominant condition caused by a defect in porphobilinogen deaminase, an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of haem. This results in the toxic accumulation of delta-aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen.

      Abdominal and neuropsychiatric symptoms are characteristic of AIP especially in people between the ages of 20–40 years. The disease is more common in females than in males (5:1). Major signs and symptoms of AIP include abdominal pain, vomiting, motor neuropathy, hypertension, tachycardia, and depression.

      Diagnosis:
      1. Urine turns deep red on standing (classical picture of AIP)
      2. Raised urinary porphobilinogen (elevated between attacks and to a greater extent, between acute attacks)
      3. Raised serum levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid and porphobilinogen
      4. Assay of red blood cells for porphobilinogen deaminase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following is the main mechanism of vitamin B12 absorption? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the main mechanism of vitamin B12 absorption?

      Your Answer: Active absorption in the middle to terminal part of jejunum

      Correct Answer: Active absorption in the terminal ileum

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 is mostly used in the body for the development of red blood cells and maintenance of the nervous system. It is actively absorbed in the terminal ileum after binding to the intrinsic factor (IF) which is secreted from the parietal cells of stomach. Moreover, a small amount is also passively absorbed without being bound to IF.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency is characterised by sore tongue and mouth, mood disturbances, ataxia, and macrocytic anaemia. Its causes include poor diet, impaired absorption (due to disorders of terminal ileum), pernicious anaemia, and post-gastrectomy. While managing this condition, if the person is also deficient in folic acid, then it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first in order to avoid precipitating subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 10 - A 76-year-old lady with known carcinoma of the caecum, was admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old lady with known carcinoma of the caecum, was admitted to the hospital for right hemicolectomy. She had a history of osteoarthritis for which she was taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs), intermittently. Two years ago, she had a fibroma removed from her right breast as well. The patient was a non-smoker and drank approximately 8 units of alcohol per week. Investigations carried out pre-operatively showed: Hb: 10.8 g/dL, MCV: 75 fL , WCC: 8.4 x10^9/L, Plts: 402 x10^9/L. The surgery remained uncomplicated, and she was given two units of packed red blood cells postoperatively. Three days later, she has now become jaundiced and complains of fatigue. Her blood count now shows: Hb: 7.2 g/dL, MCV: 110 fL, WCC: 9.5 x10^9/L, Plts: 395 x10^9/L. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Indirect antiglobulin test (Indirect Coombs test)

      Correct Answer: Direct Coombs test

      Explanation:

      The direct Coombs test will specifically confirm immune-mediated haemolysis occurring post-transfusion in the aforementioned case.

      There are two types of Coombs test used in immunohematology and immunology:

      1. Direct Coombs test—It confirms autoimmune haemolytic anaemia by detecting antibodies or complement proteins attached to the surface of red blood cells.

      2. Indirect Coombs test—It is used in prenatal testing of pregnant women and in testing prior to a blood transfusion. It detects antibodies floating freely in the blood, against foreign red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old female patient presents with massive haemorrhage. After grouping, her blood sample...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents with massive haemorrhage. After grouping, her blood sample comes out to be B RhD negative. You work in the hospital's blood bank and are asked to prepare two units each of red blood cells (RBCs) and fresh frozen plasma (FFP). You manage to obtain the RBCs but not the Group B FFP as it is unavailable. Therefore, out of the following, FFP from a donor of which blood group would be best to transfuse?

      Your Answer: AB RhD positive

      Correct Answer: AB RhD negative

      Explanation:

      Group AB donors are the universal donors of FFP. This is because they produce neither anti-A nor anti-B antigens in their plasma and are, therefore, compatible with all ABO groups.

      The aforementioned patient’s blood group is B meaning, thereby, she naturally produces anti-A antigens in her plasma and would need to receive plasma that does not have anti-B antigens in it. Hence, she can only receive FFP from donors of group B or AB. Moreover, as she is of childbearing age, she must receive RhD negative blood in order to avoid problems with future pregnancies if her foetus would be RhD positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been admitted with dehydration following an attack of gastritis. His initial blood results revealed raised calcium and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). He has a history of hypertension, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and diabetes. His most recent results have arrived on the ward, showing: Hb: 13.8 g/dL, WCC: 7.7 x 10^9/L, Plts: 212 x 10^9/L, Na+: 138 mmol/L, K+: 4.7 mmol/L, Ca+2: 2.4 mmol/L, Urea: 7.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 104 mmol/L, Albumin: 38 g/L, IgG: 24 g/L (6.0-13.0), IgA: 2.1 g/L (0.8-3.0), IgM: 1.3 g/L (0.4-2.5). Trace amounts of Bence Jones protein have also been detected in the urine. CXR shows normal heart and mediastinal contours, clear lungs bilaterally, osteopenia of the bony skeleton with no lytic lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

      Explanation:

      Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)—also known as benign paraproteinemia and monoclonal gammopathy—is a pre-malignant condition not necessarily leading to its malignant form—multiple myeloma. MGUS causes increase of a serum monoclonal protein (M protein). It is not associated with ostealgia or increased risk of infections. It is often mistaken for multiple myeloma, differing from the latter in, no immunosuppression, anaemia, hypercalcaemia, lytic bone lesions, or renal failure; normal levels of beta-2 microglobulin; and stable lower levels of paraproteinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 13 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried out. Which one of the following is mostly associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deletions of chromosome 5

      Explanation:

      Deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7 is a poor prognostic feature for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old man is a known case of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is a known case of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and is admitted to the hospital with headache, visual disturbances, pale conjunctivae, and breathlessness. While in the assessment unit, he has had an episode of nosebleed that has been difficult to control. On examination, his heart rate is 120bpm, blood pressure is 115/65 mmHg, and he is febrile with a temperature of 37°C. Fundoscopy shows dilated retinal veins with a retinal haemorrhage in the right eye. What is the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasmapheresis

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying signs and symptoms of hyperviscosity syndrome, secondary to the Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia. Treatment of choice is plasmapheresis.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 15 - A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. Following discussion with her family, it is decided to withdraw active treatment including fluids and antibiotics as the admission likely represents a terminal event. Two days after admission, she becomes agitated and restless. What is the most appropriate management for her agitation and confusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Generally, underlying causes of confusion need to be looked for and treated as appropriate, for example, hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, and medication. If specific treatments fail, the following may be tried:

      1. First choice: haloperidol
      2. Other options: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine

      In the terminal phase of the illness, agitation or restlessness is best treated with midazolam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his right knee whilst playing in the garden. Following blood results are obtained: Plts: 220 x 10^9/L, PT: 11 secs, APTT: 76 secs, Factor VIIIc activity: Normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia B

      Explanation:

      A grossly elevated APTT may be caused by heparin therapy, haemophilia, or antiphospholipid syndrome. A normal factor VIIIc activity, however, points towards the diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is the deficiency of factor IX in the blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is due to the deficiency of clotting factor VIII and is more common than haemophilia B, accounting for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in the morning. She looks anaemic, but rest of the examination is normal. Her GP has arranged for a urological examination, which has come out to be normal as well. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH). The classic sign of the disease is red discolouration of the urine due to the presence of haemoglobin and hemosiderin from the breakdown of red blood cells. As the urine is more concentrated in the morning, this is when the colour is most pronounced.

      PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combinations of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started on chemotherapy. Two days following his first treatment session, he presents to the A&E with nausea, vomiting, and myalgia. On examination, he appears clinically dehydrated. A diagnosis of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is suspected. Which of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of TLS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low corrected calcium

      Explanation:

      Out of the aforementioned markers, low corrected calcium is the only biochemistry result consistent with the diagnosis. All of the other markers are elevated in TLS.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. As phosphate precipitates calcium, the serum concentration of calcium becomes low. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups
      should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is reviewed in the hospital clinic and started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). Which of the following should be the most appropriate treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue on LMWH for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Patients with active cancer are at a continuous risk of having venous thromboembolism (VTE), such as DVT. Therefore, a six-month course of an anticoagulant such as LMWH is recommended. LMWH is the drug of choice since its side effects can be reversed and it can be stopped easily in case of a cancer-related bleed, for example, massive haemoptysis in a patient with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 20 - A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenström's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenström's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain and generalised weakness. Which of the following would be most indicative of type I cryoglobulinemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Cryoglobulinemia may be caused by paraprotein bands such as those seen in Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia and multiple myeloma (MM). Meltzer’s triad of arthralgia, weakness, and palpable purpura are common to all types of cryoglobulinemia—as are membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis and low C4 levels. Raynaud’s phenomenon, however, occurs only in type 1 cryoglobulinemia, and its presence can be helpful in ascertaining the underlying cause.

      Cryoglobulinemia is a condition in which the blood contains large amounts of pathological cold-sensitive antibodies called cryoglobulins—proteins (mostly immunoglobulins themselves) that become insoluble at reduced temperatures. One-third of the cases are idiopathic.

      There are three types of cryoglobulinemia:
      1. Type I (25%):
      Monoclonal—IgG or IgM
      Associated with multiple myeloma (MM), Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia

      2. Type II (25%):
      Mixed monoclonal and polyclonal—usually with rheumatoid factor (RF)
      Associated with hepatitis C, rheumatoid arthritis (RA), Sjogren’s syndrome

      3. Type III (50%):
      Polyclonal—usually with RF
      Associated with rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndrome

      Investigation results for cryoglobulinemia show low complement (especially C4) and high ESR. Treatment options include immunosuppression and plasmapheresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment. He presents to the acute medical ward with one month history of worsening central lower back pain, which becomes worse at night and cannot be managed with an analgesia at home. He has no other new symptoms. Out of the following, which investigation should be performed next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI whole spine

      Explanation:

      An MRI whole spine should be performed in a patient suspected of spinal metastasis which can occur before developing metastatic spinal cord compression. This patient has renal cell carcinoma, which readily metastasises to the bones and also has progressive back pain. He, therefore, needs urgent imaging of his spine before any neurological compromise develops. MRI whole spine is preferable because patients with spinal metastasis often have metastases at multiple levels within the spine. Plain radiographs and CT scans should not be performed as they have a lower sensitivity for revealing lesions and cannot exclude cord compression.

      In general, imaging should be performed within one week if symptoms suspicious of spinal metastasis without neurological symptoms are present. If there are symptoms suggestive of malignant spinal cord compression, then imaging should be done within 24 hours.

      The signs and symptoms of spinal metastases include:
      1. Unrelenting lumbar back pain
      2. Thoracic or cervical back pain
      3. Pain associated with tenderness and worsens with sneezing, coughing, or straining
      4. Nocturnal pain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward for chemotherapy. He has a history of severe nausea and vomiting secondary to chemotherapy, in the past. The consultant asks you to prescribe a neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor blocker. Which agent, out of the following, will you choose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aprepitant

      Explanation:

      Aprepitant is an anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor and acts as a substance P antagonist. It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old female presents to the A&E department with epistaxis, which has now...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents to the A&E department with epistaxis, which has now stopped. According to her boyfriend, she has a recent history of mucosal bleeding and has at times been very disorientated. On examination, she has a low-grade fever and appears confused and jaundiced. There is bruising over her legs and arms. A urine pregnancy test is negative. You receive the following blood results from the laboratory: Hb: 8.5 g/dL, Plts: 8 x 10^9/L, WCC: 4.5 x 10^9/L, MCV: 92 fL, Na+: 138 mmol/L, K+: 4.9 mmol/L, Urea: 10.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 182 mmol/L, Her coagulation profile is normal. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma exchange

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis for the aforementioned case is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is classically characterised as a pentad of thrombocytopaenia, microvascular haemolysis, fluctuating neurological signs, renal impairment, and fever.

      The differential diagnosis for severe thrombocytopaenia is immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). ITP is more common than TTP. However, a patient of ITP would not present with the range of symptoms seen in this scenario.

      In TTP, there is deficiency of a protease which breaks down large multimers of von Willebrand factor. This leads to abnormally large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand factor which cause platelets to clump within the vessels.

      Untreated TTP has a mortality rate of up to 90%. Therefore, rapid plasma exchange (PEX) may be a life-saving intervention. Platelet transfusion in TTP is only indicated if there is an ongoing life-threatening bleed. Intravenous methylprednisolone is indicated after treatment with PEX has been completed. There is no current role of intravenous immunoglobulin in the routine management of TTP. However, there have been reports of its successful use in PEX- and steroid-refractory cases. Intravenous argatroban is indicated in heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT), but there is no history of recent heparin administration or hospitalisation in this patient nor are the clinical signs consistent with HIT.

      Management options for TTP include PEX as the treatment of choice. Steroids and immunosuppressants are also given. Antibiotics are not recommended as they may worsen the outcome of the disease. For cases resistant to PEX and pharmacologic therapy, vincristine is given.

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      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with several lumps in her neck and under her arms, weight loss, vomiting, and low mood. She is investigated and is found to have several areas of suspicious lymphadenopathy including in the neck, both axillae, and mediastinum. She also has multiple lesions in her liver which are confirmed to be the manifestations of Hodgkin lymphoma after biopsy. Which stage of the disease is the patient currently at?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      The patient is on stage IV according to the Ann Arbor staging system for Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). The disease has spread beyond the lymph nodes into the liver (involvement of extra lymphatic organ).

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      Staging of HL is done according to the Ann Arbor staging system:
      Stage
      I: Single lymph node region (I) or one extra lymphatic site (IE)

      II: Two or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (II) or local extra lymphatic extension plus one or more lymph node regions on same side of the diaphragm (IIE)

      III: Lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm (III) which may be accompanied by local extra lymphatic extension (IIIE)

      IV: Diffuse involvement of one or more extra lymphatic organs or sites

      Suffix
      A: No B symptoms

      B: Presence of at least one of the following: unexplained weight loss >10% baseline during 6 months before staging; recurrent unexplained fever >38°C; recurrent night sweats

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      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 25 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the A&E department with a five-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the A&E department with a five-day history of back pain which is located in the lower thoracic region and is worsened by coughing and sneezing. There has been no change in bowel habit or urinary symptoms. Her past medical history includes breast cancer and osteoarthritis. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness in the lower thoracic region. Perianal sensation is normal and lower limb reflexes are brisk. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone + urgent MRI

      Explanation:

      The patient has spinal cord compression until proven otherwise. Urgent assessment is required.

      Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

      Clinical features include:
      1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
      2. Lower limb weakness
      3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
      4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
      Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Management options are:
      1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
      2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics in the last six years for lower respiratory tract infections. He also has a history of eczema for which he is currently on a topical steroid cream. His full blood count (FBC) report shows: Hb: 13.9 g/dL, Plts: 65 x 10^9/L, WCC: 12.3 x 10^9/L. Which of the following genes should you expect an abnormality in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: WASP

      Explanation:

      The combination of frequent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopaenia are characteristic of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, which is due to an abnormality in the WASP gene. It is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes primary immunodeficiency owing to a combined B- and T-cell dysfunction.

      The other listed options are:
      1. PKD1: polycystic kidney disease
      2. CFTR: cystic fibrosis
      3. HFE1: haemochromatosis
      4. RET: multiple endocrine neoplasia, Hirschsprung’s disease

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      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 27 - A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytogenetics

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned options may be important however cytogenetics, for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, is the single most important test to determine her disease prognosis.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has a poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight loss. On the medical ward round, her CXR is reviewed showing hilar lymphadenopathy and multiple peripheral lung metastases. Which of the following tumours is least likely to be the underlying cause of this lung appearance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned listed tumours, except brain tumours, can metastasise to lungs and produce the typical CXR picture consisting of hilar lymphadenopathy with either diffuse multinodular shadows resembling miliary disease or multiple large well-defined masses (canon balls). Occasionally, cavitation or calcification may also be seen.

      Most brain tumours, however, do not metastasise. Some, derived form neural elements, do so but in these cases, intraparenchymal metastases generally precede distant haematogenous spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 29 - A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums....

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums. Her complete blood count, coagulation profile, and blood film are requested. The results are as follows: Hb: 8.6 g/dL, WCC: 2.3 x 10^9/L, Plts: 18 x 10^9/L, Coagulation profile: deranged, Blood film: bilobed large mononuclear cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      This is a picture of bone marrow failure secondary to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

      Other listed options are ruled out because:
      1. Von Willebrand disease: may present with epistaxis and bleeding gums in severe cases but rarely with abnormalities on blood results.

      2. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia: mostly seen in children.

      3. Lymphoma: usually presents with rubbery enlargement of lymph nodes.

      4. Warfarin overdose: no bilobed large mononuclear cells seen on blood film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most...

    Incorrect

    • A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NADH methaemoglobin reductase

      Explanation:

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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