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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment. She has begun a sexual relationship and wants to start long term contraception as she and her partner do not plan on having children anytime soon. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer a decade ago, and the patient, along with her family, underwent testing at the time. She was found to have a BRCA1 mutation. Based on FSRH guidelines, what is the safest contraception method available?
Your Answer: Mirena coil
Correct Answer: Copper coil
Explanation:If a woman has a suspected or personal history of breast cancer or a confirmed BRCA mutation, the safest form of contraception for her is the copper coil. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) provides guidelines for the choice of contraception, grading non-barrier contraceptives on a scale of 1-4 based on a woman’s personal circumstances. Contraceptive methods that fall under category 1 or 2 are generally considered safe for use in primary care. In this case, all forms of contraception except the combined pill (category 3) can be offered, with the copper coil being the safest option as it falls under category 1.
Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.
Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.
It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear test as part of the UK cervical cancer screening programme. Her results come back as hrHPV positive. Upon cytological examination, normal cells are observed. Following guidelines, the cervical smear test is repeated after 12 months, which still shows hrHPV positivity. Cytology is repeated, and once again, normal cells are observed. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat the test in 12 months
Explanation:If the first repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for hrHPV, the next step is to repeat the smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months) for cervical cancer screening.
As part of the NHS cervical screening programme, cervical smear tests are initially tested for high-risk HPV (hrHPV). If the test is positive for hrHPV, cytology is performed. If the cytology shows normal cells, the cervical smear test is repeated after 12 months. In cases where the repeat test is still positive for hrHPV but cytology is normal, as in this scenario, the patient should have another repeat test after a further 12 months. Therefore, repeating the test in 12 months is the appropriate course of action.
Colposcopy is not necessary in this case as the cytology showed normal cells. Returning the patient to routine recall is also not appropriate as it would result in a repeat smear in 3 years. Instead, the patient requires a repeat smear in 12 months due to the positive hrHPV result. Repeating the test in 3 or 6 months is too soon and therefore not recommended.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old sexually active female visits her GP with complaints of genital itching and a white discharge. During examination, vulvar erythema and a white vaginal discharge are observed. The vaginal pH is measured at 4.25. What is the probable reason for this woman's symptoms?
Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer: Candida albicans
Explanation:A high vaginal swab is not necessary for diagnosing vaginal candidiasis if the symptoms strongly suggest its presence. Symptoms such as genital itching and white discharge are indicative of Candida albicans infection. The discharge appears like cottage cheese and causes inflammation and itching, but the vaginal pH remains normal (around 4.0-4.5 in women of reproductive age). Since vaginal candidiasis is a common condition, a confident clinical suspicion based on the examination can be enough to diagnose and initiate treatment.
The other options for diagnosis are incorrect. Gardnerella vaginalis is a normal part of the vaginal flora, but it’s overgrowth can lead to bacterial vaginosis. Unlike vaginal candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis presents with thinner white discharge and a fishy odor that intensifies with the addition of potassium hydroxide. Additionally, the vaginal pH would be elevated (> 4.5).
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presented with pruritus in the perineal area, associated with pain on micturition and dyspareunia. She had thin, hypopigmented skin, with white, polygonal patches which, in areas, formed patches.
She returns for review after a 3-month trial of clobetasol proprionate, which has failed to improve symptoms. There is no evidence of infection, and her observations are stable.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?Your Answer: Ultraviolet (UV) phototherapy
Correct Answer: Topical tacrolimus
Explanation:Treatment Options for Lichen Sclerosus: Topical Tacrolimus as Second-Line Therapy
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genital area in men and women, presenting with pruritus and skin irritation. First-line treatment involves high-potency steroids, but if the patient fails to respond, the next step is topical calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus. This immunosuppressant reduces inflammation by inhibiting the secretion of interleukin-2, which promotes T-cell proliferation. However, chronic inflammatory conditions like lichen sclerosus increase the risk of vulval carcinoma, so a tissue biopsy should be obtained if the lesion is steroid-resistant. UV phototherapy and oral retinoids are not recommended as second-line therapy due to uncertain risks, while surgical excision is reserved for severe cases. The combination of potent steroids with antibacterial or antifungal properties is a first-line option in cases of superimposed infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman complains of heavy and irregular periods, postcoital bleeding, and deep dyspareunia that have been present for the past six months.
What is the probable diagnosis for her symptoms?Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Correct Answer: Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation:Chronic PID: A Possible Cause of Irregular Menses, Deep Dyspareunia, and Post-Coital Bleeding in Young Females
Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a possible diagnosis for young females experiencing irregular menses, deep dyspareunia, and post-coital bleeding. This condition is typically caused by a Chlamydia infection. PID is a result of the inflammation of the female reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. The inflammation can cause scarring and damage to the reproductive organs, leading to long-term complications such as infertility.
Irregular menses, deep dyspareunia, and post-coital bleeding are common symptoms of chronic PID. Irregular menses refer to menstrual cycles that are shorter or longer than the usual 28-day cycle. Deep dyspareunia is a condition where a woman experiences pain during sexual intercourse, particularly in the lower abdomen. Post-coital bleeding is the occurrence of vaginal bleeding after sexual intercourse.
Early diagnosis and treatment of chronic PID can prevent long-term complications. Treatment typically involves antibiotics to clear the infection and pain management to alleviate symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove damaged tissue.
In conclusion, chronic PID is a possible cause of irregular menses, deep dyspareunia, and post-coital bleeding in young females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea attends the clinic with her mother. She tells you that her mother has had a hysterectomy to treat menorrhagia, which found growths in the uterus. She is worried that the condition is hereditary, how this will affect her fertility and whether she is at risk of cancer.
Which of the following is most suitable for a definitive diagnosis of the condition described in this scenario?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Fibroids: Ultrasound vs CT Scan vs MRI
Fibroids, or leiomyomatas, are common tumours of smooth muscle origin found in the uterus and cervix. They can cause symptoms such as heavy periods, dysmenorrhoea, and lower abdominal pain. Risk factors include Afro-Caribbean origin, obesity, nulliparity, and family history. Clinical examination may reveal a palpable abdominal mass or a uterus palpable on bimanual examination, but ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool. CT scans are reserved for complex cases, while MRI is used for localisation and characterisation of fibroids. A full blood count is also important to diagnose and treat anaemia associated with heavy periods.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old nulliparous woman arrives at the emergency department with a positive home pregnancy test and symptoms of diarrhoea and mild abdominal discomfort that have been present for 6 hours. She has not been using any regular contraception and her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. The patient has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. A transvaginal ultrasound shows a 40mm foetal sac at the ampulla of the fallopian tube without a visible heartbeat, and her serum B-HCG level is 1200 IU/L. What is the definitive indication for surgical management in this case?
Your Answer: Foetal heartbeat not detected
Correct Answer: Foetal sac size
Explanation:Surgical management is recommended for all ectopic pregnancies with a foetal sac larger than 35mm or a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, as per NICE guidelines. Foetal sacs larger than 35mm are at a higher risk of spontaneous rupture, making expectant or medical management unsuitable. The size of the foetal sac is measured using transvaginal ultrasound. Detection of a foetal heartbeat on transvaginal ultrasound requires urgent surgical management. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not an indication for surgical management, although it is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. Serum HCG levels between 1,500IU/L and 5,000 IU/L may be managed medically if the patient can return for follow-up and has no significant abdominal pain or haemodynamic instability. A septate uterus is not an indication for surgical management of ectopic pregnancy, but it may increase the risk of miscarriage.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic for the third time in the past month. She reports experiencing bloating, mild abdominal discomfort, and a decreased appetite. You have previously referred her for a colonoscopy, which did not reveal any signs of malignancy. However, she remains highly concerned about cancer due to her family history, as her mother, grandmother, and sister have all had breast cancer. Which marker would be the most suitable?
Your Answer: CA 125
Explanation:Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female patient visits your clinic after having unprotected sex 3 days ago. She is concerned about the possibility of getting pregnant as she is not using any form of contraception. The patient has a medical history of severe asthma and major depression, and is currently taking sertraline 25mg once daily, salbutamol inhaler 200 micrograms as needed, beclomethasone 400 micrograms twice daily, and formoterol 12 micrograms twice daily. She is currently on day 26 of a 35-day menstrual cycle. What is the most appropriate course of action to prevent pregnancy in this patient?
Your Answer: Ulipristal (EllaOne)
Correct Answer: Intra-uterine device
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman has received her cervical screening report and wants to discuss it with you. Her last smear was 2 years ago and showed normal cytology and negative HPV. However, her latest report indicates normal cytology but positive HPV. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat smear in 1 year
Explanation:To follow up on a positive hrHPV result with a cytologically normal sample, it is recommended to repeat the smear after 12 months as HPV can be naturally cleared by the immune system within this timeframe.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman presents with sudden onset lower abdominal pain and nausea. Upon examination, she is stable and has a temperature of 37.8 °C. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa. Urinalysis reveals the presence of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC), but no nitrites. What is the most suitable subsequent test?
Your Answer: Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG))
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age
Abdominal pain in women of childbearing age requires a thorough diagnostic workup to rule out gynaecological emergencies such as ectopic pregnancy. The following diagnostic tests should be considered:
1. Pregnancy test (beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG)): This test should be the first step in the diagnostic workup to rule out ectopic pregnancy. A positive result requires urgent referral to the gynaecological team.
2. Full blood count: This test may indicate an ongoing infective process or other pathology, but a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.
3. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis: Imaging may be useful in determining the cause of the pain, but a pregnancy test should be done first before considering imaging studies.
4. Urine culture and sensitivity: This test may be useful if a urinary tract infection and possible pyelonephritis are considered, but an ectopic pregnancy has to be ruled out first.
5. Erect chest X-ray: This test can show free air under the diaphragm, indicating a ruptured viscus and a surgical emergency. However, a pregnancy test should be done first to rule out ectopic pregnancy.
In conclusion, a thorough diagnostic workup is necessary to determine the cause of abdominal pain in women of childbearing age, with a pregnancy test being the first step to rule out gynaecological emergencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She complains of a 3-day history of right iliac fossa and suprapubic pain. She does not complain of vomiting, although she does mention that she has lost her appetite. Her bowel habit is regular and she describes no urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago and she should be starting her period soon. On asking, she states that she has never been sexually active.
Examination reveals suprapubic tenderness and some right iliac fossa tenderness, inferior to McBurney’s point. Her vitals are normal otherwise. Her blood test results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 123 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
Amylase 35 U/l < 200 U/l
LFTs Normal
Her urine dipstick shows 1+ of leukocytes, 1+ of proteins and a trace of blood, but is otherwise normal.
Which of the following tests is the next step in investigating this girl?Your Answer: Abdominal/pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer: Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Imaging for Lower Abdominal Pain in Women
Lower abdominal pain in women can have various causes, including appendicitis, urinary tract infection, ovarian or tubal pathology, pelvic inflammatory disease, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, mesenteric adenitis, and other less common pathologies. To determine the cause of the pain, several diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can be used.
Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test is essential for every woman of reproductive age admitted with lower abdominal pain. This test helps determine the pregnancy status, which can guide further investigations. An abdominal/pelvic ultrasound can detect acute ovarian and other gynecological pathology. It is also useful in assessing biliary pathology and involvement in pancreatitis. However, it is not very sensitive in detecting appendicitis.
If the diagnosis is uncertain, admitting the patient for observation and review in 12 hours can help determine if any other signs or symptoms develop or change. A CT scan would be inappropriate without checking the patient’s pregnancy status, as it could be harmful to the fetus. However, it can be useful in delineating acute intestinal pathology such as inflammatory bowel disease, bowel obstruction, and renal calculi.
Finally, an erect chest X-ray can help determine if there is bowel perforation by assessing for air under the diaphragm. This investigation is critical in the presence of a peritonitic abdomen.
In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can help determine the cause of lower abdominal pain in women and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the GP complaining of urinary incontinence. Upon further inquiry, she reports that the incontinence is most severe after coughing or sneezing. She has given birth to four children, all through vaginal delivery, with the most recent being 35 years ago. These symptoms have been getting worse over the past eight weeks.
What tests should be requested based on this woman's presentation?Your Answer: Cystoscopy
Correct Answer: Urinalysis
Explanation:When dealing with patients who have urinary incontinence, it is important to rule out the possibility of a urinary tract infection or diabetes mellitus. This is particularly relevant for a 64-year-old woman who is experiencing this issue. While stress incontinence may be the cause, a urinalysis should be conducted to ensure that there are no underlying medical conditions that could be contributing to or exacerbating her symptoms. In cases where voiding dysfunction or overflow incontinence is suspected, a post-void residual volume test may be necessary. However, this is more commonly seen in elderly men who may have prostate issues. Cystoscopy is not typically used as a first-line investigation for women with urinary incontinence, but may be considered if bladder lesions are suspected. Urinary flow rate assessment is more commonly used in elderly men or those with neurological symptoms.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of persistent urinary incontinence, exacerbated by laughing or coughing. Despite undergoing supervised pelvic floor exercises for four months, she still experiences a significant impact on her quality of life. While surgical intervention was discussed, she prefers medical management. What medication would be the most suitable for managing her symptoms?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:If a patient with stress incontinence does not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and declines surgical intervention, duloxetine may be used. Antimuscarinics are the first-line treatment for urge incontinence in patients who do not respond to bladder training, with oxybutynin (immediate-release), tolterodine (immediate-release), or darifenacin (once daily preparation) being recommended by NICE. Mirabegron, a beta-3 agonist, is used when antimuscarinics are contraindicated or when there are concerns about their side effects, particularly in frail elderly women. Desmopressin is not a treatment for stress incontinence, but it may be considered off-label for patients with troublesome nocturia, except for women aged 65 years or over with cardiovascular disease or hypertension.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice regarding her current contraceptive method, microgynon 30. She recently went on a short trip and forgot to bring her pill pack, causing her to miss some pills. She last took a pill 76 hours ago and is uncertain about what to do next. The missed pills were from the third week of her pack, and she has not missed any other pills this month. She had unprotected sex in the past week. What guidance should you provide her?
Your Answer: Take emergency contraception, discard the remaining pack and use barrier contraception until restarting the pill as a new user
Correct Answer: Take 2 pills today, then finish the current pack, omit the pill-free interval and start the new pack immediately
Explanation:If a woman misses 2 pills in week 3 of taking the COCP, she should finish the remaining pills in the current pack and start a new pack immediately without taking the pill-free interval. Missing 2 pills means that it has been 72 hours since the last pill was taken, and the standard rule is to take 2 pills on the same day and continue taking one pill each day until the end of the pack. It is important not to take more than 2 pills in one day, and emergency contraception is only necessary if more than 7 consecutive pills are missed. In this case, the woman has not taken the required 7 consecutive pills to be protected during the pill-free interval, so she should start the new pack immediately. However, the chances of pregnancy are low if she has taken 7 pills consecutively the prior week.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 67-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with urge incontinence. She has tried conservative measures, such as optimizing fluid and caffeine intake and completing six weeks of bladder training, which have helped to some extent. However, her main symptom of nocturia continues to affect her sleep and well-being. She has no other medical history and currently takes no regular medication. What is the next most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Oxybutinin
Explanation:Management Options for Urge Incontinence: Medications, Procedures, and Desmopressin
Urge incontinence is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. While conservative treatments such as pelvic floor exercises and bladder training are often the first line of management, some patients may require additional interventions. Here are some options for managing urge incontinence:
Oxybutinin: This anticholinergic medication is often used as first-line treatment for urge incontinence that has not responded to conservative measures. It works by inhibiting muscarinic action on acetylcholine receptors, preventing muscle contraction. However, it is contraindicated in certain patients and can cause side effects such as dry mouth and constipation.
Percutaneous sacral nerve stimulation: This procedure involves a small stimulator that delivers stimulation to the sacral nerve, leading to contraction of the external sphincter and pelvic floor muscles. It is reserved for patients who have failed other treatments or cannot perform intermittent self-catheterization.
Augmentation cystoplasty: This surgical procedure is reserved for severe cases of urge incontinence that have not responded to other management options. It involves resecting a segment of the small bowel and suturing it to the bladder to increase its size. However, it is associated with numerous complications and requires follow-up.
Botulinum toxin: This is the first-line invasive management for patients who have not improved on anticholinergic medication or do not want drug therapy. It is injected into the bladder to inhibit the release of acetylcholine and provide symptom relief for up to six months.
Desmopressin: This synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone is used as second-line management for nocturia in patients with urge incontinence. It works by signaling the transportation of aquaporins in the collecting ducts of the kidney, leading to water reabsorption and less urine production. However, it is contraindicated in certain patients and can cause side effects such as hyponatremia and fluid retention.
In summary, there are several options for managing urge incontinence, ranging from medications to procedures. It is important to consider the patient’s individual needs and contraindications when selecting a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to her GP with complaints of mild vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal discomfort. The GP referred her to the early pregnancy assessment unit where a transvaginal ultrasound scan revealed an ectopic pregnancy. What is the probable site of the ectopic pregnancy?
Your Answer: Ampulla of fallopian tube
Explanation:Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.
Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.
It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman visits your GP clinic with her mother to discuss contraceptive options. She reports heavy periods and prefers non-invasive methods. She also has a history of migraine with aura. What would be the most suitable option for her?
Your Answer: Progesterone only contraceptive pill (POCP)
Explanation:There are many options available for contraception, each with their own advantages and disadvantages. It is important to discuss these options to find the best fit for the patient. In this case, the progesterone only contraceptive pill is the most appropriate option due to the patient’s history of migraine with aura and heavy menstrual cycle. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for this patient. The intrauterine system is a popular option for menorrhagia, but the patient does not want an invasive device. The contraceptive implant is also invasive and not preferred by the patient. Condoms are a good barrier method, but the POCP will also help with the patient’s heavy and irregular periods.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient is worried about her amenorrhea for the past 3 months. She has a body mass index of 33 kg/m² and severe acne. A pregnancy test came back negative. Upon testing, her results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Testosterone 3.5 nmol/l 0.21-2.98 nmol/l
Luteinizing hormone (LH) 31 u/l 3-16 u/l
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 5 u/l 2-8 u/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Secondary Amenorrhoea: Polycystic Ovary Syndrome, Cushing’s Syndrome, Primary Ovarian Failure, Hypothalamic Disease, and Adrenal Tumour
Secondary amenorrhoea, the cessation of menstruation after previously menstruating, can have various causes. In a patient who is overweight, has acne, and slightly elevated testosterone and LH levels, polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a likely diagnosis. PCOS is characterized by small cysts in the ovaries and is linked to insulin resistance, hypertension, lipid abnormalities, and increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Hirsutism is also common in PCOS.
Cushing’s syndrome is a potential differential diagnosis for this patient, but blood results would show suppression of LH and FSH, not elevation. Primary ovarian failure is much rarer than PCOS and would show elevated serum FSH levels. Hypothalamic disease is less likely in this patient with multiple risk factors for PCOS, as it would result in decreased production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and lower than normal detectable serum levels of LH and FSH. An adrenal tumour, particularly an adenoma, could rarely lead to amenorrhoea, but would also present with other symptoms such as palpitations and weight loss. Other adrenal tumours that secrete sex hormones are even rarer and would also be associated with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with acute pelvic pain and is found to have pelvic inflammatory disease. What is the leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease is primarily caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of dysmenorrhoea. She has a history of asthma and cannot take ibuprofen due to a previous severe asthma attack triggered by the medication. An ultrasound scan reveals no pelvic pathology. What would be an appropriate treatment for her dysmenorrhoea?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Dysmenorrhoea: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
Primary dysmenorrhoea is a common condition that affects many women of reproductive age. When treating this condition, healthcare professionals have several options to consider. Here, we will discuss the most common treatments and their appropriateness for different patients.
Paracetamol is a suitable first-line treatment for patients with primary dysmenorrhoea who cannot take NSAIDs. If the patient does not wish to conceive, a hormonal contraceptive may also be considered as a first-line treatment.
Gabapentin is not recommended for the treatment of dysmenorrhoea, as it is primarily used for epilepsy and neuropathic pain.
Mefenamic acid and naproxen are both NSAIDs and are recommended as first-line treatments for primary dysmenorrhoea. However, they are contraindicated in patients with a history of asthma triggered by NSAID use.
Oral morphine is not typically used as a first-line treatment for dysmenorrhoea. If NSAIDs and paracetamol are not effective, transelectrical nerve stimulation (TENS) may be trialled. If none of these treatments are effective within 3-6 months, the patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for further assessment.
In summary, healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s medical history and preferences when selecting a treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea. Paracetamol and hormonal contraceptives are suitable first-line treatments, while NSAIDs and TENS may also be effective in some patients. Referral to a specialist may be necessary if initial treatments are not effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman is considering artificial insemination. What is the most reliable blood hormone marker for predicting ovulation?
Your Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH)
Explanation:Hormones Involved in the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is regulated by a complex interplay of hormones. Here are the key hormones involved and their functions:
Luteinising hormone (LH): This hormone triggers ovulation by causing the release of an egg from the ovary. An LH surge occurs prior to ovulation, and ovulation occurs about 12 hours after the peak in LH.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): FSH stimulates the development of follicles in the ovary. It peaks on day 3 of the menstrual cycle.
Oestrogen: Oestrogen is responsible for the growth of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus.
Progesterone: After ovulation, progesterone induces secretory activity of the endometrial glands in anticipation of implantation.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG): If fertilisation occurs, the developing conceptus begins to secrete hCG from the syncytiotrophoblast. This hormone is a convenient marker for pregnancy, not ovulation.
Understanding the roles of these hormones can help women better understand their menstrual cycle and fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain in recent months. The pain is not relieved by ibuprofen and is aggravated during sexual activity. During the clinical examination, adnexal tenderness is observed. The GP suspects that endometriosis may be the underlying cause of her dysmenorrhoea. What is the most suitable initial investigation for suspected endometriosis cases?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS)
Explanation:Investigations for Endometriosis: Methods and Recommendations
Endometriosis is a common cause of dysmenorrhoea, and various investigations are available to diagnose it. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS) as the first-line investigation for suspected endometriosis. TVUS can detect ovarian endometriomas or involvement of structures like the uterosacral ligament. However, a definitive diagnosis of endometriosis can only be made by laparoscopy, which is a minimally invasive procedure. Laparotomy with biopsy is rarely used due to longer recovery times and increased risk of complications. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pelvis is not recommended as the first-line investigation, but it may be considered if there is suspicion of deep endometriosis affecting other organs like the bowel or bladder. Transabdominal ultrasound is only considered if TVUS cannot be done. In conclusion, TVUS and laparoscopy are the preferred methods for investigating endometriosis, with other investigations being considered only in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman has given birth to her second and final child at 40 weeks gestation. She has been in the third stage of labor for 70 minutes and has lost 2900 ml of blood. Her previous baby was delivered via elective c-section. She has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. An antenatal ultrasound was performed due to her risk factors, but the results were not seen by the delivery team until now. What is the most effective treatment for the underlying issue?
Your Answer: Hysterectomy
Explanation:In cases where delayed placental delivery is observed in patients with placenta accreta, hysterectomy is the recommended treatment. This patient has a history of previous caesarean-section and pelvic inflammatory disease, indicating a likely placenta accreta, which was also diagnosed antenatally on ultrasound. The optimal management approach involves leaving the placenta in-situ and performing a hysterectomy to avoid potential haemorrhage from attempts to actively remove the placenta. While medical management with oxytocin and ergometrine may help manage post-partum haemorrhage, it is not a definitive treatment option. Cord traction is also unlikely to be effective as the placenta is abnormally implanted into the uterine wall. Waiting another 30 minutes is not advisable due to the risk of further bleeding.
Understanding Placenta Accreta
Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.
There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to see you for advice on contraception. She has just started taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) and is leaving for a vacation with her partner tomorrow. They have both been tested for STIs and the results were negative. She wants to know if it's safe to have unprotected sex while on holiday.
What guidance would you provide her?Your Answer: Use condoms for the first 7 days
Correct Answer: Use condoms for the first 48 hours
Explanation:To ensure effectiveness, it is important to note that the progesterone-only pill (POP) requires 48 hours before it can be relied upon as a form of contraception. During this time, it is recommended to use additional precautions such as condoms. However, after the initial 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary as long as the POP is taken at the same time each day within a 3-hour window. It is important to note that the POP does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so the use of condoms as a barrier method may be discussed for long-term protection. However, as the patient and her partner have recently tested negative for STIs, this may not be necessary at this time. In contrast, if the patient was prescribed the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), it is advised to use condoms for the first 7 days.
Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman complains of dyspareunia and abnormal vaginal discharge that looks like 'cottage cheese'. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and had her last period 5 days ago. What treatment should be recommended for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral fluconazole
Explanation:For non-pregnant women with vaginal thrush, the recommended first-line treatment is a single-dose of oral fluconazole. This is based on NICE guidelines for the diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis. The use of clotrimazole intravaginal pessary is only recommended if the patient is unable to take oral treatment due to safety concerns. Oral nystatin is not appropriate for this condition as it is used for oral candidiasis. While topical clotrimazole can be used to treat vaginal candidiasis, it is not the preferred first-line treatment and should only be used if fluconazole is not effective or contraindicated.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 16-year-old woman is admitted surgically with acute-onset lower abdominal pain. On examination, she has a tender left iliac fossa.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next test?Your Answer: Pregnancy test (ß-hCG)
Explanation:Investigations for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age
When a woman of childbearing age presents with abdominal pain, it is important to consider the possibility of gynaecological problems, including ectopic pregnancy. The first step in investigation should be to ask about the patient’s last menstrual period and sexual history, and to perform a pregnancy test measuring β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) levels in urine or serum.
Proctoscopy is unlikely to be beneficial in the absence of specific gastrointestinal symptoms. Ultrasonography may be useful at a later stage to assess the location and severity of an ectopic pregnancy, but transvaginal ultrasound is preferable to transcutaneous abdominal ultrasound.
Specialist gynaecological opinion should only be sought once there is a high index of suspicion for a particular diagnosis. Laparoscopy is not indicated at this point, as less invasive tests are likely to yield the diagnosis. Exploratory laparoscopy may be considered if other investigations are inconclusive.
Investigating Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of an oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer. What types of cancers are linked to the use of tamoxifen?
Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman undergoes a smear test, which reveals an ulcerated lesion on her cervix. The lesion was confirmed to be squamous cell carcinoma.
With which virus is this patient most likely infected?Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Explanation:Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix is often caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly strains 16 and 18. HPV infects the host and interferes with genes that regulate cell growth, leading to uncontrolled growth and inhibition of apoptosis. This results in precancerous lesions that can progress to carcinoma. Risk factors for cervical carcinoma include smoking, low socio-economic status, use of the contraceptive pill, early sexual activity, co-infection with HIV, and a family history of cervical carcinoma. HIV is not the cause of cervical squamous cell carcinoma, but co-infection with HIV increases the risk of HPV infection. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with other types of cancer, but not cervical squamous cell carcinoma. Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium associated with genitourinary infections, while herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes painful ulceration of the genital tract but is not associated with cervical carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking emergency contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual activity around 96 hours ago. She is presently undergoing treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) with antibiotics.
Which emergency contraceptive would be the most suitable option for this patient?Your Answer: Ulipristal acetate (EllaOne)
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 31
Correct
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You are a general practitioner and a 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of PV bleeding for the past 2 months. She underwent menopause at the age of 50, has a BMI of 33 kg/m², and consumes 20 units of alcohol per week. She has had only one sexual partner throughout her life and does not experience pain during intercourse or post-coital bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometrial hyperplasia
Explanation:Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.
The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A pair of individuals in their mid-thirties visit their GP seeking guidance on fertility. They have been engaging in unprotected sexual activity thrice a week for a year. The GP recommends conducting a semen analysis and measuring serum progesterone levels. What is the optimal time to measure serum progesterone levels?
Your Answer: On day 21 of the menstrual cycle
Correct Answer: 7 days prior to the expected next period
Explanation:To confirm ovulation, it is recommended to take a serum progesterone level 7 days before the expected next period. If the level is above 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation and other causes of infertility should be considered. However, if the level is below 30 nmol/l, it does not necessarily exclude the possibility of ovulation, but repeat testing is required. If the level remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. It is important to note that the length of a menstrual cycle can vary, so 7 days prior to the next period is a more accurate time to take the test than relying on day 21 of a 28-day cycle.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her gynaecologist with vaginal irritation and itching. On examination, the clinician notes a 3 cm by 2 cm lump extending from the left side of the vulva. A biopsy of the lump is taken for histological diagnosis.
Which of the following is the most common vulval carcinoma?Your Answer: Bartholin’s gland cancer
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinomas
Explanation:Types of Vulval Cancers and Their Characteristics
Vulval cancers are rare gynaecological malignancies that primarily affect elderly women. The most common type of vulval cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, which typically presents as a growth on the inner surface of the labia minora. Symptoms include vulval discomfort, itching, discharge, and bleeding. Biopsy and histological investigation are necessary to diagnose vulval lumps, and treatment involves vulvectomy and dissection of inguinal glands. Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinomas, Bartholin’s gland cancer, and sarcoma are other types of vulval cancers, each with their own unique characteristics and rarity. Early detection and treatment are crucial for a positive prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of not having had a period for 7 months. She stopped taking the pill 9 months ago to try to conceive. She reports having always had irregular and heavy periods, which is why she started taking the pill at 16. She admits to gaining around 4 kg recently. She took a pregnancy test yesterday, which was negative. There is no other relevant medical or family history. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Oral contraceptive discontinuation syndrome
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation:Women who would otherwise experience symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome may not realize they have the condition if they are using the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.
To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.
To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 25-year-old female graduate student presents to her primary care physician with complaints of weight gain and excessive hair growth on her face and upper chest. She reports having irregular periods, with only one occurring every 2-3 months. Upon examination, the patient is found to have elevated levels of testosterone at 3.5 nmol/l and an elevated LH:FSH ratio. Additionally, she is overweight with a BMI of 28 and has acne. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a woman with typical PCOS phenotype and biochemical markers
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder that affects reproductive-aged women. Its diagnosis is based on the presence of at least two of the following criteria: oligo-ovulation or anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. However, other conditions can mimic or coexist with PCOS, making the differential diagnosis challenging. Here are some possible explanations for a woman who presents with the typical PCOS phenotype and biochemical markers:
– Cushing syndrome: This rare disorder results from chronic exposure to high levels of cortisol, either endogenously (e.g., due to a pituitary or adrenal tumour) or exogenously (e.g., due to long-term glucocorticoid therapy). Cushing syndrome can cause weight gain, central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae, hypertension, glucose intolerance, and osteoporosis. However, it is not associated with a high LH: FSH ratio, which is a hallmark of PCOS.
– Androgen-secreting tumour: This is a rare cause of hyperandrogenism that can arise from the ovary, adrenal gland, or other tissues. The excess production of androgens can lead to virilization, hirsutism, acne, alopecia, menstrual irregularities, and infertility. However, the testosterone level in this case would be expected to be higher than 3.5 nmol/l, which is the upper limit of the normal range for most assays.
– Simple obesity: This is a common condition that can affect women of any age and ethnicity. Obesity can cause insulin resistance, hyperinsulinemia, dyslipidemia, inflammation, and oxidative stress, which can contribute to the development of PCOS. However, the abnormal testosterone and LH: FSH ratio suggest an underlying pathology that is not solely related to excess adiposity. Moreover, at a BMI of 28, the patient’s weight is not within the range for a clinical diagnosis of obesity (BMI ≥ 30).
– Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome: This is a rare genetic disorder that affects the androgen receptor, leading to a lack of response to androgens in target tissues. As a result, affected individuals have a female phenotype despite having XY chromosomes. They typically present with primary amenorrhea -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman has been discharged from hospital with a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with antiphospholipid antibodies. Her antibodies remained positive at 12 weeks and she is now on hydroxychloroquine monotherapy. She has a healthy BMI and blood pressure, does not smoke, and has no personal or family history of venous or arterial thrombosis or breast cancer. She is requesting to restart the combined pill. How would you advise her on this?
Your Answer: There is no risk or contraindication to her restarting the combined pill
Correct Answer: There is an unacceptably high clinical risk and she cannot use the pill anymore
Explanation:The appropriate answer is that the woman cannot use the pill anymore due to an unacceptably high clinical risk. She has developed systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with positive antiphospholipid antibodies, which is classified as UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use UKMEC 4, meaning it is an absolute contraindication. The risks of arterial and venous thrombosis would be too high if she were to restart the combined pill, and alternative contraceptive options should be considered. It is important to note that both SLE with positive antiphospholipid antibodies and isolated presence of antiphospholipid antibodies are classified as UKMEC 4 conditions, but not the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome. The advantages of using the pill generally outweigh the risks is an incorrect answer, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 2. The correct answer would be applicable if the woman did not test positive for any of the three antiphospholipid antibodies or if she did not test positive again after 12 weeks. The risks usually outweigh the advantages of using the combined pill is also incorrect, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 3. Lastly, there is no risk or contraindication to her restarting the combined pill is an incorrect answer, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 1.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and bleeding that has persisted for three days. Upon conducting a pregnancy test, it is discovered that she is pregnant. She is immediately referred to the emergency department where an ultrasound scan confirms a right-sided tubal ectopic pregnancy with a visible heartbeat.
The patient has previously had an ectopic pregnancy that was managed with a left-sided salpingectomy. Although she has no children, she hopes to have a family in the future. There is no history of any sexually transmitted infections.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: salpingostomy
Explanation:Surgical intervention is necessary for the management of ectopic pregnancy.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and reports having taken each pill regularly for the first 7 days of her cycle. However, she forgot to pack her contraception while on a weekend trip and missed 2 doses. She had unprotected sexual intercourse during this time. Upon returning home, she resumed taking her COCP on day 10 of her cycle. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: No emergency contraception required and barrier contraception for next 7 days
Explanation:If a woman misses two COCP doses between days 8-14 of her menstrual cycle, emergency contraception is not necessary as long as the previous seven doses were taken correctly. In this case, the woman missed doses on days 8 and 9 but resumed taking the medication on day 10, so emergency contraception is not needed. However, until seven consecutive days of the COCP are taken, using barrier contraception or abstaining from sex is recommended to prevent pregnancy. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception, and introducing it in this situation is unnecessary. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraception option that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex, but it is not needed in this case. If the patient had missed more than two COCP doses, levonorgestrel and barrier contraception for seven days would be appropriate. Ulipristal acetate is another emergency contraception option that must be taken within five days of unprotected sex, but it is also not necessary in this situation. If it were indicated, barrier contraception would need to be used for the next seven days until the COCP takes effect.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 39
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal bleeding for the past 2 weeks. What would be your initial investigation in the clinic?
Your Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound
Explanation:TVUS is the recommended initial investigation for PMB, unless there are contraindications. This is because it provides the most accurate measurement of endometrial thickness, which is crucial in determining if the bleeding is due to endometrial cancer.
Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding
Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.
To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.
Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female patient comes to see her doctor, 2 weeks after undergoing a medical abortion. She has concerns that the procedure may not have been successful as her home pregnancy test still shows a positive result. What is the expected timeframe for the pregnancy test to become negative if the abortion was effective?
Your Answer: Today
Correct Answer: Negative 2 weeks from today
Explanation:After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. If the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it may indicate an incomplete abortion or persistent trophoblast. In this case, the correct answer to when the pregnancy test should be negative is 2 weeks from now, as the termination occurred 2 weeks ago. A negative result one week ago is not relevant, and 4 weeks from today or 8 weeks from today are both incorrect as they fall outside of the 4-week window.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman and her 34-year-old partner visit the general practice clinic as they have been unsuccessful in conceiving after 14 months of trying. She reports having regular menstrual cycles every 28 days.
What is the most appropriate test to determine if she is ovulating?Your Answer: Basal body temperature estimation
Correct Answer: Day 21 progesterone level
Explanation:Fertility Testing Methods
When it comes to fertility testing, there are several methods available to determine a female’s ovulatory status. One of the easiest tests is the day 21 progesterone level. If the results are greater than 30 nmol/l in two cycles, then the patient is said to be ovulating.
Another method is the cervical fern test, which involves observing the formation of ferns in the cervical mucous under the influence of estrogen. However, measuring progesterone levels is a more accurate test as estrogen levels can vary.
Basal body temperature estimation is also commonly used, as the basal body temperature typically increases after ovulation. However, measuring progesterone levels is still considered the most accurate way to determine ovulation.
It’s important to note that day 2 luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are not reliable markers of ovulation. Additionally, endometrial biopsy is not a test used in fertility testing.
In conclusion, there are several methods available for fertility testing, but measuring progesterone levels is the most accurate way to determine ovulatory status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor for contraception options after having two children and deciding not to have any more. She expresses interest in long-acting reversible contraception and ultimately chooses the copper IUD. What other condition should be ruled out besides pregnancy?
Your Answer: Smoking history
Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation:If a woman has pelvic inflammatory disease, she cannot have a copper IUD inserted. Women who are at risk of this condition, such as those with multiple sexual partners or symptoms that suggest pelvic inflammatory disease, should be tested for infections like Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae and treated if necessary. To test for these infections, endocervical swabs are used. While the insertion of a copper IUD does carry a risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease, this risk is low for women who are at low risk of sexually transmitted infections.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 43
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and no other medications. What actions should be taken regarding her surgery and pill usage?
Your Answer: Stop the pill 4 weeks before surgery and restart 2 weeks after surgery
Explanation:It is a common scenario for surgical patients to face an increased risk of venous thromboembolism when they are on the pill and undergoing surgery, particularly abdominal or lower limb surgery. Therefore, it is necessary to discontinue the pill.
However, stopping the pill too early would increase the risk of pregnancy, and restarting it too soon after surgery would still pose a risk due to the surgery’s effects on coagulation. Ceasing the pill on the day of surgery would not eliminate the risk of clotting either.
The best course of action is to stop the pill four weeks before surgery to allow for a return to normal coagulation levels. Then, restarting it two weeks after surgery would allow the procoagulant effects of surgery to subside.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hot flashes that have been bothering her for the past 2 months, particularly at night, causing sleep and work disturbances. She expresses feeling exhausted and embarrassed at work, sweating profusely during the attacks, and carrying extra clothes to change. She is emotional and shares that she has been avoiding sexual intercourse due to pain. She has no medical history and is not on any medication. Her menstrual cycle is still ongoing but has become irregular, occurring once every 2-3 months. After a thorough discussion, she decides to start HRT. What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for this patient?
Your Answer: Oestradiol with norethisterone orally once daily
Correct Answer: Oestradiol one tablet daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone on the last 14 days
Explanation:Understanding Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) for perimenopausal Symptoms
perimenopausal symptoms can significantly affect a woman’s daily routine, work, and mood. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is one of the treatment options available for managing these symptoms. However, before commencing HRT, patients need to be consulted and informed of the risks and benefits associated with this treatment.
HRT can be either oestrogen replacement only or combined. Combined HRT is given to women who have a uterus, as oestrogen alone can increase the risk of developing endometrial cancer. Combined HRT can be either cyclical or continuous, depending on the patient’s menopausal status.
For women with irregular menses, a cyclical regime is indicated. This involves taking an oestrogen tablet once daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone added on the last 14 days. Patients on this regime have a period every three months. Once a woman has completed a year on cyclical therapy or has established menopause, then she can change to combined continuous HRT.
It is important to note that oestrogen-only HRT is only given to women who have had a hysterectomy. Oestrogen therapy alone increases the risk of developing endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma. Therefore, in women who have a uterus, combined HRT, with the addition of a progesterone, is preferred to reduce this risk.
In summary, HRT is a treatment option for perimenopausal symptoms. The type of HRT prescribed depends on the patient’s menopausal status and whether they have a uterus. Patients need to be informed of the risks and benefits associated with HRT before commencing treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP seeking guidance on conception, specifically regarding the use of supplements or medication. She has no significant medical or family history and has previously given birth to two healthy children in the past three years without complications. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, with a BMI of 31 kg/m2. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: 150 mg of aspirin
Correct Answer: 5mg of folic acid
Explanation:Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400 micrograms. Therefore, the lifestyle and dietary advice given to this patient is incorrect. Additionally, prescribing 75 mg of aspirin is not appropriate for this patient as it is typically given to women with one high-risk factor or two moderate-risk factors for pre-eclampsia, and a BMI over 35 would only qualify as a single moderate-risk factor. While 150 mg of aspirin is an alternative dose for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis, 75 mg is more commonly used in practice.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with severe itching in the perineal region, accompanied by pain during urination and painful intercourse. During examination, you observe white, polygonal papules on the labia majora that merge into a patch that affects the labia minora. There is one area of fissuring that bleeds upon contact. The skin appears white, thin, and shiny, with mild scarring. There is no vaginal discharge, and no other skin lesions are present on the body. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Common Genital Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Lichen sclerosus, candidiasis, contact dermatitis, lichen planus, and psoriasis are some of the most common skin conditions that affect the genital area. Each condition has its own set of symptoms and treatment options.
Lichen Sclerosus: This chronic inflammatory condition can affect any part of the body but is most commonly found in the genital area. It presents with pruritus, skin irritation, hypopigmentation, and atrophy. Treatment involves topical steroids and good hygiene.
Candidiasis: This fungal infection is associated with pruritus, burning sensation, erythema, and oedema of the vestibule. The most common characteristic is a thick, curd-like, white vaginal discharge.
Contact Dermatitis: This condition is often caused by changes to shower gel or washing detergent. It presents with pruritus, erythematosus skin, excoriations, and skin breaks, leading to ulceration and superimposed infection. Chronic contact dermatitis can lead to lichenoid changes.
Lichen Planus: This condition presents with purple, red plaques usually on the labia, with central erosion and overlying lacy, white, striated patch. It can cause scarring and narrowing of the introitus and dyspareunia.
Psoriasis: This condition is rare in the genital area but can appear in the inguinal creases and the labia majora. It presents with erythematous plaques with minimal white scale and is associated with itching and excoriations.
It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have any of these conditions. Treatment options may include topical or oral medications, good hygiene practices, and lifestyle changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with worsening left-sided abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly 4 hours ago and has been steadily getting worse. She reports that the pain started following intercourse. She is uncertain about the date of her last menstrual period as she currently has the Mirena coil fitted. She denies any vaginal bleeding or discharge. Apart from the pain, she has no other symptoms and her vital signs are stable.
Upon examination, her lower abdomen is tender on palpation but there is no guarding or rigidity. Pelvic exam including bimanual exam is unremarkable. The Mirena coil threads are clearly visualised. An ultrasound reveals free fluid in the pelvic cavity and a urinary pregnancy test is negative.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mittelschmerz
Correct Answer: Ruptured ovarian cyst
Explanation:When an ovarian cyst ruptures, it can cause sudden and severe pain on one side of the pelvis, especially after sexual activity or strenuous exercise. During a physical exam, the lower abdomen may be tender, but there may not be any other noticeable abnormalities. An ultrasound can reveal the presence of fluid in the pelvic area. It’s important to note that ovarian or adnexal torsion can also cause similar symptoms, including sharp pain on one side, nausea, and vomiting. However, in this case, a palpable mass may be felt during a physical exam, and an ultrasound may show an enlarged ovary with reduced blood flow.
Gynaecological Causes of Abdominal Pain in Women
Abdominal pain is a common complaint among women, and it can be caused by various gynaecological disorders. To diagnose these disorders, a bimanual vaginal examination, urine pregnancy test, and abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scanning should be performed in addition to routine diagnostic workup. If diagnostic doubt persists, a laparoscopy can be used to assess suspected tubulo-ovarian pathology.
There are several differential diagnoses of abdominal pain in females, including mittelschmerz, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, ectopic gestation, and pelvic inflammatory disease. Mittelschmerz is characterized by mid-cycle pain that usually settles over 24-48 hours. Endometriosis is a complex disease that may result in pelvic adhesion formation with episodes of intermittent small bowel obstruction. Ovarian torsion is usually sudden onset of deep-seated colicky abdominal pain associated with vomiting and distress. Ectopic gestation presents as an emergency with evidence of rupture or impending rupture. Pelvic inflammatory disease is characterized by bilateral lower abdominal pain associated with vaginal discharge and dysuria.
Each of these disorders requires specific investigations and treatments. For example, endometriosis is usually managed medically, but complex disease may require surgery and some patients may even require formal colonic and rectal resections if these areas are involved. Ovarian torsion is usually diagnosed and treated with laparoscopy. Ectopic gestation requires a salpingectomy if the patient is haemodynamically unstable. Pelvic inflammatory disease is usually managed medically with antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing postcoital bleeding for the past three months. She denies any pain during intercourse and has not noticed any abnormal vaginal discharge except for the bleeding. She continues to have regular menstrual cycles. What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?
Your Answer: Salpingo-oophoritis
Correct Answer: Cervical polyps
Explanation:Postcoital Bleeding
Postcoital bleeding is a condition that occurs when there is trauma to superficial lesions within the vaginal tract. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including cervical trauma, cervical polyps, endometrial and cervical carcinoma, cervicitis, and vaginitis. In some cases, invasive cervical carcinoma may be found in those who are referred to the hospital, accounting for 3.8% of cases.
Vaginitis is also a possibility, but it is more common in elderly patients with low estrogen levels. On the other hand, salpingo-oophoritis, which is usually caused by pelvic inflammatory disease from sexually transmitted infections, typically presents with deep dyspareunia and purulent vaginal discharge. However, post-coital bleeding is highly unlikely to be caused by salpingo-oophoritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has done some research but is still unsure about the risk of unintended pregnancy if she were to start taking this form of birth control. Can you explain the failure rate of the combined oral contraceptive pill when used correctly, given its Pearl Index of 0.2?
Your Answer: For every thousand women using this form of contraception for one year, two would become pregnant
Explanation:The Pearl Index is frequently utilized to measure the effectiveness of a contraception method. It indicates the number of pregnancies that would occur if one hundred women used the contraceptive method for one year. Therefore, if the Pearl Index is 0.2 and the medication is used perfectly, we can expect to see 0.2 pregnancies for every hundred women using the pill for one year – or 2 for every thousand.
Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.
Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.
It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A mother of three brings her youngest daughter, aged 15, to the general practitioner (GP) as she is yet to start menstruating, whereas both her sisters had menarche at the age of 12.
The patient has developed secondary female sexual characteristics and has a normal height. She reports struggling with headaches and one episode of galactorrhoea.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals an intracranial tumour measuring 11 mm in maximal diameter.
Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the first-line management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medical treatment with cabergoline
Explanation:The patient has primary amenorrhoea due to a macroprolactinoma, which is a benign prolactin-secreting tumor of the anterior pituitary gland. Treatment in the first instance is with a dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine or cabergoline. Surgery is the most appropriate management if conservative management fails or the patient presents with visual field defects. Radiotherapy is rarely used. Exclusion of pregnancy is the first step in every case of amenorrhoea. Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and a cause of hyperprolactinaemia, so it should not be used to treat this patient. Thyroxine is not appropriate as hyperprolactinaemia is secondary to a pituitary adenoma. Indications for surgery are failure to respond to medical therapy or presentation with acute visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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