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Question 1
Correct
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What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for amphetamine on drug screening tests?
Your Answer: Pseudoephedrine
Explanation:Pseudoephedrine belongs to the phenethylamine and amphetamine chemical classes and acts as a sympathomimetic drug. Its primary purpose is to alleviate nasal and sinus congestion.
Drug Screening
Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.
People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.
Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 2
Correct
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What is one of the primary purposes of utilizing the DUNDRUM toolkit?
Your Answer: Estimating the level of security required for a forensic patient
Explanation:DUNDRUM-4 Recovery Items
The DUNDRUM-4 Recovery Items is a structured professional judgement instrument that assesses a patient’s progress towards recovery and their readiness for discharge from a secure mental health facility. It consists of 17 items that cover various aspects of recovery, such as symptom management, social functioning, and engagement in therapeutic activities.
The instrument is designed to be used by mental health professionals to monitor a patient’s progress over time and to identify areas where additional support of interventions may be needed. It can also be used to inform discharge planning and to ensure that patients are discharged safely and with appropriate follow-up care.
Overall, the DUNDRUM toolkit provides a comprehensive approach to assessing and managing patients in secure mental health facilities, with a focus on promoting recovery and ensuring that patients receive the appropriate level of care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which group of individuals is most likely to experience a delay in the development of empathy skills?
Your Answer: Deaf children of deaf parents
Correct Answer: Deaf children of hearing parents
Explanation:Empathy Development in Deaf Preadolescents
Deaf preadolescents face challenges in developing empathy compared to their hearing peers, and the age at which they became deaf is a factor in this ability. Furthermore, deaf children with hearing parents are more likely to experience delays in developing empathy skills. These findings were reported in the American Annals of the Deaf.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the term used to describe a scenario where a study participant alters their behavior due to the awareness of being observed?
Your Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:Simpson’s Paradox is a real phenomenon where the comparison of association between variables can change direction when data from multiple groups are merged into one. The other three options are not valid terms.
Types of Bias in Statistics
Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.
There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate age range for diagnosing very early onset schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Under 8
Correct Answer: Under 13
Explanation:Schizophrenia in children is rare compared to adults, with a prevalence estimate of 0.05% for those under 15 years old. There are two classifications based on age of onset: early onset schizophrenia (EOS) when symptoms appear between 13-18 years old, and very early onset schizophrenia (VEOS) when symptoms appear at of before 13 years old. EOS and VEOS have atypical features compared to adult-onset schizophrenia, including insidious onset, more severe neurodevelopmental abnormalities, terrifying visual hallucinations, constant inappropriate of blunted affects, higher rates of familial psychopathology, minor response to treatment, and poorer outcomes. Preliminary data suggests that VEOS and EOS may be due to greater familial vulnerability from genetic, psychosocial, and environmental factors. Poor outcomes are most reliably linked to a positive history of premorbid difficulties, greater symptom severity (especially negative symptoms) at baseline, and longer duration of untreated psychosis. Age at psychosis onset and sex are not consistent predictors of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the purpose of using the DAI and MARS scales for assessment?
Your Answer: Compliance with medication
Explanation:Non-Compliance
Studies have shown that adherence rates in patients with psychosis who are treated with antipsychotics can range from 25% to 75%. Shockingly, approximately 90% of those who are non-compliant admit to doing so intentionally (Maudsley 12th edition). After being discharged from the hospital, the expected non-compliance rate in individuals with schizophrenia is as follows (Maudsley 12th Edition): 25% at ten days, 50% at one year, and 75% at two years. The Drug Attitude Inventory (DAI) is a useful tool for assessing a patient’s attitude towards medication and predicting compliance. Other scales that can be used include the Rating of Medication Influences Scale (ROMI), the Beliefs about Medication Questionnaire, and the Medication Adherence Rating Scale (MARS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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In chronic opiate use, which effect is most likely to continue over time?
Your Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Tolerance in Opiate Abuse
Tolerance is a common phenomenon that occurs in opiate abuse. It develops regarding the analgesic, euphoric, sedative, respiratory depressant, and nauseating effects of opioids. However, it does not develop to their effects on miosis and bowel motility, which can cause constipation. This means that individuals who abuse opioids may require higher doses to achieve the desired effects, leading to an increased risk of overdose and other adverse effects. Understanding the mechanisms involved in tolerance can help in developing effective interventions to prevent and treat opiate abuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 8
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is being seen in the Enuresis clinic. She continues to experience bedwetting at night despite utilizing an enuresis alarm for the last three months. She has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be recommended?
Your Answer: Oral desmopressin 200 micrograms once daily
Explanation:Desmopressin, a man-made version of vasopressin, is approved for treating bedwetting in children aged 5 to 17. The recommended dosage is a single daily dose of 200 mcg.
Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the main cannabinoid responsible for the psychoactive effects of cannabis?
Your Answer: Tetrahydrocannabinol
Explanation:Cannabis, also known as marijuana, grass, pot, weed, tea, of Mary Jane, is a plant that contains over 60 unique cannabinoids. The primary psychoactive component of cannabis is delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (Delta 9-THC), which is rapidly converted into 11-hydroxy-delta 9-THC, the active metabolite in the central nervous system. Specific cannabinoid receptors, including CB1 and CB2 receptors, have been identified in the body. CB1 receptors are found mainly at nerve terminals, where they inhibit transmitter release, while CB2 receptors occur mainly on immune cells and modulate cytokine release. The cannabinoid receptor is found in highest concentrations in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, and cerebellum, with lower concentrations in the cerebral cortex. Cannabis use has been associated with the amotivational syndrome, characterized by apathy, anergy, weight gain, and a lack of persistence in tasks requiring prolonged attention of tenacity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the DSM-5's definition of 'gender dysphoria'?
Your Answer: To meet the diagnostic threshold the condition must be associated with significant distress
Explanation:The main requirement is a mismatch between an individual’s biological sex and their gender identity, which causes significant distress.
Gender identity is the person’s identification of lived role in society, which is separate from their biological sex. Gender can include non-binary and pangender identities, and cisgender refers to people whose gender is congruent with their biological sex. Gender identity is not the same as sexual preference, which is covered by separate diagnostic categories. The ICD-11 has redefined gender identity-related health, replacing diagnostic categories like “transsexualism” and “gender identity disorder of children” with “gender incongruence of adolescence and adulthood” and “gender incongruence of childhood”, respectively. The DSM-5 uses the term ‘gender dysphoria’ to cover the whole range of gender identity disorders, which is characterized by a marked incongruence between one’s experienced/expressed gender and their assigned gender, lasting at least 6 months, and associated with clinically significant distress of impairment in social, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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What is a characteristic of enuresis that is not related to organic causes?
Your Answer: The most important predictor of the condition is a positive family history
Explanation:The diagnosis of non-organic enuresis is typically not made until a child reaches the age of 5, rather than 3.
Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the most probable cause of a male patient with mania developing a painful, red eye with visual loss after being started on a new medication for 2 weeks?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by the man indicate that he may have closed angle glaucoma, which is a known side effect of topiramate.
Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.
Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm engaging in self-harm again within a year?
Your Answer: 30%
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Approximately 16% of individuals who visit an emergency department after self-harm will engage in self-harm again within the next year.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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Which factor poses the greatest risk to children born to women with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Low APGAR score
Explanation:Risks to Children of Mothers with Eating Disorders
Children of mothers with eating disorders are at risk of various complications, including premature birth, increased perinatal mortality, cleft lip and cleft palate, epilepsy, developmental delays, abnormal growth, food fussiness, feeding difficulties, low birth weight, microcephaly, and low APGAR scores. Previous exam questions have focused on low APGAR scores.
Eating disorders in pregnancy can also lead to associated complications, such as inadequate of excessive weight gain, hyperemesis gravidarum, hypotension (in anorexia) of hypertension (in bulimia), syncope/presyncope from cardiac arrhythmias and electrolyte disturbances, anemia (in anorexia), pregnancy termination (spontaneous of therapeutic), small for term infant, stillbirth, breech pregnancy, pre-eclampsia, cesarean section, post-episiotomy suture tearing, vaginal bleeding, increased rate of perinatal difficulties, postpartum depression risk, cardiac changes, and refeeding syndrome (occurs primarily in patients who are aggressively refed).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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What symptom is commonly observed in individuals with bipolar disorder and psychosis?
Your Answer: Prominent affective symptoms and mood congruent delusions
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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What is a true statement about lamotrigine?
Your Answer: Valproate increases lamotrigine concentrations more than 2-fold
Explanation:Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.
Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A university lecturer is interested in determining if the psychology students would like more training on working with children. They know that there are 5000 psychology students and of these 60% are under the age of 25 and 40% are 25 of older. To avoid any potential age bias, they create two separate lists of students, one for those under 25 and one for those 25 of older. From these lists, they take a random sample from each list to ensure that they have an equal number of students from each age group. They then ask each selected student if they would like more training on working with children.
How would you describe the sampling strategy of this study?Your Answer: Cluster sampling
Correct Answer: Stratified sampling
Explanation:Sampling Methods in Statistics
When collecting data from a population, it is often impractical and unnecessary to gather information from every single member. Instead, taking a sample is preferred. However, it is crucial that the sample accurately represents the population from which it is drawn. There are two main types of sampling methods: probability (random) sampling and non-probability (non-random) sampling.
Non-probability sampling methods, also known as judgement samples, are based on human choice rather than random selection. These samples are convenient and cheaper than probability sampling methods. Examples of non-probability sampling methods include voluntary sampling, convenience sampling, snowball sampling, and quota sampling.
Probability sampling methods give a more representative sample of the population than non-probability sampling. In each probability sampling technique, each population element has a known (non-zero) chance of being selected for the sample. Examples of probability sampling methods include simple random sampling, systematic sampling, cluster sampling, stratified sampling, and multistage sampling.
Simple random sampling is a sample in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being chosen. Systematic sampling involves selecting every kth member of the population. Cluster sampling involves dividing a population into separate groups (called clusters) and selecting a random sample of clusters. Stratified sampling involves dividing a population into groups (strata) and taking a random sample from each strata. Multistage sampling is a more complex method that involves several stages and combines two of more sampling methods.
Overall, probability sampling methods give a more representative sample of the population, but non-probability sampling methods are often more convenient and cheaper. It is important to choose the appropriate sampling method based on the research question and available resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the name of the database that focuses on literature created by non-traditional commercial of academic publishing and distribution channels?
Your Answer: OpenGrey
Explanation:SIGLE is a database that specializes in collecting and indexing grey literature.
Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 19
Correct
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A physician contacts you for advice regarding a depressed patient with HIV who is taking atazanavir. They are considering prescribing an antidepressant but are concerned about potential contraindications. Which antidepressant should be avoided due to its contraindication with atazanavir?
Your Answer: St John's Wort
Explanation:It is important to remember that St John’s Wort should not be taken with most antiretroviral drugs as it can reduce their efficacy.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is a personality disorder screening tool that focuses on identifying dimensional aspects of personality rather than using a categorical approach?
Your Answer: IPDE
Correct Answer: FFMRF
Explanation:The Five Factor Model of Personality (FFM) has been suggested as a possible substitute for the current DSM-IV-TR model, which views personality disorders (PDs) as distinct categories. Douglas B. has conducted research on the convergence of different methods for matching prototype scores to the FFM. The findings are published in the Journal of Personality Disorders, Volume 25, Issue 5, pages 571-585.
There are several screening tools available for personality disorder, including SAPAS, FFMRF, IPDE, PDQ-R, IPDS, and IIP-PD. SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete, while FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5. IPDE is a semi-structured clinical interview that includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview, while PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions. IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes, while IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4. A score of 3 of more on SAPAS warrants further assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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What is the most significant risk factor for developing schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Being a migrant
Explanation:The AESOP study provides current evidence that being a migrant is a significant risk factor for the onset of schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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If the weight of patients enrolled for a trial follows a normal distribution with a mean of 90kg and a standard deviation of 5kg, what is the probability that a randomly selected patient weighs between 85 and 95 kg?
Your Answer: 68.20%
Explanation:Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 23
Incorrect
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How common is attempted suicide among individuals who identify with the goth subculture over their lifetime?
Your Answer: 7%
Correct Answer: 47%
Explanation:Suicide and Self-Harm in the Goth Community
Deliberate self-harm is a common issue among young people, with rates ranging from 7% to 14% in the UK. This behavior is often used as a maladaptive coping mechanism to alleviate negative emotions such as anxiety, anger, guilt, of frustration. However, it is usually not associated with an immediate suicide attempt.
A large study has found that individuals who identify with the Goth community have a higher prevalence of self-harm and attempted suicide. The study reported a lifetime prevalence of 53% for self-harm (using any method) and 47% for attempted suicide. These findings suggest that the Goth community may be at a higher risk for suicidal behavior and self-harm. It is important to address this issue and provide support for those who may be struggling with these challenges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
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One of the following statements that describes a type I error is the rejection of a true null hypothesis.
Your Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
Explanation:Making a false positive conclusion by rejecting the null hypothesis.
Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are consulted for guidance on a teenage patient with schizophrenia who has been brought to the emergency department by the police. The patient is believed to be on olanzapine 20 mg but there are concerns about non-adherence. Initially, the patient was calm but after the police left, he started to exhibit increasing agitation. The medical team has been using physical restraints to manage the patient, but this cannot be sustained for much longer. You are asked to suggest an intravenous medication for rapid sedation. What would be an appropriate choice?
Your Answer: IV aripiprazole
Correct Answer: IV olanzapine
Explanation:According to BAP, IV olanzapine is one of the options for rapid tranquilization.
Violence and aggression can be managed through rapid tranquillisation, although the evidence base for this approach is not strong. Different guidelines provide varying recommendations for rapid tranquillisation, including NICE, Maudsley Guidelines, and the British Association for Psychopharmacology (BAP). NICE recommends using IM lorazepam of IM haloperidol + IM promethazine for rapid tranquillisation in adults, taking into account factors such as previous response and patient preference. BAP provides a range of options for oral, inhaled, IM, and IV medications, including inhaled loxapine, buccal midazolam, and oral antipsychotics. Maudsley Guidelines suggest using oral lorazepam, oral promethazine, of buccal midazolam if prescribed a regular antipsychotic, of oral olanzapine, oral risperidone, of oral haloperidol if not already taking an antipsychotic. IM options include lorazepam, promethazine, olanzapine, aripiprazole, and haloperidol, although drugs should not be mixed in the same syringe. Haloperidol should ideally be used with promethazine to reduce the risk of dystonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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How does the model of behaviour change proposed by Prochaska and DiClemente define the ultimate phase of change?
Your Answer: Maintenance
Explanation:The Stages of Change Model does not view relapse as a stage in the process.
Stages of Change Model
Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.
The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.
The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 27
Correct
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What would be your recommendation for a pregnant woman with bipolar disorder who is currently taking antipsychotic medication and wishes to continue the pregnancy, but may be at risk of relapse without treatment?
Your Answer: Continue with the current dose of the antipsychotic and monitor regularly
Explanation:According to the NICE Guidelines, if women discontinue treatment during pregnancy, the likelihood of relapse is increased, and therefore, it is recommended to continue with the antipsychotic medication.
Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential
Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.
Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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If a woman with a history of mild depression comes to the clinic and reports that she is pregnant, and has been in remission for 5 months after taking sertraline 50mg, what would you suggest?
Your Answer: Reduce to sertraline 25mg and continue
Correct Answer: Withdraw the sertraline and monitor
Explanation:Although sertraline can be used to treat depression during pregnancy, it is important to note that no psychotropic medication is completely safe. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid medication if possible and carefully consider the risk versus benefit. In cases of mild depression, it may be reasonable to explore non-medication options.
Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
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What is the closest estimate of the relative risk of developing schizophrenia for first-generation migrants?
Your Answer: 3
Explanation:Schizophrenia and Migration: A Meta-Analysis and Review
Migration is a significant risk factor for the development of schizophrenia, according to a comprehensive review of the topic. The study found that the mean weighted relative risk for first-generation migrants was 2.7, while the relative risk for second-generation migrants was 4.5. When analyzing both first- and second-generation migrants, the relative risk was 2.9. The study also found that migrants from developing countries and areas with a majority black population had significantly greater effect sizes. These findings highlight the importance of considering migration status when assessing risk for schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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What intervention has been proven to effectively decrease suicidal behavior?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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