00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 32 year-old active male presents with a three month history of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year-old active male presents with a three month history of pain in his feet and lower legs. He was previously diagnosed with diabetes at age 14 and treated with insulin. He admits to drinking 30 units of alcohol per week and is a current cannabis smoker. On examination, pain and temperature sensation in his feet are diminished, but joint position and vibratory sensation appear normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syringomyelia

      Correct Answer: Diabetic polyneuropathy

      Explanation:

      The given history suggests a small fibre painful peripheral sensory neuropathy, the most common cause of which is diabetes. Joint position sense and vibratory sensation are carried through large fibres, and therefore are not currently affected. Sensory nerves are affected more often than motor, so reflexes usually remain in tact.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency causes impairment of joint position and vibratory sensation.

      Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIPD) causes a large fibre peripheral neuropathy with areflexia.

      In syringomyelia there is impaired pain and temperature noted in the upper limbs.

      Finally, with alcoholic polyneuropathy, all fibre types are affected (sensory and motor loss). It is usually gradual with long term alcohol abuse and may be accompanied by a nutritional deficiency. In addition, pain is a more dominant feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old gentleman presents with drop foot following a sports injury. On examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old gentleman presents with drop foot following a sports injury. On examination there is weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, and weakness of extension of the big toe. He has some sensory loss restricted to the dorsum of his foot surrounding the base of his big toe. Other examination is within normal limits. Where is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve at the popliteal fossa

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the head of the fibula

      Explanation:

      Peroneal nerve injury is also known as foot drop. The common peroneal nerve supplies the ankle and toe extensor muscle groups as well as sensation over the dorsum of the foot; thus, there is also loss of sensation in these cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Causes of dilated pupils include which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Causes of dilated pupils include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol poisoning

      Explanation:

      Ethylene glycol poisoning is the only poison listed that will cause dilation of the pupils whereas all the other listed conditions and poisons will present with small pupils other than in the case of Myotonic dystrophy wherein the patient will present with a cortical cataract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 37-year-old teacher with multiple sclerosis complains that her vision becomes blurred during...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old teacher with multiple sclerosis complains that her vision becomes blurred during a hot bath. Which of the following explain this?

      Your Answer: Werdnig-Hoffman's sign

      Correct Answer: Uhthoff's phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Uhthoff’s phenomenon is worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature.
      Lhermitte’s sign describes paraesthesia in the limbs on neck flexion.
      Oppenheim’s sign is seen when scratching of the inner side of leg leads to extension of the toes. It is a sign of cerebral irritation and is not related to multiple sclerosis.
      Werdnig-Hoffman’s disease is also known as spinal muscular atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      82.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 33-year-old artist who recently arrived in the UK from New York presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old artist who recently arrived in the UK from New York presents in ED. He has a past history of insulin-dependant diabetes mellitus. He describes a few days of fever, headache and myalgia. Admission was prompted by worsening headache and back pain. While waiting in the medical receiving unit, he becomes progressively drowsier. Examination revealed flaccid paralysis and depressed tendon reflexes. He was reviewed by the intensive care team and arrangements were made for ventilation. A computerised tomography (CT) brain is performed that is normal. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals: Protein 0.9 g/l (<0.45 g/l) Glucose 4 mmol/L, White cell count (WCC) 28/mm3 (mostly lymphocytes) Blood testing reveals: Haemoglobin (Hb) 14 g/dl (13–18) Platelets 620 x 109/l (150–400 x 109) WCC 12 x 109/l (4–11 x 109) Sodium 135 mmol/l (137–144) Potassium 4.6 mmol/l (3.5–4.9) Urea 8 mmol/l (2.5–7.5) Creatinine 120 mmol/l (60–110) Glucose 6 mmol/L, Which of the following is the most likely infective process?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: West Nile disease

      Explanation:

      West Nile virus (WNV) is a single-stranded RNA flavivirus transmitted via the culex mosquito. This previously ‘tropical’ disease has became topical in recent years following a large scale outbreak in the New York area. Incidence of neurological involvement is around 1%, although some suggest that the incidence of meningoencephalitis in America is higher than in other parts of the world. Risk factors for neurological involvement include increasing age, and immunosuppression. The usual picture is of sudden onset fever and myalgia with nausea and vomiting and a non-specific rash. Transient meningitis is occasionally seen. Frank meningoencephalitis is seen in two-thirds of cases with neurological involvement; 15% progress to coma. A flaccid paralysis similar to acute Guillain–Barré is increasingly recognised.
      Diagnosis is initially clinical with subsequent serological confirmation. Treatment is supportive; results from trials of antivirals have yielded disappointing results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old psychologist with small cell lung cancer complains of muscle weakness. Each...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old psychologist with small cell lung cancer complains of muscle weakness. Each one of the following are features of Lambert-Eaton syndrome, except:

      Your Answer: Hyporeflexia

      Correct Answer: Repeated muscle contractions lead to decreased muscle strength

      Explanation:

      In myasthenia gravis, repeated muscle contractions lead to reduced muscle strength. The opposite is however classically seen in the related disorder Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is seen in association with small cell lung cancer, and to a lesser extent breast and ovarian cancer. It may also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by an antibody directed against pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 69 year-old librarian with motor neuron disease is seen in clinic. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 69 year-old librarian with motor neuron disease is seen in clinic. Which of the following interventions will have the greatest effect on survival?

      Your Answer: Riluzole

      Correct Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Explanation:

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before age 40 and various patterns of disease are recognised, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and bulbar palsy.
      Non-invasive ventilation (usually BIPAP) is used at night, with studies having shown a survival benefit of around 7 months. Riluzole prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors, used mainly in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by about 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67 year-old attorney presents with a 2 month history of tremors affecting...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year-old attorney presents with a 2 month history of tremors affecting his left arm. He suffers from depressive psychosis for the last 10 years, for which he has been receiving intermittent chlorpromazine and amitriptyline but has not been on any therapy for the last 4 months. He describes that his two brothers also had tremors. Upon examination, he has a resting tremor of his left hand with cogwheel rigidity of that arm and mild generalized bradykinesia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drug-induced parkinsonism

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease because of the unilateral presentation. In addition, cogwheel rigidity is a classic presenting symptom. Neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism is usually bilateral and symmetrical. Essential tremors do not cause rest tremors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32 year-old man presents with his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS). He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year-old man presents with his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS). He has been complaining of headaches for the past 2 weeks, although he has been able to continue working at his job. Upon examination, he has mild left hemiparesis and bilateral extensor plantar responses. General examination is otherwise unremarkable. An urgent CT scan of the brain shows a 5cm multicentric mass lesion in the right frontal lobe with surrounding vasogenic oedema and some hemisphere shift. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathology?

      Your Answer: Oligodendroglioma

      Correct Answer: Glioblastoma

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, also considered as grade IV astrocytoma, is the most malignant form of the tumour and accounts for about 20% of all cerebral tumours. These often remain clinically silent until they have reached a large enough size. In adults, glioblastoma multiforme usually occurs in the cerebral hemispheres, especially the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. About half occupy more than one hemisphere at presentation, and some are multicentric. Biopsy shows high cellularity with mitoses, pleomorphism, and vascular hyperplasia. Prognosis is extremely poor, with only 20% surviving beyond 1 year and 10% beyond 2 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 18-year-old gentleman is referred to dermatology. He has around 10 hyperpigmented macules...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old gentleman is referred to dermatology. He has around 10 hyperpigmented macules on his torso which vary in size from 1.5-5 cm in size. His GP also noted some freckles in the groin region. He is also currently under orthopaedic review due to a worsening scoliosis of the spine. His father suffered from similar problems before having a fatal myocardial infarction two years ago. Which chromosome is most likely to have a gene defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 17

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history and presentation and familial history, meets the diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type I, presenting with neurofibromas noted in this patient as hyperpigmented macules and freckles, musculoskeletal disorders like the scoliosis in this case, and a familial history. Neurofibromatosis type I is caused by a mutation on Chromosome 17.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (4/9) 44%
Passmed