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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her left cheek. She reports that the lesion has been present for a while but has recently increased in size. Upon examination, it is evident that she has significant sun damage on her face, legs, and arms due to living in South Africa. The lesion appears flat, pigmented, and has an irregular border.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Lentigo maligna

      Explanation:

      Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics

      Lentigo Maligna: This pre-invasive lesion has the potential to develop into malignant melanoma. It appears as a pigmented, flat lesion against sun-damaged skin. Surgical excision is the ideal intervention, but cryotherapy and topical immunotherapy are possible alternatives.

      Squamous Cell Carcinoma: This common type of skin cancer presents as enlarging scaly or crusted nodules, often associated with ulceration. It may arise in areas of actinic keratoses or Bowen’s disease.

      Basal Cell Carcinoma: This skin cancer usually occurs in photo-exposed areas of fair-skinned individuals. It looks like pearly nodules with surface telangiectasia.

      Pityriasis Versicolor: This is a common yeast infection of the skin that results in an annular, erythematous scaling rash on the trunk.

      Actinic Keratosis: These scaly lesions occur in sun-damaged skin in fair-skinned individuals and are considered to be a pre-cancerous form of SCC.

      Understanding Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - At what stage are GPs typically involved in myeloma? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage are GPs typically involved in myeloma?

      Your Answer: Bence Jones protein testing is unreliable

      Correct Answer: ESR and plasma viscosity are nearly always raised

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of abnormal plasma cells that produce an excess of monoclonal antibodies, also known as paraproteins. Here are some key diagnostic markers and symptoms of multiple myeloma:

      – Bence Jones protein is a reliable diagnostic marker.
      – Bone pain is common, usually in the back, but not in the skull.
      – White blood cell count is usually normal or low, with a classic leucoerythroblastic anemia.
      – Paraprotein may be absent in 20% of cases, but there are light chains in the urine.
      – Serum calcium can be normal or raised, and both ESR (usually) and CRP (nearly always) are raised.
      – IL6 is a key myeloma growth cytokine. Serum IL6 is raised in active myelomatosis and it primarily controls CRP production. A rise in IL6 is mirrored by a rise in CRP.
      – Bone lesions are lytic.

      It is important to note that multiple myeloma can present differently in each individual, and a proper diagnosis requires a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional. If you are experiencing any symptoms or have concerns about multiple myeloma, please consult with your doctor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man presents with chronic back pain, which worsened one week ago....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents with chronic back pain, which worsened one week ago. He has been wheelchair-bound for six months because of severe osteoporosis with multiple lumbosacral spine fractures. He has severe asthma, which has required large doses of glucocorticoids for many years. The patient reports a progressive loss of height and kyphosis over the past year. Other medications include salbutamol and ipratropium inhalers and long-acting theophylline 300 mg twice a day. Significant physical findings include bilateral cataracts, multiple ecchymoses and a prolonged expiratory phase with bilateral wheezes. Calcium and phosphate are in the middle of the normal range.
      Which of the following treatments would be the first choice in this patient for treatment of his bone disease?

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonate therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis in Chronic Asthma Patients on Glucocorticoid Therapy

      Chronic use of glucocorticoid therapy for asthma can lead to significant osteoporosis. Bisphosphonates are the first-line therapy for improving bone mass in the lumbar spine and hip. While daily preparations were associated with significant gastrointestinal side effects, weekly and monthly options are now available with less propensity for adverse effects. An IV infusion is also a potential delivery option for bisphosphonates. Testosterone replacement is not indicated in this situation, as there is no indication of androgen deficiency. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation alone are inadequate as treatments for osteoporosis. Long-term calcitonin therapy is not recommended due to increased risk of osteosarcoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      83.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You saw a 75-year-old nursing home resident 10 days ago and treated her...

    Incorrect

    • You saw a 75-year-old nursing home resident 10 days ago and treated her for a severe lower respiratory tract infection. She made it clear that she doesn't want to attend the hospital under any condition or have resuscitation attempted. Her health has been progressively declining over the past few years and she had a poor baseline of health when you saw her. Her family called the practice this morning to let you know that she passed away in her sleep a few hours ago.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Discuss the case with social services

      Correct Answer: Complete a medical certificate of cause of death within 5 days of the death

      Explanation:

      In straightforward cases of death, a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD) can be completed by the doctor who attended the last illness. Deaths must be registered within 5 days, and if the certifying doctor has not seen the patient within 28 days preceding death, the death must be referred to the coroner. During the Coronavirus pandemic, temporary changes were made to the legislation around completion of MCCD and cremation. Video consultations are acceptable methods of ‘seeing’ a person in the last 28 days of their life but not after death. Doctors are advised to include certain information on all Cremation Forms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days with a low-grade fever. He has developed painful ulcers in his mouth and gums. During examination, submandibular lymphadenopathy is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epstein Barr virus

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      Primary herpes simplex virus infection is indicated by gingivostomatitis, which this man is experiencing.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man mentions that he has a family history of glaucoma. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man mentions that he has a family history of glaucoma. Which from the list is most likely to give evidence of primary open-angle glaucoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual field testing

      Explanation:

      Visual Field Testing for Glaucoma

      Primary open-angle (chronic) glaucoma is a condition that often goes undetected, with up to 50% of cases remaining unnoticed. By the time symptoms arise, up to 90% of optic nerve fibers may have already been irreversibly damaged. However, routine optician checks can help identify abnormal discs, raised intraocular pressure, or reduced visual fields, which are all potential indicators of glaucoma.

      Visual field testing is a crucial tool in detecting glaucoma. Perimetry machines objectively document what a patient perceives in their peripheral vision. This is more reliable than simple field testing, such as moving wiggling fingers or the end of a hatpin across each quadrant towards the center of the eye.

      Other tests, such as examination of pupillary responses, cover tests, and palpation of the eyes for hardness, are not reliable indicators of glaucoma. Visual acuity testing is also not a reliable indicator, as visual field loss from glaucoma typically spares fixation and visual acuity is preserved until the condition is advanced.

      In conclusion, visual field testing is a crucial tool in detecting glaucoma, and routine optician checks can help identify potential indicators of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old man visits his doctor to renew his sick note. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man visits his doctor to renew his sick note. He has been unable to work for the past 3 months due to feeling generally unwell and experiencing pain, swelling, and stiffness in both of his hands. Upon examination, there is an ulnar deviation of both hands and swelling and tenderness of all the proximal interphalangeal joints and metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints of both hands. He is unable to make a fist and has a positive MCP squeeze test. What skin feature is most likely to be present during the examination of this condition? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Painless nodule on his elbow

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Rheumatoid Arthritis from Other Joint Conditions: A Case Study

      A patient presents with various joint symptoms, and it is important to differentiate between different conditions to provide appropriate treatment. The presence of painless nodules on the elbow and distal interphalangeal joints of the hands are typical of rheumatoid arthritis, an inflammatory condition that can cause irreversible joint damage if not diagnosed and treated promptly. On the other hand, Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes, bony swellings at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints respectively, are caused by osteoarthritis, a degenerative joint disease.

      An annular erythematous rash on the trunk is associated with rheumatic fever, which can develop after a streptococcal infection. This condition can cause migratory polyarthritis affecting the wrists, elbows, knees, and ankles. In contrast, an enlarging erythematous bull’s eye lesion on the leg is typical of Lyme disease, which can cause arthritis but usually affects the large joints.

      In summary, careful consideration of the specific symptoms and signs can help differentiate between different joint conditions and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 8 - You are reviewing an 80-year-old gentleman. He is known to suffer with osteoarthritis...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing an 80-year-old gentleman. He is known to suffer with osteoarthritis affecting both knees but over the last couple of years his left knee has deteriorated and is giving him increasing pain and has started to affect his mobility.

      He is a very active gentleman who walks his dog daily and maintains an independent lifestyle. He uses regular co-codamol 30/500 and PRN ibuprofen orally, and also topical capsaicin. He has recently been having some sessions with the physiotherapists and has had three steroid injections in the knee over the last year.

      Although things are just about manageable at the moment he is concerned that the way his knee is going he will soon not be able to walk the dog and remain as independent. On occasion he has needed to use a walking stick when his knee has flared up and he tells you he is concerned about further worsening and having to rely on a walking aid more permanently. He is also concerned that his use of pain medication has escalated and that he has needed the steroid injections periodically.

      He is overweight (BMI 29 kg/m2) and also smokes between 10 and 20 cigarettes a day.

      He asks you about being referred for consideration of joint replacement surgery.

      Which if the following is the correct approach in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient should be counselled about the risks and benefits of surgery and referral should be made without any further delay if the patient decides it is an appropriate option

      Explanation:

      Referring Patients for Joint Replacement Surgery

      Referring patients for joint replacement surgery can be a challenging decision. With the increasing demand for this procedure, healthcare professionals must consider various factors before making a referral. These factors include the severity of the patient’s symptoms, their overall health and any comorbidities, their functional abilities and expectations, and the effectiveness of non-surgical treatments.

      Orthopaedic assessment tools such as the Oxford hip and knee scores can be helpful in evaluating the impact of osteoarthritis on daily activities. However, they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions. Similarly, x-rays may provide additional information, but they should not be relied upon as the only factor in making a referral decision.

      It is important to note that factors such as smoking status, age, and comorbidities should not be used as obstacles to referral. While they may increase postoperative risks and affect long-term outcomes, some patients may still benefit greatly from joint replacement surgery.

      In summary, joint replacement surgery should be considered for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant symptoms that do not respond to non-surgical treatments. Referral should occur before functional limitations and severe pain develop, and the decision should be made collaboratively between the healthcare professional and the patient. Scoring tools and x-rays can be helpful adjuncts, but they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
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  • Question 9 - What is true about acute post-infective polyneuropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about acute post-infective polyneuropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerves are not involved

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome: A Brief Overview

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a polyneuropathy that can affect cranial nerves, particularly the facial nerves. It is a lower motor neurone lesion that is often preceded by lumbar or intracapsular pain. While full recovery is possible, some residual weakness is common. In the acute phase, muscle wasting doesn’t occur, but it may develop in the long term. Respiratory muscle involvement can cause reduced peak flow, which may require ventilation. Additionally, sensory disturbance is typically present. Overall, Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic exhibiting typical symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. He also reports experiencing eye itchiness.

      What is the most probable diagnosis to accompany seborrhoeic dermatitis in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis, dry eye syndrome, and acne rosacea are conditions that may be linked to blepharitis. To treat this, patients should clean their eyelids twice a day and apply a warm compress with their eyes closed for 5-10 minutes. There is no known reason for an elevated risk of the other conditions mentioned.

      Understanding Blepharitis

      Blepharitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the eyelid margins. It can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection. Patients with rosacea are more prone to developing blepharitis. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, and any problem affecting these glands can lead to dry eyes and irritation.

      Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness and discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Staphylococcal blepharitis may cause swollen eyelids, styes, and chalazions. Secondary conjunctivitis may also occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin using hot compresses twice a day and mechanical removal of debris from the lid margins through lid hygiene. A mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water can be used for cleaning. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in patients with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 11 - You see a 68-year-old widow in your clinic for a routine blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 68-year-old widow in your clinic for a routine blood pressure check. While you chat she mentions that she misses her old role as a volunteer at the local library from which she had to retire when she reached 65. However, she mentions that she has kept in touch with some of the young adults from the library and that they come around to her house to help out with errands and other tasks. How should you respond to this disclosure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You ask the patient about this arrangement, and as it seems to you that there is nothing to be concerned about, you take no further action

      Explanation:

      Safeguarding Children in Healthcare

      Safeguarding children has undergone significant changes in recent years, following the Children Act 2004 and the Victoria Climbié Inquiry. As a result, healthcare professionals must navigate a complex landscape of guidance documents, terminology, and organizational changes. The Royal College of General Practitioners offers a useful toolkit for those seeking an introduction to the topic.

      According to the General Medical Council, the safety of children and young people must be a healthcare professional’s first concern. If there is reasonable concern that a child is at risk of abuse or neglect, the appropriate person or authority must be informed promptly. If there is no cause for concern, it is still important to discuss and record the decision, as well as any concerns, discussions, and reasons for not sharing information.

      While confidentiality is important, it can be breached in limited circumstances, such as safeguarding children at risk. Healthcare professionals must avoid making discreet enquiries, as this can lead to unfounded rumors, breaches of confidentiality, and potentially prejudicing further enquiries. Overall, safeguarding children is a critical responsibility for healthcare professionals, and they must stay informed and vigilant in their efforts to protect vulnerable children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements about discontinuing anti-epileptic drugs (AED) is the most...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about discontinuing anti-epileptic drugs (AED) is the most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be considered if seizure free for > 2 years, with AEDs being stopped over 2-3 months

      Explanation:

      The 2004 NICE guidelines recommend that the process be carried out with the assistance of a specialist and that benzodiazepine withdrawal should be conducted over an extended period.

      Treatment Options for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.

      It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of sudden-onset limb paralysis at night, which have occurred over the last four months. She describes waking shortly after falling asleep and being unable to move her limbs or to speak. This is associated with a feeling of suffocation that lasts for about one minute. She has no other symptoms other than daytime sleepiness which she has attributed to her busy work schedule. Her father recently died from an intracranial haemorrhage during his sleep.
      On examination, no abnormalities are observed.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Transient Limb Paralysis with Sleep Paralysis

      Transient limb paralysis with sleep paralysis can be a frightening experience for patients. However, it can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. One possible cause is narcolepsy, which presents with a tetrad of classic symptoms including excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Brainstem transient ischaemic attack (TIA) can also cause vertigo, dizziness, and imbalance, but not episodic limb paralysis. Cervical disc prolapse (CDP) typically produces neck and arm pain or symptoms of spinal cord compression, which are not transient. Depression and anxiety may cause feelings of suffocation during a panic attack, but no other symptoms are described in this patient. Nocturnal seizures, which occur during sleep, may cause unusual conditions upon awakening, but transient limb paralysis is not typically a feature. Considering these potential causes can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old baker is seen complaining of wheezy episodes and a tight chest.

    In...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old baker is seen complaining of wheezy episodes and a tight chest.

      In the past he has used a friend's 'blue' inhaler which helped ease his symptoms. He feels that his symptoms are worse following a run of shifts in work and mentions that when he went on holiday in the summer for two weeks his chest improved significantly.

      He has been in work today and on examination he has a mild diffuse wheeze audible throughout his chest.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rate measurements

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma and its Diagnosis

      The history of a patient who works as a baker raises concerns about occupational asthma, which is often caused by sensitizing agents found in plant products. It is estimated that 10-15% of adults with new or recurrent asthma have an occupational element to their symptoms. If a patient reports that their symptoms improve when away from the workplace, occupational asthma should be strongly suspected.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, the most useful approach is to have the patient perform serial peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measurements. The Oxford Handbook of Respiratory Medicine recommends that the patient record a PEFR every two hours from waking to sleep for four weeks, with no changes to their treatment. The patient should document home, work, and holiday periods, and an expert should interpret the results.

      If you suspect work-related asthma, it is important to arrange PEFR measurements and refer the patient to a chest physician or occupational physician for assessment and interpretation of the PEFR diary. Early diagnosis and management of occupational asthma can prevent long-term respiratory damage and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man is prescribed lithium for his bipolar disorder. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is prescribed lithium for his bipolar disorder. What is the appropriate time interval before his plasma lithium should be checked for the first time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Lithium Treatment: Guidelines and Recommendations

      Before starting lithium treatment, it is important to conduct several tests, including ECG, thyroid function tests, renal function tests, and U&Es. After starting treatment, the plasma level should be checked after 7 days and then every 7 days until the required level is reached. The blood sample should be taken 12 hours after the dose has been taken. Once stable, the level should be checked every 3 months for the first year and 3-6 monthly depending on risk thereafter.

      In addition to monitoring lithium levels, it is also important to regularly check thyroid function, calcium, eGFR, and U&Es every 6 months. Normal lithium levels vary between different laboratories but are generally about 0.6 – 1.0 mmol/l.

      Lithium toxicity can occur at levels above the normal range and usually consists of gastrointestinal (anorexia, nausea, diarrhea) and central nervous system effects (muscle weakness, drowsiness, ataxia, coarse tremor, muscle twitching). Therefore, serum levels should also be taken during any intercurrent illness as this can increase toxicity.

      Overall, monitoring lithium treatment is crucial for ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presents with intermittent chest pain which tends to occur when out walking. He describes the pain as radiating to his neck, jaw, and left arm. He feels dizzy and short of breath. The symptoms tend to last for around five minutes after he stops walking and then resolve.
      What feature is most indicative of angina in a patient complaining of chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radiation to the throat and jaw

      Explanation:

      Understanding Angina Symptoms: What to Look Out For

      Angina is a type of chest pain that occurs when the heart muscle doesn’t receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Here are some common symptoms associated with angina:

      Radiation to the throat and jaw: Chest pain that radiates to the throat and jaw is typical of angina.

      Prolonged pain: Anginal pain is typically exertional and quickly relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate (GTN spray) within around five minutes. It is not typically prolonged.

      Associated dizziness: Pain associated with palpitations or dizziness is less likely to be angina than other attributable causes.

      Associated shortness of breath: Shortness of breath can occur in both cardiac and pulmonary causes of chest pain and so is not specific to angina.

      Pain associated with taking a breath in: Pain associated with breathing is likely to be associated with pulmonary or musculoskeletal causes of chest pain, rather than angina.

      It’s important to note that these symptoms can also be indicative of other health issues, so it’s always best to consult with a healthcare professional if you experience any chest pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - A 46-year-old woman visits the clinic with a history of chronic migraines. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman visits the clinic with a history of chronic migraines. She experiences 2 or more attacks every month. After maintaining a headache diary, no triggering factors were identified. She has previously tried topiramate and amitriptyline, but her symptoms did not improve. She has a history of severe asthma.

      Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, and her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg.

      Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer 10-sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks and review the patient in 2-3 weeks to check response

      Explanation:

      For patients who experience frequent and severe migraines, preventive treatment should be considered if acute treatments are ineffective or not suitable, or if there is a risk of medication-overuse headaches. Propranolol is the first-line prophylactic treatment, but if it is not suitable, alternative treatments such as topiramate or amitriptyline may be considered. Gabapentin should not be used for migraine prophylaxis. Non-pharmacological therapies such as acupuncture, relaxation techniques, or cognitive behavioural therapy can also be used as an alternative or adjunct to pharmacological therapy. Daily riboflavin may also be helpful in reducing migraine frequency and intensity. It is important to advise patients to limit their use of acute medication to a maximum of 2 days per week to avoid medication-overuse headaches. Referral for same-day neurology assessment is not necessary unless there are red-flag features. If the patient doesn’t respond to acupuncture, a neurology referral may be indicated.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - For a person with a certain condition, what is the most probable prognostic...

    Incorrect

    • For a person with a certain condition, what is the most probable prognostic indicator of nearing end of life (within 12 months)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia in a patient with motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      Clinical Indicators for End-of-Life Care in Various Conditions

      The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) Prognostic Indicator Guidance provides specific clinical indicators for various conditions that suggest the patient is approaching the end of life. For motor neurone disease, the indicators include marked rapid decline in physical status, first episode of aspiration pneumonia, increased cognitive difficulties, weight loss, significant complex symptoms and medical complications, low vital capacity, dyskinesia, mobility problems, falls, and communication difficulties. Lack of improvement three months after a stroke is an indicator for someone with severe paralysis. Wheelchair-bound multiple sclerosis patients may have quite a long life. Frail elderly people with co-morbidities may experience significant weight loss, but it needs to be accompanied by deteriorating function or at least two of weakness, slow walking speed, low physical activity, exhaustion, or depression. For patients with heart failure, repeated hospital admissions carry prognostic significance. These indicators can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate end-of-life care for patients with various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and currently has a BP of 155/95 mmHg. She has noted that her face has become more rounded over the years and she is having increasing trouble with both acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has revealed impaired glucose tolerance. There has also been increasing trouble with abdominal obesity and she has noticed some purple stretch marks appearing around her abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing Syndrome: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Cushing syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by hypercortisolaemia, which leads to a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common features include a round, plethoric facial appearance, weight gain (especially truncal obesity, buffalo hump, and supraclavicular fat pads), skin fragility, proximal muscle weakness, mood disturbance, menstrual disturbance, and reduced libido. Hypertension is present in more than 50% of patients, impaired glucose tolerance in 30%, and osteopenia, osteoporosis, and premature vascular disease are common consequences if left untreated.

      The annual incidence of Cushing syndrome is approximately two per million, and it is more common in women. The cause of the disease is hypercortisolaemia, and in 68% of cases, it is due to a pituitary adenoma producing adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). Ectopic ACTH production is the cause in 12% of cases (most commonly small-cell carcinoma of the lung and bronchial carcinoid tumours), adrenal adenoma in 10%, and adrenal carcinoma in 8%.

      Diagnosis of Cushing syndrome is made based on the results of the 24-hour urinary free-cortisol assay or the 1 mg (low-dose) overnight dexamethasone suppression test.

      Differential diagnosis includes multiple endocrine neoplasia, essential hypertension, phaeochromocytoma, and simple obesity. However, multiple endocrine neoplasia is less likely due to the rarity of the syndrome and lack of other features. Essential hypertension may respond to two agents but cannot explain the other symptoms and signs. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that secretes catecholamines and presents with headache, sweating, palpitations, tremor, and hypertension. Simple obesity is a differential diagnosis but cannot explain the other features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - You are called to do a house visit for an elderly gentleman with...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to do a house visit for an elderly gentleman with an advanced brain tumour. You review his notes and see that he received radiotherapy and chemotherapy but these failed to have a significant impact. He is being treated palliatively.

      He complains of persistent nausea and has vomited on a couple of occasions over the last few days. He also complains of bouts of vertigo.

      Which of the following antiemetics is most appropriate to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levomepromazine

      Explanation:

      Antiemetics in Palliative Care

      A variety of antiemetics are used in palliative care to treat nausea and vomiting. However, the underlying cause of the symptoms should be identified to guide which particular treatment is most appropriate. For instance, a patient with cerebral disease and co-existent vertigo may benefit from an antiemetic with antihistamine properties such as cyclizine, which has actions against vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

      Nausea and vomiting due to drugs or toxins and metabolic causes, such as hypercalcemia, may respond best to haloperidol. Levomepromazine is a broad-spectrum antiemetic usually used as a second-line agent when other first-line antiemetics have not been effective. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic and can be useful in treating symptoms due to gastric stasis. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 antagonist and acts at the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain. It is used as a treatment for emetogenic chemotherapy.

      In summary, the appropriate antiemetic for a patient in palliative care depends on the underlying cause of their nausea and vomiting. Healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting an antiemetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 21 - A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about being different from her peers who have already started menstruating. She has a history of irregular attendance but is currently in good health. On examination, she is on the 25th centile for height and the 90th centile for weight. She has no signs of secondary sexual characteristics and presents with a broad chest and webbed neck. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Short Stature and Delayed Puberty

      Short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the most common causes:

      1. Turner Syndrome
      Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females. It occurs in between 1 in 2500 and 1 in 5000 live births. Features include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have mild intellectual impairment and cardiovascular defects. There is a loss of one X chromosome (chromosome pattern XO), which results in a broad (webbed neck) and widely spaced nipples.

      2. Constitutional Delay in Puberty
      Constitutional delay in puberty is often familial and is the most common cause of short stature and delayed puberty. In otherwise normal children, linear growth slows until about the age of 3 years, then proceeds normally until expected puberty, and then slows again in the absence of a growth spurt. A full catch-up may not occur.

      3. Down’s Syndrome
      Short stature occurs in Down’s syndrome, but puberty is not normally delayed. Down’s syndrome would usually have been diagnosed early in life by the presence of typical features, which do not include a webbed neck.

      4. Hypothyroidism
      Hypothyroidism occurring during prepubertal years, usually due to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, can cause delayed puberty or, in some cases, precocious puberty. Other features of hypothyroidism should be present. In contrast, treated congenital hyperthyroidism usually results in normal pubertal development.

      5. Klinefelter Syndrome
      Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is caused by an XXY genotype. The usual presentation is with delayed sexual development or infertility.

      In conclusion, short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and thyroid problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
    He has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
      He has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and heart failure in the last year. He underwent normal puberty at age 14.

      Which of the following drugs would be most likely to cause gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rabeprazole sodium

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause gynaecomastia

      Research has shown that the risk of developing gynaecomastia is almost insignificant when using other drugs as part of the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. However, there are other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia, including spironolactone, digoxin, methyldopa, gonadotrophins, and cyproterone acetate.

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a condition where a gastrin-secreting pancreatic adenoma is associated with peptic ulcer, and 50-60% of cases are malignant. It is suspected in patients with multiple peptic ulcers that are resistant to drugs and occurs in approximately 0.1% of patients with duodenal ulcer disease.

      A case study into male gynaecomastia has shown that spironolactone induced gynaecomastia by blocking androgen production, blocking androgens from binding to their receptors, and increasing both total and free oestrogen levels. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner accompanied by his wife, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner accompanied by his wife, she reports that over the last 18 months she has noticed his memory decline and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. He has a particularly poor memory of recent events and his wife notices that he sometimes struggles with day-to-day activities such as making a cup of tea or getting dressed. He denies feeling low in mood, and his wife doesn't feel that his mood has changed recently. He scores 21/30 on the mini-mental state examination. His blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and his heart rate is 80/min and regular. He has no history of heart disease and previous stroke.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Dementia: Differential Diagnosis for Memory Impairment

      Memory impairment is a common symptom in older adults, and it can be caused by various conditions, including dementia. Dementia affects approximately 5% of people over 65 and 20% of individuals over 80. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for around 60% of cases. However, other types of dementia should also be considered in the differential diagnosis.

      Depression is an important differential diagnosis in an older person presenting with memory impairment. Apathy and disconnection with activities that the patient previously enjoyed are common symptoms of depression. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is another condition that can cause memory impairment. However, MCI is characterized by memory impairment with preservation of other cognitive domains and intact activities of daily living.

      Lewy-body dementia is a type of dementia that accounts for approximately 20% of cases. It usually presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations. Vascular dementia (vascular cognitive impairment) is another type of dementia caused by cerebrovascular disease. It is a progressive disease where deteriorations may be sudden or gradual but tend to progress in a stepwise manner.

      In this case, the patient’s mini-mental state examination result supports the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease. The patient (or their relatives) commonly complains of difficulty with common activities of daily living and short-term memory loss. It is important to consider all possible causes of memory impairment to provide appropriate treatment and support for patients and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old female presents for her postnatal check at eight weeks. She previously...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents for her postnatal check at eight weeks. She previously took microgynon 30 for contraception, which she was very happy with as it gave her a lighter regular menstrual cycle. She is mainly breastfeeding with occasional top up formula feed. She is currently using condoms. She had a normal delivery with no perinatal complications. She would prefer to restart microgynon if possible.

      According to the latest UKMEC guidance, what is the most appropriate contraception option for her going forward?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be advised to continue with condoms for contraception

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Breastfeeding Mothers

      New UKMEC criteria (2016) state that breastfeeding mothers can use combined hormonal contraceptives from ≥ 6 weeks (UKMEC 2). However, if the mother is not fully breastfeeding, she may not be adequately protected against unwanted pregnancy. In such cases, condoms could be an appropriate option, but if the mother prefers to use CHC, which is not contraindicated, condoms may not be the most appropriate option.

      An intrauterine system is a good option for ongoing contraception and managing periods, but if the patient prefers the combined oral contraceptive pill, which is not contraindicated, it should be offered as her preferred method of contraception. While the progesterone-only pill is an option, it may not provide the regular cycle that the patient desires, and her preferred choice (CHC) is not contraindicated. In summary, breastfeeding mothers have several contraceptive options available to them, and the most appropriate option should be offered based on their individual preferences and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man is worried about the development of his breasts and suspects...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is worried about the development of his breasts and suspects that one of his medications may be responsible.

      Which of the following drugs is linked to gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SSRIs

      Explanation:

      Medications and their Side Effects

      Galactorrhoea is a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), according to the British National Formulary (BNF). On the other hand, gynaecomastia is not listed as a side effect of SSRIs. Tricyclics, however, are known to cause gynaecomastia by stimulating prolactin. Another medication that can cause gynaecomastia is anabolic steroids, which are not catabolic. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or alleviate these side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - Which statement is accurate regarding the evaluation of a patient's ability to make...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is accurate regarding the evaluation of a patient's ability to make decisions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For a person to have capacity, they must be able to retain the information that you give them about the decision they are being asked to make

      Explanation:

      Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions

      Capacity to make decisions can vary and may change over time. A person who has the capacity to make one decision may not necessarily have the capacity to make another, and vice versa. To determine if a patient has the capacity to make a particular decision, they must understand the information given to them and be able to retain it long enough to weigh it and come to a decision for themselves. It is not necessary for a psychiatrist or psychogeriatrician to assess capacity, but seeking a specialist view may be helpful if there are doubts. Irrational decisions do not necessarily indicate a lack of capacity. Under the Mental Capacity Act 2005, an individual can appoint an attorney to make decisions on their behalf if they become mentally incapacitated in the future. The attorney can only make decisions when the patient has lost the capacity to make those decisions for themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 27 - Samantha is a 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis and intractable spasticity that has...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis and intractable spasticity that has not responded to traditional treatment. During her visit with her GP, she expresses interest in obtaining a medical cannabis prescription after reading about its success in treating similar conditions online.

      What should the GP do in response to Samantha's request?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask the patient’s consultant to consider initiating medicinal cannabis

      Explanation:

      Current guidelines dictate that cannabis-based products without a license can only be prescribed by doctors who are registered specialists with the General Medical Council. Furthermore, doctors should only prescribe these products for disorders within their area of expertise when there is clear evidence or published guidelines to support it.

      The first prescription of cannabis-based medicinal products must be initiated by a specialist medical practitioner in a hospital setting.

      There is evidence supporting the efficacy of cannabis-based products, which is why the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) supports their prescription.

      The THC:CBD spray is available on the NHS in certain situations. It is inappropriate to advise patients to purchase it online as the safety and quality of the product cannot be guaranteed.

      While the THC:CBD spray is the appropriate treatment, it should not be initiated in primary care.

      Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.

      Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.

      It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.

      Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with osteoarthritis affecting his left shoulder presents for follow-up. He is currently on regular co-codamol 30/500 for pain relief and takes oral ibuprofen as needed. The patient has been experiencing shoulder problems for several years and has had to increase his pain medication to manage his symptoms. He has also tried using heat and cold packs and has purchased a TENS machine. Despite these interventions, he continues to experience significant daily pain and reduced function of his left arm due to restricted shoulder movement. The patient is hesitant to pursue surgical intervention. What would be an appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally

      Explanation:

      Intra-Articular Corticosteroid Injections for Osteoarthritis Pain

      Intra-articular corticosteroid injections can be a helpful addition to treating moderate to severe osteoarthritis pain. If traditional treatments have failed, a corticosteroid injection may be an appropriate option for patients who are not interested in surgical intervention. While the injection provides short-term pain relief, it may also allow patients to engage in other interventions such as physiotherapy, which can provide longer-lasting benefits in terms of both pain and function. However, repeated injections over longer periods may cause joint damage and are generally not recommended.

      Other treatment options such as capsaicin, electro-acupuncture, amitriptyline, and glucosamine are not recommended for osteoarthritis pain. Capsaicin is not recommended for shoulder problems, electro-acupuncture is not recommended for any form of osteoarthritis, and amitriptyline is not a licensed or recommended treatment for osteoarthritis. Glucosamine has insufficient data of significant efficacy to justify its cost, but patients can try over-the-counter glucosamine sulfate at a dose of 1500 mg daily and monitor their symptoms before and after three months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is not a recognized feature of temporal arteritis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognized feature of temporal arteritis in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis doesn’t cause an increase in creatine kinase levels.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 30 - Samantha is a 65-year-old lady with polymyalgia rheumatica who is currently responding well...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 65-year-old lady with polymyalgia rheumatica who is currently responding well to 5 mg prednisolone daily. As she has not had any fractures previously, she underwent a DXA scan which shows a lumbar spine T score of −2.5 and hip T score of −2.6.

      She visits your clinic to discuss the scan results and seek advice on treatment options. What would be your recommended management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As her steroid dose is now less than 7.5 mg she doesn't need bone-sparing therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Osteoporosis in Patients with T Score Criteria

      Patients who fit the criteria for diagnosis of osteoporosis based on T score should be managed with a generic bisphosphonate as the first line of treatment. This is regardless of whether they have suffered an osteoporotic fracture or not. If a patient doesn’t tolerate a weekly preparation, there are monthly and intermittent IV preparations available. It is important to note that early intervention is key in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures. Therefore, prompt management of osteoporosis is crucial in maintaining bone health and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Leadership And Management (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed