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Question 1
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A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with a persistent cough for the past 4 days. She has been experiencing knee pain and has started taking ibuprofen and undergoing physiotherapy for her knee. While recovering, she began exercising at the gym and noticed that she felt breathless and had tightness in her chest. This was followed by a non-productive cough that is worse at night. She sleeps with two pillows and denies any ankle swelling. She has a history of childhood breathing problems for which she took inhalers, but these have since resolved. She admits to smoking 20 cigarettes a day for the past decade and takes no regular medication. She has not traveled abroad or had any contact with sick individuals.
Upon examination, she has a dry cough and is able to speak in full sentences. She has a clear chest with mild wheezing heard in the left lower base. Her peak flow is 220, and she saturates at 98% in air with a respiratory rate of 21 breaths per minute.
Sodium: 139 mmol/l
Potassium: 4.2 mmol/l
Urea: 5.1 mmol/l
Creatinine: 68 µmol/l
Hemoglobin: 110 g/l
Platelets: 390 * 109/l
White blood cells: 10.0 * 109/l
Chest x-ray shows clear lung fields with good chest expansion and no active lung lesion.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Asthma
Explanation:This woman is experiencing new symptoms of shortness of breath and coughing. While she does smoke, it is unlikely that she has COPD unless she has a rare genetic condition called alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. Bronchiectasis is also a possibility, but it typically presents with a productive cough and signs of infection. An occult pneumothorax is unlikely to be the cause of her symptoms, as it does not explain her chest tightness or nocturnal cough. Her reduced peak flow suggests that her symptoms are not solely due to anxiety. Based on her history of using inhalers as a child and her recent onset of chest tightness and reduced peak flow after taking an NSAID, it is likely that she has developed asthma. It is important to note that asthma may not always present with audible wheezing, and many diagnostic tests may appear normal.
Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.
However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.
Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old construction worker presents with a six-month history of pain and swelling in both hands, which is most severe in the mornings. He takes diclofenac tablets for pain relief. The patient's job involves the use of vibrating tools. On examination, the metacarpophalangeal joints and wrists of both hands are warm, swollen, and tender. Investigations reveal a low Hb level, elevated ESR, and periarticular decalcification on x-ray. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Comparison of Arthritis Types
Rheumatoid arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the proximal interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints. It is characterized by symmetrical joint involvement and morning stiffness that improves with exercise. In some cases, larger joints may also become involved. This condition causes pain, swelling, and chronic disease that can lead to deformity, such as Swan neck deformity, Boutonniere deformity, Z-thumb, ulnar deviation of the fingers, and dorsal subluxation of ulnar styloid.
Gout, on the other hand, usually starts as a monoarthritis. Osteoarthritis typically affects the distal interphalangeal, proximal interphalangeal, and first metacarpophalangeal joints. Meanwhile, psoriatic arthritis tends to affect the distal interphalangeal joints. Lastly, systemic lupus erythematosus usually causes a mild non-erosive arthritis.
In summary, while all types of arthritis involve joint pain and inflammation, they differ in the specific joints affected and the severity of the condition. these differences can help in the proper diagnosis and management of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 55-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis during a severe flare-up. The patient has been prescribed methotrexate 15 mg once a week, folic acid 5mg once a week, hydroxychloroquine 200mg twice a day, naproxen 250 mg three times a day, and prednisolone 15mg once a day. After a month, the patient reports experiencing mouth ulcers. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 142 g/l
- Platelets: 225 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 6 * 109/l
- Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l
- Urea: 4 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 95 µmol/l
- Bilirubin: 6 µmol/l
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 105 u/l
- Alanine transaminase (ALT): 92 u/l
What is the most appropriate action to take in response to the patient's symptoms and blood test results?Your Answer: Stop methotrexate and discuss with rheumatology
Explanation:If a patient on methotrexate develops new oral ulceration, it is recommended to withhold the medication and consult with the specialist team, as per BSR guidelines. The ALT levels in this patient are not a concern. Increasing folic acid intake to six days a week (excluding the day of methotrexate) can help alleviate side effects. Oral ulceration is not associated with hydroxychloroquine or naproxen.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman has been taking sulfasalazine (2 gm/day) for three months to treat mild inflammatory arthritis. However, over the past two weeks, she has experienced worsening arthralgia, swollen MCP joints, fatigue, and low-grade fever. She also has oral ulcers and a widespread papular erythematous rash.
Upon investigation, her blood work shows a high ESR, positive antinuclear antibody, and positive antihistone antibody. Her liver function tests are also elevated.
What is the next step in managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Stop sulfasalazine
Explanation:Drug Induced Lupus: Causes and Symptoms
Drug induced lupus (DIL) is a condition that occurs as a result of taking certain medications. These drugs include Procainamide, Hydralazine, Sulfasalazine, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Minocycline, Isoniazid, Interferons, and Anti-TNFα drugs. The good news is that DIL resolves after stopping treatment with the offending drug.
Symptoms of DIL include a purpuric, erythematous, papular rash. However, patients do not have a malar or discoid rash. They also have antinuclear antibody (homogeneous pattern), are positive for anti-ssDNA antibody, antihistone antibody, and typically are negative for anti-dsDNA antibody. It is important to note that drug induced lupus due to interferon and due to anti-TNF α agents may present with a malar or discoid rash and may be anti-dsDNA antibody positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man with a diagnosis of Paget's disease presents to the clinic with a two-month history of worsening bone pain, mainly in his right leg. He is currently taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, and alendronate.
Upon examination, there is significant deformity of the long bones, particularly the right tibia.
The following blood tests were obtained:
- Calcium: 2.40 mmol/L (2.25-2.5)
- Albumin: 37g/L (34-54)
- Corrected calcium: 2.50 mmol/L (2.25-2.5)
- Alkaline phosphatase: 484 U/L (45-105)
- Alanine transaminase: 27 U/L (5-35)
What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Surgery
Correct Answer: Calcitonin
Explanation:Paget’s disease is identified by unusual bone remodeling, especially in the long bones and skull. The blood test results that are indicative of this condition include elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, while liver function tests remain normal (since alkaline phosphatase is also present in bones). If there is associated immobility, a high calcium level may be observed.
Initially, pain is managed with analgesics and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. If the condition persists, treatment is escalated to bisphosphonates and calcitonin.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.
Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.
To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.
Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 67-year-old man experiences sudden and severe sharp pain in the middle of his back while lifting a heavy object. Upon examination, he displays tenderness over the thoracic spine. Further investigations reveal a compression fracture of the T10 vertebral body. His lab results show normal levels of plasma sodium, potassium, urea, creatinine, and phosphate, but his plasma calcium and alkaline phosphatase levels are low while his serum parathyroid hormone level is elevated. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Osteomalacia and its Differentiation from Other Bone Disorders
Osteomalacia is a bone disorder that is commonly found in elderly individuals, and it is often caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. This condition is characterized by bone fractures, hypocalcaemia, hypophosphataemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and parathyroid hormone levels. In some cases, hypocalcaemia may be present, depending on the severity and chronicity of the vitamin D deficiency. The body tries to maintain normal serum calcium levels by increasing PTH, which enhances the release of calcium from the bone. However, as the disease progresses, calcium levels may fall.
Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is associated with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, hypercalcaemia, and renal impairment. Osteoporosis does not present any laboratory abnormalities, while Paget’s disease does not produce hypocalcaemia or increased parathyroid hormone secretion. In primary hyperparathyroidism, the serum calcium level is increased.
In summary, the different characteristics of bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis. Osteomalacia, with its combination of bone fractures, hypocalcaemia, hypophosphataemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and parathyroid hormone levels, can be differentiated from other bone disorders such as multiple myeloma, osteoporosis, Paget’s disease, and primary hyperparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis (RF positive, anti-CCP positive) presented with multiple well-defined ulcers on her legs. She is currently taking methotrexate 20 mg/week, folic acid 5 mg/day, and sulfasalazine 1 gm/day, and her arthritis is well controlled with no swollen or tender joints. However, her recent blood tests showed leucopenia, and both methotrexate and sulfasalazine were stopped for two weeks. Despite this, repeat blood tests did not show any improvement in her WBC count. Further investigations revealed a negative anti-nuclear antibody and the following results: Hb 129 g/L (115-165), WBC 1.4 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 39% (40-75), Platelet 166 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 26 mm/hr (0-30), and CRP 13 mg/L (<10). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Felty's syndrome
Explanation:Neutropenia in Rheumatoid Arthritis Patients
Patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) often experience neutropenia, which is a condition characterized by a low count of neutrophils in the blood. This can be caused by drug-related factors, which typically improve over time, or by Felty’s syndrome, a condition that involves splenomegaly and pancytopenia, with neutropenia being the predominant symptom. While rheumatoid vasculitis is rare, it can present with a vasculitic rash, neuropathy, and high inflammatory markers. In some cases, RA may coexist with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which is known as rhupus. However, if a patient is ANA negative, it is unlikely that they have SLE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Correct
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An older woman undergoes routine blood tests prior to a hernia repair. Her liver function tests are repeated twice, with calcium, ALT, and bilirubin within normal limits, but her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated at 380. Upon further inquiry, she reports drinking a glass of wine and smoking 6 cigarettes per day, as well as experiencing hip and lower back pain. She has also recently been evaluated for hearing impairment. What is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Skeletal survey
Explanation:Assessing Paget’s Disease: Skeletal Survey vs. Isotope Bone Scan
Paget’s disease is a condition that affects around 2% of the population over 55 years old, with a higher prevalence in men. Symptoms may include bone pain, deformities, and hearing loss in skull base Paget’s. Osteogenic sarcoma is a rare complication. The mainstay of treatment is bisphosphonates.
When assessing for Paget’s disease, a limited skeletal survey is preferred over an isotope bone scan. This is because bone scanning underestimates the extent of disease activity when there is significant osteoclastic resorption of bone. Immunoglobulin electrophoresis is most useful in evaluating multiple myeloma, while an ultrasound scan of the liver is not necessary in the absence of other abnormal liver function tests. A chest X-ray may be considered if respiratory symptoms are present, but in this case, the patient’s lack of significant symptoms makes bronchial carcinoma less likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old nurse who works in a liver transplant unit presents with complaints of joint pains and occasional swelling of the wrists and knees for the past two months. The pain is relieved by ibuprofen, but her knee pain has worsened and her fingers are more stiff and sore. She also reports a rash on her legs that looks like 'blood blisters' and painful purple lesions on her ankles. Additionally, she has been experiencing low-grade fevers, muscle aches, recurrent headaches, and has noticed some weight loss. On examination, she appears ill with mild swelling and tenderness of both wrists and small bilateral knee effusions. Discrete palpable purpuric lesions are noted on her legs with a few tender haemorrhagic lesions over both ankles. Investigations reveal abnormal blood work, including elevated ESR, plasma bilirubin, and plasma aspartate transaminase levels, as well as the presence of blood, protein, and red and white blood cells in her urine with granular casts detected. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa with microscopic polyarteritis overlap
Explanation:Interpretation of Laboratory Tests in Vasculitis
A positive anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) result is almost always present in systemic lupus erythematosus, while a negative ANA makes anti-double stranded antibody unlikely. In suspected systemic vasculitis, anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) should always be done. In polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) and microscopic polyangiitis, anti-cytoplasmic antibodies directed against myeloperoxidase (pANCA) will produce a perinuclear staining pattern, while in granulomatosis with polyangiitis, a cytoplasmic pattern is likely. A positive hepatitis B surface antigen is associated with PAN of medium and small arteries. Polyclonal gammaglobulinaemia on serum protein electrophoresis is expected in systemic inflammatory disease and does not aid diagnosis. The rest of the tests listed would give non-specific changes and not be helpful in establishing a diagnosis.
The patient in this case has necrotising vasculitis affecting the skin, kidneys, gut, and joints, along with systemic symptoms of fever, malaise, and weight loss. The most likely diagnosis is polyarteritis nodosa associated with hepatitis B, given the negative serology for systemic lupus erythematosus and negative blood cultures for endocarditis-related arthropathy. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is more common in children, and although rheumatoid factor is positive, there is no clear involvement of the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints, which is typical in rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with severe pain and aching in his hands and feet upon exposure to cold temperatures. He describes a triad of initial whitening of the fingers due to vasospasm, followed by blue discoloration and then reddening and pain.
The patient is currently on atenolol 50 mg po daily for hypertension and takes sumatriptan for occasional migraines. He has a history of chronic kidney disease with a creatinine level of 200 μg/l. The sumatriptan is discontinued.
What other intervention would be the most appropriate for this individual?Your Answer: Stop atenolol and start ramipril
Explanation:Treatment Options for Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Raynaud’s phenomenon can be caused or exacerbated by certain medications, including methysergide and atenolol. In such cases, it is recommended to stop atenolol and switch to ramipril, an ACE inhibitor that has evidence for reno-protection in cases of underlying autoimmune pathology. Calcium channel antagonists like nifedipine may also be helpful in improving symptoms.
In the absence of underlying connective tissue disease, primary Raynaud’s may be treated with prednisolone at a dose of 40 mg po daily. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes such as systemic sclerosis, mixed connective tissue disease, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, polycythemia, and thromboangiitis obliterans.
Nitrates like isosorbide dinitrate have not been shown to improve Raynaud’s symptoms. NSAIDs like diclofenac are contraindicated in patients with kidney disease and would not improve Raynaud’s symptoms. Verapamil, although a calcium channel blocker, is not typically used for Raynaud’s.
Overall, treatment options for Raynaud’s phenomenon depend on the underlying cause and may include medication changes, calcium channel antagonists, and ruling out other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman who has been living with diabetes for a long time comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and stiff left shoulder that has been bothering her for three weeks. The pain is dull and aching, and it persists even when she is at rest. She denies any history of trauma, fever, or night pain.
Upon examination, the patient's shoulder movements are significantly limited. There are no signs of shoulder effusion, and her cervical spine movements are normal. Recent blood tests, including FBC, UEC, LFT, and bone profile, all came back normal.
What is the most probable cause of this patient's shoulder symptoms?Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis
Explanation:Shoulder Conditions
Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a common condition among diabetics. It is characterized by a sudden onset of dull pain and limited shoulder movements. The pain is often present even at rest, and external rotation is the most severely affected movement.
On the other hand, subacromial bursitis presents with shoulder pain when attempting to reach above the head. Pain is felt in the mid arc of shoulder abduction during examination, and active shoulder abduction is limited by pain. However, there is full range of shoulder abduction passively.
Rotator cuff tears have symptoms similar to subacromial impingement, but there may be weakness in specific shoulder movements in full thickness rotator cuff tears. Meanwhile, osteoarthritis at glenohumeral and acromioclavicular joints usually presents with gradually worsening, generalised shoulder, or shoulder tip pain, especially in older people or those with physically demanding jobs.
the differences between these shoulder conditions is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A local GP requests your evaluation of a 40-year-old female patient who has been experiencing symptoms of oesophageal reflux disease that have only partially responded to proton-pump inhibitors. Lately, she has been complaining about the cold weather and may have Raynaud's phenomenon. During routine blood testing, her creatinine levels were found to be elevated at 180 µmol/l, and she has hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 170/85 mmHg. What is the most effective treatment to prevent further renal impairment?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Treatment Options for Renal Disease Associated with Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects interlobular renal arteries, causing intimal thickening and fibrinoid changes in afferent glomerular arterioles. ACE inhibitors are the preferred treatment for renal disease associated with systemic sclerosis, as they have positive effects on proteinuria and can even reverse the decline in renal function in some cases. Prostacyclin infusion may also be beneficial in cases where renal function is rapidly deteriorating. Thiazide diuretics like bendrofluazide are not recommended for hypertension treatment in patients with an eGFR of less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2 and have no reno-protective benefits. Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine may be useful in treating Raynaud’s and systemic sclerosis with lung involvement. Steroids like prednisolone and IV methylprednisolone should be used sparingly in patients with scleroderma, as they may trigger renal crisis and are not effective in ameliorating further renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fall. He slipped on a wet surface in his bathroom while getting ready for bed and sustained an injury to his ankle. He has a past medical history of diabetes and takes metformin. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He enjoys gardening in his spare time.
Examination reveals tenderness and swelling at the left ankle and is otherwise unremarkable.
Plain radiography of the left ankle demonstrates a fracture.
Blood tests:
Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 5.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 3 mg/L (< 5)
Calcium 2.30 mmol/L (2.20-2.6)
Vitamin D 80 nmol/L (>50)
ALP 150 IU/L (44-147)
He is managed conservatively without the need for an operation.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: IV Zoledronic acid
Correct Answer: Alendronic acid
Explanation:Start alendronate in patients >= 75 years with fragility fracture without waiting for DEXA scan.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.
For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.
For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65-year-old female presents to gastroenterology outpatient clinic with a three-week history of gastric reflux, which has not improved despite being prescribed both ranitidine and omeprazole by her GP. She is awaiting an urgent OGD to investigate symptoms further. She reports having lost 8kg in weight over the past 7 months and is also distressed by appearances of white hard lumps appearing on her fingertips. On examination, you note cool peripheries and dry mucous membranes, left thumb calcinosis surrounded by shiny skin up to her wrist joint and wrinkling of skin around her mouth. Her blood tests are as follows demonstrate she is positive for anticentromere antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
Explanation:When a middle-aged female presents with sclerodactyly, calcinosis, perioral puckering, and gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is systemic sclerosis (SS). However, it is important to differentiate between diffuse cutaneous, limited cutaneous, and systemic sclerosis sine scleroderma. The latter refers to patients with systemic involvement and possible Raynaud’s phenomenon but without other cutaneous manifestations, who test positive for SS autoantibodies. Diffuse cutaneous SS affects skin proximal to the distal forearm, such as the elbow, thorax, or abdomen, and is associated with a higher risk of renal, lung, and cardiac disease. Autoantibodies can help confirm the subtype of SS and predict extracutaneous involvement, but negative results do not rule out SS. For example, anti-centromere antibodies are associated with limited cutaneous SS, anti-Scl 70 with diffuse SS and lung involvement, anti-RNA polymerase III with a high risk of scleroderma renal crisis, anti-U3-RNP with a high risk of pulmonary hypertension, and anti-PM-Scl with a high risk of SS-associated myositis.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is still unknown. It is more common in females than males, with three patterns of the disease. The first pattern is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, scleroderma affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. A subtype of this pattern is CREST syndrome, which includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.
The second pattern is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which affects the trunk and proximal limbs, and is associated with scl-70 antibodies. This pattern has a poor prognosis, with respiratory involvement being the most common cause of death, including interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Other complications include renal disease and hypertension, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor.
The third pattern is scleroderma without internal organ involvement, which is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies play a significant role in systemic sclerosis, with ANA positive in 90% of cases, RF positive in 30%, anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, and anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with pain in her right ankle that she has been experiencing for the past 3 weeks. A few days later, she notices that the ankle is also swollen. A week later, she develops pain and swelling in both knees. Her GP prescribed diclofenac 50 mg three times daily, which provided some relief. She recalls having loose bowel movements for a few days about 2 weeks before the onset of joint symptoms. She mentions that she sometimes experiences loose bowel movements after eating takeout. What is the most likely diagnosis based on her symptoms and the provided investigations?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Female with Oligoarthritis
A young female presents with oligoarthritis, primarily affecting large joints in the lower extremities. The asymmetrical arthritis suggests a seronegative spondyloarthropathy, with reactive arthritis being the most likely diagnosis due to a recent history of diarrhea. Reactive arthritis is an aseptic inflammatory arthritis triggered by enteric infections or chlamydial urethritis/cervicitis in genetically susceptible individuals. Septic arthritis is less likely due to the absence of systemic sepsis and red, hot swollen joints. Ankylosing spondylitis is unlikely as there are no features of inflammatory back pain. Gout is also unlikely as it is sudden-onset and exquisitely painful, and the patient has no risk factors. Still’s disease is associated with fevers, a rash, and small joint polyarthritis over a more prolonged period. Overall, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is reactive arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and dry eyes that have been bothering her for a few months. She also reports having a significantly dry mouth, which sometimes makes it difficult for her to eat. She has no notable medical history.
During the examination, the doctor observes mild redness in the eyes and a dry tongue. Suspecting a particular diagnosis, the doctor orders an initial blood test:
Antinuclear antibodies 1:1600 (<1:280)
What is the most conclusive test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Salivary gland biopsy
Explanation:Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome
Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.
The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.
Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia presents to the Emergency Department with worsening proximal myopathy and bone pain in his arms and legs. Laboratory results show significantly low levels of phosphate, and urine testing reveals the presence of glycosuria despite normal serum glucose levels. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Oncogenic osteomalacia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Hypophosphatemia
Hypophosphatemia, or low levels of phosphate in the blood, can be caused by various conditions. Two possible causes are oncogenic osteomalacia and hypoparathyroidism. However, based on the given information, hypoparathyroidism is unlikely as there has been no surgery that could have led to secondary hypoparathyroidism.
Oncogenic osteomalacia is associated with certain tumors, including mesenchymal tumors, adenocarcinomas, and hematological malignancies. These tumors produce a phosphaturic substance, such as fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF23), which decreases reabsorption of phosphate and production of 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D by the kidney. This results in hypophosphatemia, causing symptoms such as rickets, osteomalacia, bone pain, muscle weakness, and fractures. Treatment involves vitamin D metabolites and phosphate supplements, and removal of the primary tumor can also improve symptoms.
Another possible cause of hypophosphatemia is X-linked hypophosphatemia, which presents with symptoms of rickets in childhood and is treated with calcitriol and phosphate supplementation. Tumour lysis syndrome, associated with induction chemotherapy, and hyperparathyroidism, associated with hypercalcemia and renal impairment, are other differential diagnoses that can be ruled out based on the given information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman presented with symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon and skin tightness. Upon examination, she had sclerodactyly, skin thickening up to the shoulders, and bi-basal crepitations. A HRCT chest revealed ground glass changes, and she was prescribed monthly IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for six months, along with oral prednisolone (10 mg/day). However, over the course of a few weeks, she began to feel unwell, experiencing exertional shortness of breath and pedal edema. She also had a raised JVP, hypertension, and bi-basal crepitations. Recent tests showed a decline in her health, with a drop in Hb levels, an increase in MCV, and a decrease in platelets. Her blood pressure had also risen significantly, and her urine dipstick showed the presence of protein and blood. Given these symptoms, what is the most likely cause of her worsening renal function?
Your Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis
Explanation:Scleroderma and Renal Crisis
Scleroderma is a rare autoimmune disease that affects the skin and internal organs. In some cases, it can lead to a condition called scleroderma renal crisis (SRC), which occurs in up to 10% of cases. SRC is characterized by rapid onset renal failure, malignant hypertension, micro-angiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes, and symptoms of fluid overload.
Patients with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis and pulmonary fibrosis are at a higher risk of developing SRC. Other risk factors include recent onset scleroderma (less than three years), corticosteroid use (prednisolone more than 15 mg/day), and involvement of other systems. The underlying pathology of SRC is vasospasm, and treatment involves starting ACE inhibitors.
It is important to note that scleroderma does not typically associate with interstitial nephritis, glomerulonephritis, and acute tubular necrosis. Early recognition and treatment of SRC is crucial to prevent irreversible kidney damage and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with severe pains throughout her body, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. What could be the underlying cause of her new symptoms?
Your Answer: Chronic regional pain syndrome
Correct Answer: Fibromyalgia
Explanation:The individual is experiencing chronic widespread pain, along with lethargy and difficulty concentrating. Palpation reveals multiple tender points. While immunological results align with a previous diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, there is no indication of a flare-up or the development of a new connective tissue disease or myositis. Chronic regional pain syndrome typically involves persistent burning pain in one limb following a minor injury, but this is not the case here. The symptoms are indicative of fibromyalgia, which is not a diagnosis of exclusion and can coexist with other conditions.
Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes widespread pain throughout the body, along with tender points at specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 50. Other symptoms include lethargy, cognitive impairment (known as fibro fog), sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation and the presence of tender points. Management of fibromyalgia is challenging and requires an individualized, multidisciplinary approach. Aerobic exercise is the most effective treatment, along with cognitive behavioral therapy and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline. However, there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female presents to the acute medical unit with fever and rigors. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Recently, she was treated with trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection.
Upon examination, her blood results show a hemoglobin level of 110 g/l, platelets at 94 * 109/l, and a white blood cell count of 1.2 * 109/l. Her neutrophil count is 0.6 * 109/l, lymphocyte count is 0.4 * 109/l, and her CRP level is 212 mg/l. Her sodium level is 138 mmol/l, potassium level is 3.8 mmol/l, urea level is 7.8 mmol/l, and creatinine level is 104 µmol/l.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Reassurance
Correct Answer: Folinic acid
Explanation:When a patient experiences methotrexate toxicity, folinic acid is the preferred treatment. Methotrexate is a dihydrofolate reductase antagonist, and as such, taking trimethoprim, a selective inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase, is strictly prohibited. In this case, the patient has developed bone marrow suppression and neutropenic sepsis due to methotrexate toxicity. Folinic acid can bypass the effects of methotrexate on dihydrofolate reductase and replenish the body’s supply of folate. Therefore, it is crucial that the patient receives folinic acid immediately. Platelet transfusions are typically only given when the platelet count drops below 50 * 109/l. Additionally, the patient should be treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics for neutropenic sepsis. While urinary alkalisation with sodium bicarbonate has been shown to enhance drug excretion, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 59-year-old man with no permanent residence presents to the Emergency department with difficulty walking. He has a past medical history of alcoholism and type 2 diabetes. The patient reports that his shoes have worn out and due to decreased sensation, he was unaware that he had stepped on a nail. The lesion on his right foot has been present for about three weeks.
What is the next step in assessing his foot injury?Your Answer: Plain x-ray foot
Explanation:The next crucial step is to gather valuable information regarding the foot infection’s severity. After three weeks of injury, plain x-ray should reveal changes that indicate osteomyelitis, such as soft tissue swelling, bone demineralisation, cortical irregularity, and an elevated periosteum. Further evaluation of the infection’s extent and potential surgical approaches for debridement may require MRI imaging of the foot. Inflammatory markers are not specific indicators of infection, and ultrasound of the foot is only useful for visualising soft tissue swelling or pus/fluid collection. A wound swab may reveal a range of bacteria, which is why a broader spectrum antibiotic like co-amoxiclav is often prescribed for diabetic patients.
Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.
The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man, who has a history of heavy smoking, presents with a gradual onset of weakness and fatigue over the past 8 months. He has noticed difficulty in climbing stairs and complains of a dry mouth and feeling light-headed when standing. Symptoms are worse in the evening. On examination, there is mild proximal weakness in the lower limbs with absent reflexes. Nerve conduction studies show low-amplitude motor responses that normalise after a brief 10 s maximal isometric contraction, increasing two to threefold in amplitude. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Neuromuscular Disorders: Characteristics and Differences
Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a presynaptic disorder caused by autoantibodies against the voltage-gated calcium channel (VGCC), resulting in reduced acetylcholine release. Patients experience fatigue and weakness in proximal muscles, with little involvement of bulbar or extra-ocular muscles. Autonomic dysfunction is common. Diagnosis is confirmed with nerve conduction studies and seropositivity for VGCC autoantibodies. A search for malignancy should be undertaken.
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an acquired autoimmune disease caused by acetylcholine receptor autoantibodies, leading to reduced impulse transmission. Symptoms include fluctuating, fatigable weakness, worsened later in the day or after prolonged use of specific muscles. Most patients have ocular or bulbar weakness.
Myotonic dystrophy is a rare, autosomal dominant disease characterized by myotonia, muscle atrophy, cataracts, hypogonadism, frontal balding, and cardiac abnormalities.
Polymyositis presents with insidious weakness, most prominently involving the shoulder and pelvic girdle muscles, dysphagia, and respiratory weakness. Muscle pain and tenderness may be present.
Subacute motor neuronopathy is seen occasionally in association with lymphoma, presenting with asymmetric, subacute lower motor neuron weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, and areflexia predominantly affecting the lower limbs and sparing bulbar muscles.
Understanding Neuromuscular Disorders and Their Unique Characteristics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 68-year-old man has been experiencing painful swelling in his right knee and difficulty walking for the past three days. He has also had two instances of severe pain and swelling in his right big toe within the last year. A knee aspiration revealed the presence of leukocytes but no organisms on Gram stain, as well as negatively birefringent crystals on polarised light microscopy. Recent blood tests showed normal renal function, but a raised serum urate level of 452 µmol/L (210-415 µmol/L). What is the next step in managing his condition in the long term, once the current episode of acute synovitis has subsided?
Your Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:The British Society of Rheumatology guidelines recommend maintaining plasma urate below 300 µmol/L in gout management, with drug therapy (such as allopurinol) indicated in certain cases. Febuxostat is recommended only for patients intolerant of allopurinol. Lifestyle advice is also important. In managing an acute episode of gout, anti-inflammatory medication should be started immediately, affected joints should be rested, and corticosteroids can be used in refractory disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man is referred to the Rheumatology Department with recurrent sinusitis. He also has chronic joint pain and overall fatigue.
Blood testing reveals urea of 13.8 mmol/l and creatinine of 320 µmol/l.
Which of the following findings would most likely support the suspected diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis?Your Answer: Granulomatous inflammation on renal or lung biopsy
Correct Answer: Positive c-ANCA
Explanation:Understanding Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a type of systemic vasculitis that affects multiple organs. It is characterized by a triad of systemic necrotising angiitis, necrotising granulomatous inflammation of the respiratory tract, and necrotising glomerulonephritis. A positive c-ANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies) is a common feature, along with thrombocytosis, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and C-reactive protein (CRP). Renal or lung biopsy may show granulomatous inflammation. Treatment involves high-dose corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide (or rituximab) to induce remission, followed by oral corticosteroids and a suitable second-line steroid-sparing agent.
Understanding Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 70-year-old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing two episodes of loss of consciousness within the past 48 hours. His wife witnessed both episodes, which occurred while he was sitting in his chair at home. There was no observed limb jerking, urinary incontinence, or tongue biting. The patient reports difficulty walking short distances, which he attributed to his age. He has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and lives with his wife. On examination, he has a significant thoracic kyphosis and limited spinal lateral flexion and bilateral spinal rotation. His cardiovascular exam reveals heart sounds I and II with an early diastolic murmur, and his respiratory exam reveals fine inspiratory crackles at both apices. His lying and standing blood pressures are normal. A CT head shows mild microangiopathic disease. The patient is alert and comfortable, but attached to cardiac telemetry. What would you expect to see on his ECG?
Your Answer: Bradycardia with 1st degree heart block
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a condition that can present with various extra-articular features, commonly referred to as the ‘A’s. These include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, and amyloidosis. Other associations include IgA nephropathy, arachnoiditis, and aortitis. In this case, the patient has a positive Schober’s test and a murmur of aortic regurgitation, likely due to aortitis. The patient’s syncope episodes are likely cardiac in origin, possibly due to AV node block causing first-degree heart block on ECG and resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion. Although plantar fasciitis and inflammatory bowel disease are sometimes associated with ankylosing spondylitis, they are not part of the classic ‘A’s.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while the patient may experience night pain that improves upon getting up.
Clinical examination of patients with ankylosing spondylitis may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. The Schober’s test, which involves drawing a line 10 cm above and 5 cm below the back dimples and measuring the distance between them when the patient bends forward, may also be used to assess the condition. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (which is more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. She reports observing a bluish-purple patchy rash mainly on areas exposed to the sun. During the examination, she displays purple eyelids and rough raised purple patches on her knuckles. Her nails exhibit ragged cuticles, and blood vessels are visible on the nail fold. A poorly defined purple rash is present on both her arms extending up to her shoulders. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dermatomyositis
Explanation:The diagnosis is dermatomyositis. The patient exhibits a rash that is sensitive to sunlight, as well as a rash around the eyelids known as heliotrope rash, and Gottron’s papules. The rash distribution is consistent with dermatomyositis. Lupus typically presents with a butterfly-shaped rash that is erythematous and sensitive to sunlight, and there may be a history of joint and neurological symptoms. Lichen planus is a purple and itchy rash that appears in patches, with a distribution similar to psoriasis.
Understanding Dermatomyositis
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying malignancies. Patients with dermatomyositis may experience symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, and photosensitive skin rashes. The skin lesions may include a macular rash over the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash in the periorbital region, Gottron’s papules, and mechanic’s hands. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, and dysphonia.
To diagnose dermatomyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including screening for underlying malignancies. The majority of patients with dermatomyositis are ANA positive, and around 30% have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, such as anti-synthetase antibodies, antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
In summary, dermatomyositis is a condition that affects both the muscles and skin. It can be associated with other disorders or malignancies, and patients may experience a range of symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management are essential for improving outcomes and quality of life for those with dermatomyositis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 27-year-old female presents with lethargy, intermittent low grade fever, bilateral wrist pain, pleuritic type chest pain and an erythematous scaly rash perinasally. She has no significant medical history but her family history is significant for an aunt with autoimmune hepatitis and a brother with type 1 diabetes and pernicious anaemia.
On examination, she appears well with a blood pressure of 110/78 mmHg and pulse of 76/min. Abdominal and cardiovascular examination were normal. Dullness to percussion over both lung bases was noted. She had swelling and tenderness of her wrists. A malar rash on a background of moderate facial acne with some scarring was also observed. She reports a history of acne which has improved since she started taking minocycline prescribed by her GP 3 months ago. She is also on oral contraceptives for irregular periods.
Investigations reveal a Hb of 10.3 g/dl, MCV of 79 fl, platelets of 256 * 109/l, WBC of 7 * 109/l, creatinine of 88 umol/L, Na+ of 140 mmol/L, K+ of 3.6 mmol/L, ANA positive, anti dsDNA negative, and normal C3 & C4 complements. Chest X-ray shows blunting of costophrenic angles bilaterally.
What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Anti histone antibody
Explanation:Patients with SLE are more commonly linked to DIL, whereas anti ds-DNA is a more distinct indicator of systemic lupus erythematosus. Additionally, it should be noted that complement levels are typical in DIL but reduced in SLE.
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that differs from systemic lupus erythematosus in that it does not typically involve renal or nervous system complications. This condition can be resolved by discontinuing the medication that caused it. Symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint and muscle pain, skin rashes (such as a malar rash), and pleurisy. Patients with this condition will test positive for ANA, but negative for dsDNA. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith are only present in around 5%. The most common causes of drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine, while less common causes include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 93-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of her chronic lower back pain and general all over body aches. A lumbosacral x-ray showed new wedge compression fractures at L4 and L5.
Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 25 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 12 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 26 g/L (35 - 50)
Calcium 1.9 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 0.9 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Vitamin D 8 nmol/L (>50)
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Start bisphosphonate and calcium supplements
Correct Answer: 40,000 units colecalciferol once weekly for 7 weeks and calcium supplements
Explanation:Osteomalacia is treated by supplementing with vitamin D, often with an initial loading dose regimen. In this case, the patient has a severe vitamin D deficiency with a level of only 6 nmol/L, which can cause bone and muscular pains, low mood, fatigue, and weakness. Therefore, the recommended treatment is a high dose of colecalciferol (40,000 units) once a week for 7 weeks, along with calcium supplements.
If a patient is symptomatic or about to start an anti-reabsorptive agent (such as zoledronate, denosumab, or teriparatide), rapid replacement of vitamin D is recommended. However, denosumab is not recommended for patients with vitamin D deficiency due to the increased risk of hypocalcaemia.
For this patient, starting with colecalciferol 400 units with calcium carbonate is appropriate since she is symptomatic and has a vitamin D level below 25 nmol/L. Bisphosphonates and calcium supplements should not be started in a vitamin D deficient patient due to the risk of hypocalcaemia, and vitamin D deficiency can also decrease the effectiveness of bisphosphonates in improving bone mineral density.
Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment
Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has been referred to Rheumatology clinic due to experiencing widespread aches and pains felt throughout her body. What is the underlying cause of her pain?
Your Answer: Fibromyalgia
Explanation:The patient is experiencing chronic widespread pain for more than three months, along with lethargy, non-restorative sleep, and multiple tender points upon palpation. The basic blood tests show no significant abnormalities, and there are no indications of connective tissue disease or other pathologies. These symptoms are consistent with fibromyalgia, a condition characterized by chronic widespread pain, muscular tender points, and associated symptoms such as fatigue, non-restorative sleep, or cognitive dysfunction.
It is important to note that weakly positive anti-nuclear antigen results do not necessarily indicate systemic lupus erythematosus, especially in the absence of symptoms and signs of the disease. In this case, requesting immunological tests may have been unnecessary given the lack of clinical evidence of connective tissue disease.
Chronic regional pain syndrome typically involves persistent burning pain in one limb, often following a minor injury. The patient’s brief mental state examination does not suggest significant depression or generalized anxiety.
Fibromyalgia is a condition that causes widespread pain throughout the body, along with tender points at specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 50. Other symptoms include lethargy, cognitive impairment (known as fibro fog), sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation and the presence of tender points. Management of fibromyalgia is challenging and requires an individualized, multidisciplinary approach. Aerobic exercise is the most effective treatment, along with cognitive behavioral therapy and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline. However, there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 67-year-old Caucasian female presents with a 3-week history of worsening headache and shortness of breath for the past 2 days. She reports difficulty sleeping at night due to her shortness of breath. She has no known medical or drug history. During examination, bilateral splinter hemorrhages are noted, with 4 on the right and 2 on the left, along with calcium deposits distally and black spots in the pulp of the fingers. Perioral skin puckering is also observed. Cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, while chest examination reveals bilateral coarse inspiratory crackles. Neurological examination is unremarkable, except for fundoscopy revealing papilledema, cotton wool spots, and flame hemorrhages. The patient is apyrexial, with Sats at 95% on 2 liters, respiratory rate at 24/min, blood pressure at 195/115 mmHg, HR at 90/min, and regular. Chest x-ray shows bilateral pleural effusion with bilateral alveolar shadowing. What is the most important immediate management?
Your Answer: Oral captopril
Explanation:ACEi is preferred over other anti-hypertensives in SRC, while steroids should be avoided as they increase the risk of SRC and worsen the condition in the acute setting.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is still unknown. It is more common in females than males, with three patterns of the disease. The first pattern is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, scleroderma affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. A subtype of this pattern is CREST syndrome, which includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.
The second pattern is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which affects the trunk and proximal limbs, and is associated with scl-70 antibodies. This pattern has a poor prognosis, with respiratory involvement being the most common cause of death, including interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Other complications include renal disease and hypertension, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor.
The third pattern is scleroderma without internal organ involvement, which is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies play a significant role in systemic sclerosis, with ANA positive in 90% of cases, RF positive in 30%, anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, and anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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