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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his psychiatrist as an outpatient. During the review, the psychiatrist observes that the patient's speech mostly follows a logical sequence, but at times, the patient uses a seemingly inappropriate series of rhyming words. For instance, when asked about his activities the previous day, he responded, I went for a run, had some fun, saw the sun, and then I was done.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the speech abnormality exhibited by the patient?

      Your Answer: Clanging

      Explanation:

      Language Disturbances in Mental Illness

      Clanging, echolalia, neologism, perseveration, and word salad are all language disturbances that may occur in individuals with mental illness. Clanging is the use of words that sound similar but are not related in meaning. This is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or psychosis. Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Neologism is the creation of new words that are not part of standard language. Perseveration is the repetition of a word or activity beyond what is appropriate. Finally, word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.

      These language disturbances can be indicative of underlying mental illness and can be used as diagnostic criteria. It is important for mental health professionals to be aware of these language disturbances and to assess their presence in patients. Treatment for these language disturbances may involve medication, therapy, or a combination of both. By addressing these language disturbances, individuals with mental illness may be better able to communicate and function in their daily lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17
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  • Question 2 - You are requested to assess a neonate who is 2 hours old in...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a neonate who is 2 hours old in the delivery suite. The baby was delivered through an elective Caesarean section. The mother's antenatal history reveals gestational diabetes. During a heel prick test, the baby's blood glucose level was found to be 2.2 mmol/L. What should be the subsequent course of action in managing the baby?

      Your Answer: Observe and encourage early feeding

      Explanation:

      It is typical for newborns to experience temporary hypoglycaemia during the first few hours after birth. However, infants born to mothers with diabetes (whether gestational or pre-existing) are at a higher risk of developing this condition. This is due to the fact that high blood sugar levels in the mother during labour can trigger the release of insulin in the foetus, and once born, the baby no longer has a constant supply of glucose from the mother.

      Fortunately, in most cases, transient hypoglycaemia does not require any medical intervention and is closely monitored. It is recommended that mothers feed their newborns early and at regular intervals. For babies born to diabetic mothers, a hypoglycaemia protocol will be initiated and discontinued once the infant has at least three blood glucose readings above 2.5 mmol/L and is feeding appropriately.

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man is released from the hospital after suffering from a stroke....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is released from the hospital after suffering from a stroke. He was prescribed multiple new medications during his hospitalization. He complains of experiencing diarrhea. Which of the following medications is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin is the Most Likely Medication to Cause Gastrointestinal Disturbances

      When it comes to medications that can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, there are several options to consider. However, out of all the medications listed, metformin is the most likely culprit. While all of the medications can cause issues in the digestive system, metformin is known for causing more frequent and severe symptoms. It is important to be aware of this potential side effect when taking metformin and to speak with a healthcare provider if symptoms become too severe. By the potential risks associated with metformin, patients can make informed decisions about their treatment options and take steps to manage any gastrointestinal disturbances that may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of headache, dizziness, and claudication....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of headache, dizziness, and claudication. Upon measuring his blood pressure, it is found that he has hypertension in his upper limbs and hypotension in his lower limbs. What other finding is most likely to be present in this case?

      Your Answer: Vasculitis involving the aortic arch

      Correct Answer: Notching of the inferior margins of the ribs

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Cardiovascular Disorders in Adults

      Cardiovascular disorders are a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in adults. Among the most common causes of these disorders are aortic coarctation, patent ductus arteriosus, aortic valvular stenosis, pulmonary valvular stenosis, and vasculitis involving the aortic arch.

      Notching of the Inferior Margins of the Ribs: Aortic Coarctation
      Aortic coarctation is caused by stenosis in the aortic arch, leading to hypertension proximal to and hypotension distal to the stenotic segment. Enlarged intercostal arteries produce notching of the inferior margins of the ribs, which is diagnostic of this condition.

      Chronic Cor Pulmonale: Patent Ductus Arteriosus
      Patent ductus arteriosus leads to shunting of blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery, eventually causing chronic cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure.

      Systolic Hypotension: Aortic Valvular Stenosis
      Aortic valvular stenosis is caused by a congenitally malformed valve, usually a valve with two cusps or a single cusp. It manifests with systolic hypotension, recurrent syncope, and hypertrophy/dilation of the left ventricle.

      Chronic Cor Pulmonale and Heart Failure: Pulmonary Valvular Stenosis
      Pulmonary valvular stenosis is a rare form of congenital heart disease that leads to chronic cor pulmonale and heart failure.

      Ischemia in the Upper Body: Vasculitis Involving the Aortic Arch
      Vasculitis involving the aortic arch is found in Takayasu arthritis, causing chronic inflammatory changes in the aortic arch and its branches. This condition leads to stenosis of these arteries, resulting in signs and symptoms of ischemia in the upper part of the body. It is also known as pulseless disease due to weak or absent radial pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      68.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A pharmaceutical company wishes to conduct a study on the effect of a...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company wishes to conduct a study on the effect of a new drug on the survival rates of elderly patients with malignant melanoma.
      Which one of the following is considered the gold standard experimental study design to assess the effect of an intervention on a variable of interest (eg survival)?

      Your Answer: Cohort study

      Correct Answer: Randomised controlled trial (RCT)

      Explanation:

      Types of Study Designs in Medical Research

      Medical research involves various study designs to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions and understand the occurrence of diseases. The following are some of the commonly used study designs in medical research:

      1. Randomised controlled trial (RCT): This study design compares a treatment to a placebo or another treatment by randomly allocating a sample population. RCTs are considered the gold standard study design for assessing interventions as they remove several sources of bias.

      2. Systematic review: Systematic reviews synthesise the currently available evidence on a topic and are not a type of experimental study design. They are useful in providing a comprehensive overview of the existing evidence.

      3. Meta-analysis: A meta-analysis is a statistical method for combining data from multiple studies. Meta-analyses are not a type of experimental study design but play an important role in planning new studies.

      4. Cohort study: Cohort studies follow a group prospectively and look at the frequency of events occurring to the said cohort. They are a type of observational study and are useful in understanding the occurrence of diseases.

      5. Case-control study: Case-control studies define their subjects by outcome status at the outset of the study. They are useful in identifying potential causative/contributory links between exposure to a risk factor(s) and the occurrence of a disease.

      In conclusion, each study design has its strengths and limitations, and researchers must choose the appropriate design based on their research question and available resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      33
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  • Question 6 - A 79-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with sudden onset of weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with sudden onset of weakness in his right arm and leg accompanied by blurred vision. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes and is currently taking ramipril and metformin. During examination, the left pupil is dilated with absent consensual and direct light reflexes, while the right pupil has intact reflexes. Bilateral upper and lower limb power is 3/5. Based on this presentation, where is the most likely location of the patient's stroke?

      Your Answer: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: Midbrain

      Explanation:

      Weber’s syndrome is a type of midbrain stroke that causes ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral hemiparesis. It is caused by a blockage in the branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain. Anterior cerebral artery strokes cause contralateral lower limb weakness, while basilar artery strokes cause bilateral paralysis and locked-in syndrome.

      When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.

      If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.

      Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.

      Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      82.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her family believes she is becoming more forgetful. She has also noticed a tremor in her right hand and is generally ‘slowing down’. She takes amlodipine for hypertension and a daily aspirin of her own volition. She has recently been treated for a urinary tract infection by her general practitioner. She also complains of confusion and seeing spiders climbing the walls of her bedroom. She has no other urinary complaints. Her abbreviated mental test score is 5/10. Lying and standing blood pressures are 138/76 and 127/70, respectively.
      Select the most likely diagnosis from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia (LBD)

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Dementia Types: Lewy Body Dementia, Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Disease, Vascular Dementia, and Multisystem Atrophy

      Dementia is a complex condition that can have various underlying causes. Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is characterized by cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, rapid eye movement (REM) sleep disorders, and autonomic disturbance. Treatment for LBD focuses on symptom management, including the use of cholinesterase inhibitors and antidepressants.

      Parkinson’s disease, on the other hand, typically presents with bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, but not cognitive impairment in the initial stages. Autonomic dysfunction is also expected in Parkinson’s disease, which is not evident in the given case. Alzheimer’s disease may cause forgetfulness and slowing down, but visual hallucinations are not typical. Vascular dementia usually presents with a stepwise deterioration that correlates with small cerebrovascular events, but not visual hallucinations. Multisystem atrophy is a rare condition characterized by parkinsonism with autonomic dysfunction, but it is less likely in this case due to the lack of orthostatic hypotension.

      Therefore, distinguishing between different types of dementia is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several instances of tonic-clonic seizures. They plan to start a family within the next year and seek advice. She is currently controlling her epilepsy with sodium valproate. What is the most appropriate recommendation for managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to an epilepsy specialist for evaluation and recommendation of antiepileptic medication changes

      Explanation:

      Minimizing Teratogenicity in Antiepileptic Medications for Women Wishing to Start a Family

      For women with epilepsy who wish to start a family, it is crucial to minimize exposure to teratogenic antiepileptic medications while still controlling their seizures. Sodium valproate, a commonly used antiepileptic drug, is highly teratogenic and associated with congenital malformations and neural tube defects. Therefore, it is recommended to change medication prior to conception, as advised by an epilepsy specialist after a thorough evaluation of risks and benefits.

      One option may be to add levetiracetam to the current medication regimen, as it is a pregnancy category C drug that may help control seizures. However, carbamazepine or lamotrigine may be preferred based on limited evidence.

      Stopping sodium valproate and starting phenytoin is not recommended, as phenytoin also carries a significant risk of teratogenicity and has toxic and side effects.

      Increasing the dose of sodium valproate is not advised, as it can negatively affect fetal neurodevelopment.

      Similarly, stopping sodium valproate and adding phenobarbital is not indicated, as phenobarbital is also associated with an increased risk of teratogenicity.

      Overall, it is important for women with epilepsy who wish to start a family to consult with an epilepsy specialist to evaluate and recommend appropriate antiepileptic medication changes to minimize teratogenicity while still controlling seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 9 - A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of...

    Incorrect

    • A large area of grey-blue pigment is noted over the left buttock of a 6-month-old baby by the pediatrician during a routine check-up. There are no other signs of bleeding or bruising visible on the baby. The baby was born full-term and the mother has no health conditions.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermal melanocytosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Bruising in Newborns

      Newborns may develop bruises for various reasons, and it is essential to identify the cause to ensure appropriate management. Here are some common causes of bruising in newborns:

      1. Dermal melanocytosis: These blue-grey birthmarks are common in babies of African, Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, or Asian descent. They usually appear on the lower back or buttocks and do not require any treatment.

      2. Haemophilia: This inherited clotting disorder may present later in childhood as prolonged bleeding following an injury or haemarthrosis.

      3. Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn: This condition is caused by vitamin K deficiency and may present with bleeding from the GI tract, umbilical cord, or venipuncture sites.

      4. Non-accidental injury: While rare in newborns, non-accidental injury can cause bruising. However, this is not a consideration in a newborn who has not yet been exposed to any risk of abuse.

      5. Osteogenesis imperfecta: This genetic condition affects bone strength and may present with multiple fractures from minimal-impact injuries. A sign of the condition is blue-grey tingling of the sclera but not of the skin.

      It is crucial to consult a healthcare provider if you notice any unexplained bruising in your newborn to rule out any underlying medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant medical or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.

      In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.

      The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes of frank haematuria. He does not recall any abdominal or loin pain. He had an upper respiratory tract infection a few days ago. Urine dipstick shows blood, and blood tests are normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Glomerulonephritis and Other Possible Causes of Haematuria in a Young Patient

      Haematuria in a young patient can be caused by various conditions, including glomerulonephritis, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, sexually transmitted infections, and bladder cancer. IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s Disease, is the most common glomerulonephritis in the developed world and commonly affects young men. It presents with macroscopic haematuria a few days after a viral upper respiratory tract infection. A renal biopsy will show IgA deposits in the mesangium, and treatment is with steroids or cyclophosphamide if renal function is deteriorating.

      Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, on the other hand, presents in young children usually one to two weeks post-streptococcal infection with smoky urine and general malaise. Proteinuria is also expected in a glomerulonephritis. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and is associated with an upper respiratory tract infection. However, nephrotic syndrome involves proteinuria, which this patient does not have.

      It is also important to exclude sexually transmitted infections, as many are asymptomatic, but signs of infection and inflammation would likely show up on urine dipstick. Bladder cancer is unlikely in such a young patient devoid of other symptoms. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and proper diagnosis are necessary to determine the underlying cause of haematuria in a young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 12 - A prospective study is designed to compare the risks and benefits of combined...

    Incorrect

    • A prospective study is designed to compare the risks and benefits of combined oestrogen and progesterone replacement therapy versus oestrogen-only replacement therapy in patients aged < 55 years, who are within 10 years of their menopause. One group of women will receive systemic oestrogen and progesterone for 4 years (HRT group) and the second group will receive the same systemic dose of oestrogen (without progesterone) for the same period (ERT group). The levonorgestrel intrauterine system is placed in women of the second group to counterbalance the effect of systemic oestrogen on the endometrium. The study will only include women who have not undergone a hysterectomy.
      Which one of the following outcomes is most likely to be observed at the end of this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The HRT group will most likely have a higher rate of breast cancer, compared to the general population

      Explanation:

      Hormone Replacement Therapy: Risks and Benefits

      Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) and Estrogen Replacement Therapy (ERT) are commonly used to alleviate symptoms of menopause, such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness. However, these treatments come with potential risks and benefits that should be carefully considered.

      One of the main concerns with HRT is the increased risk of breast cancer, particularly with combined estrogen and progesterone therapy. The absolute risk is small, but it is important to discuss this with a healthcare provider. On the other hand, HRT and ERT have been shown to reduce the risk of osteoporosis and bone fractures.

      Another potential risk of HRT and ERT is an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis. However, the risk may be lower with HRT compared to ERT. Additionally, both treatments have been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in women under 60.

      Oestrogen replacement therapy (without progesterone) may reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases, but it is important to note that the risk of breast cancer may not be significantly altered.

      Overall, the decision to use HRT or ERT should be based on an individual’s symptoms, medical history, and potential risks and benefits. It is important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider and make an informed decision.

      Weighing the Risks and Benefits of Hormone Replacement Therapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man is involved in a high-speed car accident and suffers from...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is involved in a high-speed car accident and suffers from severe injuries. During the initial assessment, it is discovered that he has free fluid in his abdominal cavity on FAST scan. Due to his unstable condition, he is taken to the operating theatre for laparotomy. The surgeons identify the main sources of bleeding in the mesentery of the small bowel and tie them off. The injured sections of the small bowel are stapled off but not reanastamosed. However, there are multiple tiny areas of bleeding, especially in the wound edges, which the surgeons refer to as a general ooze. The abdomen is closed, and the patient is admitted to the intensive care unit. The surgeons plan to return to the theatre to repair the small bowel 24 hours later when the patient is more stable. What is the principle of damage control laparotomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy performed to restore normal physiology

      Explanation:

      Damage Control Laparotomy: A Life-Saving Procedure

      Damage control laparotomy is a surgical procedure performed when prolonged surgery would further deteriorate the patient’s physiology. Patients who require this procedure often present with a triad of acidosis, hypothermia, and coagulopathy. The primary goal of this procedure is to stop life-threatening bleeding and reduce contamination, rather than reconstructing damaged tissue and reanastomosing the bowel. For instance, the surgeon may staple off a perforated bowel to prevent further contamination.

      After the abbreviated laparotomy for damage control, the patient is transferred to the intensive care unit for resuscitation. The medical team focuses on correcting the patient’s abnormal physiology, such as warming up the patient and correcting coagulopathy. The patient is closely monitored until their physiology is closer to normal, which usually takes 24 to 48 hours.

      Once the patient’s physiology has improved, the surgeon performs an operation to reconstruct the anatomy. This approach allows the patient to recover from the initial surgery and stabilize before undergoing further procedures. Damage control laparotomy is a life-saving procedure that can prevent further deterioration of the patient’s condition and increase their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 14 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced level of consciousness, non-blanching rash, headache, neck stiffness and fever. Her mother accompanies her and states that this confusion started several hours previously. She also states that her daughter has not passed urine since the previous day, at least 16 hours ago. On clinical examination, she appears unwell and confused, and she has a purpuric rash over her lower limbs. Her observation results are as follows:
      Temperature 39.5 °C
      Blood pressure 82/50 mmHg
      Heart rate 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute
      Which of the following are high-risk criteria when diagnosing and risk-stratifying suspected sepsis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systolic blood pressure of 82 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Understanding the High-Risk Criteria for Suspected Sepsis

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention. To help healthcare professionals identify and grade the severity of suspected sepsis, certain high-risk criteria are used. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      – A systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or less, or a systolic blood pressure of > 40 mmHg below normal, is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. A moderate- to high-risk criterion is a systolic blood pressure of 91–100 mmHg.
      – Not passing urine for the previous 18 hours is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. For catheterised patients, passing < 0.5 ml/kg of urine per hour is also a high-risk criterion, as is a heart rate of > 130 bpm. Not passing urine for 12-18 hours is considered a ‘amber flag’ for sepsis.
      – Objective evidence of new altered mental state is a high-risk criteria for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. Moderate- to high-risk criteria would include: history from patient, friend or relative of new onset of altered behaviour or mental state and history of acute deterioration of functional ability.
      – Non-blanching rash of the skin, as well as a mottled or ashen appearance and cyanosis of the skin, lips or tongue, are high-risk criteria for severe sepsis.
      – A raised respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute or more is a high-risk criterion for sepsis, as is a new need for oxygen with 40% FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) or more to maintain saturation of > 92% (or > 88% in known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). A raised respiratory rate is 21–24 breaths per minute.

      By understanding these high-risk criteria, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and treat suspected sepsis, potentially saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs

      Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.

      On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of recurrent spontaneous miscarriages and DVT /...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of recurrent spontaneous miscarriages and DVT / PEs comes for a follow-up appointment at your clinic. During the examination, you observe the presence of purpuric rashes, splinter haemorrhages, and livedo reticularis. Considering the probable diagnosis, what would be the most suitable auto-immune antibody test to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-cardiolipin antibodies

      Explanation:

      The antibodies associated with antiphospholipid syndrome are lupus anticoagulant (LA) and anti-cardiolipin antibodies (aCL).

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented with fever and joint pain. During her consultation with the doctor, the doctor observed a rash on both cheeks. A kidney biopsy sample showed deposits of immunoglobulin, C3, and fibrinogen in the basement membrane. Her serum analysis revealed elevated levels of anti-dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that predominantly affects young women. It is characterized by a photosensitive butterfly-shaped rash on the face and joint manifestations. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, SLE does not cause severe destruction of joints. SLE is a multisystem condition that can affect many systems, including haematological, renal, respiratory, and cardiac systems. The underlying pathological mechanism of damage in SLE is immune complex deposition, which produces antibodies against several nuclear components of the body, especially against double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and dsDNA are associated with SLE, as is a low C3 and C4. The immunoglobulin, C3 and fibrinogen deposits found in this patient are classic of the immune complex deposition seen in SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with symptoms of fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with symptoms of fever and headache after returning from a trip to central America. He has no significant medical history or regular medications. Upon investigation, he is diagnosed with Plasmodium vivax and completes a course of acute treatment without adverse effects. It is confirmed that he has no allergies. What is the appropriate treatment to initiate at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primaquine

      Explanation:

      Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment

      Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome, and Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.

      The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is observed in Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae has a cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage, which may cause relapse following treatment.

      In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. However, in areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. Pregnant women should avoid ACTs. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.

      Overall, non-falciparum malaria has distinct causes, features, and treatment options that should be considered for effective management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 24-year-old woman presents to a gynaecology clinic with persistent pain during sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presents to a gynaecology clinic with persistent pain during sexual intercourse. Despite previous attempts with NSAIDs and progesterone-only hormonal treatments, her symptoms have not improved. She has a medical history of migraine with aura. The pain is most severe with deep penetration and worsens towards the end of her menstrual cycle. She also experiences dysmenorrhoea. During pelvic examination, tender nodularity is noted at the posterior vaginal fornix.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GnRH analogues

      Explanation:

      If paracetamol and NSAIDs have not effectively controlled symptoms of endometriosis, GnRH analogues may be used as a next step in treatment. This is the appropriate course of action for a woman presenting with symptoms of deep dyspareunia and dysmenorrhoea, along with tender nodularity on examination in the posterior vaginal fornix. As endometriosis is exacerbated by rising oestrogen levels during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, inducing a menopause state with GnRH analogues can help alleviate symptoms. However, it is important to note that this treatment can cause menopause-like side effects and should only be initiated by specialists after careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills is not recommended in this case due to the woman’s medical history of migraine with aura. Similarly, IM ceftriaxone and PO doxycycline are not appropriate treatments as they are used to manage pelvic inflammatory disease, which presents differently and is not influenced by hormones. Intra-uterine devices are also not recommended as a treatment for endometriosis as they lack a hormonal component and can worsen symptoms.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 4-month old baby presents with a murmur and cyanosis. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month old baby presents with a murmur and cyanosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Cyanotic Congenital Cardiac Disease

      Cyanotic congenital cardiac disease is a condition that causes a lack of oxygen in the body, resulting in a blue or purple discoloration of the skin. The most common cause of this condition that does not present in the first few days of life is Fallot’s tetralogy. However, transposition of the great arteries is almost as common, but it presents in the first few days. Other causes of cyanotic congenital cardiac disease include tricuspid atresia, single ventricle, and transposition of the great vessels. As the condition progresses, Eisenmenger’s syndrome may develop due to the switch to right to left flow associated with deteriorating VSD. It is important to identify and treat these conditions early to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - After an uncomplicated pregnancy, a 20-year-old woman gives birth to a baby boy...

    Incorrect

    • After an uncomplicated pregnancy, a 20-year-old woman gives birth to a baby boy through vaginal delivery. During the one-week check-up, the infant is observed to have crusting and purulent discharge in the eyes. What should be the next course of action for the baby's care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take urgent swabs of the discharge for microbiological investigation

      Explanation:

      While minor conjunctivitis with encrusting of the eyelids is usually harmless, a purulent discharge could be a sign of a severe infection such as chlamydia or gonococcus. In infants with a purulent eye discharge, it is crucial to take swab samples immediately for microbiological testing that can detect chlamydia and gonococcus. Although it is recommended to begin systemic antibiotic treatment for potential gonococcal infection while waiting for the swab results, the swabs must be taken first.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. During the examination, she displays symptoms of anaphylaxis.
      What is the initial sign that is likely to appear first in a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Runny nose, skin rash, swelling of the lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs of Anaphylaxis: From Early Symptoms to Late Indicators of Shock

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. The first signs of anaphylaxis may look like normal symptoms of an allergy, such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips. However, if left untreated, more serious signs can appear within 30 minutes, indicating compromise of circulation and end-organs.

      One of the later and more severe indicators of respiratory compromise in patients with anaphylaxis is stridor. This is a prominent wheezing sound caused by the obstruction of the airway due to swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat. If the swelling continues, complete blockage can occur, resulting in asphyxiation.

      Hypotension is another late sign of anaphylaxis when the patient goes into shock. During anaphylaxis, the body reacts and releases chemicals such as histamine, causing blood vessels to vasodilate and leading to a drop in blood pressure. This can result in episodes of syncope, or fainting, as well as other symptoms of end-organ dysfunction such as hypotonia and incontinence.

      A weak pulse is also a late sign of anaphylaxis, indicating compromised circulation. However, it is not one of the first signs to present, as the body goes through a series of reactions before reaching this stage.

      In summary, understanding the signs of anaphylaxis is crucial for prompt treatment and prevention of life-threatening complications. Early symptoms such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips should not be ignored, as they can progress to more severe indicators of respiratory and circulatory compromise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 23 - What is the mechanism of action of venlafaxine for elderly patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of venlafaxine for elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of venlafaxine involves inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and noradrenaline, making it a type of antidepressant known as a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor. When choosing an antidepressant, factors such as patient preference, previous sensitization, overdose risk, and cost should be considered, although SSRIs are typically the first-line treatment due to their favorable risk-to-benefit ratio.

      Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors

      Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.

      Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.

      Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought in by his concerned parents. Since two...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought in by his concerned parents. Since two weeks of age, he has had a slowly expanding lump to the left side of his head. He is otherwise healthy, gaining weight, and breastfeeding well. He wakes to demand food and is starting to show signs of social smiling. He was delivered by unassisted normal vaginal delivery at 38 weeks’ gestation after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Birthweight was 3.2 kg. Other than a slightly prolonged second stage of labor, there is no significant perinatal history. He has no siblings and there is no family history of note.

      During the examination, an alert and active baby is observed. Vital signs are normal. There is a smooth lump measuring 2 × 3 cm arising in the left parieto-occipital region. The lump is compressible and non-pulsatile and does not cross the suture lines. A head to toe examination of the baby reveals no other lumps, skin lesions, rashes, or marks. The anterior fontanelle is normal. The baby has good tone and a normal Moro reflex. There is no jaundice or pallor.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Explanation:

      Common Neonatal Head Injuries: Causes, Symptoms, and Differences

      Cephalohaematoma, Caput succedaneum, Cephalocele, and Subgaleal haemorrhage are common neonatal head injuries that can occur during birth. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and differences between these injuries is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Cephalohaematoma is a subperiosteal haemorrhage that occurs in 1-2% of live births, usually associated with a prolonged second stage of labour. It presents as a well-circumscribed, fluctuant mass over the parietal bone, and does not cross suture lines. Complications such as anaemia and jaundice can result from a cephalohaematoma, depending on its size.

      Caput succedaneum is a form of birth trauma caused by pressure exerted on the presenting part by the cervix during the first stage of labour. It presents as diffuse swelling of the scalp and is associated with moulding. It can cross the midline and extends over suture lines. It resolves over the course of the first few days of life.

      Cephalocele is a rare congenital condition where brain herniation occurs through a defect in the cranium. It is usually detected antenatally and most commonly presents in the midline.

      Subgaleal haemorrhage is most commonly associated with instrumental delivery, caused by rupture of the emissary veins connecting the dural sinuses with the scalp veins. It presents as a fluctuant mass over the occiput, with superficial skin bruising 12-72 hours post-delivery. It may cross suture lines and pass over fontanelles, distinguishing it from a cephalohaematoma.

      It is important to note that non-accidental injury should always be considered in cases of unexplained head injuries. However, in the absence of any concerning features, a cephalohaematoma or other neonatal head injury is likely due to birth trauma and can be managed accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - What factors are linked to a favorable outcome in rheumatoid arthritis prognosis, particularly...

    Incorrect

    • What factors are linked to a favorable outcome in rheumatoid arthritis prognosis, particularly in younger patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor negative

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Features of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      A number of factors have been identified as predictors of a poor prognosis in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These include being rheumatoid factor positive, having anti-CCP antibodies, presenting with poor functional status, showing early erosions on X-rays, having extra-articular features such as nodules, possessing the HLA DR4 gene, and experiencing an insidious onset. While there is some discrepancy regarding the association between gender and prognosis, both the American College of Rheumatology and the recent NICE guidelines suggest that female gender is linked to a poorer prognosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these prognostic features in order to provide appropriate management and support for patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - A 52-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of cough that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of cough that began a week ago. She reports no production of sputum or blood. The patient has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, and psoriasis.
      She has not traveled recently and has not been in contact with anyone with similar symptoms. She notes that she was recently given a new prescription medication.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable one prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACE inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Common Medications and Their Side Effects

      There are several common medications used to treat various conditions, each with their own set of side effects. Here are some examples:

      ACE inhibitors: These are often the first-line antihypertensives for individuals under 55 years old. They can help reduce blood pressure and have renal protective effects for patients with diabetes. However, a common side effect is a dry cough, which occurs because ACE inhibitors inhibit bradykinin breakdown. Patients may need to switch to an ARB.

      Ciclosporins: This immunosuppressant medication is used to treat inflammatory and autoimmune conditions, as well as prevent organ rejection after transplantation. Side effects may include headache, flushing, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort.

      Angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs): These are an alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients who develop a dry cough. ARBs work on the same system but do not produce the cough.

      Corticosteroids: These are used for asthma, inflammatory, and autoimmune conditions. They have a large side-effect profile, including hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, easy bruising, and striae, but not dry cough.

      Hydralazine: This antihypertensive medication is also used in pregnancy and heart failure management. Side effects may include nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort, and headache, but not dry cough.

      Understanding Common Medications and Their Side Effects

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
      Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function

      Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 28 - What is the probable reason for the nail changes observed in Mr Williams,...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable reason for the nail changes observed in Mr Williams, an 86-year-old retired dock worker with a history of hypertension and mitral valve replacement, who visited his general practitioner with symptoms of fever, night sweats and fatigue? During examination, his hands showed loss of angle between the nail fold and nail plate, a bulbous fingertip, and painful, erythematous nodules present on both hands.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s nail signs suggest a diagnosis of clubbing, which is commonly seen in various internal conditions such as cardiac issues like infective endocarditis and cyanotic congenital heart disease, respiratory problems like bronchial cancer, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and pulmonary fibrosis, gastrointestinal issues like inflammatory bowel disease, biliary cirrhosis, and malabsorption, and other conditions like thyroid acropachy. The presence of Osler’s nodes, painful nodules caused by immune complex deposition, further supports a diagnosis of infective endocarditis, which is commonly associated with this symptom. Although the patient has a history of potential asbestos exposure, the history of heart valve replacement, current symptoms, and nail signs point towards infective endocarditis as the likely diagnosis. Other conditions like inflammatory bowel disease, pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis can cause clubbing but not Osler’s nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old woman attends for her cervical smear as per the NHS cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman attends for her cervical smear as per the NHS cervical screening programme. She is found to have low-grade dyskaryosis. The laboratory performed a reflex high-risk human papillomavirus (HR-HPV) test on the cytology sample. The HPV sample returned as negative.
      When should the patient have a repeat cervical smear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Five years

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Screening Interval for Women with Low-Grade Dyskaryosis and Negative HPV Testing

      Women with low-grade dyskaryosis and negative HPV testing should return to the screening program. The appropriate screening interval for a 50-year-old patient is every five years. This is because the majority of patients with HPV-negative, low-grade dyskaryosis revert to normal epithelium and do not require further investigation with colposcopy. It is important to note that the screening interval for patients between 25 and 49 years is every three years. Shorter intervals, such as three months, six months, or even one year, are not necessary and may lead to unnecessary testing and anxiety for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 30 - A woman at 12 weeks gestation experiences a miscarriage. Out of these five...

    Incorrect

    • A woman at 12 weeks gestation experiences a miscarriage. Out of these five factors, which one is most strongly linked to miscarriage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Obesity is the only factor among the given options that has been linked to miscarriage. Other factors such as heavy lifting, bumping your tummy, having sex, air travel, and being stressed have not been associated with an increased risk of miscarriage. However, factors like increased maternal age, smoking in pregnancy, consuming alcohol, recreational drug use, high caffeine intake, infections and food poisoning, health conditions, and certain medicines have been linked to an increased risk of miscarriage. Additionally, an unusual shape or structure of the womb and cervical incompetence can also increase the risk of miscarriage.

      Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology

      Miscarriage, also known as abortion, refers to the expulsion of the products of conception before 24 weeks. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used. According to epidemiological studies, approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies will end in miscarriage during early pregnancy. In fact, up to 50% of conceptions may not develop into a blastocyst within 14 days.

      Recurrent spontaneous miscarriage, which is defined as the loss of three or more consecutive pregnancies, affects approximately 1% of women. Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is important for healthcare providers and patients alike. It can help to identify risk factors and provide appropriate counseling and support for those who have experienced a miscarriage. By raising awareness and promoting education, we can work towards reducing the incidence of miscarriage and improving the overall health and well-being of women and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
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