-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
You note that the prostate of a 60-year-old patient is enlarged during the examination. You suspect BPH. Anatomically, the prostate has four main lobes. Which of the lobes is affected by benign prostatic hypertrophy?
Your Answer: Fibromuscular zone
Correct Answer: Median lobe
Explanation:Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), also known as benign prostatic hypertrophy, is characterized by an enlarged prostate gland. The prostate is divided into four major lobes. The median lobe is the most commonly affected by benign prostatic enlargement, resulting in urethral obstruction and urine symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?
Your Answer: Posterior
Explanation:The periurethral portion of the prostate gland increases in size during puberty and after the age of 55 years due to the growth of non-malignant cells in the transition zone of the prostate that surrounds the urethra. Most cancers develop in the posterior lobe, and cancers in this location may be palpated during a digital rectal examination (DRE).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
In the foetus at 4 months gestation, where does haematopoiesis mainly occur?
Your Answer: Marrow of axial skeleton
Correct Answer: Liver and spleen
Explanation:The first place that haematopoiesis occurs in the foetus is in the yolk sac. Later on, it occurs in the liver and spleen, which are the major hematopoietic organs from about 6 weeks until 6 – 7 months gestation. At this point, the bone marrow becomes the most important site. Haemopoiesis is restricted to the bone marrow in normal childhood and adult life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
On his stool culture, a patient with a diarrhoeal illness grows Escherichia coli.What SINGLE statement about Escherichia coli is true?
Your Answer: It is an obligate anaerobe
Correct Answer: Most serotypes are harmless
Explanation:Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative, non-spore forming, facultative anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium. Although some can cause serious food poisoning, most serotypes are harmless.Escherichia coli is transmitted via the faeco-oral route.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought in drowsy and confused. Her BM is 2.2 mmol/l and a dose of IM glucagon is administered.What is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon?
Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Glucagon, a peptide hormone, is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. Its main physiological role is stimulation of hepatic glucose output leading to increase in blood glucose. It is the major counter-regulatory hormone to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.The principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia then stimulates:GlycogenolysisGluconeogenesisLipolysis in adipose tissue leading to increased glycaemia.Secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by arginine, alanine, adrenaline, acetylcholine and cholecystokininSecretion of glucagon is inhibited by:InsulinSomatostatinIncreased free fatty acidsIncreased urea production
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Through which of the following anatomical structures does an indirect inguinal hernia pass?
Your Answer: Internal oblique
Correct Answer: External oblique
Explanation:Inguinal hernias are subdivided into direct and indirect.An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum.A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.The deep (internal) inguinal ring is located above and halfway between the pubic tubercle and the anterior superior iliac spine. This serves as the entrance to the inguinal canal. The superficial (external) inguinal ring lies immediately above and medial to the pubic tubercle. This triangular opening is a defect in the external oblique aponeurosis, and forms the exit of the inguinal canal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
You're evaluating a male patient who's having a lung function test done. In calculating the patient’s functional residual capacity, what parameters should you add to derive the functional residual capacity volume?
Your Answer: inspiratory reserve volume + residual volume
Correct Answer: Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume
Explanation:The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a single breath is known as functional residual capacity (FRC). It is calculated by combining the expiratory reserve volume and residual volume.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Regarding Clostridium species, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: They are facultative anaerobes.
Explanation:Clostridium spp. are obligatory anaerobic spore-forming Gram-positive bacilli. Toxin production is the main pathogenicity mechanism.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Depolarisation of a neuron begins with which of the following:
Your Answer: Closing of voltage-gated Na + channels
Correct Answer: Opening of ligand-gated Na + channels
Explanation:Action potentials are initiated in nerves by activation of ligand-gated Na+channels by neurotransmitters. Opening of these Na+channels results in a small influx of sodium and depolarisation of the negative resting membrane potential (-70 mV). If the stimulus is sufficiently strong, the resting membrane depolarises enough to reach threshold potential (generally around -55 mV), at which point an action potential can occur. Voltage-gated Na+channels open, causing further depolarisation and activating more voltage-gated Na+channels and there is a sudden and massive sodium influx, driving the cell membrane potential to about +40 mV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
An X-ray of a 24-year-old female hockey player who arrives at the hospital with a left foot injury reveals an avulsion fracture of the fifth metatarsal tuberosity. Which of the following muscles is most likely responsible for the movement of the fractured fragment?
Your Answer: Fibularis longus
Correct Answer: Fibularis brevis
Explanation:An avulsion fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal happens when the ankle is twisted inwards. When the ankle is twisted inwards a muscle called the fibularis brevis contracts to stop the movement and protect the ligaments of the ankle. The base of the fifth metatarsal is where this muscle is attached. The group of lateral leg muscles that function to plantarflex the foot includes the fibularis brevis and the fibularis longus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)