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Question 1
Incorrect
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A senior gentleman visits the GP for his routine INR check. He was prescribed warfarin five years ago upon being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation.
Which enzyme does warfarin inhibit?Your Answer: Thrombin
Correct Answer: Epoxide reductase
Explanation:Warfarin prevents the activation of Vitamin K by inhibiting epoxide reductase. This enzyme is responsible for converting Vitamin K epoxide to Vitamin K quinone, a necessary step in the Vitamin K metabolic pathway. Without this conversion, the production of clotting factors (10, 9, 7 and 2) is decreased.
Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase is the enzyme responsible for carboxylating glutamic acid to produce clotting factors. Warfarin does not directly inhibit this enzyme.
CYP2C9 is an enzyme involved in the metabolism of many drugs, including warfarin.
Protein C is a plasma protein that functions as an anticoagulant. It is dependent on Vitamin K for activation and works by inhibiting factor 5 and 8. Protein C is produced as an inactive precursor enzyme, which is then activated to exert its anticoagulant effects.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pains, nausea, and vomiting. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:
- Glucose: 24 mmol/L (4.0-11.0)
- Ketones: 4.6 mmol/L (<0.6)
- Na+: 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+: 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Based on these findings, the patient is started on a fixed insulin regimen and given intravenous fluids. After repeating the blood tests, it is observed that the K+ level has dropped to 3.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0). What mechanism is responsible for this effect caused by insulin?Your Answer: Inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump
Correct Answer: Stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump
Explanation:Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 3
Correct
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As a third year medical student in an outpatient department with a dermatology consultant, you are evaluating a 27-year-old patient who is unresponsive to current hyperhidrosis treatment. The consultant suggests starting botox injections to prevent sweating. Can you explain the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin at the neuromuscular junction?
Your Answer: Inhibits vesicles containing acetylcholine binding to presynaptic membrane
Explanation:Botulinum Toxin and its Mechanism of Action
Botulinum toxin is becoming increasingly popular in the medical field for treating various conditions such as cervical dystonia and achalasia. The toxin works by binding to the presynaptic cleft on the neurotransmitter and forming a complex with the attached receptor. This complex then invaginates the plasma membrane of the presynaptic cleft around the attached toxin. Once inside the cell, the toxin cleaves an important cytoplasmic protein that is required for efficient binding of the vesicles containing acetylcholine to the presynaptic membrane. This prevents the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.
It is important to note that the blockage of Ca2+ channels on the presynaptic membrane occurs in Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung and is a paraneoplastic syndrome. However, this is not related to the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin.
The effects of botox typically last for two to six months. Once complete denervation has occurred, the synapse produces new axonal terminals which bind to the motor end plate in a process called neurofibrillary sprouting. This allows for interrupted release of acetylcholine. Overall, botulinum toxin is a powerful tool in the medical field for treating various conditions by preventing the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the enzyme that enables aerobic bacteria to survive in the presence of oxygen without succumbing to 'oxygen toxicity'?
Your Answer: Carbonic anhydrase
Correct Answer: Superoxide dismutase
Explanation:Bacterial Survival in the Presence of Oxygen
Bacteria can be categorized into two types: aerobic and anaerobic. Anaerobic bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen due to the formation of oxygen radicals that damage intracellular structures. On the other hand, aerobic bacteria have high levels of the enzyme superoxide dismutase, which breaks down the superoxide anion and prevents oxidative damage. Additionally, aerobic bacteria have several other similar enzymes that protect against oxygen radical-induced injury.
Anaerobic bacteria generate ATP in an oxygen-independent process, such as fermentation of long-chain fatty acids. Facultative anaerobic bacteria prefer an anaerobic environment but have sufficiently high levels of anti-oxidant enzymes that they can survive in an aerobic environment.
Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that converts water and carbon dioxide into H+ and HCO3â. Coenzyme Q is part of the electron transport chain, while lactate dehydrogenase converts pyruvate into lactate. NADPH oxidase is used in the ‘respiratory burst’ to generate toxic oxygen radicals.
In summary, the survival of bacteria in the presence of oxygen depends on their ability to protect against oxygen radicals. Aerobic bacteria have high levels of protective enzymes, while anaerobic bacteria generate ATP in an oxygen-independent process. Facultative anaerobic bacteria can survive in both environments due to their high levels of anti-oxidant enzymes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl from an underprivileged family comes in with a waddling gait. She displays signs of a proximal myopathy and positional deformity in her lower limbs. Upon examination, x-rays reveal a widened growth plate with cupping of the metaphysis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Rickets and Other Growth-Related Disorders
Rickets is a condition that results from a deficiency in vitamin D, which is essential for the mineralization of osteoid. This process primarily occurs at the growth plate, or physis, and in vitamin D deficiency, the growth plate widens, and the metaphysis appears cupped and frayed. The bones become softer than usual, and the lower limbs may develop a bow-legged deformity. In addition to affecting bone health, vitamin D deficiency can also lead to hypocalcemia, which causes muscle spasms and changes in bowel habits.
Growth hormone deficiency, on the other hand, causes growth failure and an immature doll-like facies. Hyperthyroidism tends to occur in teenage girls and presents with weight loss, heat intolerance, and diarrhea. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, presents with failure to grow, disproportionate weight gain, tiredness, and cold intolerance.
It is important to understand these growth-related disorders and their symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. By recognizing the characteristic changes on x-ray in rickets, for example, healthcare professionals can identify and address vitamin D deficiency early on. Similarly, the symptoms of other disorders can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and support to those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents with two episodes of haemetemesis. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease (IHD) and is currently on medication. What is the probable reason for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peptic ulceration
Explanation:The effects of different medications on renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are significant. RTA is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance in the body. Various medications can cause RTA through different mechanisms.
Spironolactone, for instance, is a direct antagonist of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and a reduction in serum bicarbonate, which is a type of RTA known as type 4.
Type 4 RTA can also occur in people with diabetes mellitus due to scarring associated with diabetic nephropathy. Metformin, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, can cause lactic acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of lactic acid in the blood. Pioglitazone, another diabetes medication, can cause salt and water retention and may also be associated with bladder tumors.
Ramipril, a medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, can also cause hyperkalemia, but this is not related to direct aldosterone antagonism. Healthcare providers must be aware of the effects of different medications on RTA to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female comes to see you with a complaint of double vision when she looks to the left. Upon examination, you observe that her right eye adducts minimally while her left eye abducts with nystagmus. She reports no issues with her hearing or speech and is able to comprehend your instructions. You suspect that a brain lesion may be responsible for her symptoms.
What is the probable location of the lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial longitudinal fasciculus
Explanation:Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus. This patient is experiencing impaired adduction of the right eye and horizontal nystagmus of the left eye upon abduction due to a lesion on the right side.
Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus and results in fluent speech with impaired comprehension. This patient does not exhibit any speech or comprehension issues.
A lesion in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, cortical blindness, or visual agnosia, but it does not cause nystagmus or impaired adduction.
Broca’s aphasia, caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, results in non-fluent, halting speech, but comprehension remains intact. This patient’s speech is unaffected.
Conduction aphasia, caused by a lesion in the arcuate fasciculus, results in poor repetition despite fluent speech and normal comprehension. This is not the case for this patient.
Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.
The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately reflects the findings of the double-blind, randomised, placebo-controlled trial of drug A for hypercholesterolaemia treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is that drug A is as effective as placebo
Explanation:The Null Hypothesis in Testing for Differences between Variables
In testing for differences between variables, the null hypothesis always assumes that there is no difference between the variables being tested. This means that the null hypothesis assumes that the variables are either equally effective or equally ineffective.
For instance, in testing the cholesterol-reducing effect of drug A and placebo, the null hypothesis would assume that there is no difference between the two in terms of their effectiveness. Therefore, the null hypothesis would state that drug A and placebo are equally effective or equally ineffective in reducing cholesterol levels.
It is important to establish the null hypothesis before conducting any statistical analysis because it provides a baseline for comparison. If the results of the analysis show that there is a significant difference between the variables, then the null hypothesis can be rejected, and it can be concluded that there is indeed a difference between the variables being tested. On the other hand, if the results do not show a significant difference, then the null hypothesis cannot be rejected, and it can be concluded that there is no difference between the variables being tested.
In summary, the null hypothesis assumes that there is no difference between the variables being tested, and it serves as a baseline for comparison in statistical analysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with gradual-onset central chest pain. The pain is 7/10 in severity and started six hours ago. He reports no shortness of breath or haemoptysis. The pain worsens when taking a deep breath in and improves when leaning forward.
The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications, but he recently completed a course of amoxicillin for an upper respiratory tract infection. His grandfather died of a heart attack at the age of 84. He has a smoking history of 3 pack-years but currently does not smoke or drink alcohol. He has not traveled recently. During a recent well man check at his GP, his 10-year QRISK score was determined to be 3%.
On examination, the patient appears comfortable at rest. His heart rate is 88/min, blood pressure is 136/78 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 98% on air, respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and temperature is 36.8ÂșC. No additional heart sounds are heard, and lung fields are clear on auscultation. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with bowel sounds present.
An ECG taken on admission shows concave ST-segment elevation and PR depression present in all leads.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a patient with global ST and PR segment changes is pericarditis. This condition is characterized by inflammation of the pericardium, which often occurs after a respiratory illness. Patients with pericarditis typically experience sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration or lying down and improves when leaning forward.
While benign early repolarization (BER) can also cause ST elevation, it is less likely in this case as the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with pericarditis. Additionally, BER often presents with a fish hook pattern on the ECG.
Infective endocarditis, pulmonary embolism (PE), and myocardial infarction (MI) are less likely diagnoses. Infective endocarditis typically presents with fever and a murmur, while PE is associated with tachycardia, haemoptysis, and signs of deep vein thrombosis. MI is usually confined to a specific territory on the ECG and is unlikely in a patient with low cardiac risk factors.
Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management
Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.
The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.
Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.
Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.
In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, vomiting, polyuria, polydipsia, and confusion that have been present for the past 12 hours. During the examination, he shows mild generalized abdominal tenderness without guarding. His breathing is observed to be deep and rapid.
The patient has a medical history of type 1 diabetes, but he confesses to being non-compliant with his insulin regimen.
What is the probable pathophysiology behind his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uncontrolled lipolysis which results in an excess of free fatty acids
Explanation:The cause of DKA is uncontrolled lipolysis, leading to an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. This results in high levels of ketones in the urine. Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous system. Lactic acidosis is similar to DKA but lacks the presence of ketones in urine. Appendicitis can cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and urinary symptoms, but the presence of ketones in urine suggests DKA. Urinary tract infections are rare in men under 50 and typically occur with abnormal anatomy or catheterization.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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