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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of dysuria and urinary frequency that...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of dysuria and urinary frequency that have been present for 2 weeks. She denies any recent sexual activity or vaginal discharge and is in good health otherwise. The GP suspects a UTI. What is the leading cause of UTIs?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Common Bacteria that Cause Urinary Tract Infections

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common health problem caused by bacterial infections. The following are some of the most common bacteria that cause UTIs:

      Escherichia coli (E. coli): This bacterium is responsible for up to 90% of UTIs. E. coli is part of the normal flora of the colon, and perianal colonisation can lead to ascending infection of the urethra. UTIs may involve the urethra (urethritis) or may ascend to infect the bladder (cystitis) or kidneys (pyelonephritis).

      Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus): This bacterium causes infections of the skin and wounds but, in severe cases, can also cause pneumonia, osteomyelitis, and endocarditis. They are also found as a commensal skin bacterium.

      Proteus mirabilis: This is a less common cause of UTI but, like E. coli, is an enteric organism.

      Klebsiella: This is also a less common cause of UTI but, like E. coli, is an enteric organism having spread from the anus.

      Candida albicans: Candida is an unlikely cause for a UTI and is a far more common cause of vaginal infections, and can commonly contaminate a urine sample. Only in immunosuppression or if strong clinical suspicion should a urine sample growing Candida be considered to be a fungal UTI.

      To diagnose a UTI, a urine dipstick test is needed to look for the presence of nitrites and leukocytes. If these are present, then empirical treatment is usually started with a 3-day course of trimethoprim (7-day course in men). If symptoms persist, then a mid-stream specimen of urine is sent for analysis where infection is diagnosed by the presence of >105 organisms per ml. The symptoms of UTIs may vary depending on the location of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man presents with weakness of the thighs and shoulders leading to...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with weakness of the thighs and shoulders leading to difficulty climbing stairs and lifting objects. He has also noticed a purple-coloured rash, most pronounced on his face and affecting the eyelids. On examination, he has itchy and painful papules over the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints. He is subsequently diagnosed with dermatomyositis.

      What investigations will be included in the next steps of his management?

      Your Answer: CT chest/abdomen/pelvis

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is often associated with an underlying malignancy, making it crucial to thoroughly investigate patients for cancer. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is the most reliable and efficient method for detecting any potential malignancy. While a chest x-ray may identify lung cancer, it is not as accurate and may miss tumors in other areas. An MRI of the brain is unlikely to be helpful as intracerebral pathology is not typically associated with dermatomyositis. The most common cancers associated with dermatomyositis are lung, breast, and ovarian cancer. A PET scan may be used for staging and detecting metastases after an initial CT scan. An ultrasound of the MCP joints is unnecessary for diagnosis confirmation and would not be a reliable method for evaluating Gottron papules. A biopsy may be necessary if diagnostic uncertainty remains.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      99.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman with chronic back pain arrives at the emergency department after...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with chronic back pain arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a sudden exacerbation of her symptoms. She reports bilateral sciatica, left foot drop, perianal paraesthesia, and urinary incontinence over the past 24 hours. What imaging is necessary to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI spine

      Explanation:

      When a patient is suspected to have cauda equina syndrome, it is crucial to conduct an urgent MRI of the spine for investigation. This is the preferred method of investigation to determine the cause of the syndrome. The most common cause is a herniated intravertebral disc that compresses the cauda equina. Other possible causes include primary or metastatic spinal tumors, infections like epidural abscesses, or hematomas. Imaging is necessary to identify the specific pathology causing the syndrome, determine the level of pathology, and guide the appropriate intervention. The article Cauda equina syndrome by Lavy C and Wilson-MacDonald J in BMJ 2009;338:b936 provides further information on this topic.

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - During a home visit to a 58-year-old patient with a lower respiratory tract...

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    • During a home visit to a 58-year-old patient with a lower respiratory tract infection, who is housebound due to motor neurone disease, you review her medications. What new regular medication/s should you contemplate starting?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to provide daily vitamin D supplements to all patients who are confined to their homes.

      Vitamin D Supplementation and Testing Guidelines

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent guidelines have provided clarity on who should take supplements. The Chief Medical Officer’s letter in 2012 and the National Osteoporosis Society’s UK Vitamin D guideline in 2013 recommend that pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and people who are not exposed to much sun should take a daily supplement containing 10µg of vitamin D. Babies fed with formula milk do not need to take a supplement if they are taking more than 500ml of milk a day, as formula milk is fortified with vitamin D.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, or for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and people who are at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, these guidelines provide clear recommendations for vitamin D supplementation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      31
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman who is 13 weeks pregnant had pre-eclampsia in her previous...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 13 weeks pregnant had pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy and underwent a caesarean section at 36 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure has been normal since then and today. What intervention should be suggested to decrease the likelihood of pre-eclampsia recurrence?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic nifedipine therapy

      Correct Answer: Low-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with numbness in the radial...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with numbness in the radial three and a half fingers on the palmar aspect of his right hand. He reports being involved in a pub fight 24 hours ago and is worried that a piece of broken glass may have entered his palm. Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Digital cutaneous branches of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply to the Hand and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      The hand is supplied by three nerves: the median, ulnar, and radial nerves. The median nerve enters the hand through the carpal tunnel, which is located deep to the flexor retinaculum. It travels along with nine tendons of the flexors digitorum superficialis and profundus and the flexor pollicis longus. However, in carpal tunnel syndrome, the skin distal to the tunnel does not lose sensation because the palmar branch, which supplies the central palm, arises proximal to the carpal tunnel and does not pass through it. Instead, it runs superficial to the flexor retinaculum.

      In some cases, damage to the median nerve can occur outside of the carpal tunnel. For example, if someone were to break glass and cut their hand, they may damage the superficial digital cutaneous branch of the median nerve. This can result in loss of sensation in the affected area. It is important to understand the nerve supply to the hand and the potential causes of nerve damage to properly diagnose and treat conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department accompanied by her mother. She complains of a 3-day history of right iliac fossa and suprapubic pain. She does not complain of vomiting, although she does mention that she has lost her appetite. Her bowel habit is regular and she describes no urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago and she should be starting her period soon. On asking, she states that she has never been sexually active.
      Examination reveals suprapubic tenderness and some right iliac fossa tenderness, inferior to McBurney’s point. Her vitals are normal otherwise. Her blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 123 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 35 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
      Amylase 35 U/l < 200 U/l
      LFTs Normal
      Her urine dipstick shows 1+ of leukocytes, 1+ of proteins and a trace of blood, but is otherwise normal.
      Which of the following tests is the next step in investigating this girl?

      Your Answer: Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests and Imaging for Lower Abdominal Pain in Women

      Lower abdominal pain in women can have various causes, including appendicitis, urinary tract infection, ovarian or tubal pathology, pelvic inflammatory disease, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, mesenteric adenitis, and other less common pathologies. To determine the cause of the pain, several diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can be used.

      Beta human choriogonadotropin (β-hCG) test is essential for every woman of reproductive age admitted with lower abdominal pain. This test helps determine the pregnancy status, which can guide further investigations. An abdominal/pelvic ultrasound can detect acute ovarian and other gynecological pathology. It is also useful in assessing biliary pathology and involvement in pancreatitis. However, it is not very sensitive in detecting appendicitis.

      If the diagnosis is uncertain, admitting the patient for observation and review in 12 hours can help determine if any other signs or symptoms develop or change. A CT scan would be inappropriate without checking the patient’s pregnancy status, as it could be harmful to the fetus. However, it can be useful in delineating acute intestinal pathology such as inflammatory bowel disease, bowel obstruction, and renal calculi.

      Finally, an erect chest X-ray can help determine if there is bowel perforation by assessing for air under the diaphragm. This investigation is critical in the presence of a peritonitic abdomen.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests and imaging techniques can help determine the cause of lower abdominal pain in women and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      55.7
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old first-time mother is brought to the GP by her partner, who...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old first-time mother is brought to the GP by her partner, who is worried about her current mood. He reports that she has been sleeping and eating very little since the birth of their baby, which was a month ago. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Ask the mother to complete the 'Edinburgh depression scale'

      Explanation:

      The Edinburgh Scale is a useful tool for screening postnatal depression. The fact that the husband is bringing his wife to the GP practice a month after giving birth suggests that her mood change is not due to baby blues, which typically resolve within three days of giving birth. It is more likely that she is suffering from postnatal depression, but it is important to assess her correctly before offering any treatment such as ECT. The Edinburgh depression scale can be used to assess the patient, with a score greater than 10 indicating possible depression. If there is no immediate harm to the mother or baby, watchful waiting is usually the first step in managing this condition. There is no indication in this question that the mother is experiencing domestic abuse.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A client of yours has been diagnosed with Horner's syndrome. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A client of yours has been diagnosed with Horner's syndrome. What is the most probable symptom that will be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miosis + ptosis + enophthalmos

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is not a recognized cause of tunnel vision? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognized cause of tunnel vision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tunnel Vision and Its Causes

      Tunnel vision is a condition where the visual fields become smaller and more concentrated. This means that the person affected can only see what is directly in front of them, while the peripheral vision is diminished. There are several causes of tunnel vision, including papilloedema, glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, chorioretinitis, optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis, and hysteria.

      Papilloedema is a condition where there is swelling of the optic nerve head, which can cause pressure on the surrounding tissues. Glaucoma is a condition where there is damage to the optic nerve, which can lead to vision loss. Retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic disorder that affects the retina, causing progressive vision loss. Chorioretinitis is an inflammation of the choroid and retina, which can cause vision loss. Optic atrophy secondary to tabes dorsalis is a condition where there is damage to the optic nerve due to syphilis. Hysteria is a psychological condition that can cause physical symptoms, including tunnel vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with complaints of vomiting blood....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with complaints of vomiting blood. She states that she had a heavy night of drinking and has vomited multiple times this morning. After the fourth time, she noticed about a tablespoon of fresh blood mixed in with the vomit. What is the probable reason for her haematemesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mallory–Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various conditions. Here are some of the most common causes:

      Mallory-Weiss Tear
      This tear in the mucosa is usually caused by repeated vomiting, resulting in increased abdominal pressure. Young patients with a clear history may not require further investigation, and bleeding usually resolves without treatment.

      Oesophageal Varices
      This condition should be considered in patients with signs of chronic liver disease or a history of heavy alcohol intake. Oesophageal varices can be life-threatening, with mortality rates as high as 30%.

      Peptic Ulceration
      Peptic ulceration is a common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in patients who use non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoke, or have Helicobacter pylori infection. Patients with peptic ulcer disease should be tested for H. pylori and treated accordingly.

      Reflux Oesophagitis
      This condition is characterized by heartburn and can be asymptomatic. It is usually an incidental finding on endoscopy and can be treated with antacid medication.

      Haemophilia
      Haemophilia is a condition that increases the risk of bleeding due to the absence of clotting factors. While spontaneous gastrointestinal bleeding is rare, patients may present with spontaneous bleeding in other parts of the body, such as joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and an abnormally wide neck. Upon karyotyping, it is discovered that she has monosomy X and 45X. During physical examination, mild aortic stenosis is observed. What congenital condition is most likely linked to this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Defects and Associated Genetic Abnormalities

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect that is often associated with Turner syndrome. Specifically, preductal coarctation of the aorta (infantile type) is common in individuals with Turner syndrome, as there is aortic stenosis proximal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. Transposition of the great vessels, on the other hand, is not associated with any congenital disease. Tetralogy of Fallot is often seen in individuals with di George syndrome. Postductal coarctation, which refers to the adult type of coarctation of the aorta, is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Finally, patent ductus arteriosus is not associated with any congenital disease. Understanding the relationship between congenital heart defects and genetic abnormalities can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 14 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department on a Saturday night with...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department on a Saturday night with complaints of palpitations and feeling unwell. Her friends report that she had a negative reaction to the alcohol they consumed and deny any use of illegal substances. Upon examination, she appears anxious and is holding onto her chest. Her pupils are dilated, and her pulse rate is 110/min, blood pressure 135/92 mmHg. She mentions feeling nauseous. Which of the following substances could be responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 15 - During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36 weeks gestation, a very prominent murmur is heard during systole and diastole, with the loudest point being over the left sternal edge. A chest X-Ray reveals massive cardiomegaly, particularly in the right atrium. The mother of the child has bipolar disorder but is otherwise healthy and has no congenital heart problems. There is no significant family history except for a paternal cousin who developed cardiomyopathy in their early twenties. Based on the given information, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old male presents to his GP with a one-week history of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to his GP with a one-week history of pain and swelling in his left knee and right ankle. Upon examination, both joints are swollen, tender, and erythematosus. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits. He has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, GORD, and depression. A rheumatological screen reveals elevated CRP and ESR levels, but negative ANA and ANCA results. The GP refers the patient to a rheumatologist for further testing. Which of the following tests is most likely to yield positive results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Enteropathic arthritis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is seronegative and linked to gastrointestinal disorders.

      Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies

      Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are a group of inflammatory joint diseases that are characterized by the absence of rheumatoid factor and the presence of HLA-B27. These conditions commonly affect the spine and sacroiliac joints, causing pain and stiffness. Other common features include peripheral arthritis, which is usually asymmetrical, and enthesopathy, which can cause conditions such as Achilles tendonitis and plantar fasciitis.

      In addition to joint symptoms, seronegative spondyloarthropathies can also cause extra-articular manifestations such as uveitis, pulmonary fibrosis (upper zone), amyloidosis, and aortic regurgitation. These conditions can be associated with other underlying diseases such as inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).

      The most common types of seronegative spondyloarthropathies include ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and enteropathic arthritis (associated with IBD). Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these conditions and preventing long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
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  • Question 17 - An 81-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with recurrent chest infections over...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old woman presents to Accident and Emergency with recurrent chest infections over the last year. She has suffered from rheumatoid arthritis for a long time and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine. On examination, there are some crepitations at the right lung base and splenomegaly. She has some abnormal discolouration on her legs.
      Full blood counts showed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 96 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 3.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Felty syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, neutropenia, and skin changes

      Felty syndrome and other potential diagnoses

      Felty syndrome is a rare complication of rheumatoid arthritis that affects about 1% of patients. It is characterized by the presence of three main features: splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), neutropenia (low white blood cell count), and recurrent infections. Skin changes on the lower limbs, such as ulcers or nodules, are also common in Felty syndrome. The exact cause of this syndrome is unknown, but it is thought to be related to immune dysregulation and chronic inflammation.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and drug-induced neutropenia. CLL is a type of blood cancer that affects mainly older adults and causes the accumulation of abnormal lymphocytes in the blood, bone marrow, and lymph nodes. However, in this case, the patient’s white blood cell count is low, which is not typical of CLL. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are types of cancer that affect the lymphatic system and may cause lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes), fever, night sweats, and weight loss. However, there is no evidence of lymph node involvement or systemic symptoms in this scenario.

      Drug-induced neutropenia is a potential side effect of methotrexate, which is a commonly used medication for rheumatoid arthritis. However, splenomegaly is not a typical feature of methotrexate toxicity, and respiratory complications are more common than hematological ones. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is Felty syndrome, which requires close monitoring and management of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis. In severe cases, splenectomy (surgical removal of the spleen) may be considered to improve neutropenia and reduce the risk of infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after smoking excessive amounts of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after smoking excessive amounts of heroin. He is unresponsive and exhibits pinpoint pupils and symptoms of respiratory depression.
      What is the most suitable antidote for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Antidotes for Overdose: Understanding the Correct Treatment for Different Types of Overdose

      Overdose can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate medical attention. Different types of overdose require different antidotes for effective treatment. Here is a breakdown of some common antidotes and their uses:

      Naloxone: This is the first-line treatment for opioid overdose. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and reversing the effects of opioids. Naloxone can be given intravenously, intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or intranasally.

      Vitamin K: This antidote is used for patients with severe bleeding on anticoagulation therapy or those who are vitamin K-deficient. Vitamin K takes time to take effect, with the maximum effect occurring 6-24 hours after administration.

      Lithium: This medication is not used as an antidote for overdose. It is commonly used for mania and bipolar disorder.

      Flumazenil: This is the first-line treatment for benzodiazepine overdose. It works by competing with benzodiazepines for receptor binding sites. Flumazenil should only be given in cases of known benzodiazepine overdose.

      N-acetylcysteine (NAC): This is the first-line antidote for paracetamol overdose. It works by replenishing depleted glutathione reserves in the liver and enhancing non-toxic metabolism of acetaminophen.

      In conclusion, understanding the correct antidote for different types of overdose is crucial for effective treatment. Naloxone for opioid overdose, vitamin K for severe bleeding, flumazenil for benzodiazepine overdose, and NAC for paracetamol overdose are some common examples of antidotes used in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of bothersome tinnitus that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of bothersome tinnitus that has been going on for 6 weeks. He reports hearing a ringing noise in his left ear only and experiencing hearing loss on the left side. The noise is intrusive and is causing him to have trouble sleeping at night. He denies experiencing any vertigo, headache, or other neurological symptoms. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes atenolol for it.
      Upon examination, his ears appear normal.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Tinnitus: Red Flags and Treatment Options

      Unilateral tinnitus is a rare but concerning symptom that should always warrant urgent referral to an ENT specialist. It may indicate an underlying condition such as acoustic neuroma, cerebellopontine angle tumor, glomus tumor, or Ménière’s disease. Other red flag symptoms include pulsatile tinnitus, tinnitus with significant vertigo or asymmetric hearing loss, tinnitus causing psychological distress, and tinnitus with significant neurological symptoms or signs.

      Vestibular retraining, an exercise-based treatment program, can help manage vertigo in patients with tinnitus. However, medication has no direct role in treating tinnitus, although it can be used to alleviate associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.

      It is important to note that there is no conventional or complementary medication that has been proven to have specific tinnitus-ameliorating qualities. In fact, repeatedly trying unsuccessful therapies may worsen tinnitus. Therefore, it is crucial to seek prompt medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old writer presents to his routine follow up at the Nephrology Clinic complaining of numbness and tingling sensation of his right fingers. This worsens when he types for more than an hour and slightly improves when he stops typing. He suffers from diabetes mellitus and end-stage kidney disease and has been on regular haemodialysis via brachiocephalic fistula on his right antecubital fossa. On examination, his right radial artery is palpable and he has reduced sensation in all his right fingers, predominantly affecting the fingertips. The numbness does not worsen with tapping over the wrist nor with forced flexion of his wrists. His capillary refill time over his right fingers is prolonged to three seconds.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fistula steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Fistula Steal Syndrome, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, and Diabetic Neuropathy are Possible Causes of Numbness in a Patient with Arteriovenous Fistula

      Arteriovenous fistula is a common procedure for patients undergoing hemodialysis. However, up to 20% of patients may develop complications such as fistula steal syndrome, which occurs when the segment of artery distal to the fistula is narrowed, leading to reduced arterial blood flow to the limb extremities. This can cause numbness and worsening of symptoms on usage of the hands.

      Other possible causes of numbness in this patient include carpal tunnel syndrome, which is a common complication among patients on long-term renal replacement therapy due to protein deposition in the carpal tunnel, and diabetic neuropathy, which is a common complication of chronic diabetes mellitus. However, the loss of sensation in peripheral neuropathy in diabetic patients is symmetrical in nature, commonly following a glove and stocking pattern.

      Radial nerve palsy and ulnar styloid fracture are less likely causes of numbness in this patient, as they typically present with muscle weakness and a history of trauma, respectively. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of numbness in patients with arteriovenous fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (3/3) 100%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
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