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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man is found to have a right-sided colon cancer and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is found to have a right-sided colon cancer and a significant family history of colorectal and ovarian cancer. Upon genetic testing, he is diagnosed with hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) caused by a mutation in the MSH2 gene. What is the role of this gene?

      Your Answer: Apoptosis regulation

      Correct Answer: DNA mismatch repair

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      22.4
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  • Question 2 - Which symptom is the least common in individuals with pancreatic cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which symptom is the least common in individuals with pancreatic cancer?

      Your Answer: Hyperamylasaemia

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24.7
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  • Question 3 - Which one of the following is not well absorbed after a gastrectomy? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not well absorbed after a gastrectomy?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      The absorption of Vitamin B12 is affected by post gastrectomy syndrome, while the absorption of other vitamins remains unaffected. This syndrome is characterized by the rapid emptying of food from the stomach into the duodenum, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and hypoglycaemia. Complications of this syndrome include malabsorption of Vitamin B12 and iron, as well as osteoporosis. Treatment involves following a diet that is high in protein and low in carbohydrates, and replacing any deficiencies in Vitamin B12, iron, and calcium.

      Understanding Gastric Emptying and Its Controlling Factors

      The stomach plays a crucial role in both mechanical and immunological functions. It retains solid and liquid materials, which undergo peristaltic activity against a closed pyloric sphincter, leading to fragmentation of food bolus material. Gastric acid helps neutralize any pathogens present. The time material spends in the stomach depends on its composition and volume, with amino acids and fat delaying gastric emptying.

      Gastric emptying is controlled by neuronal stimulation mediated via the vagus and the parasympathetic nervous system, which favors an increase in gastric motility. Hormonal factors such as gastric inhibitory peptide, cholecystokinin, and enteroglucagon also play a role in delaying or increasing gastric emptying.

      Diseases affecting gastric emptying can lead to bacterial overgrowth, retained food, and the formation of bezoars that may occlude the pylorus and worsen gastric emptying. Gastric surgery can also have profound effects on gastric emptying, with vagal disruption causing delayed emptying.

      Diabetic gastroparesis is predominantly due to neuropathy affecting the vagus nerve, leading to poor stomach emptying and repeated vomiting. Malignancies such as distal gastric cancer and pancreatic cancer may also obstruct the pylorus and delay emptying. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a disease of infancy that presents with projectile non-bile stained vomiting and is treated with pyloromyotomy.

      In summary, understanding gastric emptying and its controlling factors is crucial in diagnosing and treating various diseases that affect the stomach’s function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.4
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  • Question 4 - Lila, a 7-year-old girl, undergoes surgery to correct an inguinal hernia. During the...

    Correct

    • Lila, a 7-year-old girl, undergoes surgery to correct an inguinal hernia. During the operation, how can the surgeon confirm that Lila has an indirect hernia?

      Your Answer: Indirect hernia is lateral to the epigastric vessels

      Explanation:

      An indirect inguinal hernia is situated on the lateral side of the epigastric vessels. This type of hernia occurs when the processus vaginalis fails to close properly, causing a protrusion through the deep inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. In males, the hernia may extend into the scrotum, while in females, it may extend into the labia. On the other hand, a direct inguinal hernia is caused by weakened abdominal muscles, typically occurring in older individuals. The protrusion enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, which is located on the medial side of the epigastric vessels. It may then exit through the superficial inguinal ring.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.8
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  • Question 5 - Which of the following is not an extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not an extraintestinal manifestation of Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: Clubbing

      Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Explanation:

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      23
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman presents with an unknown cause of jaundice. She noticed the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with an unknown cause of jaundice. She noticed the yellowing of her skin and eyes in the mirror that morning. Upon examination, a palpable mass is found in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. Her lab results show a total bilirubin level of 124 umol/L and high levels of conjugated bilirubin in her urine. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholangiocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      To correctly diagnose this patient, knowledge of Courvoisier’s sign is necessary. This sign indicates that a palpable gallbladder in the presence of painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. Therefore, biliary colic is an incorrect answer as it is a painful condition. Haemolytic anaemia is also an incorrect answer as the blood test results would differ from this patient’s results. The correct answer is cholangiocarcinoma, which is a cancer of the biliary tree that can cause painless obstructive jaundice. Gilbert’s syndrome is not the most appropriate answer as it only presents with a raised bilirubin and does not cause an increase in ALP.

      Understanding Cholangiocarcinoma

      Cholangiocarcinoma, also known as bile duct cancer, is a serious medical condition that can be caused by primary sclerosing cholangitis. This disease is characterized by persistent biliary colic symptoms, which can be accompanied by anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. In some cases, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant may be present, which is known as the Courvoisier sign. Additionally, periumbilical lymphadenopathy (Sister Mary Joseph nodes) and left supraclavicular adenopathy (Virchow node) may be seen.

      One of the main risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma is primary sclerosing cholangitis. This condition can cause inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts, which can lead to the development of cancer over time. To detect cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis, doctors often use a blood test to measure CA 19-9 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      41.3
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old female with a history of iron deficiency anemia presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female with a history of iron deficiency anemia presents to the hospital with pain in the right upper quadrant. After diagnosis, she is found to have acute cholecystitis. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the development of gallstones?

      Your Answer: Age greater than or equal to 40 years

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The following factors increase the likelihood of developing gallstones and can be remembered as the ‘5 F’s’:

      – Being overweight (having a body mass index greater than 30 kg/m2)
      – Being female
      – Being of reproductive age
      – Being of fair complexion (Caucasian)
      – Being 40 years of age or older

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis is usually made through abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm suspected bile duct stones. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and surgical management for stones in the common bile duct. ERCP may be used to remove bile duct stones, but carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      19.6
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  • Question 8 - A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's...

    Correct

    • A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's national screening program. While performing the procedure, the surgeon observes and biopsies several polyps for further analysis. Additionally, the patient has multiple hyperpigmented macules on her lips.

      During her follow-up visit, the patient is informed that the type of polyp found in her bowel increases her risk of developing cancers in other parts of her body.

      What is the name of the benign colorectal tumor that the patient has?

      Your Answer: Peutz-Jeghers polyps

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.

      While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.

      Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      43.2
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  • Question 9 - A case of ischaemic left colon is diagnosed in a patient. Which artery,...

    Correct

    • A case of ischaemic left colon is diagnosed in a patient. Which artery, originating from the aorta at approximately the level of L3, is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The left side of the colon is most likely to be affected by the IMA, which typically originates at L3.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      9.5
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  • Question 10 - Which one of the following options in relation to the liver is true...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following options in relation to the liver is true for individuals?

      Your Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis

      Explanation:

      The ligamentum venosum and caudate lobe are located on the same side as the posterior vena cava. Positioned behind the liver, the ligamentum venosum is situated in the portal triad, which includes the portal vein (not the hepatic vein). The coronary ligament layers create a bare area of the liver, leaving a void. Additionally, the porta hepatis contains both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      36.3
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the gastrointestinal clinic with a history of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the gastrointestinal clinic with a history of abdominal bloating, diarrhoea, and fatigue for the past 6 months. She experiences severe cramps after most meals and struggles to focus on her work at the office.

      After conducting investigations, it is found that her tissue transglutaminases (TTG) are positive. What is a potential complication of the suspected underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Hyposplenism

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism is a possible complication of coeliac disease. The patient’s symptoms and positive tissue transglutaminases support the diagnosis of coeliac disease, which can lead to malabsorption of important nutrients like iron, folate, and vitamin B12. Hyposplenism may occur due to autoimmune processes and loss of lymphocyte recirculation caused by inflammation in the colon. However, hepatomegaly, pancreatitis, and polycythaemia are not associated with coeliac disease.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      503.2
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  • Question 12 - You opt to obtain an arterial blood gas from the radial artery. Where...

    Correct

    • You opt to obtain an arterial blood gas from the radial artery. Where should the needle be inserted to obtain the sample?

      Your Answer: Mid inguinal point

      Explanation:

      The femoral artery can be located using the mid inguinal point, which is positioned halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the symphysis pubis.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle

      The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.

      The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      67.1
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  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of distension and pain on...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of distension and pain on the right side of her abdomen. She has a BMI of 30 kg/mÂČ and has been diagnosed with type-2 diabetes mellitus. Upon conducting liver function tests, it was found that her Alanine Transaminase (ALT) levels were elevated. To investigate further, a liver ultrasound was ordered to examine the blood flow in and out of the liver. Which of the following blood vessels provides approximately one-third of the liver's blood supply?

      Your Answer: Hepatic artery proper

      Explanation:

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with a gastrointestinal stromal tumour in his...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with a gastrointestinal stromal tumour in his stomach. What is the typical cell type that gives rise to these tumours?

      Your Answer: Interstitial cells of Cajal

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) originate from Cajal’s interstitial pacemaker cells, which are typically found outside the mucosal layer and cause minimal damage to it.

      Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumours: Characteristics and Treatment Options

      Gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GISTs) are rare tumours that originate from the interstitial pacemaker cells of Cajal. These tumours are primarily found in the stomach (70%), with the remainder occurring in the small intestine (20%) and colon/rectum (5%). Most GISTs are solitary lesions and are sporadic in nature. The majority of GISTs express CD117, a transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptor, and have a mutation of the c-KIT gene.

      The main goal of surgery for GISTs is to resect the tumour with a 1-2 cm margin of normal tissue. Extensive resections are not usually required. However, there is a high local recurrence rate, which is related to the site of the tumour, incomplete resections, and high mitotic count. Salvage surgery for recurrent disease is associated with a median survival of 15 months.

      In high-risk patients, the use of imatinib has greatly improved prognosis. In the ACOSOG trial, imatinib reduced relapse rates from 17% to 2%. In the UK, imatinib is recommended by NICE for use in patients with metastatic disease or locally unresectable disease.

      Overall, GISTs are rare tumours that require careful management. Surgery with a margin of normal tissue is the mainstay of treatment, but the risk of recurrence is high. Imatinib has shown promise in improving prognosis for high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - Secretions from which of the following will contain the highest levels of potassium?...

    Incorrect

    • Secretions from which of the following will contain the highest levels of potassium?

      Your Answer: Small bowel

      Correct Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      The rectum can produce potassium-rich secretions, which is why resins are given to treat hyperkalemia and why patients with villous adenoma of the rectum may experience hypokalemia.

      Potassium Secretions in the GI Tract

      Potassium is secreted in various parts of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The salivary glands can secrete up to 60mmol/L of potassium, while the stomach secretes only 10 mmol/L. The bile, pancreas, and small bowel also secrete potassium, with average figures of 5 mmol/L, 4-5 mmol/L, and 10 mmol/L, respectively. The rectum has the highest potassium secretion, with an average of 30 mmol/L. However, the exact composition of potassium secretions varies depending on factors such as disease, serum aldosterone levels, and serum pH.

      It is important to note that gastric potassium secretions are low, and hypokalaemia (low potassium levels) may occur in vomiting. However, this is usually due to renal wasting of potassium rather than potassium loss in vomit. Understanding the different levels of potassium secretion in the GI tract can be helpful in diagnosing and treating potassium-related disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - A 47-year-old man has a nasogastric tube inserted. The nurse takes a small...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man has a nasogastric tube inserted. The nurse takes a small aspirate of the fluid from the stomach and tests the pH of the aspirate. What is the typical intragastric pH?

      Your Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Typically, the pH level in the stomach is 2, but the use of proton pump inhibitors can effectively eliminate acidity.

      Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures

      A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.

      There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.

      The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.

      In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      16.8
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  • Question 17 - Samantha is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing painless obstructive jaundice. Upon...

    Correct

    • Samantha is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing painless obstructive jaundice. Upon investigation, a malignancy is discovered. The surgeon recommends a Whipple's procedure to remove the malignancy.

      What type of malignancy is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Ductal adenocarcinoma is the most frequently occurring type of pancreatic cancer, particularly in the head of the pancreas. Endocrine tumors of the pancreas are uncommon.

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman came in with a 7-month history of upper abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman came in with a 7-month history of upper abdominal pain and nausea. She reported no weight loss. An upper GI endoscopy showed mild gastritis, but her symptoms persisted even after a 3-month course of proton pump inhibitors. A CT scan was done and revealed a probable gastrinoma. Which type of cell does the hormone produced by this tumor target to stimulate acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Parietal cell

      Explanation:

      The secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells is increased by gastrin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department following a car crash....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department following a car crash. He is experiencing tachycardia and his blood pressure is rapidly decreasing from 90/60mmHg. He is feeling dizzy and disoriented, and is experiencing pain in his left upper quadrant and left shoulder. Which organ is most likely to have sustained damage?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The patient’s tachycardia and low blood pressure indicate internal bleeding due to trauma. Although he experiences pain in his upper left abdominal quadrant, it does not rule out the possibility of internal bleeding. However, it makes heart and lung injuries less likely as he would have also complained of chest pain. The pain in his left shoulder suggests that the left phrenic nerve has been affected, which indicates damage to the spleen rather than the liver, as it would have been on the right side. The spleen is commonly damaged in trauma and could explain the rapid drop in blood pressure.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen

      The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.

      The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old male with Gilbert's syndrome (GS) visits his doctor worried about a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male with Gilbert's syndrome (GS) visits his doctor worried about a recent change in skin tone. During the examination, his skin appears to be normal, but he insists that it was yellow earlier today.

      What is true about Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Transient jaundice after physiological stress such as exercise and fasting is seen in Gilbert’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a harmless liver condition that is characterized by increased levels of bilirubin in the blood. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may develop temporary jaundice following physical stressors such as fasting or exercise. Treatment and regular monitoring are not necessary for this condition. It is important to reassure patients that Gilbert’s syndrome does not progress to chronic liver disease. The condition is caused by a mutation in the UGT1A1 gene, which leads to reduced activity of the UGT1A1 enzyme. Gilbert’s syndrome is more prevalent in males.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 21 - A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports that he bleeds excessively whenever he gets a cut on his limbs. He has a past medical history of familial hypercholesterolaemia. His body mass index is 31 kg/m2. He does not have a medical history of bleeding disorders and denies a family history of haemophilia.

      During his last visit, his lipid profile showed elevated total cholesterol, elevated LDL and low HDL. He was prescribed a medication to help lower his LDL cholesterol.

      What medication was he most likely prescribed?

      Your Answer: Cholestyramine

      Explanation:

      Cholestyramine has the potential to decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin A, D, E, and K. Vitamin K is particularly important for the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, and a deficiency in this vitamin can result in clotting abnormalities.

      Clomiphene is a medication used to stimulate ovulation in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), and it is not linked to an elevated risk of bleeding.

      Psyllium husk is not known to cause any bleeding disorders.

      Cholestyramine: A Medication for Managing High Cholesterol

      Cholestyramine is a medication used to manage high levels of cholesterol in the body. It works by reducing the reabsorption of bile acid in the small intestine, which leads to an increase in the conversion of cholesterol to bile acid. This medication is particularly effective in reducing LDL cholesterol levels. In addition to its use in managing hyperlipidaemia, cholestyramine is also sometimes used to treat diarrhoea following bowel resection in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      However, cholestyramine is not without its adverse effects. Some patients may experience abdominal cramps and constipation while taking this medication. It can also decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies if not properly managed. Additionally, cholestyramine may increase the risk of developing cholesterol gallstones and raise the level of triglycerides in the blood. Therefore, it is important for patients to discuss the potential benefits and risks of cholestyramine with their healthcare provider before starting this medication.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - During liver mobilisation for a pediatric liver transplant, the hepatic ligaments will need...

    Correct

    • During liver mobilisation for a pediatric liver transplant, the hepatic ligaments will need to be mobilized. Which of the following statements regarding these structures is false?

      Your Answer: The right triangular ligament is an early branch of the left triangular ligament

      Explanation:

      The coronary ligament continues as the right triangular ligament.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain. He reports the pain as cramping, with a severity of 6/10, and spread throughout his abdomen. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He used to smoke and has a smoking history of 40 pack years.

      What is the most probable part of the colon affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hepatic flexure

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischaemic colitis frequently affects the splenic flexure, which is a vulnerable area due to its location at the border of regions supplied by different arteries. Symptoms such as cramping and generalised abdominal pain, along with a history of smoking and hypertension, suggest a diagnosis of ischaemic colitis. While the rectosigmoid junction is also a watershed area, it is less commonly affected than the splenic flexure. Other regions of the large bowel are less susceptible to ischaemic colitis.

      Understanding Ischaemic Colitis

      Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.

      When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 24 - A 39-year-old patient visits the doctor with complaints of occasional pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old patient visits the doctor with complaints of occasional pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The patient reports that the pain worsens after meals, particularly after a heavy dinner. There are no other accompanying symptoms, and all vital signs are within normal limits.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Biliary colic can cause pain after eating a meal.

      Biliary colic occurs when the gallbladder contracts to release bile after a meal, but the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder causes pain during this process. The pain is typically worse after a fatty meal compared to a low-fat meal, as bile is needed to break down fat.

      In contrast, duodenal ulcers cause pain that is worse on an empty stomach and relieved by eating, as food acts as a buffer between the ulcer and stomach acid. The pain from an ulcer is typically described as a burning sensation, while biliary colic causes a sharp pain.

      Autoimmune hepatitis pain is unlikely to fluctuate as the patient described.

      Appendicitis pain typically starts in the center of the abdomen and then moves to the lower right quadrant, known as McBurney’s point.

      Ascending cholangitis is characterized by a triad of fever, pain, and jaundice, known as Charcot’s triad.

      Understanding Biliary Colic and Gallstone-Related Disease

      Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. It is more common in women, especially those who are obese, fertile, or over the age of 40. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic is caused by an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain is due to the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include colicky right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike other gallstone-related conditions, there is no fever or abnormal liver function tests.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for biliary colic. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can lead to obstructive jaundice. Other complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer. It is important to understand the risk factors, pathophysiology, and management of biliary colic and gallstone-related disease to ensure prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 25 - As a fourth year medical student, you are observing a morning colonoscopy list...

    Incorrect

    • As a fourth year medical student, you are observing a morning colonoscopy list at the hospital. You come across patients who have been referred for imaging due to specific symptoms like rectal bleeding, as well as those who are undergoing routine annual colonoscopies. You are aware that most cases of colorectal cancer are sporadic, with no known genetic predisposition in patients. However, there are also certain genetic mutations that require patients to undergo colonoscopy screening for the development of colorectal cancer.

      Can you provide examples of such genetic mutations?

      Your Answer: FAP, HNPCC and KRAS2

      Correct Answer: FAP and HNPCC

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 26 - During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the...

    Incorrect

    • During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the oesophagus which structure is divided to allow mobilisation of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Correct Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is divided during oesophagectomy to allow mobilisation. It inserts into the SVC on the right side.

      Treatment Options for Oesophageal Cancer

      Oesophageal cancer is typically treated through surgical resection, with neoadjuvant chemotherapy given prior to the procedure. In situ disease may be managed through endoscopic mucosal resection, while unresectable disease may benefit from local ablative procedures, palliative chemotherapy, or stent insertion. However, resections are not typically offered to patients with distant metastasis or N2 disease, and local nodal involvement is not a contraindication to resection.

      For lower and middle third oesophageal tumours, an Ivor-Lewis procedure is commonly performed. This involves a combined laparotomy and right thoracotomy, with the stomach mobilized through a rooftop incision and the oesophagus removed through a thoracotomy. The chest is then closed with underwater seal drainage and tube drains to the abdominal cavity. Postoperatively, patients will typically recover in the intensive care unit and may experience complications such as atelectasis, anastomotic leakage, and delayed gastric emptying.

      Overall, treatment options for oesophageal cancer depend on the extent of the disease and the patient’s individual circumstances. While surgical resection is the mainstay of treatment, other options such as chemotherapy and local ablative procedures may be considered for unresectable disease.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 27 - A 33-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute illness. Her vital...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute illness. Her vital signs are as follows.

      Heart rate 96 BPM (60-80)
      Respiratory rate 30 per minute (12-20)
      Temperature 39.2 ÂșC (35.5-37.5)
      Blood pressure 112/84 mmHg (100-140/60-90)

      An infection is suspected, but the source is unknown. Further investigation with a CT scan of the chest and abdomen reveals a retroperitoneal collection, likely caused by leakage from a damaged retroperitoneal structure.

      Which of the following structures is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: First part of the duodenum

      Correct Answer: Ureter

      Explanation:

      The ureters are located in the retroperitoneal space and damage to them can result in the accumulation of fluid in this area. This retroperitoneal collection may be caused by leaked fluid from the damaged ureter. It is important to note that the ureter is the only retroperitoneal structure among the provided options, making it the most likely cause of the fluid accumulation in this patient.

      To remember the retroperitoneal structures, a helpful mnemonic is SAD PUCKER, which stands for Suprarenal (adrenal) glands, Aorta/inferior vena cava, Duodenum (2nd and 3rd parts), Pancreas (except tail), Ureters, Colon (ascending and descending), Kidneys, Esophagus, and Rectum.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 73-year-old man is undergoing an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. The aneurysm...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old man is undergoing an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. The aneurysm is located in a juxtarenal location and surgical access to the neck of aneurysm is difficult. Which one of the following structures may be divided to improve access?

      Your Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      During juxtarenal aortic surgery, the neck of the aneurysm can cause stretching of the left renal vein, which may lead to its division. This can worsen the nephrotoxic effects of the surgery, especially when a suprarenal clamp is also used. However, intentionally dividing the Cisterna Chyli will not enhance access and can result in chyle leakage. Similarly, dividing the transverse colon is not beneficial and can increase the risk of graft infection. Lastly, dividing the SMA is unnecessary for a juxtarenal procedure.

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of painful legs, particularly in her...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of painful legs, particularly in her thighs, which occur after walking and subside on rest. She occasionally takes paracetamol to alleviate the pain. Her medical history includes hyperlipidaemia, type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and depression. The physician suspects that her pain may be due to claudication of the femoral artery, which is a continuation of the external iliac artery. Can you correctly identify the anatomical landmark where the external iliac artery becomes the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      After passing the inguinal ligament, the external iliac artery transforms into the femoral artery. This means that the other options provided are not accurate. Here is a brief explanation of their anatomical importance:

      – The medial edge of the sartorius muscle creates the lateral wall of the femoral triangle.
      – The medial edge of the adductor longus muscle creates the medial wall of the femoral triangle.
      – The femoral vein creates the lateral border of the femoral canal.
      – The pectineus muscle creates the posterior border of the femoral canal.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 30 - In a patient with a carcinoma of the proximal sigmoid colon, what is...

    Correct

    • In a patient with a carcinoma of the proximal sigmoid colon, what is the most probable origin of its vascular supply?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      When performing a high anterior resection for these types of tumors, it is necessary to ligate the inferior mesenteric artery. However, it is important to note that the internal iliac artery’s branches, particularly the middle rectal branch, play a crucial role in preserving blood flow to the rectal stump and ensuring the anastomoses’ integrity.

      Anatomy of the Rectum

      The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.

      In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.

      The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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