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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old semi-professional rugby player is playing a game when he is tackled...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old semi-professional rugby player is playing a game when he is tackled by other players and experiences a dislocation at the glenohumeral joint.

      What is the structure responsible for deepening the glenoid fossa?

      Your Answer: Glenoid cavity

      Correct Answer: Glenoid labrum

      Explanation:

      The Glenoid Labrum and Other Shoulder Joint Structures

      The glenoid labrum is a type of cartilage that helps to deepen the glenoid cavity, which is a shallow depression on the lateral border of the scapula bone. This cavity forms the glenohumeral joint with the humerus bone, and the labrum helps to stabilize this joint. If the labrum is injured, it can lead to recurrent dislocations of the shoulder joint.

      Another important structure in the shoulder joint is the conoid ligament, which is an extension of the coracoclavicular ligament. This ligament helps to connect the clavicle bone to the scapula bone and provides additional stability to the joint.

      The inferior and superior angles are two points on the scapula bone that refer to the lower and upper corners of the bone, respectively. These angles are important landmarks for identifying the position and orientation of the scapula in relation to other bones in the shoulder joint.

      Overall, the glenoid labrum, conoid ligament, and angles of the scapula are all important structures that contribute to the stability and function of the shoulder joint. these structures can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat injuries and conditions that affect the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of thyroid disease that have...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of thyroid disease that have been ongoing for six months. These symptoms include weight loss, diarrhea, heat intolerance, and irritability. Upon examination, a small goiter and exophthalmos are observed. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Grave's disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis and Its Causes

      Thyrotoxicosis is a medical condition characterized by symptoms such as weight loss, diarrhoea, heat intolerance, and irritability. These symptoms suggest an overactive thyroid gland, which produces too much thyroid hormone. The most common cause of thyrotoxicosis is Graves’ disease, an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system produces autoantibodies that stimulate the thyroid TSH receptor. This leads to an overproduction of thyroid hormone, resulting in thyrotoxicosis.

      While Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause thyrotoxic symptoms in its early stages, it is important to note that all symptoms except those caused by Graves’ disease are recognized as symptoms of thyroid insufficiency rather than thyrotoxicosis. In Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, the immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and damage. This can cause the thyroid gland to release excess thyroid hormone, leading to thyrotoxicosis. However, as the disease progresses, the thyroid gland becomes damaged and unable to produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to hypothyroidism.

      In summary, the causes of thyrotoxicosis is important in diagnosing and treating this condition. While Graves’ disease is the most common cause, it is important to consider other potential causes such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In the context of acid-base balance, what compensatory mechanisms would be observed in...

    Incorrect

    • In the context of acid-base balance, what compensatory mechanisms would be observed in an individual who has a pH of 7.20 (normal range: 7.35-7.45) and is experiencing metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Decreased bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Increased respiratory rate

      Explanation:

      Compensation for Metabolic Acidosis

      In cases of metabolic acidosis, the bicarbonate levels in the blood will be low. However, this is not considered a compensation. To increase the blood pH, the respiratory rate will increase, causing a decrease in CO2 levels. This results in a respiratory alkalosis, which compensates for the metabolic acidosis. It is important to note that there is a limit to how much an increased respiratory rate can compensate for a metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to address the underlying cause of the metabolic acidosis to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the likely arrangement of openings in the cellular membrane? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likely arrangement of openings in the cellular membrane?

      Your Answer: A phospholipid molecule entrapped in the membrane

      Correct Answer: A protein molecule in the membrane with a channel through it

      Explanation:

      Composition and Structure of the Cell Membrane

      The cell membrane is made up of a lipid matrix that primarily consists of phospholipids, cholesterol, and triglycerides. This lipid matrix is interspersed with large protein molecules that have channels running through them, which act as tiny pores. These pores allow for the selective transport of molecules in and out of the cell. The cell membrane is a crucial component of all living cells, as it serves as a barrier between the cell and its environment, regulating the flow of substances in and out of the cell. Its composition and structure are essential for maintaining the integrity and function of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most powerful muscle for extending the hip? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most powerful muscle for extending the hip?

      Your Answer: Gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      Muscles Acting on the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is a synovial ball and socket joint that allows for a wide range of movements. There are several muscles that act over the hip, each with their own primary movement and innervation. The hip extensors include the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings, which are responsible for extending the hip joint. The hip flexors include the psoas major, iliacus, rectus femoris, and pectineus, which are responsible for flexing the hip joint. The hip abductors include the gluteus medius and minimus, as well as the tensor fascia latae, which are responsible for abducting the hip joint. Finally, the hip adductors include the adductor magnus, brevis, and longus, as well as the gracilis, which are responsible for adducting the hip joint.

      The gluteus maximus is the strongest hip extensor, earning it the nickname of the power extensor of the hip. The hamstrings, while partially responsible for hip extension, are primarily responsible for knee flexion. However, their long course leaves them vulnerable to sports injuries. the muscles that act on the hip joint is important for both athletes and healthcare professionals in order to prevent and treat injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the hormone responsible for promoting glycogen synthesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the hormone responsible for promoting glycogen synthesis?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      The Role of Hormones in Glycogen Production and Blood Sugar Regulation

      Glycogen is a complex glucose polymer that serves as a storage form of glucose in the body. When insulin levels are high, such as after a meal rich in carbohydrates, glycogen production is stimulated, leading to a decrease in blood sugar levels. However, when insulin levels are low and glucagon and cortisol levels are high, glycogen degradation is stimulated, releasing glucose into the bloodstream to maintain blood sugar levels until the next meal.

      Insulin is a hormone that helps to lower blood sugar levels, while glucagon and cortisol work to increase blood sugar levels. ACTH, a hormone released by the pituitary gland, stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands, which can also contribute to an increase in blood sugar levels.

      Antidiuretic hormone, on the other hand, plays a role in the production of concentrated urine but does not have any direct effect on glycogen production or blood sugar regulation.

      In summary, the regulation of blood sugar levels and glycogen production is a complex process that involves the interplay of various hormones, including insulin, glucagon, cortisol, and ACTH. the role of these hormones can help to better manage conditions such as diabetes and hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - To evaluate the effectiveness of a home cholesterol testing kit, a group of...

    Correct

    • To evaluate the effectiveness of a home cholesterol testing kit, a group of 500 individuals under the age of 40 were recruited. Each participant provided a blood sample for analysis. The results showed that 480 individuals had normal cholesterol levels and 20 individuals had high cholesterol levels. What is the sensitivity of the test?

      Your Answer: 98%

      Explanation:

      Specificity in Medical Testing

      Specificity is a crucial concept in medical testing that refers to the accuracy of a test in identifying individuals who do not have a particular condition. In simpler terms, it measures the proportion of people who are correctly identified as not having the condition by the test. For instance, if a test has a specificity of 98%, it means that 98 out of 100 people who do not have the condition will be correctly identified as negative by the test.

      To calculate specificity, we use the formula: Specificity = True Negative / (False Positive + True Negative). This means that we divide the number of true negatives (people who do not have the condition and are correctly identified as negative) by the sum of false positives (people who do not have the condition but are incorrectly identified as positive) and true negatives.

      It is important to note that highly specific tests are useful for ruling conditions in, which means that if the test is positive, the person is very likely to have the disease. However, it is rare to find tests with 100% sensitivity and/or specificity, including pregnancy tests. Therefore, it is crucial to interpret test results in conjunction with other clinical information and to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      In summary, specificity is essential in medical testing as it helps to determine the accuracy of a test in identifying individuals who do not have a particular condition. By using the formula and interpreting test results in conjunction with other clinical information, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old patient is exhibiting symptoms of pellagra. What is the underlying cause...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient is exhibiting symptoms of pellagra. What is the underlying cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B3 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Pellagra: A Vitamin B3 Deficiency

      Pellagra is a condition caused by a lack of vitamin B3 (niacin) in the body. It is characterized by various symptoms, including skin changes on sun-exposed areas, an inflamed and swollen tongue, reduced appetite, gastrointestinal upset, anxiety, insomnia, confusion, and in severe cases, hallucinations, paranoia, and severe depression. Niacin can be obtained from the diet through nicotinamide or nicotinic acid, and the body can also produce it from tryptophan found in dietary protein. Good dietary sources of niacin include liver, chicken, nuts, tuna, and white fish. However, the body has limited capacity to store niacin, and symptoms of deficiency can appear within a few weeks.

      Niacin deficiency is rare and is associated with low protein diets, malabsorption disorders such as coeliac disease and Crohn’s disease, and heavy alcohol consumption. Additionally, a deficiency of riboflavin and pyridoxine can reduce the body’s ability to produce niacin from tryptophan. It is important to maintain a balanced diet to prevent the development of pellagra and other vitamin deficiencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the primary function of niacin, also known as vitamin B3? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary function of niacin, also known as vitamin B3?

      Your Answer: Antioxidant function

      Explanation:

      The Many Functions of Niacin in the Body

      Niacin, also known as vitamin B3, plays a crucial role in various processes within the body. It acts as a cofactor in cellular reactions, aiding in the metabolism of fatty acids and steroid hormones. Additionally, niacin functions as an antioxidant, protecting the liver from free radical damage. It is also required for DNA replication and repair, as it is necessary for the synthesis of histone proteins that facilitate DNA storage, replication, and repair.

      Furthermore, niacin is involved in lipid metabolism and cholesterol regulation, with high doses of niacin being used as a lipid-lowering agent. Although not fully understood, niacin may also have a role in regulating blood sugar concentrations.

      Niacin can be obtained through the diet in two forms: nicotinic acid and nicotinamide. The body can also produce its own niacin from tryptophan, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods. With its numerous functions, niacin is an essential nutrient for maintaining optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the main factor that motivates inspiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main factor that motivates inspiration?

      Your Answer: Upward movement of the diaphragm

      Correct Answer: Decreased intrapulmonary pressure

      Explanation:

      The Mechanics of Breathing

      Breathing is a complex process that involves the contraction and relaxation of various muscles in the thorax and abdomen. During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, causing the ribs to move forward and up. This increases the volume of the thorax, which in turn reduces the pressure inside the lungs. As a result, air is drawn into the lungs from the atmosphere.

      In some cases, such as in asthmatics, additional inspiratory effort may be required. This is where the accessory muscles of respiration, such as the scalene muscles, come into play. These muscles contract to help increase the volume of the thorax and draw in more air.

      On the other hand, expiration is usually a passive process. The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax, causing the ribs to move downward and inward. This decreases the volume of the thorax, which increases the pressure inside the lungs. As a result, air is expelled from the lungs and out into the atmosphere.

      Overall, the mechanics of breathing are a delicate balance between the contraction and relaxation of various muscles in the thorax and abdomen. By how these muscles work together, we can better appreciate the amazing complexity of the human body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old patient is undergoing a selective neck dissection of the posterior triangle...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is undergoing a selective neck dissection of the posterior triangle of the neck. What structures will be identified during the dissection?

      Your Answer: The upper, middle and lower branches of the brachial plexus

      Correct Answer: The inferior belly of omohyoid

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Posterior Triangle of the Neck

      The posterior triangle of the neck is an anatomical region that contains various nerves, arteries, veins, and lymph nodes. The nerves found in this area include the spinal accessory nerve (Xi) and the cervical plexus, which consists of the lesser occipital, greater auricular, transverse cervical, and supraclavicular nerves. The arteries present in the posterior triangle of the neck include the 3rd part of the subclavian artery, the transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries (both branches of the thyrocervical trunk), and the occipital artery. The external jugular vein is also located in this region. Additionally, there are lymph nodes located in the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle.

      It is important to note that the brachial plexus lies deep to the prevertebral fascia in this area. the anatomy of the posterior triangle of the neck is crucial for medical professionals, as it can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions that may affect this region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint?

      Your Answer: Gluteus maximus

      Correct Answer: Psoas

      Explanation:

      Muscles and their Functions in Joint Movement

      The hip joint has three main flexors, namely the iliacus, psoas, and rectus femoris muscles. These muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint, which is the movement of bringing the thigh towards the abdomen. On the other hand, the gluteus maximus and medius muscles are involved in hip extension, which is the movement of bringing the thigh backward.

      Moving on to the elbow joint, the bicep femoris muscle is one of the primary flexors. This muscle is responsible for bending the elbow, which is the movement of bringing the forearm towards the upper arm. Lastly, the adductor brevis muscle is responsible for adducting the leg at the hip joint, which is the movement of bringing the leg towards the midline of the body.

      In summary, muscles play a crucial role in joint movement. the functions of these muscles can help in identifying and addressing issues related to joint movement and mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the function of factor XIII in the clotting cascade and which...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of factor XIII in the clotting cascade and which action corresponds to it?

      Your Answer: Converts fibrinogen to fibrin

      Correct Answer: Stabilises the fibrin clot

      Explanation:

      The Role of Factor XIII in Blood Clotting

      Factor XIII is a crucial component of the clotting cascade, which is involved in both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways. Its primary function is to stabilize the fibrin clot by cross-linking fibrin polymers that have been formed by the action of thrombin. This process ensures that the clot remains intact and prevents bleeding from the site of injury. Prothrombin is activated to thrombin by factor Xa, which is an essential step in the clotting cascade. Overall, factor XIII plays a critical role in the blood clotting process, and its deficiency can lead to bleeding disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - For a healthy adult, how much moderate-intensity physical activity is recommended per week...

    Correct

    • For a healthy adult, how much moderate-intensity physical activity is recommended per week by the World Health Organization?

      Your Answer: > 150 minutes

      Explanation:

      WHO Physical Activity Recommendations for Adults

      The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends that adults aged 18-64 engage in a minimum of 150 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity per week. This can be achieved through 30 minutes of exercise on at least 5 days per week. However, additional health benefits can be gained by increasing the amount of exercise beyond this minimum level.

      The recommended physical activity can be achieved through either moderate-intensity aerobic activity, vigorous-intensity aerobic activity, or a combination of both. Aerobic activity should be performed in bouts of at least 10 minutes duration. For even greater health benefits, adults should aim for 300 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week, or 150 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity per week, or a combination of both.

      In addition to aerobic activity, adults should also engage in muscle-strengthening activities involving major muscle groups on two or more days per week. By following these recommendations, adults can improve their overall health and reduce the risk of chronic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 17-year-old girl is scheduled for surgery to remove a thyroglossal cyst, which...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl is scheduled for surgery to remove a thyroglossal cyst, which will involve removing a part of the hyoid bone. Can you identify the cervical level where the hyoid bone is located?

      Your Answer: C3

      Explanation:

      Levels of Hyoid Bone, Thyroid Cartilage, and Cricoid Cartilage in the Neck

      The neck contains several important structures, including the hyoid bone, thyroid cartilage, and cricoid cartilage. These structures are located at specific levels in the cervical spine. The hyoid bone is situated at the level of the third cervical vertebrae (C3). The thyroid cartilage, which forms the Adam’s apple in males, is located at the level of the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae (C4 and C5). Finally, the cricoid cartilage, which is the only complete ring of cartilage in the trachea, is situated at the level of the sixth cervical vertebrae (C6). the location of these structures is important for medical professionals who may need to perform procedures or surgeries in the neck region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old woman is recuperating from a hip replacement surgery. She is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is recuperating from a hip replacement surgery. She is experiencing localized discomfort and is worried about the buildup of chromium. What is the primary function of chromium in the human body?

      Your Answer: Regulation of magnesium homeostasis

      Correct Answer: Regulation of glucose homeostasis

      Explanation:

      Chromium and Cobalt Accumulation in Hip Prostheses and Their Effects on the Body

      Chromium and cobalt can build up around faulty metal-on-metal hip prostheses, leading to potential health concerns. While chromium is considered safe at normal levels in the human diet, isolated cases of chromium deficiency are rare. Chromium plays various roles in the body, including regulating blood sugar levels, lipid metabolism, enhancing protein synthesis, and potentially enhancing RNA synthesis. However, many individuals following Western-style diets may not consume enough chromium, leading to subtle symptoms such as dyslipidemia and impaired glucose tolerance.

      Toxicity due to chromium is uncommon, but local irritation from metal-on-metal hip prostheses can cause the development of cysts rich in chromium, known as pseudotumors. The exact mechanism behind these pathological changes is not yet fully understood. Overall, while chromium is an essential micronutrient, its accumulation in hip prostheses can lead to potential health concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The upper and lower limit of normal, of a cognitive test in the...

    Incorrect

    • The upper and lower limit of normal, of a cognitive test in the research study, is two standard deviations of the population. What percentage of the population is encompassed by two standard deviations?

      Your Answer: 99%

      Correct Answer: 95%

      Explanation:

      Normal Distribution and Standard Deviation

      Normal distribution is a statistical concept that assumes that data is distributed in a bell-shaped curve. This means that most of the data falls within a certain range, with fewer data points at the extremes. Standard deviation is a measure of how spread out the data is from the mean. If we assume that there is a normal distribution of a test in the population, we can use standard deviation to understand how much of the population falls within certain ranges.

      For example, one standard deviation from the mean includes 68% of the population. This means that if we were to plot the test scores on a graph, 68% of the scores would fall within one standard deviation of the mean. Two standard deviations from the mean include approximately 95% of the population. This means that if we were to plot the test scores on a graph, 95% of the scores would fall within two standard deviations of the mean. Finally, three standard deviations from the mean include 99.7% of the population. This means that if we were to plot the test scores on a graph, 99.7% of the scores would fall within three standard deviations of the mean.

      normal distribution and standard deviation is important in many fields, including finance, science, and social sciences. By knowing how much of the population falls within certain ranges, we can make more informed decisions and draw more accurate conclusions from our data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man presents with hypovolaemic shock and is vomiting significant amounts of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with hypovolaemic shock and is vomiting significant amounts of fresh blood. After resuscitation, an upper GI endoscopy is conducted, revealing a bleeding vessel in the posterior aspect of the first part of the duodenum. What vessel is responsible for the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The Gastroduodenal and Inferior Pancreaticoduodenal Arteries

      The gastroduodenal artery is located at the back of the first part of the duodenum. If an ulcer erodes through the arterial wall, it can cause significant bleeding. On the other hand, the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery. These two arteries are important in the digestive system, and any damage to them can lead to serious complications. It is essential to take care of the digestive system to avoid any issues that may arise from these arteries. the anatomy and function of these arteries can help in the diagnosis and treatment of any related conditions. Proper medical attention should be sought if any symptoms arise to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man with advanced motor neuron disease is experiencing difficulty breathing, possibly...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with advanced motor neuron disease is experiencing difficulty breathing, possibly due to weakened respiratory muscles.

      Which skeletal muscle is not fully utilized during inspiration?

      Your Answer: Scalenes

      Correct Answer: Internal intercostals

      Explanation:

      The Muscles Involved in Breathing

      Breathing is a complex process that involves the contraction and relaxation of various muscles. The primary muscles responsible for inspiration are the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm. These muscles work together to expand the chest cavity and create a negative pressure gradient, allowing air to flow into the lungs. In addition to these primary muscles, the sternocleidomastoid and the scalenes can also assist with inspiration.

      During quiet expiration, the lungs simply recoil back to their resting position due to their elastic properties. However, during forced expiration, the internal intercostal muscles come into play. These muscles contract to decrease the size of the chest cavity and increase the pressure within the lungs, forcing air out.

      the muscles involved in breathing is important for individuals with respiratory conditions, as well as athletes and performers who rely on proper breathing techniques for optimal performance. By strengthening and training these muscles, individuals can improve their breathing efficiency and overall respiratory health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP for a routine check-up and is found to have a systolic murmur. The murmur is loudest in the aortic region, increases with deep inspiration, and does not radiate. What is the most probable abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Systolic Valvular Murmurs

      A systolic valvular murmur can be caused by either aortic/pulmonary stenosis or mitral/tricuspid regurgitation. However, the location where the murmur is heard loudest can be misleading. For instance, if it were aortic stenosis, the murmur would typically radiate to the carotids.

      One crucial factor to consider is that the murmur’s intensity can be affected by inspiration or expiration. During inspiration, venous return to the heart increases, exacerbating right-sided murmurs. Conversely, expiration reduces venous return, exacerbating left-sided murmurs. To remember this useful fact, the mnemonic RILE (Right on Inspiration, Left on Expiration) can be used.

      If a systolic murmur is enhanced on inspiration, it must be a right-sided murmur, indicating pulmonary stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation. However, in this case, pulmonary stenosis is the only possible option. systolic valvular murmurs and their characteristics can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What respiratory disorder is identified by the existence of Curschmann's spirals and Charcot-Leyden...

    Incorrect

    • What respiratory disorder is identified by the existence of Curschmann's spirals and Charcot-Leyden crystals?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Pathologies and Their Pathological Features

      Asthma is a respiratory pathology that is characterized by an excessive inflammatory response of the small bronchial airways to harmless stimuli. This response involves the infiltration of eosinophils, which can aggregate and form Charcot-Leyden crystals. The accumulation of mucus in the airways can lead to the formation of Curschmann spirals. Bronchiectasis is another respiratory pathology that involves the progressive dilation of the small airways. COPD shares similar features with chronic asthma, but with more marked smooth muscle hyperplasia. Cystic fibrosis has pathological features similar to bronchiectasis, but it predominantly affects the upper lobes. Pulmonary fibrosis is a pathological term for the deposition of excess connective and fibrous tissue in the pulmonary interstitial space. Although there are multiple causes, the underlying pathology is the same.

      In summary, respiratory pathologies can have different pathological features, but they all involve some form of inflammation or structural damage to the airways. Asthma, bronchiectasis, COPD, cystic fibrosis, and pulmonary fibrosis are some of the most common respiratory pathologies. their underlying pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the structure that extends downwards in the sagittal plane between the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the structure that extends downwards in the sagittal plane between the two cerebral hemispheres?

      Your Answer: The tentorium cerebelli

      Correct Answer: The falx cerebri

      Explanation:

      Dura Mater Structures in the Brain

      The brain is a complex organ that is protected by several layers of tissue. One of these layers is the dura mater, which is a thick, fibrous membrane that covers the brain and spinal cord. Within the dura mater, there are several structures that play important roles in the functioning of the brain.

      The falx cerebri is one such structure. It is a large sheet of dura mater that partially separates the two cerebral hemispheres. This separation helps to prevent damage to one hemisphere from affecting the other, and also provides support for the brain.

      Another important dura mater structure is the cavernous sinus. This structure is located within the middle cranial fossa and contains several important blood vessels and nerves. Damage to the cavernous sinus can lead to serious health problems, including vision loss and paralysis.

      The diaphragma sellae is a flat piece of dura mater that allows for the passage of the pituitary stalk. This structure is important for the regulation of hormones in the body, and damage to it can lead to hormonal imbalances and other health problems.

      Finally, the tentorium cerebelli is a structure that separates the cerebellum from the inferior areas of the occipital lobes. This separation helps to protect the cerebellum from damage and also provides support for the brain.

      Overall, the dura mater structures in the brain play important roles in protecting and supporting the brain, as well as regulating important bodily functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the name of the muscle that performs hip flexion and knee...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the muscle that performs hip flexion and knee extension?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Correct Answer: Rectus femoris

      Explanation:

      Muscles of the Hip and Knee Joints

      The rectus femoris muscle originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine and the ilium just above the acetabulum. It then inserts into the quadriceps femoris tendon. Similarly, the sartorius muscle also originates from the ilium and inserts into the quadriceps femoris tendon, but it functions to flex the leg at the knee joint. On the other hand, the iliacus and psoas major muscles only provide flexion of the hip joint. Lastly, the vastus medialis muscle is responsible for extending the knee joint. the origins and insertions of these muscles can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of hip and knee joint injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the substrate utilized for gluconeogenesis in humans? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the substrate utilized for gluconeogenesis in humans?

      Your Answer: Lactate dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Lactate

      Explanation:

      Substrates for Gluconeogenesis

      Gluconeogenesis is the process of creating glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. The main substrates used for gluconeogenesis include lactate, alanine, pyruvate, other amino acids, and glycerol. Lactate is produced in non-hepatic tissues, such as muscle during exercise, and can travel to the liver to be converted back into glucose. This process is known as the Cori cycle. Alanine can also be used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis, as it travels to the liver. Pyruvate, produced during anaerobic circumstances, can be converted into alanine by the enzyme alanine aminotransferase (ALT).

      Almost all amino acids present in proteins, except for leucine and lysine, can be converted into intermediates of the Krebs cycle, allowing them to be used for gluconeogenesis. This is a crucial source of new glucose during prolonged fasting. Additionally, the glycerol backbone from dietary triglycerides can be used for gluconeogenesis. However, propionate has a minimal role in humans, despite being a major substrate for gluconeogenesis in animals. the substrates used for gluconeogenesis is important for how the body creates glucose from non-carbohydrate sources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.8
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  • Question 25 - A 79-year-old man comes in with red, velvety lesions in his mouth. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man comes in with red, velvety lesions in his mouth. Upon biopsy, it is revealed that there is epithelial atrophy and moderate dysplasia. What is the name of this condition?

      Your Answer: Leukoplakia

      Correct Answer: Erythroplakia

      Explanation:

      Pre-Malignant Conditions and Tongue Abnormalities

      Erythropakia and leukoplakia are two pre-malignant conditions that affect the mouth. They are characterized by the presence of dysplastic epithelial cells that can develop into squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. Leukoplakia is more common than erythroplakia and appears as white patches that do not move with physical rubbing. On the other hand, erythroplakia appears as red, velvety patches. Both conditions are more common in older individuals and are associated with alcohol consumption and smoking.

      Glossitis is a condition that involves inflammation of the tongue. It can occur in response to various factors such as vitamin B12 deficiency, Sjögren’s syndrome, and Crohn’s disease. Macroglossia, on the other hand, is an enlargement of the tongue that can be either congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include Down syndrome and Beckwith-Weideman syndrome, while acquired causes include vascular malformations, hypothyroidism, acromegaly, and amyloidosis.

      Patterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome is a rare condition that causes dysphagia. It occurs when chronic, severe iron deficiency anemia stimulates the formation of an upper esophageal web. This web can cause difficulty swallowing and may require treatment such as dilation or surgery. Overall, it is important to be aware of these various conditions and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.6
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  • Question 26 - What is the net ATP production per glucose molecule during glycolysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the net ATP production per glucose molecule during glycolysis?

      Your Answer: Net production of 6 molecules of ATP per molecule glucose

      Correct Answer: Net production of 2 molecules of ATP per molecule glucose

      Explanation:

      ATP Production during Glycolysis

      During glycolysis, two molecules of ATP are initially used up. One molecule is utilized to convert glucose to glucose 6 phosphate, while the other is used for the conversion of fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6 bisphosphate. The fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is then split into two 3-carbon molecules, each of which can generate 2 molecules of ATP. As a result, for each molecule of glucose, two molecules of ATP are consumed, and four are produced, resulting in a net gain of two molecules of ATP.

      It is important to note that glycolysis does not require oxygen to function. In the absence of oxygen, the glycolysis pathway can still operate, resulting in a small net gain of ATP. However, when oxygen is available, the net ATP gain is much higher for each molecule of glucose. This is because the pyruvate generated during glycolysis can be further metabolized during the Kreb cycle and electron transfer chain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A teenage boy starts preparing for the 400 m fun run in his...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy starts preparing for the 400 m fun run in his neighborhood. At the beginning, he relies solely on anaerobic respiration. What is the drawback of using anaerobic respiration?

      Your Answer: It requires lots of glycogen to be available as a substrate

      Correct Answer: It is a low efficiency process for the production of energy

      Explanation:

      Types of Energy Generation in Exercise

      Energy generation during exercise can be categorized into four types. The first type is impulse energy, which is the energy already present in the cell as ATP. This energy is used quickly and anaerobically, and must be regenerated rapidly to allow for sustained exercise. The second type is immediate energy, which is an anaerobic process that allows for rapid regeneration of ATP by using the creatine phosphate buffer system. This system can supply 6-7 seconds of maximal activity and can be improved through training and creatine supplementation.

      The third type of energy generation is short-term energy, which is ATP generated anaerobically through glycolysis. This process rapidly creates an ATP supply from existing fuel stores to produce pyruvate. However, if oxygen is unavailable, lactic acid is formed, and intracellular pH will fall, reducing enzyme function and interfering with muscle cell function. This process is also an inefficient way of producing energy from glucose, as much less ATP is generated compared to aerobic methods.

      Finally, any form of physical activity that requires sustained exertion for minutes or hours requires oxygen for aerobic respiration, which is the fourth type of energy generation. ATP can be produced from glucose and free fatty acids through metabolism using oxygen via the Krebs’ cycle and electron transfer chain, which is a highly efficient means of producing ATP. Each molecule of glucose produces 38 molecules of ATP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the daily recommended amount of carbohydrates to consume? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the daily recommended amount of carbohydrates to consume?

      Your Answer: 500 g

      Correct Answer: 50 g

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Carbohydrates in the Diet

      Carbohydrates are essential for the body as they provide fuel for the brain, red blood cells, and the renal medulla. Although the average daily intake of carbohydrates is around 180 g/day, the body can function on a much lower intake of 30-50 g/day. During pregnancy or lactation, the recommended minimum daily requirement of carbohydrates increases to around 100 g/day.

      When carbohydrate intake is restricted, the body can produce glucose through gluconeogenesis, which is the process of making glucose from other fuel sources such as protein and fat. However, when carbohydrate intake is inadequate, the body produces ketones during the oxidation of fats. While ketones can be used by the brain as an alternative fuel source to glucose, prolonged or excessive reliance on ketones can lead to undesirable side effects. Ketones are acidic and can cause systemic acidosis.

      It is important to note that most people consume 200-400 g/day of carbohydrates, which is much higher than the recommended minimum daily requirement. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a balanced diet that includes carbohydrates in the appropriate amount to ensure optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.7
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  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old obese woman presents to the Emergency department complaining of sharp cramping...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old obese woman presents to the Emergency department complaining of sharp cramping pains in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. The pain started this afternoon after a large meal, but she has experienced similar problems over the past few weeks and ignored them, hoping they would go away. She denies any vomiting or diarrhea and is apyrexial. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft, but there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant. Her FBC and U&Es are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholecystitis

      Correct Answer: Cholelithiasis

      Explanation:

      Cholecystitis and Other Digestive Conditions

      Cholecystitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the gallbladder, which can cause mild fever and vomiting. On the other hand, cholelithiasis, or the presence of gallstones, can lead to cramping pains after eating as the gallbladder contracts to expel bile. This condition is more common in women who are fair, fat, and fertile.

      Dyspepsia, or indigestion, typically causes central pain that is not severe enough to warrant a hospital visit. Gastroenteritis, which is characterized by diarrhea and vomiting, is unlikely if these symptoms are not present. Peptic ulcers, which can cause pain related to eating, are usually accompanied by vomiting and bloating.

      these different digestive conditions can help individuals identify and seek appropriate treatment for their symptoms. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      21.5
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  • Question 30 - What clinical sign in a newborn would indicate a plasma glucose level below...

    Correct

    • What clinical sign in a newborn would indicate a plasma glucose level below the normal range of 2.2 mmol/L, such as 1.6 mmol/L?

      Your Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemia: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Hypoglycaemia occurs when the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level. This condition is diagnosed when Whipple’s triad is satisfied, which includes the presence of hypoglycaemia, symptoms consistent with hypoglycaemia, and resolution of symptoms when the blood glucose level normalises. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia are caused by sympathetic activity and disrupted central nervous system function due to inadequate glucose.

      Assessing hypoglycaemia in neonates and infants can be challenging as they cannot communicate early symptoms. Infants may experience hypotonia, jitteriness, seizures, poor feeding, apnoea, and lethargy. On the other hand, adults and older children may experience tremor, sweating, nausea, lightheadedness, hunger, and disorientation. Severe hypoglycaemia can cause confusion, aggressive behaviour, and reduced consciousness.

      Neonates with prematurity, poor feeding, or born to mothers with diabetes, gestational diabetes, or eclampsia are at high risk of hypoglycaemia. Many neonates or infants with hypoglycaemia will secrete inappropriately high amounts of insulin, such as neonatal transient hyperinsulinism or persistent hyperinsulinism. Neonates born to diabetic mothers have hyperinsulinism, which developed in utero following exposure to high amounts of glucose from the mother that cross the placenta. This usually settles within several days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.3
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  • Question 31 - In which location do most intracerebral hemorrhages take place? ...

    Correct

    • In which location do most intracerebral hemorrhages take place?

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      Types and Locations of Intracranial Bleeds

      Intracranial bleeds refer to any type of bleeding that occurs within the cranium. There are four main types of intracranial bleeds: extradural, subdural, subarachnoid, and intracerebral. Extradural bleeds occur outside the periosteal dura mater, while subdural bleeds occur between the meningeal dura mater and arachnoid mater. Subarachnoid bleeds occur between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, where cerebrospinal fluid circulates. Intracerebral bleeds, on the other hand, occur within the cerebral tissue itself.

      Of all the types of intracranial bleeds, intracerebral bleeds are the most common. They typically occur deep within the cerebral hemispheres, affecting the basal ganglia, such as the caudate nucleus and putamen. These types of bleeds are usually caused by hypertension, rather than trauma or atherosclerosis. While it is possible for bleeds to occur in any area of the brain, those that occur in the brainstem are particularly debilitating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is the typical size of an adult male's testicles? ...

    Correct

    • What is the typical size of an adult male's testicles?

      Your Answer: 20 ml

      Explanation:

      Testicular Anatomy and Measurements

      The testicles, or testes, are an important part of the male reproductive system. In healthy young men, the average volume of each testicle is around 20 ml. However, this volume tends to decrease as men age. The normal length of a testicle is approximately 4.5 to 5.1 cm. The testicular parenchyma, or tissue, is surrounded by a capsule that contains blood vessels, smooth muscle fibers, and nerve fibers that are sensitive to pressure. This capsule helps to protect and support the testicles, which are responsible for producing sperm and testosterone. the anatomy and measurements of the testicles is important for maintaining male reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      31.8
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  • Question 33 - A 45-year-old woman is currently being treated with lithium for bipolar depression. It...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is currently being treated with lithium for bipolar depression. It is believed that the drug affects the phosphoinositide cycle, resulting in a decrease in both Km and Vmax. This can be observed on a Lineweaver-Burk plot, where the Y-intercept shifts upwards, the X-intercept shifts to the left, and the slope remains constant. What type of inhibition is being described in this situation?

      Your Answer: Competitive

      Correct Answer: Uncompetitive

      Explanation:

      Types of Reversible Enzyme Inhibition

      There are three types of reversible enzyme inhibition: competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive. Competitive inhibitors are similar in structure to the substrate and compete for the active site of the enzyme. This results in an increase in Km, but Vmax remains unchanged. Non-competitive inhibitors bind to a different site on the enzyme and do not resemble the substrate. This causes a decrease in Vmax, but Km remains unchanged. Uncompetitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme-substrate complex and render the enzyme inactive, leading to a decrease in both Km and Vmax. On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, the slope increases for competitive and non-competitive inhibitors, but remains the same for uncompetitive inhibitors. The Y-intercept shifts upwards for non-competitive inhibitors, but remains unchanged for competitive and uncompetitive inhibitors. The X-intercept shifts to the right for competitive inhibitors, but remains unchanged for non-competitive and uncompetitive inhibitors. It is important to note that irreversible inhibitors covalently bind to the enzyme and permanently inactivate it, causing the same kinetic effects as non-competitive inhibitors. Dilution is not a mechanism of enzyme inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.3
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  • Question 34 - You are a third year medical student assisting a plastic surgeon in theatre....

    Incorrect

    • You are a third year medical student assisting a plastic surgeon in theatre. The plastic surgeon hands you a surgical retractor and asks you to retract the latissimus dorsi muscle. Once you have successfully done so, the surgeon inquires about the nerve responsible for innervating this muscle.

      What is the nerve that innervates the latissimus dorsi muscle?

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve

      Explanation:

      The Functions of Different Nerves in the Brachial Plexus

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord and provide innervation to the upper limb. Each nerve in the brachial plexus has a specific function and innervates a particular muscle or group of muscles. the functions of these nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

      One of the nerves in the brachial plexus is the thoracodorsal nerve, which originates from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Its primary function is to provide somatic innervation to the latissimus dorsi muscle, which is a large muscle in the posterior thorax involved in shoulder joint movement.

      Another nerve in the brachial plexus is the upper subscapular nerve, which innervates the subscapularis muscle. The long thoracic nerve, on the other hand, innervates the serratus anterior muscle, and damage to this nerve can cause a winging effect on the scapula.

      The axillary nerve is another nerve in the brachial plexus that originates from the posterior cord. Its primary motor supply is to the deltoid muscle, which is involved in shoulder abduction.

      Lastly, the lateral pectoral nerve is a branch of the lateral cord and innervates the pectoralis major muscle. The pectoralis major muscle also receives innervation from the medial pectoral nerve, which is a branch of the median cord of the brachial plexus.

      In summary, each nerve in the brachial plexus has a specific function and innervates a particular muscle or group of muscles. the functions of these nerves is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      21.5
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  • Question 35 - An outbreak in the UK is typically defined as two or more people...

    Incorrect

    • An outbreak in the UK is typically defined as two or more people with similar symptoms or isolated organisms that are linked in time and place. However, in the case of a single occurrence of a rare and life threatening disease, such as Ebola virus, it may also be considered an outbreak. Which of the following is considered an outbreak in the case of a single occurrence of a rare and life threatening disease?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Rabies

      Explanation:

      Rabies: A Rare but Fatal Infection

      Rabies is a serious infection that is almost always fatal in animals and humans. It is usually transmitted through saliva from the bite of an infected animal, with dogs being the most common mode of transmission to humans. However, rabies is rare in the UK with only four cases identified since 2000. In the European Union, fewer than five cases per year are reported, but there have been some recent outbreaks in Greece and neighbouring areas. Worldwide, the number of human rabies deaths is over 55,000 per year, mostly in developing countries, particularly South East Asia.

      Pre-exposure and post-exposure prophylaxis is available for rabies, and the vaccine and/or rabies immunoglobulin can be given depending on perceived risk and based on Department of Health recommendations. It is important to consider whether a disease is rare or common in outbreaks, as the other diseases above are common infections and outbreak definitions usually involve two or more cases. Despite its rarity in some areas, rabies remains a serious and potentially fatal infection that requires prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.1
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  • Question 36 - A 67-year-old man is scheduled for open surgery to treat a popliteal artery...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is scheduled for open surgery to treat a popliteal artery aneurysm. What is the structure that forms the supero-lateral boundary of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Medial head of gastrocnemius

      Correct Answer: Tendon of biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The Polpiteal Fossa and Sartorius Muscle

      The area behind the knee is known as the polpiteal fossa. It is bordered by the tenodon of biceps femoris on the superolateral side, and the tendons of semimembranous and semitendinosus on the superomedial side. The medial head of gastrocnemius forms the inferomedial border, while the lateral head of gastrocnemius forms the inferolateral border.

      The sartorius muscle is attached to the medial surface of the tibia. This muscle is located in the thigh and runs from the hip to the knee. It is responsible for flexing and rotating the hip joint, as well as flexing the knee joint. The sartorius muscle is one of the longest muscles in the body and is important for maintaining proper posture and movement. the anatomy of the polpiteal fossa and the sartorius muscle can be helpful in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.2
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  • Question 37 - A study investigates a novel diagnostic test for myocardial infarction (MI) in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigates a novel diagnostic test for myocardial infarction (MI) in elderly patients. What metric would indicate the proportion of elderly patients without MI who received a negative test result?

      Your Answer: Accuracy

      Correct Answer: Specificity

      Explanation:

      The Specificity, Negative Predictive Value, Sensitivity, and Positive Predictive Value of a Medical Test

      Medical tests are designed to accurately identify the presence or absence of a particular condition. In evaluating the effectiveness of a medical test, several measures are used, including specificity, negative predictive value, sensitivity, and positive predictive value. Specificity refers to the number of individuals without the condition who are accurately identified as such by the test. On the other hand, sensitivity refers to the number of individuals with the condition who are correctly identified by the test.

      The negative predictive value of a medical test refers to the proportion of true negatives who are correctly identified by the test. This means that the test accurately identifies individuals who do not have the condition. The positive predictive value, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of true positives who are correctly identified by the test. This means that the test accurately identifies individuals who have the condition.

      In summary, the specificity, negative predictive value, sensitivity, and positive predictive value of a medical test is crucial in evaluating its effectiveness in accurately identifying the presence or absence of a particular condition. These measures help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.4
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  • Question 38 - With which condition is a low bone mineral density commonly linked? ...

    Correct

    • With which condition is a low bone mineral density commonly linked?

      Your Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Bone Mineral Density

      Bone mineral density is a measure of the mineral content in bones, and low bone mineral density is a key characteristic of osteoporosis. This condition can be primary, meaning it has no known cause, or secondary, occurring as a response to another condition. In children, rickets can cause low bone mineral density. The regulation of bone mineral density is influenced by various factors, including thyroid hormone, cortisol, sex hormones, vitamin D, calcium, phosphate, and parathyroid hormone. Excessive thyroid hormones, high levels of cortisol, and low levels of sex hormones can all lead to reduced bone mineral density. Vitamin D, calcium, and phosphate are essential for bone mineralization, and insufficient levels of any of these molecules can impair this process. High levels of parathyroid hormone can also reduce bone mineralization. Paget’s disease can cause accelerated bone turnover, leading to apparent increases in bone mineral density. Healthy obese individuals typically have normal or high bone mineral density due to weight-bearing activity, while being underweight is considered a risk factor for osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 72-year-old man who had mitral valve surgery three months ago comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man who had mitral valve surgery three months ago comes in with worsening dyspnea. An echocardiogram reveals vegetations on the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve. What is the probable causative agent?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis and Common Causative Organisms

      Endocarditis is a condition where the inner lining of the heart, particularly the valves, becomes infected. Staphylococcus aureus is the most frequent cause of endocarditis within six months of cardiac surgery. A woman who presents with cardiac failure due to acute endocarditis can be diagnosed through echocardiography, which shows vegetation, and other clinical parameters. However, blood cultures are also necessary to identify the organism responsible for the infection. Given the recent history of valvular surgery, Staphylococcus aureus contamination during the operation is the most likely cause. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus should also be considered. Streptococcus pyogenes is the second most common cause of infective endocarditis, but it tends to cause subacute disease with symptoms such as fever, weight loss, general malaise, and anemia. Although all other organisms can cause infective endocarditis, they are less common causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A woman in her 30s presents with an elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s presents with an elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level during pregnancy. All other liver function tests are within normal range and she reports feeling well. What is the probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Transient hyperphosphatasia of infancy

      Correct Answer: Placental production of ALP

      Explanation:

      Alkaline Phosphatase and Its Causes

      Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme that can be found in various tissues in the body, making it a common part of liver function tests. An elevated level of ALP can be caused by different factors, including isoenzymes from the liver or bone, as well as the placenta in pregnant women. In children, elevated ALP levels are usually physiological and signify bone growth. However, transient hyperphosphatasia of infancy can cause a more dramatic increase in ALP, which is benign and resolves after a few months.

      Liver disease can also cause an increase in ALP, particularly with hepatobiliary obstruction, such as pancreatic carcinoma or a gallstone in the common bile duct. When bile drainage is obstructed, ALP synthesis increases significantly. On the other hand, liver diseases that predominantly cause hepatocellular damage will cause a lesser degree of ALP elevation.

      ALP also aids in the calcification process in bone and is found in osteoblasts. Therefore, any disease affecting bone turnover and calcification, including Paget’s disease, vitamin D deficiency, primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism, bone malignancies, and fracture healing, can cause abnormal ALP levels. Paget’s disease, which involves increased bone turnover, is a relatively common finding in older patients and can cause various symptoms such as tender bone/skull overgrowth, sensorineural deafness, pathological fractures, and rarely, high output cardiac failure.

      In summary, the causes of elevated ALP levels can help in diagnosing and managing various conditions affecting the liver and bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 41 - Which statement accurately describes the results of a randomised controlled trial comparing the...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the results of a randomised controlled trial comparing the effectiveness of drug A and drug B in treating diabetes mellitus, where 100 patients were assigned to each group and the HbA1c levels were 72 mmol/mol in group A and 61 mmol/mol in group B with a p-value of 0.08?

      Your Answer: The 90% confidence interval of the HbA1c for group A should be wider than the 95% confidence interval

      Correct Answer: The 95% confidence intervals of the HbA1c for group A and group B likely overlapped

      Explanation:

      Statistical Significance and Confidence Intervals

      When conducting statistical analyses, it is important to understand the concepts of statistical significance and confidence intervals. In general, statistical significance refers to the likelihood that the results of a study are not due to chance. This is typically determined by calculating a p value, which represents the probability of obtaining the observed results if the null hypothesis (i.e., no difference between groups) is true. If the p value is below a predetermined level of significance (usually 0.05 or 0.01), the results are considered statistically significant.

      Confidence intervals, on the other hand, provide a range of values within which the true population parameter (e.g., mean, proportion) is likely to fall. The width of the confidence interval is determined by the level of confidence (e.g., 95%, 90%) and the variability of the data. A narrower confidence interval indicates greater precision in the estimate.

      In the given statements, it is suggested that the p value and confidence intervals can provide insight into the likelihood of differences between groups. Specifically, if the p value is above 0.05, it is likely that the confidence intervals of the two groups overlap. Additionally, a 90% confidence interval will generally be narrower than a 95% confidence interval. Finally, if the p value is below 0.1, it is suggested that the 90% confidence intervals did not overlap, indicating a greater likelihood of differences between groups. However, it is important to note that the power of the study (i.e., the ability to detect true differences) is not known, so the possibility of a type II error (i.e., failing to detect a true difference) cannot be ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 42 - A 35-year-old woman has been in a car accident at high speed, and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has been in a car accident at high speed, and there is a suspicion of diaphragmatic injury. Can you indicate at which level the aorta would be expected to traverse the diaphragm?

      Your Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The Diaphragm’s Openings and What Passes Through Them

      The diaphragm, a dome-shaped muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity, has several openings that allow for the passage of important structures. At the T12 level, there is the aortic opening, which transmits the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein. This opening is located towards the back of the diaphragm.

      Moving up towards the front of the diaphragm, we find the oesophageal opening at the T10 level. This opening allows for the passage of the oesophagus and vagus nerves, which are important for digestion and communication between the brain and various organs. Finally, at the T8 level, there is the caval opening, which transmits the vena cava and phrenic nerve branches.

      the location and function of these openings is important for medical professionals, as they allow for the proper functioning of the organs and systems that pass through them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Activation of which receptor is believed to enhance the activity of brown fat,...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which receptor is believed to enhance the activity of brown fat, resulting in the production of heat/energy?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 receptor

      Correct Answer: Beta-3 receptor

      Explanation:

      The Role of Beta-3 Adrenoceptors and Brown Fat in Energy Metabolism

      Fat cells were once believed to be inactive, but recent research has shown that they are actually an endocrine organ that produces hormones involved in regulating energy metabolism. One such hormone is produced by brown fat cells, which contain beta-3 adrenoceptors. These receptors are thought to stimulate lipolysis and thermogenesis, leading to increased energy expenditure. However, despite attempts to activate these receptors with agonists, no significant effect on weight or energy expenditure has been observed. Nonetheless, the discovery of the role of brown fat and beta-3 adrenoceptors in energy metabolism has opened up new avenues for research into potential treatments for obesity and related metabolic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which mechanism is not involved in the development of physiological jaundice in newborns?...

    Incorrect

    • Which mechanism is not involved in the development of physiological jaundice in newborns?

      Your Answer: Relative lack of UDP-glucuronyltransferase

      Correct Answer: Bilirubin present in breast milk

      Explanation:

      Physiological Jaundice in Newborns

      After birth, newborns experience increased erythrocyte turnover which requires faster action of enzymes involved in bilirubin metabolism and excretion. However, there can be a relative lack of UDP-glucuronyltransferase, leading to dysfunctional erythropoeisis and excess haem production that is metabolized to bilirubin. Meconium, which contains beta-glucuronidase, can further exacerbate the situation by changing conjugated bilirubin to an unconjugated form that is readily reabsorbed in the enterohepatic circulation.

      Breast milk does not contain bilirubin, but it does contain substances that can inhibit the conjugation reaction, slowing the metabolism of bilirubin and allowing unconjugated bilirubin levels in the blood to rise. While physiological jaundice in newborns is usually not harmful, levels of unconjugated bilirubin above 170-200 µmol/l can lead to kernicterus, which can cause seizures, brain damage, or death. To prevent this, infants are treated with phototherapy at 450 nm, which disrupts the strong hydrogen bonds holding together molecules of unconjugated bilirubin, allowing the structure to unfold and become more soluble. This facilitates its excretion and reduces serum concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.6
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  • Question 45 - What metabolic effect occurs due to an increase in insulin secretion? ...

    Correct

    • What metabolic effect occurs due to an increase in insulin secretion?

      Your Answer: Reduced gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin Anabolic Effects on Glucose Uptake

      Insulin is released in response to high levels of glucose in the bloodstream. Its anabolic effects are aimed at preventing further glucose production and promoting glucose uptake into cells for utilization. Insulin reduces the processes of gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, which prevents the release of more glucose. Additionally, insulin inhibits the release of fatty acids from adipose tissue because glucose is the preferred energy source. Insulin also increases protein synthesis in anticipation of increased glucose uptake by cells. Furthermore, glycogen synthesis is increased to store glucose for later use. Overall, insulin anabolic effects on glucose uptake help to regulate blood glucose levels and ensure that cells have enough energy to function properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which compound is classified as a ketone? ...

    Correct

    • Which compound is classified as a ketone?

      Your Answer: Acetoacetate

      Explanation:

      Ketone Bodies and their Production

      Ketone bodies, namely acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate, are synthesized when the levels of fatty acids in the bloodstream are elevated. This can occur during fasting, starvation, or when following a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet. When these conditions arise, triglycerides from adipose tissue are broken down into fatty acids and re-enter the bloodstream. The fatty acids then enter liver cells and undergo beta-oxidation in the mitochondria to form acetyl CoA. As acetyl CoA accumulates, two molecules can combine to form acetoacetyl CoA, which is then converted to HMGCoA by the enzyme HMG CoA synthetase. HMGCoA lyase then changes the HMG CoA into acetoacetate, which is a ketone body.

      Ketones are essential as they provide fuel for body cells during times of fasting when glucose may be scarce. Brain cells are particularly able to use ketones as a fuel source.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What medication enhances the body's metabolic rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What medication enhances the body's metabolic rate?

      Your Answer: Gliclazide

      Correct Answer: Thyroxine

      Explanation:

      Medications and Their Effects on Metabolic Rate

      Medications can have varying effects on the body’s metabolic rate. Some medications are known to decrease metabolic rate, such as sedatives, beta blockers like propranolol, sulphonylureas used to treat diabetes, and certain chemotherapy agents. These medications can slow down the body’s processes and lead to a decrease in energy expenditure.

      On the other hand, there are medications that can increase metabolic rate. Thyroxine, a hormone produced by the thyroid gland, is known to increase metabolic rate. Recombinant human growth hormone, which is used to treat growth hormone deficiency, can also increase metabolic rate. These medications can speed up the body’s processes and lead to an increase in energy expenditure.

      It is important to note that the effects of medications on metabolic rate can vary from person to person and may depend on factors such as dosage and individual health conditions. It is always recommended to consult with a healthcare provider before starting or stopping any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which cell type gives rise to all germ cells through differentiation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cell type gives rise to all germ cells through differentiation?

      Your Answer: Ectoderm

      Correct Answer: Epiblast

      Explanation:

      Embryonic Development and Tissue Formation

      During embryonic development, the epiblast layer, which originates from the inner cell mass, is located above the hypoblast. As the process of gastrulation occurs, the epiblast layer differentiates into three embryonic germ layers, namely the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. The ectoderm is responsible for forming various bodily systems such as the brain, retina, and anal canal. On the other hand, the mesoderm gives rise to the myotome, which is a tissue formed from somites that forms the body muscle wall. Additionally, the sclerotome, which is also part of the somite, develops to form most of the skull and vertebrae.

      Furthermore, a dermatome is an area of skin that is supplied by a single spinal nerve. These dermatomes are important in the diagnosis of certain medical conditions that affect the skin. the different tissues formed during embryonic development is crucial in comprehending the various bodily systems and functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to complaints of severe abdominal cramps and heavy menstrual bleeding.

      Which term accurately describes an excessive amount of menstrual bleeding?

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia

      Explanation:

      Menstrual Disorders

      Menstrual disorders are common among women and can cause discomfort and inconvenience. Menorrhagia is a condition where women experience prolonged and heavy periods at regular intervals. On the other hand, metrorrhagia, also known as spotting, is characterized by vaginal bleeding that is not in line with a regular menstrual cycle. Cryptomenorrhoea is a condition where menstruation occurs but is concealed, such as in the case of an imperforate hymen. Dysmenorrhoea, which often coexists with menorrhagia, refers to severe uterine pain experienced by some women during and around the time of menstruation.

      Oligomenorrhoea, on the other hand, is a condition where menstrual bleeding occurs infrequently, with periods of non-menstruation for more than 35 days. When menstruation does not occur at all, this is called amenorrhoea. It is important for women to be aware of these conditions and seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal menstrual symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help manage these conditions and improve the quality of life for women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which foods are rich in vitamin D? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which foods are rich in vitamin D?

      Your Answer: Spinach

      Correct Answer: Salmon

      Explanation:

      Sources of Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a crucial nutrient that is primarily produced by the body when exposed to sunlight. However, in the absence of sunlight, it is important to obtain vitamin D from dietary sources. These sources include oily fish such as salmon, mackerel, and catfish, as well as meat, eggs, and some mushrooms. It is important to note that vitamin D-containing foods are mostly animal or fish-based, which may put strict vegetarians at a greater risk of deficiency.

      Vitamin D exists in two forms, D2 and D3, with dietary sources containing vitamin D3 in greater abundance than D2. It is essential to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D, as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health, regulating the immune system, and reducing the risk of certain diseases. By incorporating vitamin D-rich foods into the diet, individuals can ensure that they are meeting their daily requirements for this important nutrient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which artery are you feeling when you detect an arterial pulsation on the...

    Incorrect

    • Which artery are you feeling when you detect an arterial pulsation on the mandible at the anterior border of the masseter muscle during a routine head and neck examination?

      Your Answer: The marginal mandibular artery

      Correct Answer: The facial artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Face

      The face is supplied with blood by several arteries, each with its own unique path and function. The facial artery, for instance, curves around the mandible before continuing on a winding journey to reach the medial canthus of the eye. Meanwhile, the lingual artery is responsible for supplying blood to the tongue and floor of the mouth. The marginal mandibular artery, on the other hand, provides blood to the depressor labii inferioris and depressor anguli oris. The maxillary artery, which supplies the deep structures of the face including the mandible and pterygoid, is also an important contributor to facial blood flow. Finally, the superficial temporal artery is responsible for supplying the temporalis muscle and the scalp. the unique roles of each of these arteries is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of facial injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 25-year-old male is brought in after a possible heroin overdose. His friend...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male is brought in after a possible heroin overdose. His friend discovered him on the floor of his apartment, where he may have been for a full day. The patient is groggy but responsive and reports experiencing muscle soreness. The medical team suspects rhabdomyolysis and wants to conduct a blood test to assess muscle damage. What specific blood test would be helpful in this evaluation?

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis: Causes and Consequences

      Rhabdomyolysis is a serious medical condition that occurs when muscle cells break down and release their contents into the interstitial space. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including muscle pain and weakness, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and brown discoloration of the urine. In severe cases, rhabdomyolysis can cause cardiac arrhythmias, renal failure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

      There are many different factors that can trigger rhabdomyolysis, including crush injuries, toxic damage, drugs and medications, severe electrolyte disturbances, reduced blood supply, ischemia, electric shock, heat stroke, and burns. One of the key diagnostic markers for rhabdomyolysis is elevated levels of creatine kinase in the blood.

      Treatment may involve addressing the underlying cause of the muscle breakdown, managing electrolyte imbalances, and providing supportive care to prevent complications. By the causes and consequences of rhabdomyolysis, individuals can take steps to protect their health and seek prompt medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which substance is not typically found in bile? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance is not typically found in bile?

      Your Answer: Conjugated bilirubin

      Correct Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      The Role and Composition of Bile

      Bile plays a crucial role in the excretion of substances that are not easily eliminated by the kidneys, particularly lipid-rich molecules and non-polar substances. Its main components include bile acids or bile salts, cholesterol, phospholipids (such as lecithin), conjugated bilirubin, electrolytes, and a small amount of protein. Glucose is not typically found in bile as it is highly soluble and can be excreted in urine if present in excess in the bloodstream.

      Cholesterol is broken down into bile acids, specifically cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid, which are then conjugated with proteins like glycine or taurine to form bile salts. Conjugated bilirubin, on the other hand, is a byproduct of the breakdown of haem from haemoglobin and myoglobin. Overall, bile serves as an important mechanism for the elimination of certain substances from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 50-year-old man ingests rat poison containing cyanide salt and experiences chest tightness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man ingests rat poison containing cyanide salt and experiences chest tightness, breathing difficulties, seizure, and unresponsiveness. Which intracellular process does cyanide affect by binding to cytochrome a3?

      Your Answer: Citric acid (Krebs) cycle

      Correct Answer: Electron transport chain

      Explanation:

      The Electron Transport Chain and Related Processes

      The electron transport chain (ETC) is the final stage of aerobic metabolism, where NADH and FADH2 donate electrons to a series of carriers in the inner mitochondrial membrane. This process results in the production of ATP and water. The ETC is composed of four complexes that contain enzymes and co-factors such as FAD, FeS, FMN, cyt a, a1, b, and c1. Cyanide and other inhibitors such as antimycin, oligomycin, rotenone, and amytal can block the transfer of electrons and inhibit mitochondrial respiration, which can lead to rapid death if not treated.

      The citrate shuttle is a process that transports acetyl-CoA from the mitochondrial matrix to the cytosol, which is essential for fatty acid synthesis. The Krebs cycle oxidizes Acetyl-CoA through a series of reactions, producing CO2, NADH, and FADH2. The hexose-monophosphate shunt provides an alternative pathway for glucose oxidation, branching off from glycolysis at glucose-6-phosphate and re-entering at fructose-6-phosphate. The malate shuttle helps transport electrons from the cytosol into mitochondrial NADH. It is important to note that cytochrome a3 is not a component of any of these cycles.

      Overall, the electron transport chain and related processes play crucial roles in energy production and metabolism within the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 25-year-old male has recently begun working in the textile industry and reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has recently begun working in the textile industry and reports handling various materials and chemicals on a daily basis. He has come to you complaining of a burning and itchy rash that appeared on his hands two days ago. Upon examination, his hands appear red and inflamed, and are warm and tender to the touch.

      Which type of immune cell is primarily responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Correct Answer: T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      The patient has contact dermatitis, a delayed hypersensitivity reaction caused by contact with allergens in the workplace. Contact allergens penetrate the skin and are engulfed by Langerhans cells, leading to activation of the innate immune system and T lymphocyte proliferation. This type of hypersensitivity is not antibody mediated and involves different cells than other types of hypersensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which type of cell makes up the majority of yellow bone marrow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of cell makes up the majority of yellow bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Fibroblasts

      Correct Answer: Adipocytes

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Bones and Bone Marrow

      Bones are composed of two types of bone tissue: compact bone and cancellous bone. The medullary cavity is located within the cancellous bone and contains trabeculae. Blood vessels and bone marrow are also present within the cavity. The bone marrow is responsible for producing blood cells, with red marrow being the site of active haematopoiesis. Yellow marrow, on the other hand, is predominantly made up of adipocytes and fibroblasts.

      Chondrocytes are specialized cells found in cartilage that secrete the collagen matrix. Fibroblasts also contribute to the extracellular matrix by secreting collagen. Haematopoietic stem cells are found in bone marrow and are the common ancestor of all haematologic cells. Megakaryocytes, which are also found in bone marrow, are the precursor to platelets. the anatomy of bones and bone marrow is crucial in their functions and the processes that occur within them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - What is the name of the intercellular junctional mechanism that allows cells to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the intercellular junctional mechanism that allows cells to be electrically connected?

      Your Answer: Zonula membrane

      Correct Answer: Gap junction

      Explanation:

      Cell Junctions: Types and Functions

      Gap junctions are found where two adjacent cell membranes meet, allowing for electrical communication between cells. Desmosomes are specialized proteins that help cells stick together, particularly in epithelial tissue. Tight junctions prevent water and solutes from leaking out of cells. Zonula adherens junctions are cell junctions that connect to the actin cytoskeleton. These different types of cell junctions play important roles in maintaining the structure and function of tissues in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 20-year-old man in India is attacked by a wild dog and subsequently...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man in India is attacked by a wild dog and subsequently shows symptoms of rabies, including irritability, drooling, and seizures. The virus responsible for rabies is a rhabdovirus, which uses RNA polymerase to create a complementary RNA strand from a single strand of RNA. This newly-synthesised strand then acts as messenger-RNA (mRNA). What is the best description of the rhabdovirus genome?

      Your Answer: Double stranded RNA (dsRNA)

      Correct Answer: Negative-sense RNA (−RNA)

      Explanation:

      Virus Classification Based on Genome

      Viruses are categorized based on their genome, which can either be DNA or RNA. The RNA or DNA can be single or double-stranded. The genome of a virus determines its classification. The rhabdovirus, for instance, contains a single strand of RNA initially, which means that the first, second, and last answer options cannot be correct.

      Positive-sense RNA viruses, such as picornavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, and calicivirus, use the RNA strand directly as mRNA. On the other hand, negative-sense RNA viruses require RNA polymerase to copy the RNA strand and generate a complementary RNA strand, which then acts as mRNA. The rhabdovirus falls under this category. virus classification based on genome is crucial in developing effective treatments and vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which type of lipoprotein is involved in the development of atherosclerosis observed in...

    Correct

    • Which type of lipoprotein is involved in the development of atherosclerosis observed in coronary artery disease?

      Your Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL)

      Explanation:

      Atherosclerosis: The Gradual Narrowing of Arteries

      Atherosclerosis is a gradual process that involves the narrowing of arteries due to the accumulation of lipid-rich deposits within artery walls. This condition can take many years to develop and is the primary cause of coronary heart disease, peripheral vascular disease, and ischemic stroke. When a clot forms over an atherosclerotic plaque, it can lead to a heart attack by blocking blood flow to the cardiac muscle.

      Monocytes from the blood absorb oxidized LDL particles to form lipid-laden foam cells, which accumulate in the vessel walls and eventually form fatty streaks and atherosclerotic plaques. These foam cells secrete cytokines and chemokines that promote smooth muscle cell proliferation, contributing to the development of the atherosclerotic plaque. Any damage to the plaque can result in the release of tissue factor, which promotes clot formation.

      LDL can easily form oxidized LDL, especially in the presence of haem, which is released from damaged red blood cells in areas of turbulent blood flow. Inflammation, obesity, diabetes, and impaired glucose tolerance can also contribute to the formation of oxidized LDL. the causes and mechanisms of atherosclerosis is crucial in preventing and treating this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of black tarry stools. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of black tarry stools. Upon endoscopy, he is found to have a peptic ulcer. What is the primary risk factor for developing peptic ulcers?

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

      Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori colonisation of the stomach

      Explanation:

      Causes of Peptic Ulcers

      Peptic ulcers are a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain in the stomach. The most common cause of peptic ulcers is the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria in the stomach. This bacteria can cause inflammation and damage to the lining of the stomach, leading to the formation of ulcers. Another common cause of peptic ulcers is the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). These drugs can suppress the production of prostaglandins in the stomach, which can lead to inflammation and damage to the stomach lining.

      In addition to these causes, smoking can also increase the risk of developing peptic ulcers. Smoking can suppress the production of prostaglandins in the stomach, impair mucosal blood flow, and increase gastric acid secretion. However, it is important to note that being female is not a risk factor for peptic ulcers. In fact, men are more likely to be affected by this condition. Overall, the causes of peptic ulcers can help individuals take steps to prevent and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 28-year-old man with Crohn's disease is prescribed azathioprine. His doctor orders a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with Crohn's disease is prescribed azathioprine. His doctor orders a blood test to evaluate TPMT activity. What is the doctor's primary concern?

      Your Answer: Low enzyme activity leading to accumulation of azathioprine

      Correct Answer: Low enzyme activity leading to accumulation of 6-mercaptopurine

      Explanation:

      Enzyme Deficiencies and Drug Toxicity

      Enzyme deficiencies can lead to drug toxicity and adverse effects in patients. One example is TPMT deficiency, which can cause accumulation of 6-mercaptopurine, the active metabolite of azathioprine. This can result in bone marrow suppression and other serious complications. Approximately 10% of individuals have low TPMT activity, while 0.3% have very low activity, putting them at high risk for azathioprine-related toxicity.

      Another example of enzyme deficiency is phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency, which leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine. This condition, known as phenylketonuria, can be detected through neonatal screening using a blood spot taken from the heel several days after birth.

      In clinical practice, many gastroenterologists will start patients on azathioprine and send for TPMT enzyme activity testing. Patients are advised to stop the drug if they experience symptoms, but to continue taking it while waiting for the results if they do not. Early detection of enzyme deficiencies can help prevent drug toxicity and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - What is the safest method to prevent needlestick injury when obtaining an arterial...

    Correct

    • What is the safest method to prevent needlestick injury when obtaining an arterial blood gas sample?

      Your Answer: Removing the needle, disposing of it, and putting a cap on the sample

      Explanation:

      Safe Disposal of Blood Gas Sample Needles

      When obtaining a blood gas sample, it is important for health professionals to dispose of the needle safely before transporting it to the laboratory. This can be done by placing the needle in a sharps bin. It is crucial to handle the needle with care to prevent any accidental injuries or infections. Once the sample has been obtained, the needle should be immediately disposed of in the sharps bin to avoid any potential hazards. By following proper disposal procedures, health professionals can ensure the safety of themselves and others while handling blood gas samples. Remember to always prioritize safety when handling medical equipment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - An aged patient is brought to the ER from a nursing home due...

    Incorrect

    • An aged patient is brought to the ER from a nursing home due to severe diarrhea and dehydration. She had received broad-spectrum antibiotics a week ago for a catheter-related infection, and it is suspected that she has been infected with Clostridium difficile. What would be the microscopic appearance of this organism?

      Your Answer: Gram negative rod

      Correct Answer: Gram positive spore-forming rod

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile and Gram Positive Bacteria

      Clostridium difficile is becoming a more frequent cause of iatrogenic infection, leading to pseudomembranous colitis or antibiotic-associated colitis. This anaerobic rod can be identified through selective media as a motile, spore-forming Gram positive bacteria. However, it is easier and quicker to detect through immunoassay of toxin in a fresh stool sample.

      Gram positive bacteria can be classified into rods or cocci. Rods include Bacillus, Listeria, and Clostridium species, which can be spore-forming or non-spore-forming. On the other hand, cocci species include Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species, while diplococcus includes Streptococcus and Enterococcus. the different types of Gram positive bacteria and their characteristics is crucial in identifying and treating infections caused by these microorganisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - What is the location of pancreatic beta-cells? ...

    Correct

    • What is the location of pancreatic beta-cells?

      Your Answer: At the centre of islets of Langerhans

      Explanation:

      The Pancreas and its Beta-Cells

      The pancreas is a gland with both exocrine and endocrine functions. The exocrine part of the pancreas is made up of acini and ducts that secrete digestive enzymes into the small intestine. The endocrine part of the pancreas is composed of the islets of Langerhans, which are clusters of cells scattered throughout the pancreas. These islets contain alpha-cells, beta-cells, and delta-cells.

      Beta-cells are the most abundant cells in the islets of Langerhans and are located in the center of the islets. They are responsible for producing and secreting insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels. Alpha-cells, on the other hand, produce glucagon, which raises blood sugar levels. Delta-cells produce somatostatin, which inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon.

      In summary, the pancreas is a gland with both exocrine and endocrine functions. The endocrine part of the pancreas is made up of the islets of Langerhans, which contain alpha-cells, beta-cells, and delta-cells. Beta-cells are the most numerous cells in the islets and are responsible for producing and secreting insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 30-year-old bartender complains of discomfort on the outer part of his elbow....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old bartender complains of discomfort on the outer part of his elbow. He mentions that he has had this issue in the past and was diagnosed with lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow.
      Assuming that this current episode is due to tennis elbow, which specific movement would you anticipate to be the most painful?

      Your Answer: Wrist extension

      Explanation:

      Tennis Elbow and Wrist Extension

      Wrist extension is the motion that is commonly linked to discomfort in tennis elbow. This is due to the fact that the lateral epicondyle of the humerus is connected to the tendinous common origin of several extensor muscles. When performing activities such as pouring water from a jug, patients frequently report experiencing pain in the outer part of their elbow.

      In summary, tennis elbow is caused by the overuse of the extensor muscles that attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. This results in pain and discomfort in the outer part of the elbow, particularly during activities that involve wrist extension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - What is the process by which B cells can produce epitope-specific antibodies with...

    Correct

    • What is the process by which B cells can produce epitope-specific antibodies with extremely high affinity through random mutations of their existing receptors?

      Your Answer: Somatic hypermutation

      Explanation:

      The Process of B Cell Activation and Germinal Center Formation

      When an antigen activates a naïve B cell and receives appropriate signals from a Th2 CD4+ T cell, the B cell undergoes proliferation and gene mutation to form a germinal center. This process involves the formation of B-blasts and centroblasts, which insert new mutations into the variable regions of the light- and heavy-chain loci of their existing B cell receptor (BCR) through somatic hypermutation. This allows the production of a new BCR based on a receptor that is already known to bind antigen. The new BCRs are then tested against antigen by follicular dendritic cells to find a BCR with higher affinity.

      Simultaneously, class switching occurs, which refers to the exchange of heavy chain constant domain to move from IgM to any other Ig class. In the production of naïve lymphocytes in the thymus, negative and positive selection are involved. Somatic gene segment recombination is the process that allows the production of a random T cell or B cell receptor when cells are made in the bone marrow.

      Overall, the process of B cell activation and germinal center formation is a complex and intricate process that involves multiple steps and mechanisms. However, it is essential for the production of high-affinity antibodies and the development of an effective immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - What is the lipoprotein with the least density? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the lipoprotein with the least density?

      Your Answer: High density lipoprotein (HDL)

      Correct Answer: Chylomicron

      Explanation:

      Lipoproteins and Cholesterol

      Lipoproteins are particles that transport lipids (fats) in the bloodstream. They are classified based on their density and size. Chylomicrons are the largest and least dense lipoproteins, while HDL is the smallest and most dense. LDL and Lp(a) are in between in terms of size and density.

      LDL and Lp(a) are often referred to as bad cholesterol because they are associated with atherosclerosis, a condition that can lead to heart disease. On the other hand, HDL is known as good cholesterol because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream.

      While it is not necessary to memorize the specific density and size of each lipoprotein, it is useful to know which ones are the largest/smallest and which have the highest/lowest density. lipoproteins and cholesterol can help individuals make informed decisions about their diet and lifestyle to maintain heart health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 78-year-old man is involved in a car accident and suffers an injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is involved in a car accident and suffers an injury to his sternum. He experiences tenderness around the manubriosternal joint.
      What is the classification of the manubriosternal joint?

      Your Answer: A single synovial joint

      Correct Answer: A symphysis

      Explanation:

      Types of Joints

      There are different types of joints in the human body. The manubriosternal joint is a secondary cartilaginous joint, also known as a symphysis. It has two articular surfaces covered with hyaline cartilage and connected by fibrocartilage. On the other hand, a double synovial joint has two separate synovial cavities separated by an articular disk that allows for flexibility and movement. An example of this is the Tempromandibular joint.

      Meanwhile, a fibrous joint is connected by fibrous tissue, mainly consisting of collagen, and is fixed. A primary cartilaginous joint is where two bones are joined by hyaline cartilage. Lastly, a single synovial joint is surrounded by a fibrous joint capsule that is continuous with the periosteum of the joined bones and contains synovial fluid.

      In summary, the different types of joints in the human body have varying structures and functions. these joints is essential in diagnosing and treating joint-related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which anatomical feature travels posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus? ...

    Correct

    • Which anatomical feature travels posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Ulnar Nerve

      The ulnar nerve travels behind the medial epicondyle before entering the forearm. In contrast, other structures such as the radial nerve and musculocutaneous nerve pass over the lateral epicondyle, while the radial and ulnar arteries originate in the forearm. This unique pathway of the ulnar nerve is important to understand in clinical settings, as it can be susceptible to injury or compression at the elbow. Proper knowledge of the anatomy of the ulnar nerve can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions such as cubital tunnel syndrome or ulnar nerve entrapment. By studying the intricate details of the human body, healthcare professionals can better understand the complexities of the nervous system and provide optimal care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which blood vessel in the systemic circulation causes the highest amount of resistance...

    Correct

    • Which blood vessel in the systemic circulation causes the highest amount of resistance to blood flow?

      Your Answer: Arterioles

      Explanation:

      Arterioles and Total Peripheral Vascular Resistance

      Arterioles play a crucial role in determining the total peripheral vascular resistance due to their small calibre, larger surface area, and higher tensile strength compared to capillaries. These vessels are responsible for regulating blood flow to the capillaries and organs by constricting or dilating. The constriction of arterioles increases resistance to blood flow, while dilation decreases resistance.

      The high tensile strength of arterioles allows them to withstand the pressure of blood flow and maintain their shape, which is important for regulating blood pressure. Additionally, their larger surface area allows for more precise control of blood flow to specific areas of the body. Overall, arterioles are essential in regulating blood flow and maintaining proper blood pressure throughout the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - What is the enzyme necessary for the degradation of glycogen (glycogenolysis)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the enzyme necessary for the degradation of glycogen (glycogenolysis)?

      Your Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase

      Explanation:

      Enzymes Involved in Glycogen Degradation and Production

      Glycogen degradation is a process that requires several enzymes. One of these enzymes is glycogen phosphorylase, which plays a role in releasing glucose molecules from the polysaccharide chain by removing α1-4 glycosidic linkages. Another enzyme required for glycogen degradation is the debranching enzyme, which removes the α1-6 glycosidic linkages that occur only at the branch points. This enzyme accomplishes this by removing a short row of glucose molecules near a branch point and attaching it to the end of a glucose chain. Once this is done, glucose phosphorylase can remove the glucose units one by one.

      It is important to note that the debranching enzyme and glycogen phosphorylase are both used in the breakdown of glycogen, while the branching enzyme and glycogen synthase are involved in glycogen production. Additionally, phosphofructokinase is an enzyme in the glycolysis pathway, while pyruvate carboxylase is required for gluconeogenesis. the roles of these enzymes is crucial in the complex processes involved in glycogen metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which bone structure forms the anterior cranial fossa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which bone structure forms the anterior cranial fossa?

      Your Answer: The occipital bone

      Correct Answer: The lesser wing of the sphenoid

      Explanation:

      Formation of the Anterior Cranial Fossa

      The anterior cranial fossa is the front part of the skull base that houses the frontal lobes of the brain. It is formed by three bones: the frontal bone, the sphenoid bone, and the ethmoid bone. The orbital plate of the frontal bone makes up the front part of the fossa, while the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone forms the sides. The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone makes up the back part of the fossa. These three bones come together to create a bony structure that protects the brain and supports the facial structures. The anterior cranial fossa is an important area of the skull as it contains the olfactory bulbs, which are responsible for the sense of smell. Any damage to this area can result in a loss of smell or other neurological deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 55-year-old man with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 has been experiencing indigestion...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 has been experiencing indigestion for a long time. He recently had an endoscopy, during which biopsy samples of his oesophagus were taken. The pathology report revealed abnormal columnar epithelium in the distal samples. Can you identify the best answer that describes this adaptive cellular response to injury?

      Your Answer: Apoptosis

      Correct Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      There are four adaptive cellular responses to injury: atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, and metaplasia. Metaplasia is the reversible change of one fully differentiated cell type to another, usually in response to irritation. Examples include Barrett’s esophagus, bronchoalveolar epithelium undergoing squamous metaplasia due to cigarette smoke, and urinary bladder transitional epithelium undergoing squamous metaplasia due to a urinary calculi. Atrophy refers to a loss of cells, hypertrophy refers to an increase in cell size, and hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell number. Apoptosis is a specialized form of programmed cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - What is the medical term used to describe the existence of numerous small...

    Incorrect

    • What is the medical term used to describe the existence of numerous small tuberculous granulomas spread throughout the lungs?

      Your Answer: Latent tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Miliary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      The different manifestations of tuberculosis are crucial in diagnosing and treating the disease effectively. Tuberculosis can manifest in various ways depending on the site and stage of infection. When a person first contracts tuberculosis, it can cause mid-lower zone pneumonic consolidation, which is known as the Ghon focus. Bacteria and inflammatory cells then travel to perihilar lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex.

      In most cases, the immune system will clear the active infection, leaving some dormant granulomas and asymptomatic mycobacteria in the lungs. This stage is called latent tuberculosis. However, some patients may develop a more severe form of the disease, known as primary tuberculous bronchopneumonia, where consolidation spreads from the Ghon focus to a more widespread bronchopneumonia. Other organs may also be affected.

      In most cases, latent tuberculosis remains dormant for the rest of a person’s life. However, certain factors such as immunosuppression can cause the infection to become active again, leading to primary tuberculosis. This can affect any organ, but often causes an upper lobe bronchopneumonia. Miliary tuberculosis is another manifestation of the disease, caused by the systemic dissemination of tuberculosis via haematogenous spread.

      This form of tuberculosis has a particular preference for forming multiple, small lesions throughout both lung fields and other organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline, and...

    Incorrect

    • You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline, and how it might be applied to geriatric care. You assume that the data for this particular biomarker are likely to be normally distributed.
      When considering the normal distribution, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Data need to be transformed before they can be analysed with parametric tests

      Correct Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value

      Explanation:

      Normal Distribution and Parametric Tests

      Normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical on both sides. The mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution are equal. The probability that a normally distributed random variable lies between (mean – 1.96 standard deviation) and (mean + 1.96 standard deviation) is 0.95, while the probability that it lies between (mean – standard deviation) and (mean + standard deviation) is 0.68. Additionally, 95% of the distribution of sample means lie within 1.96 standard deviations of the population mean.

      Parametric tests are statistical tests that assume the data are normally distributed. However, data that are not normally distributed can still be subject to a parametric test, but they need to be transformed first. It is important to understand normal distribution and parametric tests in order to accurately analyze and interpret data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - You are in a nutrition clinic reviewing a 16-year-old boy with anorexia nervosa....

    Correct

    • You are in a nutrition clinic reviewing a 16-year-old boy with anorexia nervosa. He has a BMI of 15.5 kg/m2 and his weight is 70% the expected weight for height.

      How would you classify his level of malnutrition?

      Your Answer: Severe undernutrition

      Explanation:

      Malnutrition

      Malnutrition is a clinical condition that occurs when there is an imbalance in the energy, protein, or other components of the diet, leading to adverse effects on the body’s health. This condition encompasses undernutrition, overnutrition, and vitamin and mineral deficiencies. Undernutrition is the most common form of malnutrition and is classified based on different grading systems used worldwide. Severe undernutrition is characterized by a weight of less than 70-75% of the expected weight for age and a BMI of less than 16 kg/m2.

      To grade the severity of protein-energy malnutrition (PEM), a scale is commonly used. This scale considers the expected weight for age and BMI. A normal weight is between 90-110% of the expected weight for age and a BMI of 19-24 kg/m2. Mild undernutrition is between 85-90% of the expected weight for age and a BMI of 18-18.9 kg/m2. Moderate undernutrition is between 75-85% of the expected weight for age and a BMI of 16-17.9 kg/m2. Severe undernutrition is less than 75% of the expected weight for age and a BMI of less than 16 kg/m2.

      In summary, malnutrition is a serious condition that affects many people worldwide. the different types of malnutrition and their severity can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and interventions to improve the health outcomes of those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.3
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  • Question 77 - A 65-year-old woman is preparing for surgery to remove her submandibular gland due...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is preparing for surgery to remove her submandibular gland due to recurrent sialadenitis. What is a significant structure that is located medially to the gland?

      Your Answer: The temporomandibular joint

      Correct Answer: Mylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Arteries of the Head and Neck

      The mylohyoid muscle is situated close to the superficial part of the submandibular gland. Meanwhile, the genioglossus muscle originates from the mandible and attaches to the tongue and hyoid bone. This muscle is responsible for tongue movement and swallowing. Another muscle in the head and neck region is the lateral pterygoid muscle, which is located in the infratemporal fossa of the skull. It is a two-headed muscle that aids in chewing and movement of the temporomandibular joint. Lastly, the maxillary artery arises posterior to the mandibular neck and passes between the sphenomandibular ligament and ramus of the mandible. This artery supplies blood to the deep structures of the face and maxilla. the anatomy of these muscles and arteries is crucial in diagnosing and treating various head and neck conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 39-year-old man of South Asian descent is experiencing a productive cough with...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man of South Asian descent is experiencing a productive cough with occasional pink-coloured sputum for the past two weeks. He has also been having a fever, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss during this period. Upon examination, a chest x-ray confirms the diagnosis, revealing cavitary patterns in the superior lobe of the right lung, with more radiopaque walls of the air-filled cavities. What serum electrolyte is most likely to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Mg2+

      Correct Answer: Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The Link Between Granulomatous Diseases and Hypercalcaemia

      In diseases such as tuberculosis and sarcoidosis, where granuloma formation is the main pathological mechanism, activated macrophages increase serum levels of calcium. This is due to the production of calcitriol or the active form of vitamin D, which increases calcium absorption in the small intestine and reabsorption in the renal parenchyma.

      Normally, hypercalcaemia inhibits the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH), which reduces osteoclastic activity and decreases the amount of calcitriol being released. However, in granulomatous diseases, sustained activation of macrophages produces increased amounts of calcitriol without regard to the negative feedback mechanism. As a result, the walls of air-filled cavities become calcified due to the sustained hypercalcaemia, making them more radiopaque.

      In summary, granulomatous diseases can lead to hypercalcaemia due to sustained activation of macrophages and increased production of calcitriol. This can result in calcification of air-filled cavities and increased radiopacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 25-year-old patient complains of abdominal pain and a recent alteration in bowel...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient complains of abdominal pain and a recent alteration in bowel movements. Upon conducting a colonic biopsy, the results reveal the presence of granulomas, inflammation lesions that extend to the submucosa and muscularis, and areas of unaffected mucosa in the rectum. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory bowel disease should be considered in young adults with a change in bowel habit and raised inflammatory markers. Crohn’s disease has skip lesions and can affect anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis affects a continuous stretch of bowel starting in the rectum. Biopsy of Crohn’s shows intramural inflammation with lymphocyte infiltration and granulomas, while ulcerative colitis only causes intramural inflammation without granulomas. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome occurs after major reconstructive bowel surgery and can cause diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal distension, and pain. Cryptosporidiosis is a protozoan infection that can cause severe colitis in immunocompromised patients with AIDS. Whipple’s disease is a rare infection caused by Tropheryma whipplei and mainly presents with symptoms of malabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - What is the molecule produced at the end of glycolysis that connects to...

    Correct

    • What is the molecule produced at the end of glycolysis that connects to the Kreb cycle?

      Your Answer: Acetyl CoA

      Explanation:

      The Process of Energy Production from Glucose

      The process of producing energy from glucose involves several steps. The first step is glycolysis, where glucose is converted into fructose 1,6 bisphosphate and split into two 3-carbon particles. These particles are then converted into acetyl CoA, which provides the link with the Kreb cycle. The Kreb cycle, also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle, is a process where organic acids are modified in a series of steps to produce NADH. Succinate and oxaloacetate are intermediates in the Kreb cycle.

      The final step in the process is the electron transfer chain, which occurs inside mitochondria. The NADH generated during the Kreb cycle is used to produce energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by a series of redox reactions. This process is essential for the production of energy in the body, as ATP is the primary source of energy for cellular processes. By the process of energy production from glucose, we can better understand the importance of maintaining a healthy diet and lifestyle to ensure optimal energy production in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - What is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the rate limiting step in glycolysis?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the rate limiting step in glycolysis?

      Your Answer: Glucokinase

      Correct Answer: Phosphofructokinase

      Explanation:

      The Rate Limiting Step of Glycolysis

      The conversion of fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6,bisphosphate is the main rate limiting step of the glycolysis pathway. This conversion is catalysed by the enzyme phosphofructokinase in the presence of ATP. However, excessive cellular concentrations of ATP can inhibit the activity of phosphofructokinase. This inhibition encourages the storage of excess glucose as glycogen instead of making excessive ATP in times of abundance. On the other hand, when there is cellular abundance of ATP but it is undergoing rapid degradation to AMP, the rising levels of AMP reduce the effect of high concentrations of ATP on the inhibition of the enzyme. Although several other steps in the glycolysis pathway are under control or inhibition in times of cellular ATP abundance or due to an accumulation of the products of glycolysis, phosphofructokinase is considered the main rate limiting step of glycolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - In what location is LDL produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what location is LDL produced?

      Your Answer: Gut

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The Formation and Function of LDL Particles

      Low density lipoprotein (LDL) particles are created in the liver through the conversion of intermediate density lipoprotein (IDL) particles. The liver receives triglycerides and cholesterol esters from chylomicrons, which are then repackaged and secreted into the bloodstream as very low density lipoproteins (VLDL). Lipoprotein lipase on endothelial walls converts VLDL to IDL, which is then converted to LDL by the hepatic tricylglycerol lipase enzyme in the liver.

      LDL particles transport triglycerides to cells that express the LDL receptor on their surfaces, which includes most normal body cells. The LDL binds to the LDL receptor, allowing cholesterol to enter the cells and maintain their cell membrane. While most body cells can produce cholesterol, if an excess amount is received from the bloodstream, endogenous cholesterol production is slowed.

      Macrophages have scavenger receptors that can take up LDL particles from the bloodstream, especially when the particles are modified or oxidized. Lipid-laden macrophages enter the arterial wall and become foam cells, which accumulate in fatty streaks and can become atherosclerotic plaques. the formation and function of LDL particles is crucial in preventing the development of atherosclerosis and related cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - How does the incidence of male breast cancer compared to that of female...

    Correct

    • How does the incidence of male breast cancer compared to that of female breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Incidence is lower - women are more likely to get breast cancer than men

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer in Men

      Breast cancer is not just limited to women, as men can also develop this type of cancer. Although it is much rarer in men than in women, it is still possible for them to get it. Men have breast tissue, which means that they are susceptible to breast cancer. Approximately 1 in 100 breast cancers occur in men, and about 250 male breast cancers are diagnosed each year.

      Men who are at an increased risk, such as those with a strong family history of breast cancer, are more likely to develop this form of cancer. It is important for men to be aware of the signs and symptoms of breast cancer, which include a lump or swelling in the breast, nipple discharge, and changes in the skin around the breast. Early detection is key to successful treatment, so men should not hesitate to seek medical attention if they notice any of these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 25-year-old female has been diagnosed with iron deficiency while pregnant.

    What is the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female has been diagnosed with iron deficiency while pregnant.

      What is the primary role of iron in the human body?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin synthesis

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Iron in the Human Body

      Iron plays a crucial role in maintaining a healthy human body. One of its primary functions is to transport oxygen throughout the body via haemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells. Additionally, iron is an essential component of cytochromes, which are necessary for the production of ATP and drug metabolism. Iron is also required for the production of myoglobin, which is necessary for normal muscle function.

      Unfortunately, iron deficiency is prevalent, especially in children, menstruating women, and pregnant patients. Vegetarians are also at a higher risk of deficiency since animal sources of iron are more easily absorbed than plant sources. To combat iron deficiency, it is recommended to consume foods rich in iron, such as liver, chicken, pulses, leafy green vegetables, and fish. By ensuring adequate iron intake, individuals can maintain optimal health and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - What is the location of the Billroth cords? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the location of the Billroth cords?

      Your Answer: Hepatic sinusoids

      Correct Answer: Splenic red pulp

      Explanation:

      Anatomy and Function of the Spleen

      The spleen is composed of two types of tissue: red pulp and white pulp. The red pulp consists of cords and sinusoids, while the white pulp contains B-zones and marginal zones similar to a lymph node. Blood enters the red pulp through branches of the splenic arterioles and flows into the cords. These cords are filled with blood and contain numerous macrophages, and they are lined by sinusoids. Red blood cells pass through the cords and enter the sinusoids by squeezing through gaps between endothelial cells. This process requires a stable red cell membrane.

      If red blood cells are damaged, they will lyse and be phagocytosed by macrophages in the cords. Red cells that do pass into the sinusoids continue into the splenic venules and eventually exit the spleen through the splenic vein. The spleen plays an important role in filtering blood and removing damaged red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - What is responsible for the depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is responsible for the depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer: Potassium channels opening

      Correct Answer: Sodium channels opening

      Explanation:

      The Phases of Cardiac Action Potential

      The cardiac action potential is a complex process that involves several phases. The first phase, known as phase 0 or the depolarisation phase, is initiated by the opening of fast Na channels, which allows an influx of Na ions into the cell. This influx of ions causes the membrane potential to become more positive, leading to the contraction of the heart muscle.

      Following phase 0, the second phase, known as phase 1 or initial repolarisation, occurs when the Na channels close. This closure causes a brief period of repolarisation, where the membrane potential becomes more negative.

      The third phase, known as phase 2 or the plateau phase, is characterised by the opening of K and Ca channels. The influx of calcium ions into the cell is balanced by the efflux of potassium ions, leading to a stable membrane potential. This phase is important for maintaining the contraction of the heart muscle.

      Finally, phase 3 or repolarisation occurs when the Ca channels close, causing a net negative current as K+ ions continue to leave the cell. This phase allows the membrane potential to return to its resting state, ready for the next cardiac action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A pregnant woman in her late 20s has been admitted to the hospital...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman in her late 20s has been admitted to the hospital with suspected pre-eclampsia.

      Which electrolyte is effective in treating pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Hypermagnesaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hypermagnesaemia is a condition that occurs when there is an excess of magnesium in the body. Although hypomagnesaemia is more common in hospital inpatients, certain situations can lead to hypermagnesaemia. These include renal impairment, rhabdomyolysis, excessive oral or intravenous magnesium intake, and excessive rectal magnesium intake.

      One of the treatment options for pre-eclampsia is intravenous magnesium infusion, which can also lead to hypermagnesaemia if overdosed. The clinical features of hypermagnesaemia include neuromuscular depression, respiratory depression, nausea and vomiting, flushing, hypersomnia, hypotension, and cardiac arrest. It is important to monitor magnesium levels in patients who are at risk of hypermagnesaemia to prevent any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 70-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department displaying indications and symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department displaying indications and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome. Among the following cardiac enzymes, which is the most probable to increase first after a heart attack?

      Your Answer: Troponin T

      Correct Answer: Myoglobin

      Explanation:

      Enzyme Markers for Myocardial Infarction

      Enzyme markers are used to diagnose myocardial infarction, with troponins being the most sensitive and specific. However, troponins are not the fastest to rise and are only measured 12 hours after the event. Myoglobin, although less sensitive and specific, is the earliest marker to rise. The rise of myoglobin occurs within 2 hours of the event, with a peak at 6-8 hours and a fall within 1-2 days. Creatine kinase rises within 4-6 hours, peaks at 24 hours, and falls within 3-4 days. LDH rises within 6-12 hours, peaks at 72 hours, and falls within 10-14 days. These enzyme markers are important in the diagnosis and management of myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the age of 60.
      The null hypothesis was that there was no difference between the two treatments.
      The primary outcome was reduction of systolic blood pressure below 140 mmHg. This outcome was reached in 75% of patients taking treatment A and 80% of patients taking treatment B. The results were reported as being significant with a p-value of 0.05.
      What is the correct interpretation of the P value?

      Your Answer: There is a 5% chance that regimen B is better than regimen A

      Correct Answer: There is a 5% probability of finding this result if there is no difference between the regimens

      Explanation:

      The Misunderstood P Value

      The P value is often misunderstood and over-interpreted. It is important to note that the P value only indicates the probability of obtaining the results by chance if there was no difference between the regimens being compared. It does not provide information on the actual difference between the regimens or the likelihood of one being better than the other. This confusion has led to the increased use of confidence intervals as a more informative measure.

      Goodman SN’s article Toward Evidence-Based Medical Statistics delves deeper into this issue and highlights the fallacy of relying solely on P values. It is crucial to understand the limitations of the P value and to use it in conjunction with other statistical measures to draw accurate conclusions. By doing so, we can ensure that our research is evidence-based and reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A boy dashes to catch a bus.
    What adjustments does his body undergo...

    Incorrect

    • A boy dashes to catch a bus.
      What adjustments does his body undergo for this brief physical activity?

      Your Answer: Increased parasympathetic activity

      Correct Answer: Increased blood flow to skin

      Explanation:

      Phases of Physiological Response to Exercise

      Regular exercise triggers a series of physiological responses in the body. These responses can be divided into three phases: stress reaction, resistance reaction, and adaptation reaction. The stress reaction is the initial response to short-term exercise. During this phase, the body increases sympathetic activity, reduces parasympathetic activity, and redirects blood flow to muscles and skin for cooling. Respiration becomes deeper and metabolic buffering responds to the generation of lactic acid through anaerobic respiration.

      As exercise continues, the resistance reaction takes over. This phase occurs minutes to hours after the initiation of exercise and involves the release of hormones such as ACTH, cortisol, growth hormone, and adrenaline. Finally, the adaptation reaction develops over days to weeks of regular exercise. During this phase, genes are activated in exercising tissues, promoting increases in strength, speed, and endurance.

      Overall, the phases of physiological response to exercise can help individuals tailor their exercise routines to achieve their desired outcomes. By gradually increasing the intensity and duration of exercise, individuals can promote the adaptation reaction and achieve long-term improvements in their physical fitness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population aged 60 and above. Over a period of five years, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that there were 150 myocardial infarcts (MI) in the placebo group and 100 in the group treated with the new statin. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one MI during the study period?

      Your Answer: 50

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The Glycaemic Index Method is a commonly used tool by dieticians and patients to determine the impact of different foods on blood glucose levels. This method involves calculating the area under a curve that shows the rise in blood glucose after consuming a test portion of food containing 50 grams of carbohydrate. The rationale behind using the GI index is that foods that cause a rapid and significant increase in blood glucose levels can lead to an increase in insulin production. This can put individuals at a higher risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain.

      High GI foods are typically those that contain refined sugars and processed cereals, such as white bread and white rice. These foods can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose levels, leading to a surge in insulin production. On the other hand, low GI foods, such as vegetables, legumes, and beans, are less likely to cause a significant increase in blood glucose levels.

      Overall, the Glycaemic Index Method can be helpful in making informed food choices and managing blood glucose levels. By choosing low GI foods, individuals can reduce their risk of hyperinsulinaemia and weight gain, while still enjoying a healthy and balanced diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 75-year-old amateur cricketer complains of a painful and stiff right shoulder following...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old amateur cricketer complains of a painful and stiff right shoulder following a match. Upon examination, there is tenderness around the shoulder joint. The patient experiences significant difficulty in abducting the joint initially, but can lift it fully with the assistance of his left hand. Which rotator cuff muscle is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Subscapularis

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The Role of Rotator Cuff Muscles in Shoulder Abduction

      The rotator cuff muscles, including subscapularis, infraspinatus, teres minor, and supraspinatus, play a crucial role in shoulder joint movements. However, teres major is not one of the rotator cuff muscles. Specifically, supraspinatus assists in the initial abduction of the shoulder, originating from the supraspinous fossa and inserting in the greater tubercle of the humerus, passing under the acromion.

      As the shoulder is abducted beyond 30 degrees, the deltoid muscle takes over most of the movement. Therefore, if there is a tear in the supraspinatus muscle, initial movement may be difficult, but abduction can be achieved more easily once the limb is abducted to 30 degrees. These types of tears are more common in the elderly and in sports that require rapid overhead throwing movements, such as cricket or baseball.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 55-year-old obese male patient complains of a painful and swollen big toe...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old obese male patient complains of a painful and swollen big toe accompanied by a mild fever. Given his history of gout, it is suspected to be the underlying cause of his current symptoms. Which blood test is the most useful in confirming a diagnosis of gout?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium pyrophosphate

      Correct Answer: Serum urate

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Gout: the Tests and Procedures

      Gout is a condition that occurs when urate crystals accumulate in the joints, leading to an intense inflammatory response. While several blood tests can help rule out other conditions, the most specific test for gout is the measurement of serum urate levels. However, it’s important to note that gout can still be present even without hyperuricemia, especially during an acute attack. Chondrocalcinosis, a condition characterized by calcium pyrophosphate deposition, can also be mistaken for gout.

      To definitively diagnose gout, a joint aspiration procedure is necessary. This involves extracting fluid from the affected joint and examining it under polarized microscopy. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and exhibit negative birefringence, which is a key characteristic of gout.

      In summary, diagnosing gout requires a combination of blood tests and joint aspiration procedures. While serum urate levels are the most specific blood test for gout, joint aspiration is necessary to confirm the presence of urate crystals. By these tests and procedures, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat gout, improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Which statement accurately describes the structure of the heart? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the structure of the heart?

      Your Answer: The ascending aorta is entirely outside the pericardial sac

      Correct Answer: The aortic valve has three cusps

      Explanation:

      Heart Chamber Locations and Echocardiography

      The heart is a complex organ with four chambers that work together to pump blood throughout the body. The right ventricle is located in front of the left ventricle, while the left atrium is the most posterior chamber of the heart. The right atrium is situated to the right and anterior to the left atrium.

      When it comes to imaging the heart, transthoracic echocardiography is a common method used to visualize the heart’s structures. However, the left atrial appendage, a small pouch-like structure attached to the left atrium, may not be easily seen with this technique. In such cases, transoesophageal echocardiography may be necessary to obtain a clearer image of the left atrial appendage. the locations of the heart’s chambers and the limitations of imaging techniques can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What is the main factor that determines glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main factor that determines glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

      Your Answer: Fluid overload

      Correct Answer: Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

      Explanation:

      Glomerular Filtration Rate

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the measure of how well the kidneys are functioning. It is determined by the sum of hydrostatic and osmotic forces across the glomerular membrane, which gives the overall net filtration pressure and the glomerular capillary filtration coefficient. The net filtration pressure is made up of four opposing forces, including the glomerular hydrostatic pressure promoting filtration, the hydrostatic pressure within the Bowman’s capsule opposing filtration, the osmotic pressure of the glomerular capillary plasma proteins opposing filtration, and the osmotic pressure of the proteins within the Bowman’s capsule promoting filtration.

      Changes to these relative pressures can alter the GFR, which can occur in both normal physiology and pathological conditions. the factors that influence GFR is important in diagnosing and treating kidney diseases. By monitoring GFR, healthcare professionals can determine the extent of kidney damage and develop appropriate treatment plans. Overall, GFR is a crucial measure of kidney function that helps to maintain overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - What is the underlying pathological process that leads to the development of Non-alcoholic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the underlying pathological process that leads to the development of Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

      Your Answer: A Cytokine production by fat cells

      Correct Answer: B Insulin sensitisation

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is becoming increasingly prevalent, affecting around 30% of patients in the Western world. A small percentage of these patients (2-4%) will develop non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) with cirrhosis. The exact cause of NAFLD is not fully understood, but it is linked to the metabolic syndrome and associated with central obesity, insulin resistance, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.

      NAFLD is characterized by abnormal lipid handling, which leads to fat accumulation in the liver. Inflammatory cytokines, particularly TNF-alpha, produced in adipocytes, contribute to liver inflammation and lobular hepatitis. Additionally, hepatocytes may become swollen and filled with fluid, leading to an increased cytoplasm:nuclei ratio and vacuolated nuclei. As the disease progresses, pericellular fibrosis may develop, increasing the likelihood of NASH and cirrhosis.

      Currently, the primary treatment for NAFLD is risk factor reduction, addressing associated hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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      Seconds
  • Question 97 - What is the cofactor needed for pyruvate dehydrogenase to operate during the conversion...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cofactor needed for pyruvate dehydrogenase to operate during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA at the end of glycolysis?

      Your Answer: ATP

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Pyruvate Dehydrogenase and its Enzyme Complex

      Pyruvate dehydrogenase is an enzyme complex that plays a crucial role in metabolism. It is composed of multiple copies of several enzymes, including E1, E2, and E3. E1, also known as pyruvate dehydrogenase, is located at the periphery of the molecule and requires thiamine pyrophosphate, a derivative of the vitamin thiamine, to function properly. E2, a transacetylase enzyme, is situated in the core of the molecule and requires lipoamide to work effectively. Lipoamide contains a thiol group that enables it to participate in redox reactions. E3, a dehydrogenase enzyme, is located at the periphery of the molecule and requires a molecule of FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) to function. Flavin structures are obtained from the vitamin riboflavin in the diet.

      Thiamine is essential for normal pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, and it must be obtained from the diet as the body can only store relatively small amounts. Thiamine deficiency is common and can lead to a range of potentially serious complications, including Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Korsakoff’s psychosis, and peripheral neurological symptoms. Overall, the pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme complex is under strict metabolic control and plays a critical role in energy production and metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - What factor triggers a direct rise in the production of aldosterone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factor triggers a direct rise in the production of aldosterone?

      Your Answer: Increased blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Increased levels of angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is a series of events that occur in response to a fall in renal perfusion. When the kidneys do not receive enough blood flow, renin is released from the juxtaglomerular apparatus and stimulates the activation of angiotensin I into angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin II then triggers the production of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex. Although aldosterone is a hormone of the adrenal cortex, it is secreted in response to angiotensin II.

      Aldosterone acts via the mineralocorticoid receptor (MR) and has several actions. It prevents the loss of sodium in the kidney, leading to sodium retention. It promotes renal potassium excretion, causing potassium loss. Additionally, it promotes renal loss of hydrogen ions, leading to a tendency towards alkalosis. Aldosterone plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and electrolyte balance in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A known opiate-abuser in his mid-twenties is observed injecting a substance and subsequently...

    Correct

    • A known opiate-abuser in his mid-twenties is observed injecting a substance and subsequently collapsing on the street. He is immediately transported to the emergency department. What acid-base disturbance would be anticipated in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Opiate Injection and Respiratory Acidosis

      When a person injects opiates, it can lead to respiratory depression. This means that the person’s breathing will slow down, causing an increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the body. As a result, the person may experience respiratory acidosis, which is a condition where the blood becomes too acidic due to the buildup of CO2. This can lead to symptoms such as confusion, drowsiness, and shortness of breath. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if someone is experiencing these symptoms after injecting opiates. Proper treatment can help prevent further complications and ensure a safe recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 78-year-old woman is admitted after a fall and is diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman is admitted after a fall and is diagnosed with a fractured neck of femur. What tests should be ordered to investigate the potential presence of osteoporosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: MRI scan

      Correct Answer: DXA scan

      Explanation:

      DXA Scanning for Osteoporosis Diagnosis

      DXA scanning is a diagnostic tool commonly used in hospitals to diagnose and monitor osteoporosis. It involves directing two x-rays towards the patient from perpendicular angles to measure density within different parts of the body. This allows for the determination of body composition and bone mineral density.

      The results of a DXA scan are expressed as T and Z scores. The T score represents the number of standard deviations above or below the mean in a population of healthy young adults, while the Z score represents the number of standard deviations above or below the mean in a population of adults matched by age and sex to the patient.

      In younger patients, the T and Z scores are usually similar and close to the mean. However, for older age groups, where more than 50% of people may have osteoporosis, the T score is particularly important for diagnosis. This is because a score based on expected values for an age and sex matched population may under-diagnose osteoporosis in elderly women.

      Overall, DXA scanning is a valuable tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of osteoporosis, especially in older age groups where the risk of osteoporosis is higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.5
      Seconds

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