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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a history of scoliosis, pectus excavatum, recurrent pneumothorax, and mitral valve prolapse is contemplating starting a family. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autosomal codominant
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.
The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.
In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with a 3 week history of joint pain, a pink, bumpy rash on her arms, legs, and trunk, and fevers that spike in the evenings. She has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy and a palpable spleen on examination. Blood tests reveal a significant leucocytosis (≥ 10,000/µL) and elevated serum ferritin (350 ng/mL) levels, but negative antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor tests. What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis
Correct Answer: Adult-onset Still’s disease
Explanation:To diagnose adult-onset Still’s disease, it is necessary to exclude other conditions by ensuring that rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody tests are negative. The presence of joint pain, spiking fevers, and a pink bumpy rash is a characteristic triad of symptoms associated with this disease. High serum ferritin and leucocytosis are also commonly observed. Negative results for rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody tests help to rule out rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus. Spiking fevers are not typically associated with Wilson’s disease or haemochromatosis. This information is based on the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Specialties (10th Edition), page 654.
Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.
Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 38-year-old male librarian presents with sudden loss of hearing in both ears. There is no ear pain, history of recent upper respiratory tract infection or history of trauma. He has no past medical history of note and does not take any regular prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Tuning fork testing suggests right side sensorineural hearing loss. Examination of the auditory canals and tympanic membranes is unremarkable, as is neurological examination. He is referred to the acute ear, nose and throat (ENT) clinic. Audiometry reveals a 40 db hearing loss in the right ear at multiple frequencies.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management plan?Your Answer: Arrange an urgent magnetic resonance (MR) of the brain
Explanation:Management of Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) is a medical emergency that requires urgent evaluation and management. Patients with unexplained sudden hearing loss should be referred to an ENT specialist and offered an MRI scan. A CT scan may also be indicated to rule out stroke, although it is unlikely to cause unilateral hearing loss.
Antiviral medication such as acyclovir is not recommended unless there is evidence of viral infection. Antibiotics are also not indicated unless there is evidence of bacterial infection.
The mainstay of treatment for SSNHL is oral prednisolone, which should be started as soon as possible and continued for 14 days. While the cause of SSNHL is often unknown, it is important to consider a wide range of differential diagnoses, including trauma, drugs, space-occupying lesions, autoimmune inner ear disease, and many other conditions. Prompt evaluation and treatment can improve the chances of recovery and prevent further hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with stiffness in his muscles, difficulty initiating movements such as getting up from a chair, slow movements and hand shaking, which started 5 weeks ago. He has a medical history of schizophrenia and has had good compliance with his medication for the past 3 months. He is taking haloperidol. On examination, his temperature is 37.5 °C, blood pressure 120/81 mmHg and pulse 98 bpm. On examination, there is decreased facial expression, pill-rolling tremor, cogwheel rigidity and festinating gait.
Which of the following terms describes the symptoms of this patient?Your Answer: Bradykinesia
Explanation:Common Neurological Side Effects of Medications
Medications can sometimes cause neurological side effects that mimic symptoms of neurological disorders. One such side effect is called pseudo-parkinsonism, which is characterized by bradykinesia or slowness in movements. This can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotic medication, anti-emetics like metoclopramide, and some calcium channel blockers like cinnarizine.
Another side effect is acute dystonia, which is the sudden and sustained contraction of muscles in any part of the body, usually following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, which is characterized by restlessness and the inability to remain motionless.
Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological side effect that is characterized by involuntary muscle movements, usually affecting the tongue, lips, trunk, and extremities. This is seen in patients who are on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication such as antipsychotic medication (both typical and atypical), some antidepressants, metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and others.
Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication. It is characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, changes in level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. Management is supportive, and symptoms generally resolve within 1-2 weeks.
Understanding the Neurological Side Effects of Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old sexually active man comes to the clinic complaining of a rash that has been present all over his body for the past two weeks. He also reports having a painless sore on his penis a few weeks prior to the onset of the rash. Upon examination, a maculopapular rash is observed on his entire body, including the palms of his hands and soles of his feet. However, his penis appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Secondary syphilis
Explanation:Syphilis and its Symptoms
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The disease is transmitted through intimate contact with an infected person. The primary symptom of syphilis is a painless ulcer called a chancre, which may not be reported by the patient. The secondary stage of syphilis is characterized by a maculopapular rash that affects the entire body, including the palms and soles. This rash is known as keratoderma blennorrhagica.
It is important to note that HIV seroconversion illness may also present with a rash, but it typically does not affect the palms and soles. Additionally, constitutional symptoms such as fever and malaise are common with HIV seroconversion illness. None of the other conditions typically present with a rash.
Treatment for secondary syphilis involves the use of long-acting penicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old female who is 28 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain. She is tachycardic but is otherwise stable. On examination, her uterus is tender and hard, but fetal lie is normal. Cardiotocography shows no signs of fetal distress.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Admit her and administer tocolytics
Correct Answer: Admit her and administer steroids
Explanation:When managing placental abruption in a case where the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks old, and not displaying any signs of distress, the appropriate course of action is to admit the patient and administer steroids. Admitting the patient is necessary for monitoring and providing necessary care. Steroids are given to aid in the maturation of fetal lungs. It is recommended to deliver the baby at 37-38 weeks due to the increased risk of stillbirth. Tocolytics are not routinely given due to their controversial nature and potential for maternal cardiovascular side effects. Discharging the patient with safety netting is not appropriate as the patient is symptomatic. Activating the major haemorrhage protocol, calling 2222, and performing an emergency caesarean section are not the most suitable options as the patient is not hypotensive and there are no signs of fetal distress.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents to the Emergency department with complaints of central chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is currently taking ramipril, metformin, atorvastatin, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 129/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 81. Bibasal crackles are heard on auscultation of his chest.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 138 g/L (130-180)
- White cell count: 8.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet: 197 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 123 µmol/L (79-118)
- Glucose: 12.3 mmol/L (<7.0)
- ECG: Anterolateral ST depression
The patient is given sublingual GTN. What is the next most appropriate therapy?Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg and low molecular weight heparin
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, clopidogrel 300 mg and unfractionated heparin
Explanation:Treatment Plan for High-Risk Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
This patient, who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, is considered high risk and requires immediate treatment. The recommended treatment plan includes loading the patient with both aspirin and clopidogrel to reduce the risk of further complications. If the patient experiences further chest pain or if ECG signs do not improve, additional interventions such as angiography may be necessary.
In addition to aspirin and clopidogrel, unfractionated heparin is also recommended as an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who are likely to undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours of admission. If the patient does not progress to angiogram, screening for ischaemia should be considered prior to discharge.
Overall, it is important to closely monitor this high-risk patient and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 35-year-old man who has presented to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath, fever, and unusual breathing sounds for the past twelve hours. He reports having a sore throat for the past few days, which has rapidly worsened. He has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 30/min, pulse 120 bpm, oxygen saturation 96%, temperature 39.0ºC, blood pressure 110/60 mmHg. From the end of the bed, you can observe that he is visibly struggling to breathe, has a hoarse voice, and is drooling into a container. You can hear a high-pitched wheeze during inspiration.
What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?Your Answer: Give him nebulised salbutamol
Correct Answer: Call the on-call anaesthetist to assess the patient for intubation
Explanation:In cases of acute epiglottitis, protecting the airway is crucial and may require endotracheal intubation. Symptoms such as high fever, sore throat, dyspnoea, change in voice, and inspiratory stridor indicate a potential airway emergency. While other treatments may be necessary, securing the airway should be the top priority, following the ABCDE management steps. IV dexamethasone can help reduce laryngeal oedema, but an anaesthetic assessment should be arranged before administering any medication. Nebulised salbutamol is ineffective in treating laryngeal narrowing caused by epiglottitis. X-rays of the neck may be used, but they can take time to organise and delay urgent airway management. Attempting to visualise the larynx without appropriate senior support and intubation capabilities is dangerous in cases of acute epiglottitis. Flexible nasendoscopy should only be performed with the presence of trained personnel who can secure the airway if necessary.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with complaints of intermittent pain in her left hand for several months, particularly when exposed to cold weather. She describes the pain as spasming and accompanied by numbness and a change in color in her hand. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, and there are no visible signs or symptoms. However, a non-specific rash resembling eczema is present in the flexure creases. Blood tests are conducted, and the patient is referred for further specialized testing. What factors would suggest a primary disease rather than a secondary one?
Your Answer: Presence of autoantibodies
Correct Answer: Onset under 40 years
Explanation:Raynaud’s disease, specifically primary Raynaud’s, is likely in a young woman experiencing bilateral symptoms. The spasming of hand vessels causing color changes, especially in cold weather, strongly suggests Raynaud’s. Onset under 40 years of age is a key feature of primary Raynaud’s, while onset over 40 years points more towards secondary Raynaud’s, which may be associated with a connective tissue disorder. Specialist testing, such as nail fold capillary microscopy, may be performed to rule out secondary Raynaud’s. Autoantibodies would indicate the possibility of a systemic disorder causing secondary Raynaud’s. The presence of a non-specific rash may also suggest secondary Raynaud’s, as many systemic conditions associated with Raynaud’s are also linked to rashes.
Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.
Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is experiencing labour with a suspected case of shoulder dystocia and failure of progression. What is the Wood's screw manoeuvre and how can it be used to deliver the baby?
Your Answer: Put the mother on all fours on the floor
Correct Answer: Put your hand in the vagina and attempt to rotate the foetus 180 degrees
Explanation:The Wood’s screw manoeuvre involves rotating the foetus 180 degrees by inserting a hand into the vagina. This is done in an attempt to release the anterior shoulder from the symphysis pubis. However, before attempting this manoeuvre, it is important to place the woman in the McRoberts position, which involves hyperflexing her legs onto her abdomen and applying suprapubic pressure. This creates additional space for the anterior shoulder. If the McRoberts position fails, the Rubin manoeuvre can be attempted by applying pressure on the posterior shoulder to create more room for the anterior shoulder. If these manoeuvres are unsuccessful, the woman can be placed on all fours and the same techniques can be attempted. If all else fails, an emergency caesarean section may be necessary.
Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.
If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.
Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A five-year-old boy is rescued with his asylum-seeking parents from a boat off the coast. The child is visibly malnourished, and his parents reveal that due to conflict in their home country, he has spent most of his life hidden indoors and in shelters.
Upon skeletal examination, the child displays bossing of the forehead, bowing of his legs, and significant kyphoscoliosis of the spine. What radiological feature is commonly associated with this condition?Your Answer: Widening of joints
Explanation:The widening of wrist joints in a child may indicate the presence of Rickets, a bone disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. This condition results in poorly mineralized bones during growth and development. Radiologically, Rickets is characterized by excess non-mineralized osteoid at the growth plate, leading to joint widening. Ballooning, osteolysis, periarticular erosions, and sclerotic rims are not associated with Rickets, but rather with other bone conditions such as rare bone malignancies, Paget’s disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.
Understanding Rickets: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition called osteomalacia can occur.
There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and lack of sunlight. Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as the rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, and soft skull bones in early life (known as craniotabes).
To diagnose rickets, doctors may perform tests to measure vitamin D levels, serum calcium levels, and alkaline phosphatase levels. Treatment for rickets typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
In summary, rickets is a condition that affects bone development and can lead to soft and easily deformed bones. It is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D and can be predisposed by several factors. Symptoms include bone and joint pain, limb abnormalities, and swelling at the costochondral junction. Treatment involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness of the arms and legs over 1 week. Three weeks earlier, she had an episode of diarrhoea lasting 5 days. Examination confirms distal weakness and ‘glove-and-stocking’ sensory loss.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ascending Paralysis and Glove-and-Stocking Weakness
The patient presents with acute progressive ascending paralysis and glove-and-stocking weakness, which is typical of Guillain–Barré syndrome. However, cranial nerve palsies can also occur. It is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as multiple sclerosis, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, diabetic neuropathy, and acute intermittent porphyria. MS is characterised by lesions separated in both space and time, while subacute combined degeneration of the cord is secondary to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and presents with progressive limb weakness, paraesthesiae, and visual disturbances. Diabetic neuropathy usually causes sensory impairment, not motor impairment, and acute intermittent porphyria manifests with a constellation of symptoms, including abdominal pain, peripheral and autonomic neuropathies, and proximal motor weakness. A thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left eye pain for the third time. She reports experiencing blurred vision and a sensation of something being stuck in her eye each time. She typically wears contact lenses and has accidentally scratched her eye multiple times in the past.
Investigations reveal an epithelial defect with surrounding corneal edema on slit lamp examination, as well as an area of increased uptake on fluorescein examination. What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?Your Answer: Traumatic corneal abrasion
Correct Answer: Corneal ulcer
Explanation:Diagnosing Corneal Ulcers in Contact Lens Wearers
Corneal ulcers are a common complication in contact lens wearers, caused by bacteria adhering to the lens surface and infecting the cornea. Symptoms include pain, photophobia, foreign body sensation, and most importantly, blurred vision. Treatment involves avoiding contact lenses for a few days, re-education on proper application, and topical antibiotics.
Other potential diagnoses, such as bacterial conjunctivitis, traumatic corneal abrasion, Fuchs’ endothelial dystrophy, and keratitis sicca, can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and examination findings. It is important to accurately diagnose and treat corneal ulcers in contact lens wearers to prevent further complications and vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have noticed swelling of the foreskin during urination and inability to retract it. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this condition?
Your Answer: Non-urgent referral to paediatric outpatients clinic
Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 6-months
Explanation:Forcible retraction should be avoided in younger children with phimosis, as it can lead to scar formation. It is important to note that phimosis is normal in children under the age of 2 and typically resolves on its own over time. Therefore, there is no urgent need for referral to paediatrics or paediatric surgeons. While lubricant is not helpful in managing phimosis, topical steroids have been found to be beneficial.
Phimosis in Children: When to Seek Treatment
Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted. In children under two years old, this may be a normal physiological process that will resolve on its own. The British Association of Paediatric Urologists recommends an expectant approach in such cases, as forcible retraction can lead to scarring. However, personal hygiene is important to prevent infections. If the child is over two years old and experiences recurrent balanoposthitis or urinary tract infections, treatment can be considered.
It is important to note that parents should not attempt to forcibly retract the foreskin in young children. This can cause pain and scarring, and may not even be necessary. Instead, parents should focus on teaching their child good hygiene habits to prevent infections. If the child is experiencing recurrent infections or other symptoms, it may be time to seek medical treatment. By following these guidelines, parents can help their child manage phimosis and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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At this stage, what is the most appropriate treatment for John Parker, a 28-year-old IT consultant who has been diagnosed with plaque psoriasis confined to his elbows?
Your Answer: Retinoids
Correct Answer: Dovobet®
Explanation:Treatment Options for Localised Plaque Psoriasis
Localised plaque psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that causes red, scaly patches on the skin. There are several treatment options available, including Dovobet®, Infliximab, Methotrexate, Photochemotherapy (PUVA), and Retinoids.
Dovobet® is an ointment or gel that contains both calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate. It works synergistically to relieve the symptoms of localised plaque psoriasis. However, it is contraindicated for patients with certain conditions and precautions should be taken in prescribing for certain patients.
Infliximab is an anti-TNF alpha biologic agent that is used in systemic arthritis, particularly psoriatic arthritis. It is not used for localised plaque psoriasis.
Methotrexate is an antifolate immunosuppressant and chemotherapy agent. It would not be a first-line therapy for localised psoriasis.
Photochemotherapy (PUVA) is a type of ultraviolet radiation treatment that can be used for localised psoriasis but would not be first line.
Retinoids are derived from vitamin A and cause proliferation and reduced keratinisation of skin cells. They would not be first line for localised psoriasis.
In conclusion, the choice of treatment for localised plaque psoriasis depends on the severity of the condition, the patient’s medical history, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old known epileptic patient presents with a 4-day history of unsteadiness and altered vision. Co-workers have noticed that he seems intoxicated while on the job. He had visited Neurology Outpatients 3 weeks ago. During the examination today, he displays a wide-based gait, past pointing, and intention tremor.
Which medication is the most probable cause of these symptoms?Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Understanding the Narrow Therapeutic Window of Phenytoin and its Toxicity
Phenytoin is a medication commonly prescribed for seizures, but it has a narrow therapeutic window, along with other drugs like theophylline, digoxin, lithium, and aminoglycoside antibiotics. This means that the line between beneficial treatment effects and harmful effects is narrow, requiring careful monitoring of drug levels. Phenytoin toxicity can present as a cerebellar syndrome due to saturation kinetics, where a certain dose can cause a disproportionately high level in the plasma, leading to significant side-effects. Gabapentin can also cause ataxia if overdosed, but it is more likely that the patient has recently increased their phenytoin dose. Sodium valproate can cause nausea, drowsiness, and tremor at toxic levels, but not cerebellar signs. Carbamazepine has a rare but serious side-effect of aplastic anaemia and agranulocytosis, while atenolol is unlikely to be taken by this patient. Understanding the narrow therapeutic window of phenytoin and its potential toxicity is crucial for safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has noticed hair loss, a rash on her face, and mouth ulcers. Additionally, she has been experiencing joint pain and has been taking paracetamol and ibuprofen to manage it. This is her second visit to the clinic, and the registrar has already sent off some immunology tests. The results show a positive dsDNA antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects young women. It is caused by the deposition of immune complexes and can have a wide range of clinical effects, including a butterfly-shaped rash on the cheeks and nose, joint pain, and involvement of multiple organ systems such as the kidneys, lungs, and heart. SLE is associated with the presence of ANA and dsDNA antibodies, as well as low levels of C3 and C4 in the blood.
Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is a syndrome that shares features with several other rheumatological conditions, including SLE, scleroderma, myositis, and rheumatoid arthritis. Common symptoms include fatigue, joint pain, pulmonary involvement, and Raynaud’s phenomenon. MCTD is strongly associated with anti-RNP antibodies.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory arthritis that typically affects middle-aged women and causes symmetrical joint pain and stiffness, particularly in the hands and feet. If left untreated, it can lead to deformities that affect function. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with the presence of autoantibodies such as rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP.
Polymyositis is an autoimmune myositis that causes weakness and loss of muscle mass, particularly in the proximal muscles. Other symptoms may include malaise and difficulty swallowing. Polymyositis is associated with anti-Jo1 autoantibodies.
Systemic sclerosis, also known as diffuse scleroderma, is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects women aged 30-50. It causes collagen accumulation, leading to thickening of the skin and vasculitis affecting small arteries. Systemic sclerosis can affect multiple organ systems, including the skin, lungs, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. It is associated with anti-Scl70 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes is urgently sent to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP). The patient had seen her GP that morning and reported an episode of chest pain that she had experienced the day before. The GP suspected the pain was due to gastro-oesophageal reflux but had performed an electrocardiogram (ECG) and sent a troponin level to be certain. The ECG was normal, but the troponin level came back that afternoon as raised. The GP advised the patient to go to Accident and Emergency, given the possibility of reduced sensitivity to the symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI) in this diabetic patient.
Patient Normal range
High-sensitivity troponin T 20 ng/l <14 ng/l
What should be done based on this test result?Your Answer: Repeat troponin level
Explanation:Management of Suspected Myocardial Infarction
Explanation:
When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction (MI), a troponin level should be checked. If the level is only slightly raised, it does not confirm a diagnosis of MI, but neither does it rule it out. Therefore, a repeat troponin level should be performed at least 3 hours after the first level and sent as urgent.
In an MI, cardiac enzymes are released from dead myocytes into the blood, causing enzyme levels to rise and eventually fall as they are cleared from blood. If the patient has had an MI, the repeat troponin level should either be further raised or further reduced. If the level remains roughly constant, then an alternative cause should be sought, such as pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease, acute kidney injury, pericarditis, heart failure, or sepsis/systemic infection.
Admission to the Coronary Care Unit (CCU) is not warranted yet. Further investigations should be performed to ascertain whether an admission is needed or whether alternative diagnoses should be explored.
Safety-netting and return to the GP should include a repeat troponin level to see if the level is stable (arguing against an MI) or is rising/falling. A repeat electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed, and a thorough history and examination should be obtained to identify any urgent diagnoses that need to be explored before the patient is discharged.
Thrombolysis carries a risk for bleeding, so it requires a clear indication, which has not yet been obtained. Therefore, it should not be administered without proper evaluation.
The alanine transaminase (ALT) level has been used as a marker of MI in the past, but it has been since superseded as it is not specific for myocardial damage. In fact, it is now used as a component of liver function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of wheezing, chest tightness, cough, and difficulty breathing for the past three days. She reports that this started shortly after being exposed to a significant amount of hydrogen sulfide at work. She has no prior history of respiratory issues and is a non-smoker. What would be the most suitable initial management approach to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Inhaled corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Inhaled bronchodilators
Explanation:Management of Reactive Airway Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms within 24 hours of exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, pre-existing respiratory conditions must be absent, and symptoms must occur after a single exposure to high concentrations of irritants. A positive methacholine challenge test and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests are also indicative of RADS.
Inhaled bronchodilators, such as salbutamol, are the first-line treatment for RADS. Cromolyn sodium may be added in select cases, while inhaled corticosteroids are used if bronchodilators are ineffective. Oral steroids are not as effective in RADS as they are in asthma. High-dose vitamin D may be useful in some cases, but it is not routinely recommended for initial management.
In summary, the management of RADS involves the use of inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line treatment, with other medications added in if necessary. A proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with weakness and a skin rash on his upper eyelids. He also complains of a cough which has been present for 3 months. He has a 50 pack-year smoking history. On examination he is noted to have symmetrical proximal muscle weakness.
What is the most appropriate test from the options below?Your Answer: Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated peptide) antibody
Correct Answer: Anti-Jo 1 antibody
Explanation:The symptoms indicate the possibility of dermatomyositis, and the presence of anti-Jo 1 antibody can aid in confirming the diagnosis.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are observing an antenatal clinic and your next patient is a 26-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant with her first child. Take a brief history of this patient.
The patient has a past medical history of coeliac disease and hypothyroidism. She takes no regular medications and has no known drug allergies. Her family history is relevant for her father has type 1 diabetes. She has never smoked and since pregnancy, has stopped drinking alcohol.
What additional tests, if any, should be arranged for this patient based on her medical history?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests at 24-28 weeks
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Pregnant women with a first-degree relative with diabetes should be screened for gestational diabetes with an OGTT at 24-28 weeks. No further tests are required, but thyroid function tests should be done in each trimester for those with an existing diagnosis of hypothyroidism. OGTT should not be done at 18-22 weeks.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old G3P2 presents to the emergency department after experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Upon arrival, her blood pressure is measured at 190/125 mmHg. The paramedics administered intramuscular magnesium sulfate to treat her seizures and she is currently receiving an IV infusion of the same medication. However, her respiratory rate is only 10 breaths per minute, indicating possible respiratory depression caused by the magnesium sulfate. What is the preferred drug for reversing this respiratory depression?
Your Answer: Naloxone
Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:Magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression can be treated with calcium gluconate as the first-line option. Bicarbonates are administered to prevent cardiovascular complications resulting from tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Flumazenil is used to counter benzodiazepine overdose, while naloxone is the drug of choice for reversing respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of vaginal discomfort, itching, and pain during sexual intercourse. Upon excluding other possible causes of her symptoms, the doctor diagnoses her with atrophic vaginitis. What additional treatments can be used in conjunction with topical estrogen cream to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Lubricants and moisturisers
Explanation:When experiencing atrophic vaginitis, the dryness of the vaginal mucosa can cause pain, itching, and dyspareunia. The first-line treatment for this condition is topical oestrogen cream, which helps to restore the vaginal mucosa. However, lubricants and moisturisers can also provide short-term relief while waiting for the topical oestrogen cream to take effect. Oestrogen secreting pessaries are an alternative to topical oestrogen cream, but using them together would result in an excessive dose of oestrogen. Sitz baths are useful for irritation and itching of the perineum, but they do not address internal vaginal symptoms. Warm or cold compresses may provide temporary relief, but they are not a long-term solution.
Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is referred to the Palliative Care team for assessment and planning of further care.
Which of the following best describes the role of palliative care?Your Answer: Pain management
Correct Answer: Symptom control
Explanation:The Focus of Palliative Care: Symptom Control
Palliative care is a specialized medical care that aims to improve the quality of life of patients with serious or life-threatening illnesses. The primary focus of palliative care is on anticipating, preventing, diagnosing, and treating symptoms experienced by patients, regardless of their diagnosis. Unlike hospice care, palliative care does not depend on prognosis.
The goal of palliative care is to improve the quality of life for both the patient and their family. Palliative care aims to treat symptoms rather than modify the disease, and it is not focused on curative or life-prolonging care. Pain management is an important aspect of palliative care, but the control of all disease symptoms is the best answer. Overall, the focus of palliative care is on symptom control to improve the quality of life for patients and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of reduced night vision. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, it is noted that they have a history of pancreatic insufficiency and experience chronic diarrhea and malabsorption.
Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with issues related to night vision?Your Answer: Vitamin E
Correct Answer: Vitamin A
Explanation:The Role of Vitamin A in Night Vision
Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a protein found in the retina that is responsible for converting light into energy. This process involves the conversion of vitamin A into 11-cis retinal or all-trans retinol, which is stored in the pigment layer of the retina. Isomerase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the production of 11-cis retinal, which is then used to produce rhodopsin.
A deficiency in vitamin A can lead to a problem with night vision, as the body is unable to produce enough rhodopsin to respond to changes in light. This can result in difficulty seeing in low light conditions, such as when driving at night or in dimly lit environments. It is important to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain healthy vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his GP. He had presented a week ago with malaise, headache, and myalgia, which was followed by a dry cough and fever. Despite a course of amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted. At the time of referral, he complained of cough, mild dyspnea, global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. On examination, he appeared unwell, had a fever of 39°C, and a maculopapular rash on his upper body. Fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest, and mild neck stiffness was noted. Investigations revealed abnormal levels of Hb, WBC, reticulocytes, Na, creatinine, bilirubin, alk phos, and AST, and patchy consolidation in both mid-zones on chest x-ray. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Mycoplasma pneumonia commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years and presents with systemic upset, dry cough, fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. It can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme. Haemolysis is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness and right posterior lower chest pain. This occurs three weeks after undergoing right total hip replacement surgery. The patient has a medical history of bronchiectasis and asthma, but denies any recent change in sputum colour or quantity. On air, oxygen saturation is 89%, but rises to 95% on (35%) oxygen. The patient is apyrexial. Chest examination reveals coarse leathery crackles at both lung bases. Peak flow rate is 350 L/min and chest radiograph shows bronchiectatic changes, also at both lung bases. Full blood count is normal.
What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct next?Your Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan
Correct Answer: CT-pulmonary angiography
Explanation:CT Pulmonary Angiography as the Preferred Diagnostic Tool for Pulmonary Embolism
Computerised tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the most suitable diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. This is particularly true for patients with chronic lung disease, as a ventilation perfusion scan may be difficult to interpret. In this case, the patient almost certainly has a pulmonary embolism, making CT pulmonary angiography the investigation of choice.
It is important to note that while ventilation perfusion scans are useful in diagnosing pulmonary embolisms, they may not be the best option for patients with underlying lung disease. This is because the scan can be challenging to interpret, leading to inaccurate results. CT pulmonary angiography, on the other hand, provides a more accurate and reliable diagnosis, making it the preferred diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He mentions experiencing a painful, burning sensation in his legs when he walks long distances and feeling cold in his lower extremities. He has no history of dyslipidaemia. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 37.1 °C, and his blood pressure in the left arm is 174/96 mmHg, with a heart rate of 78 bpm, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Bilateral 1+ dorsalis pedis pulses are noted, and his lower extremities feel cool to the touch. Cardiac auscultation does not reveal any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His abdominal examination is unremarkable, and no bruits are heard on auscultation. His renal function tests show a creatinine level of 71 μmol/l (50–120 μmol/l), which is his baseline. What is the most likely defect present in this patient?
Your Answer: Bilateral lower extremity deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest coarctation of the aorta, a condition where the aortic lumen narrows just after the branches of the aortic arch. This causes hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities, leading to lower extremity claudication. Chest X-rays may show notching of the ribs. Treatment involves surgical resection of the narrowed lumen. Bilateral lower extremity deep vein thrombosis, patent ductus arteriosus, renal artery stenosis, and atrial septal defects are other conditions that can cause different symptoms and require different treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has noticed a gradual decrease in hearing on her left side over the past six months. She also reports difficulty walking and a tendency to lean towards the left side. Upon referral to the ENT Department, the Consultant observes nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, as well as sensorineural loss in her left ear. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this patient?
Your Answer: Vestibular colorimetric test
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma: An Overview
Acoustic neuroma is a type of tumor that affects the vestibular nerve and can cause symptoms such as unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests are available.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most reliable test for detecting acoustic neuroma, as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.
Plain computerized tomography (CT) scan can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss, but it cannot detect all cases of acoustic neuroma. Otoscopy is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.
Pure tone audiometry (PTA) is the best initial screening test for acoustic neuroma, as only 5% of patients will have a normal test. Brainstem-evoked response audiometry can be used as a further screening measure in patients with unexplained asymmetries on standard audiometric testing.
Vestibular testing has limited utility as a screening test for acoustic neuroma, but a decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen in some cases. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose acoustic neuroma and guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 30
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting, which started earlier today.
On examination, the patient is not jaundiced and there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastrium. The blood results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 70 μmmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Bilirubin 25 mmol/l 2–17 mmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase 120 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 40 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Amylase 200 U/l < 200 U/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Analgesia, intravenous (iv) fluids, iv antibiotics, ultrasound (US) abdomen
Explanation:The patient is suspected to have acute cholecystitis, and a confirmation of the diagnosis will rely on an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. To manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent sepsis, it is essential to administer intravenous antibiotics and fluids. Antiemetics may also be necessary to prevent dehydration from vomiting. It is recommended to keep the patient ‘nil by mouth’ until the scan is performed and consider prescribing analgesia for pain relief. An NG tube is not necessary at this stage, and an OGD or ERCP may be appropriate depending on the scan results. The NICE guidelines recommend cholecystectomy within a week of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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