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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right cheek that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. It has now developed a central ulcer. What is the probable type of this lesion?
Your Answer: Cowpox
Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma
A slow-growing lesion on the face with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe is a possible indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. In contrast, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma.
Another skin condition that may be mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is seborrhoeic keratoses. However, seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the smooth surface of basal cell carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A toddler with macrosomia has had a difficult delivery, owing to shoulder dystocia. The obstetrician pulled the child’s head downwards towards the floor to disengage the anterior shoulder from below the pubic bones. When the child is having a check-up prior to discharge, the paediatrician notes that the left upper limb is adducted and medially rotated, with extension at the elbow joint. When questioned, the mother admits that the child has not been moving it.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Erb–Duchenne palsy due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus
Explanation:Differentiating Brachial Plexus Injuries: Causes and Symptoms
The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the spinal cord and supplies the upper limb. Trauma to this network can result in various types of injuries, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some of the common types of brachial plexus injuries and their distinguishing features:
Erb-Duchenne Palsy: This injury occurs due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus, typically during obstructed labor or delivery. The affected muscles include those supplied by the musculocutaneous, radial, and axillary nerves, resulting in adduction and medial rotation of the arm, wrist drop, and sensory loss along the posterolateral aspect of the limb.
Isolated Radial Nerve Injury: This type of injury is associated with paralysis of the wrist and digital extensors, as well as the triceps. However, medial rotation of the humerus is not affected.
Klumpke’s Palsy: This injury is caused by trauma to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, often during difficult delivery or sudden upward stretching of the upper limb. It results in claw hand due to damage to T1, causing paralysis of the short muscles of the hand.
Isolated Axillary Nerve Injury: With this type of injury, the wrist extensors function normally.
Isolated Musculocutaneous Nerve Injury: This injury is not associated with wrist drop.
In summary, understanding the specific symptoms associated with each type of brachial plexus injury can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of depressed mood. He reports feeling fatigued and having suicidal thoughts on a daily basis. His appearance is disheveled and he has made multiple suicide attempts in the past few months. The psychiatrist decides to initiate electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his depression, scheduled to begin in a week. The patient is currently taking 100 mg of sertraline daily. What is the appropriate course of action regarding his medication prior to ECT treatment?
Your Answer: Increase the sertraline daily dose
Correct Answer: Reduce the sertraline daily dose
Explanation:Before commencing ECT treatment, it is important to reduce the dosage of antidepressant medication, but not to stop it completely. The recommended approach is to gradually decrease the dosage to the minimum level. In some cases, an increased dosage of antidepressants may be added towards the end of the ECT course. It is not advisable to increase the dosage or discontinue the medication altogether. Switching to an alternative psychiatric drug, such as another SSRI or lithium, is also not recommended as it can be risky before ECT treatment.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not result in feeding challenges during the neonatal phase?
Your Answer: Hiatus hernia
Correct Answer: Physiological jaundice
Explanation:Feeding Difficulty and Physiological Jaundice
Feeding difficulty is a common problem among infants, but it is not associated with physiological jaundice. Physiological jaundice is a benign condition that is short-lived and does not generally cause any symptoms. This means that it is not related to feeding difficulties that infants may experience.
It is important for parents to be aware of the signs of feeding difficulty in their infants, such as difficulty latching, poor weight gain, and excessive crying during feeding. These symptoms may indicate an underlying medical condition that requires prompt attention. On the other hand, physiological jaundice is a normal occurrence in many newborns and typically resolves on its own without any treatment.
In summary, while feeding difficulty is a common problem among infants, it is not associated with physiological jaundice. Parents should be aware of the signs of feeding difficulty and seek medical attention if necessary, but they can rest assured that physiological jaundice is a benign condition that does not generally cause any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old left-handed man with permanent atrial fibrillation comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty finding words and weakness in his right arm and leg. The symptoms appeared suddenly and have persisted for 24 hours. He reports no changes in his vision.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Total anterior circulation syndrome stroke (TACS)
Correct Answer: Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS)
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Strokes: PACS, TACS, TIA, POCS, and LACS
Strokes can be classified into different types based on the location and severity of the brain damage. Here are some key features of five common types of strokes:
Partial anterior circulation syndrome stroke (PACS): This type of stroke affects a part of the brain’s anterior circulation, which supplies blood to the front of the brain. Symptoms may include motor and speech deficits, but not hemianopia (loss of vision in one half of the visual field).
Total anterior circulation syndrome stroke (TACS): This type of stroke affects the entire anterior circulation, leading to a combination of motor deficit, speech deficit, and hemianopia.
Transient ischaemic attack (TIA): This is a temporary episode of neurological symptoms caused by a brief interruption of blood flow to the brain. Symptoms typically last no longer than 24 hours.
Posterior circulation syndrome stroke (POCS): This type of stroke affects the posterior circulation, which supplies blood to the back of the brain. Symptoms may include brainstem symptoms and signs arising from cranial nerve lesions, cerebellar signs, or ipsilateral motor/sensory deficits.
Lacunar syndrome stroke (LACS): This type of stroke is caused by a small infarct (tissue damage) in the deep brain structures, such as the internal capsule. Symptoms may include isolated motor or sensory deficits.
Understanding the different types of strokes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively. If you or someone you know experiences any symptoms of a stroke, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 20-year-old man presented to the psychiatry outpatients department with a sense of unsettling alteration in his personality. He expressed feeling peculiar, as if he is not his usual self. Despite being anxious and tense, he was unable to identify the exact nature of this change. What term best characterizes this sensation?
Your Answer: Depersonalisation
Explanation:Depersonalisation
Depersonalisation is a distressing experience where an individual feels disconnected from their own body and reality. It is often described as feeling like living in a dream or being in immediate danger of disappearing. Despite cognitive functioning remaining intact, the sufferer may interpret the experience as a sign of losing their mind. This can lead to the development of an autochthonous delusion, which arises spontaneously.
The delusional mood is a sense of unease that can be resolved when a delusional belief forms. Over valued ideas are also present in depersonalisation, but they are not held with the same level of fixity as delusional beliefs. Overall, depersonalisation can be a frightening and disturbing experience that can leave individuals feeling disconnected from themselves and their surroundings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a headache. During the examination, she mentions that the lights are bothering her eyes and the doctor observes a purpuric rash on her chest. Her respiratory rate is 22/min, heart rate is 140/min, and blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg. Which of the following tests should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Performing a lumbar puncture is not recommended for patients with meningococcal septicaemia, which is a contraindication. In cases of suspected meningitis and sepsis, a coagulation screen and blood glucose may be ordered in secondary care, while blood cultures and serum lactate are typically included in the sepsis 6 protocol.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with gradual onset proximal shoulder and pelvic girdle muscular pains and stiffness. She is experiencing difficulty getting dressed in the morning and cannot raise her arms above the horizontal. She is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and recently completed a course of clarithromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection (penicillin-allergic). Blood tests were conducted, and the results are as follows:
Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
WBC 12.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 66 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 64 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 32 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 55 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 37 g/L (35 - 50)
CRP 72 mg/L (< 5)
ESR 68 mg/L (< 30)
Creatine kinase 58 U/L (35 - 250)
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyositis
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with an increase in creatine kinase levels. Instead, blood tests typically reveal signs of inflammation, such as elevated white blood cell count, C-reactive protein, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. These findings, combined with the patient’s medical history and demographic information, strongly suggest polymyalgia rheumatica as the diagnosis. In contrast, conditions such as polymyositis and dermatomyositis typically involve a significant rise in creatine kinase levels, and dermatomyositis also presents with a distinctive rash. Fibromyalgia does not typically show any signs of inflammation on blood tests. While statin-induced myopathy is a possibility based on the patient’s history, the absence of elevated creatine kinase levels makes this diagnosis less likely.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 21-year-old with type one diabetes is brought to the emergency department due to feeling unwell for the past few days. Upon examination, his blood glucose level is found to be 25.7 mmol/l and his ketone level is 5.8 mmol/l. What is the expected result of the arterial blood gas test?
Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
Explanation:Based on the information provided in the presentation and the patient’s medical history, it can be concluded that the patient is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which results in metabolic acidosis and an elevated anion gap.
Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy
Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is academic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.
The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.
To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old gravida 4, para 3 undergoes an assisted delivery with mid-cavity forceps following a prolonged second stage. After a couple of weeks, the patient visits her GP complaining of difficulty walking. Upon examination, she displays a limp in her left leg, a numb thigh, weak knee extension, and the absence of patellar reflex. Her right leg appears normal. What nerve has been affected by the forceps delivery?
Your Answer: Femoral nerve
Explanation:The observed symptoms indicate that the femoral nerve has been affected. Although nerve damage during instrumental delivery is uncommon, it can occur during challenging deliveries and mid-cavity forceps use. The table below outlines the nerves that may be impacted by forceps and the corresponding clinical manifestations.
Nerve Clinical features
Femoral nerve Weakness in extending the knee, absence of the patellar reflex, and numbness in the thigh
Lumbosacral trunk Weakness in dorsiflexing the ankle and numbness in the calf and foot.Selected Facts about Lower Limb Anatomy
The lower limb anatomy is a complex system that is often tested in medical examinations. One of the important aspects of this system is the nerves that control the motor and sensory functions of the lower limb. The femoral nerve, for example, controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and is responsible for the sensation in the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. This nerve is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds.
Another important nerve is the obturator nerve, which controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. Injuries to this nerve can occur in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, on the other hand, does not control any motor function but is responsible for the sensation in the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh. Compression of this nerve near the ASIS can lead to meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve.
The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. This nerve is not commonly injured as it is deep and well-protected. The common peroneal nerve, which controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, is often injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and is commonly injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve results in a positive Trendelenburg sign. Finally, the inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve results in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as an inability to jump or climb stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 21-year-old male student is admitted in the second week of university after a night-out for a basketball club social.
He presents with rigidity, disorientation and a temperature of 39.5ºC. You suspect he may have serotonin syndrome.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible in this case?Your Answer: Ecstasy
Explanation:Overdosing on ecstasy can lead to serotonin syndrome, which is typically linked to SSRI and MAOI antidepressants. Symptoms can appear within a few hours and include sweating and fever. Physical signs may include increased reflexes, muscle spasms, and enlarged pupils.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with a past medical history of internal hemorrhoids presents with a recent exacerbation of symptoms. He reports having to manually reduce his piles after bowel movements. What grade of hemorrhoids is he experiencing?
Your Answer: Grade III
Explanation:Understanding Haemorrhoids
Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.
Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Correct
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A family consisting of a husband, wife, and their toddler son visit a genetic counselling session. The son has recently been diagnosed with hereditary haemochromatosis, and both parents are carriers. They are worried as they had plans to expand their family.
What is the likelihood of their next child having the same genotype?Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.
When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman at 16 week gestation presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with complaints of light vaginal bleeding, fevers for 2 days, and increasing abdominal pain for 6 hours. On examination, she has diffuse abdominal tenderness and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 39.2ºC and blood pressure is 112/78 mmHg. Her full blood count shows Hb of 107 g/L, platelets of 189 * 109/L, and WBC of 13.2 * 109/L. An ultrasound confirms miscarriage. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Oral mifepristone
Correct Answer: Manual vacuum aspiration under local anaesthetic
Explanation:If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of haemorrhage, expectant management is not a suitable option for miscarriage. In such cases, NICE recommends either medical management (using oral or vaginal misoprostol) or surgical management (including manual vacuum aspiration). In this particular case, surgical management is the only option as the patient has evidence of infection, possibly due to septic miscarriage. Syntocinon is used for medical management of postpartum haemorrhage, while methotrexate is used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy. Oral mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol for termination of pregnancy, but it is not recommended by NICE for the management of miscarriage.
Management Options for Miscarriage
Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.
Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.
Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.
It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Among the various chromosomal anomalies, which one has the highest incidence of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a multisystem autoimmune disease associated with genetic defects in the immune system and triggered by environmental factors?
Your Answer: Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ syndrome)
Correct Answer: 47,XXY (Klinefelter’s syndrome)
Explanation:Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Association with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have a 14-fold increased risk of developing SLE compared to those with a normal karyotype, although the exact mechanism for this is unknown. However, there is no evidence to suggest an increased risk of SLE in individuals with Down syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, or Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ syndrome). Bloom syndrome, which is associated with a short stature, skin sensitivity to sun exposure, and an increased risk of malignancies, also does not appear to increase the risk of SLE. It is important to understand the potential associations between chromosomal abnormalities and SLE to better manage and treat patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male patient visits their GP for a routine medication review. They are currently taking ramipril and amlodipine for hypertension, bisoprolol and digoxin for atrial fibrillation, atorvastatin for hypercholesterolemia, and PRN paracetamol for osteoarthritis. The GP decides to change one of their medications. One week after starting the new medication, the patient presents to the emergency department with symptoms of palpitations, nausea and vomiting, lethargy, and disturbances in their color vision. An ECG reveals an AV nodal block. Which of the following new medications is most likely responsible for this event?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:The use of thiazides can lead to the development of digoxin toxicity, as evidenced by the patient’s symptoms of palpitations, nausea & vomiting, and lethargy, along with the presence of AV nodal block on the ECG. Pravastatin does not have any known interactions with digoxin, while bendroflumethiazide and other diuretics may also contribute to the development of toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Losartan, on the other hand, is not associated with any interactions with digoxin.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 36-year-old male intravenous drug user presented to the emergency department with fever, shortness of breath and headache. During examination, a pansystolic murmur was detected. His temperature was 39.5ºC and his heart rate was 130/min. Blood tests conducted in the emergency department showed elevated levels of WBC and CRP. He was admitted to the ward and started on empirical antibiotic treatment. However, on the second day of admission, he became anuric and a blood sample revealed abnormal levels of Na+, K+, urea, and creatinine. Which medication administered during this admission is most likely responsible for the patient's deterioration on day 2?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:The patient, who was an intravenous drug user, presented with symptoms of acute infective endocarditis and was likely given a combination of antibiotics and analgesics. However, on the second day of admission, he developed acute kidney injury, which was most likely caused by the nephrotoxic aminoglycoside antibiotic, gentamicin. Co-amoxiclav, morphine, and paracetamol are not common causes of acute kidney injury, although their doses may need to be adjusted in patients with renal impairment.
Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.
It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 40-year-old intravenous drug user (ivDU) presents with fever, cough, and SOB. Upon echocardiogram, severe tricuspid regurgitation and two vegetations on the valve are observed. What is the most probable organism to be cultured from the patient's blood?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Infective Endocarditis: Causes, Microbiology, and Clinical Features
Infective endocarditis is a serious condition that can affect individuals with certain predisposing factors, such as a previous episode of endocarditis, rheumatic heart disease, intravenous drug use, prosthetic valves, congenital heart disease, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. The most common causative organisms include viridans streptococci, Streptococcus bovis, Staphylococcus aureus (especially in intravenous drug users), enterococcal, gram-negative bacteria, and Staphylococcus epidermidis (in patients with prosthetic valves).
Clinical features of infective endocarditis include fever, anorexia and weight loss, new or changing murmur, splinter hemorrhages, clubbing, splenomegaly, petechiae, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, systemic emboli, and hematuria. While 50% of cases occur in previously normal valves (native valve endocarditis), it is typically an acute presentation.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Pneumocystis carinii (now known as Pneumocystis jirovecii), and Legionella pneumophila are not common causes of infective endocarditis. While Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause infective endocarditis, it is less likely than S. aureus, especially in intravenous drug users.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man has been experiencing itchy skin, particularly after bathing, and headaches. He has been diagnosed with a condition that requires regular venesection and medical therapy to reduce his risk of clots. Assuming he has received lifestyle advice, what is the appropriate medical management for him?
Your Answer: Apixaban
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Aspirin is the recommended medication for patients with polycythaemia vera to lower the risk of thrombotic events caused by hyperviscosity. This patient is experiencing symptoms of hyperviscosity due to an excess of red blood cells in their serum. Aspirin works by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) and reducing the production of thromboxane from arachidonic acid, which decreases platelet aggregation and lowers the risk of thrombotic events.
Apixaban is not the first-line prophylaxis for polycythaemia vera and is therefore incorrect for this patient. It is typically used for provoked or unprovoked deep vein thrombosis by directly inhibiting activated factor X (Xa) and preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Clopidogrel is an anti-platelet drug commonly used in acute coronary syndrome management but is not recognized as a treatment for polycythaemia vera in national guidelines, making it an incorrect option for this patient.
Hydroxyurea is a chemotherapy drug that is a recognized treatment for polycythaemia vera. However, it is not appropriate as a first-line option for thrombotic event prophylaxis, and aspirin should be the initial medication prescribed for this patient.
Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.
The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.
The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 26-year-old man has been hit on the side of his head with a cricket bat. Upon initial examination, he has a Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) of 12 and shows some bruising at the point of impact. There are no indications of a basal skull fracture or any neurological impairments. He has not experienced vomiting or seizures. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Perform a CT head scan within 1 hour
Explanation:When it comes to detecting significant brain injuries in emergency situations, CT scans of the head are currently the preferred method of investigation. MRI scans are not typically used due to safety concerns, logistical challenges, and resource limitations. If a patient’s initial assessment in the emergency department reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13, a CT head scan should be performed within one hour. The specific indications for an immediate CT head scan in this scenario can be found in the guidelines provided by NICE (2014) for the assessment and early management of head injuries.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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